-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 35-year-old man who is generally healthy visits his doctor to discuss planning a second child. His main concern is that his first child has sickle cell anemia. Both he and his partner have had genetic testing and are both carriers of the sickle cell trait.
Which of the following best describes the likelihood of his next child having sickle cell anemia?Your Answer: 25%
Explanation:Understanding the Inheritance of Cystic Fibrosis
Cystic fibrosis (CF) is an autosomal-recessive condition that affects many individuals worldwide. To understand the inheritance of CF, it is important to know that a child inherits one copy of the gene from each parent. If both parents are carriers of the faulty gene, there is a 1 in 4 chance of their child being affected by the condition.
If the child inherits one normal and one abnormal gene, they become a carrier of CF. The chance of this happening is 50%. If the child inherits two normal genes, they will not be affected nor be a carrier of CF, and the chance of this happening is 25%. However, if the child inherits two copies of the faulty gene, they will be affected by the condition, and the chance of this happening is also 25%.
It is important to note that the fact that the first child has CF does not affect the risk to subsequent children. The risk remains the same for each child, as each child inherits a copy of the gene from each parent. Understanding the inheritance of CF can help individuals make informed decisions about family planning and genetic testing.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old female patient visits the clinic and expresses concern about breast cancer screening. She is anxious because her sister was recently diagnosed with breast cancer. She wants to know if she should undergo breast cancer screening. The patient is in good health and has no other family history. What is the best course of action to take next?
Your Answer: Only refer to the breast clinic if a lump is found on breast examination
Correct Answer: Refer to the breast clinic
Explanation:A referral to secondary care is necessary when there is a history of breast cancer in the patient’s paternal family. This is because breast cancer may not be detectable during a routine breast examination, and waiting for a screening appointment could result in a delayed diagnosis. It is important to note that a review in one year may also lead to a delay in diagnosis, as the patient is at a high risk for familial breast cancer.
Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme. Mammograms are provided every three years, and women over 70 years are encouraged to make their own appointments. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually.
For those with familial breast cancer, NICE guidelines recommend referral if there is a family history of breast cancer with any of the following: diagnosis before age 40, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, sarcoma in a relative under 45 years, glioma or childhood adrenal cortical carcinomas, complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age, or paternal history of breast cancer with two or more relatives on the father’s side. Women at increased risk due to family history may be offered screening at a younger age. Referral to a breast clinic is recommended for those with a first-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer before age 40, a first-degree male relative with breast cancer, a first-degree relative with bilateral breast cancer before age 50, two first-degree relatives or one first-degree and one second-degree relative with breast cancer, or a first- or second-degree relative with breast and ovarian cancer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 38-year-old female patient comes to the clinic and inquires about breast cancer screening. She mentions that her mother was recently diagnosed with breast cancer. Upon further inquiry, she reveals that her aunt (on her mother's side) had ovarian cancer and her uncle (on her father's side) had colorectal cancer. What is the next course of action in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Refer to the breast clinic
Explanation:If an individual has a family history of breast cancer and ovarian cancer, they should be referred to a breast clinic at a younger age. This is especially important if they have a first-degree or second-degree relative who was diagnosed with breast cancer at any age, as well as a first-degree or second-degree relative who was diagnosed with ovarian cancer at any age (with one of these relatives being a first-degree relative). It is not safe to wait for routine screening, as there may be a risk of familial breast cancer. It is also important to note that breast cancer can still be present even if there is no lump detected during examination. A colonoscopy is not necessary in this case, as the individual is at an increased risk of breast cancer.
Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme. Mammograms are provided every three years, and women over 70 years are encouraged to make their own appointments. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually.
For those with familial breast cancer, NICE guidelines recommend referral if there is a family history of breast cancer with any of the following: diagnosis before age 40, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, sarcoma in a relative under 45 years, glioma or childhood adrenal cortical carcinomas, complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age, or paternal history of breast cancer with two or more relatives on the father’s side. Women at increased risk due to family history may be offered screening at a younger age. Referral to a breast clinic is recommended for those with a first-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer before age 40, a first-degree male relative with breast cancer, a first-degree relative with bilateral breast cancer before age 50, two first-degree relatives or one first-degree and one second-degree relative with breast cancer, or a first- or second-degree relative with breast and ovarian cancer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
Given that PKU is an autosomal-recessive condition that can be diagnosed at birth or in adolescence and adulthood, a teenager seeks genetic counselling. His mother and brother have PKU, while his father is a carrier but does not have the disease. The teenager himself does not have PKU. What is the probability that he is a carrier of the disease?
Your Answer: 100%
Explanation:Understanding Autosomal-Recessive Inheritance and Phenylketonuria (PKU)
Autosomal-recessive diseases require both parents to carry the gene, with one parent having the disease and the other being a carrier. In the case of Phenylketonuria (PKU), a specific enzyme deficiency leads to the accumulation of phenylalanine and a deficiency of tyrosine, resulting in reduced melanin and pigmented areas of the brain being affected. PKU is tested for at birth using the Guthrie test and can be treated by removing phenylalanine from the diet.
In the given scenario, the teenager’s mother has the disease and his father is a carrier. This means there is a 100% chance that the teenager has at least one abnormal copy of the gene, making him a carrier. It is important to understand the inheritance pattern of autosomal-recessive diseases to identify carriers and prevent mental retardation in affected children.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 6-year-old girl is presenting with swelling of her hands and feet and an abnormally wide neck. Upon karyotyping, it is discovered that she has monosomy X and 45X. During physical examination, mild aortic stenosis is observed. What congenital condition is most likely linked to this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Coarctation of the aorta
Explanation:Differentiating Coarctation of the Aorta from Other Congenital Heart Diseases
Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital heart disease that can present in different forms and be associated with various genetic abnormalities. Preductal coarctation of the aorta, which is more common in Turner syndrome, is characterized by aortic stenosis proximal to the insertion of the ductus arteriosus. On the other hand, post-ductal coarctation is the adult type of the disease and is not associated with any genetic abnormalities. Patent ductus arteriosus, another congenital heart disease, is not associated with any genetic abnormalities. Tetralogy of Fallot, which is associated with di George syndrome, and transposition of the great vessels are also congenital heart diseases that can be differentiated from coarctation of the aorta. Understanding the different clinical features and associations of these diseases is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor concerned about her family's history of inherited illnesses. Her grandmother experienced vision loss at the age of 70, while her mother began to have similar symptoms at the age of 50. What is the genetic mechanism responsible for the earlier age of onset in each generation?
Your Answer: Anticipation
Explanation:Genetic Phenomena: Anticipation, Incomplete Penetrance, Genetic Imprinting, Mosaicism, and Translocation of a Chromosome
Genetics is a complex field that involves the study of inherited traits and conditions. There are several genetic phenomena that can occur, each with its own unique characteristics and implications.
Anticipation is a term used to describe inherited conditions that become more severe and have an earlier onset in subsequent generations. This is often associated with trinucleotide repeats of DNA bases, which can lead to an expansion of the repeat and an increase in severity.
Incomplete penetrance refers to the likelihood of a condition being present in individuals with a certain trait. In some cases, only some people who inherit a certain trait will develop the associated condition, while others will not.
Genetic imprinting involves the silencing of one copy of an allele, which can lead to conditions such as Angelman and Prader-Willi syndromes.
Mosaicism is the presence of two cell lines with different genetic compositions within the same individual. This can occur in conditions such as mosaic trisomy 21.
Translocation of a chromosome involves the exchange of genetic material between non-homologous chromosomes. This can lead to conditions such as chronic myeloid leukemia, which is associated with the Philadelphia chromosome resulting from a translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22.
Understanding these genetic phenomena is important for diagnosing and treating inherited conditions, as well as for predicting the likelihood of certain conditions in future generations.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old woman is seeking your assistance in getting a referral to a clinical geneticist. She has a family history of Huntington's disease, with her grandfather having died from the condition and her father recently diagnosed. She wants to learn more about the disease and its genetic inheritance. Which of the following statements is accurate?
Your Answer: Huntington's disease is caused by a defect on chromosome 18
Correct Answer: Huntington's disease is caused by a defect on chromosome 4
Explanation:The cause of Huntington’s disease is a flaw in the huntingtin gene located on chromosome 4, resulting in a degenerative and irreversible neurological disorder. It is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern and affects both genders equally.
Understanding Huntington’s Disease
Huntington’s disease is a progressive and incurable neurodegenerative condition that is inherited through an autosomal dominant pattern. It is caused by a trinucleotide repeat disorder, specifically an expansion of CAG. This results in the degeneration of cholinergic and GABAergic neurons in the striatum of the basal ganglia due to a defect in the huntingtin gene on chromosome 4.
One notable feature of Huntington’s disease is the phenomenon of anticipation, where the disease presents at an earlier age in successive generations. Symptoms typically develop after the age of 35 and include chorea, dystonia, saccadic eye movements, personality changes such as irritability, apathy, and depression, as well as intellectual impairment.
It is important to note that there is currently no cure for Huntington’s disease, and treatment is focused on managing symptoms and improving quality of life. Early diagnosis and genetic counseling can be helpful for individuals and families affected by this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 35-year-old woman attends her first antenatal appointment at 10 weeks’ gestation. This is her second pregnancy. She has a history of hypertension and is taking medication for it. She is offered antenatal screening for chromosomal abnormalities, including Down syndrome.
Which of the following tests is used in antenatal screening for Down syndrome?Your Answer: Nuchal thickness
Explanation:Prenatal Screening Tests for Fetal Abnormalities
During pregnancy, various screening tests are conducted to detect any fetal abnormalities. One such test is the measurement of nuchal thickness, which is the fluid-filled sac between the back of the neck and the skin. An increase in thickness is associated with a decreased chance of normal birth and can detect 60-70% of Down syndrome cases. Other screening tests include measuring pregnancy-associated plasma protein-A (PAPP-A), b-human chorionic gonadotrophin (β-hCG), E3, and α-fetoprotein (AFP). Low PAPP-A, in combination with free β-hCG, is 65% accurate in diagnosing Down syndrome. The biparietal diameter (BPD) is the diameter across the skull and is associated with neurodevelopmental outcomes. Dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate is an adrenal androgen that is not influenced by pregnancy. Ultrasound assessment for herniation of the dural sac is used to screen for spina bifida. Utero-placental Doppler is used to identify at-risk women for pre-eclampsia and intrauterine growth restriction but is not useful in detecting Down syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 6-month-old infant presents to the Emergency Department with respiratory distress. The child has epicanthic folds and a single palmar crease. Genetic testing confirms an autosomal trisomy. What is the most frequent cardiac anomaly observed in infants with this disorder?
Your Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect
Explanation:Cardiac Abnormalities in Down Syndrome Patients
Down syndrome is a genetic disorder that often presents with physical characteristics such as epicanthic folds, single creases, and an autosomal trisomy. It is common for children with Down syndrome to have congenital heart disease, with 42% of the population affected. Of those, 23% have multiple cardiac abnormalities. The most prevalent cardiac abnormality, found in 37% of cases, is a complete atrioventricular septal defect. Ventricular septal defects are the second most common, affecting 30% of patients. Mitral valve disorders occur in up to 40% of Down syndrome patients, but mitral stenosis is less common. Atrial septal defects affect 15% of patients, while patent ductus arteriosus affects only 2%. Understanding the prevalence of these cardiac abnormalities in Down syndrome patients is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
Male infertility in cystic fibrosis is mostly due to which of the following?
Your Answer: Obliteration or failure of development of the vas deferens
Explanation:Understanding the Reproductive and Sexual Health Implications of Cystic Fibrosis
Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a genetic disorder that affects multiple organs, including the lungs, pancreas, and reproductive system. In over 95% of male patients with CF, infertility is caused by the congenital absence or obliteration of the vas deferens, leading to azoospermia. However, advancements in fertility treatments and surgical techniques have made it possible for some male patients to conceive. Impotence is not a symptom of CF. With significant improvements in diagnosis and treatment, the median survival age of CF patients has increased to around 40 years, with some individuals living into their 60s. Delayed puberty is a common occurrence in both male and female CF patients, but it is not a cause of infertility. Decreased spermatogenesis is not typically seen in CF. Understanding the reproductive and sexual health implications of CF is crucial for patients and healthcare providers to provide appropriate care and support.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)