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  • Question 1 - A 56-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department (ED) complaining of dizziness and...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department (ED) complaining of dizziness and palpitations. He had a primary coronary intervention for an anterior ST-elevation myocardial infarction (MI) one month ago. His ECHO at discharge revealed antero-septal hypokinesis with an ejection fraction of 38%. Upon examination, a twelve-lead ECG confirms monomorphic ventricular tachycardia. He is electrically cardioverted and returns to sinus rhythm with Q waves in leads V1-V4. What is the recommended long-term treatment?

      Your Answer: Amiodarone 200 mg tds

      Correct Answer: Automated implantable cardiac defibrillator

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Life-Threatening Ventricular Arrhythmias

      Patients with a history of life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias have several treatment options available to them. Implantable cardioverter-defibrillators (ICDs) have been shown to be superior to anti-arrhythmic drugs, with a reduction in absolute mortality of 7.9%. Sotalol, a class III anti-arrhythmic, is not typically the first choice for patients with VT and LV dysfunction. Amiodarone, on the other hand, can be considered in patients where ICDs are not appropriate or in addition to ICDs for those with frequent episodes of VT. However, a higher loading dose is usually administered first before maintenance dosing. Mexiletine, a class Ib orally active antiarrhythmic drug, is not recommended in this context as it may provoke more frequent and difficult to cardiovert episodes of sustained VT and can exacerbate LV dysfunction. Overall, treatment options should be carefully considered based on the individual patient’s needs and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      292.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You are a member of the cardiac arrest team and receive an urgent...

    Incorrect

    • You are a member of the cardiac arrest team and receive an urgent call to attend an emergency at the psychiatric unit of your hospital. A porter has already picked up the emergency pack containing the necessary cardiac arrest medications, and the ward has a defibrillator. Upon arrival, you are informed that a 25-year-old male has been found unconscious on his bed. The psychiatric nurse also shares that a large box of lofepramine is missing from the drug trolley and has been discovered empty under the patient's bed. In preparation for the situation, which medication should you ensure is available in the cardiac arrest pack?

      Your Answer: Lidocaine

      Correct Answer: Bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      Management of Cardiac Arrest in Tricyclic Overdose

      In the case of a probable tricyclic overdose, the management of cardiac arrest requires specific interventions. While bicarbonate is not typically recommended for routine use in cardiac arrests, it is indicated for tricyclic overdose and cardiac arrest due to hyperkalaemia. This medication helps to counteract the effects of the overdose on the heart and can improve the chances of successful resuscitation. However, other medications listed for cardiac arrest management are not indicated for tricyclic overdoses and should not be used in this situation. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the specific management strategies for different types of cardiac arrest to provide the best possible care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      198.1
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  • Question 3 - A 21-year-old woman, who was adopted at birth, comes to the Cardiology Clinic...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old woman, who was adopted at birth, comes to the Cardiology Clinic for an evaluation. She attempted to locate her biological family and was informed that her father passed away suddenly due to a 'heart issue'.
      During the examination, she appears healthy but has a loud systolic murmur that intensifies with the Valsalva maneuver and diminishes with squatting. Echocardiography (ECHO) shows ventricular hypertrophy, particularly of the septum, with an increased ejection fraction. The outflow gradient measured by the ECHO is 40 mmHg.
      What would be the next course of action for this patient if she were to experience dyspnea symptoms?

      Your Answer: Beta-blockade

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a condition characterized by marked hypertrophy of the myocardium with a disproportionate increase in the size of the septum. It can lead to sudden death related to cardiac arrhythmias. The disease exists in two major forms: a familial one that presents in young patients and has been mapped to chromosome 14q, and a sporadic form usually found in the elderly.The initial intervention of choice for HOCM is beta-blockade, which can help manage symptoms of cardiac failure. Myomectomy is reserved for patients with an outflow gradient greater than 50 mmHg or significant symptoms despite beta-blocker therapy. Surgery is usually avoided for as long as possible, and ventricular arrhythmias are managed with an implantable cardioverter defibrillator.Digoxin has no effect on outcome in HOCM and is now largely reserved for elderly patients with AF not suitable for other interventions, and for those elderly patients with symptomatic heart failure despite other interventions. Diuretic therapy does not improve outcomes in HOCM and should be used cautiously because of its effect on left ventricular volume. Nitrate therapy can significantly reduce ventricular filling pressure and exacerbate the risk of syncope in HOCM.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      74.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 55-year-old man presents with a blood pressure reading of 150/110 mmHg. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents with a blood pressure reading of 150/110 mmHg. He reports no significant medical history and is a light smoker and drinker. He is not taking any prescribed medications. On examination, his BMI is 33.5 m/kg2. Laboratory results show a serum sodium level of 146 mmol/L (137-144) and a serum potassium level of 3.2 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), with a urine potassium level of 42 mmol/L (<30). What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Liquorice ingestion

      Correct Answer: Conn's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Conn’s Syndrome

      Conn’s syndrome is a medical condition characterized by hypokalaemic hypertension, which is most likely caused by either bilateral adrenal hyperplasia or an adrenocortical adenoma. This condition is often associated with symptoms such as muscular weakness, paresthesias, headache, polyuria, and polydipsia. The primary cause of this syndrome is the overproduction of aldosterone, which promotes active sodium transport and excretion of potassium in the renal tubules, sweat glands, salivary glands, and colon.

      While liquorice ingestion or Liddle’s syndrome may also cause hypokalaemic hypertension, Conn’s syndrome is the most likely cause in this case. It is important to diagnose and treat this condition promptly to prevent complications such as heart disease, stroke, and kidney damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      480.1
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  • Question 5 - A 49-year-old man presents to an endocrinology clinic with a history of hypertension....

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man presents to an endocrinology clinic with a history of hypertension. He was first diagnosed with hypertension following a routine check-up 10 years ago and underwent testing to exclude any secondary causes of his hypertension. He was subsequently started on lisinopril, which was up titrated to 20mg. When his blood pressure remained above 150/100 mmHg, his GP added amlodipine 10mg and then hydrochlorothiazide 12.5mg. During a recent medication review, the patient's blood pressure was noted to be 170/100 mmHg. His GP thus referred him to the endocrine team for a reconsideration of secondary hypertension. On questioning, he denies any chest pain, palpitations, change in vision, or symptoms consistent with postural hypotension. He has no family history of hypertension, does not smoke and drinks minimal alcohol.

      On clinical examination, heart sounds are normal and chest clear, abdomen soft and non-tender with no organomegaly.

      His test results are as follows:
      Na+ 139 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 26 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 4.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 72 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      Hba1c 50 mmol/mol (42-47)

      CT chest / abdomen / pelvis shows no abnormalities.

      Echocardiogram demonstrates left ventricular hypertrophy only.

      Urine dip:
      Blood -
      Protein -
      Glucose Trace

      Which of the following agents would be most appropriate for this patient's diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Correct Answer: Doxazosin

      Explanation:

      The patient has poorly controlled hypertension despite taking an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and a standard-dose thiazide diuretic. Their potassium level is above 4.5 mmol/l, indicating the need for an additional anti-hypertensive agent. Due to the presence of left ventricular hypertrophy, prompt and effective treatment is necessary. Spironolactone is not recommended in this case, and furosemide should only be considered if there is evidence of heart failure. Therefore, an alpha- or beta-blocker would be a suitable option.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      471
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 20-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a three-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a three-day history of acute shortness of breath. She had a dry cough and sore throat initially, but her condition worsened, and she became increasingly lethargic. The patient is typically healthy and has received all her vaccinations. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill. Upon examination, bibasal crepitations with dullness to percussion at the bases were observed. Her respiratory rate is 25 breaths per minute, heart rate 105 beats per minute, and saturations of 96% maintained on a 60% venturi mask. Her JVP is seen at 5 cm above her sternal angle, and there are no murmurs.

      Na+ 130 mmol/l
      K+ 4.9 mmol/l
      Urea 5.6 mmol/l
      Creatinine 90 µmol/l
      Troponin 20,000 ng/ml (normal range <20)
      ECG ST elevation seen in V1-V4

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Myocarditis

      Explanation:

      A young patient with recent flu-like symptoms is experiencing myocarditis, which is evident through ST elevation and acute pulmonary edema. Signs of acute heart failure, such as bibasal crepitations and a raised JVP, are also present. The absence of chest pain makes it unlikely that the patient is experiencing an acute myocardial infarction, and there is no indication of recent emotional distress.

      Understanding Myocarditis: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Myocarditis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the myocardium, which is the heart muscle. This condition can be caused by a variety of factors, including viral infections like coxsackie B and HIV, bacterial infections such as diphtheria and clostridia, and even autoimmune disorders. It is important to consider myocarditis as a possible cause of chest pain in younger patients.

      Symptoms of myocarditis typically include chest pain, dyspnea, and arrhythmias. Diagnostic tests such as blood tests, ECG, and cardiac enzymes can help confirm the diagnosis. Treatment of myocarditis involves addressing the underlying cause, such as antibiotics for bacterial infections, and supportive care for heart failure or arrhythmias.

      Complications of myocarditis can include heart failure, arrhythmias, and dilated cardiomyopathy, which is a late complication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      1091.9
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  • Question 7 - A 58-year-old man presents to his GP for a check-up. He has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man presents to his GP for a check-up. He has been experiencing chest pain during physical activity for the past year, which initially only occurred when walking uphill but now also occurs on flat surfaces. The pain is relieved by glyceryl trinitrate spray. He has never had chest pain at rest and denies any symptoms of postural hypotension. He is currently taking aspirin, atorvastatin, and maximally titrated atenolol.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Refer for assessment for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or CABG

      Correct Answer: Start amlodipine

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate next step in managing this patient’s likely diagnosis of stable angina, who is already taking a maximum permissible dose of a beta-blocker, is to add a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as amlodipine. Non-urgent referral for PCI or CABG would be appropriate if his symptoms were not improved by the addition of amlodipine. Isosorbide mononitrate and ranolazine would be more appropriate as third-line management options whilst awaiting specialist assessment for PCI or CABG.

      Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

      Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      106.3
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  • Question 8 - A 75-year-old man was referred to clinic by his GP due to persistent...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man was referred to clinic by his GP due to persistent hypertension. He had no significant medical history except for a small myocardial infarction two years ago. His GP had recently measured his blood pressure and found it to be consistently high. An echocardiogram was ordered to assess his myocardial function after the previous infarction, which showed mild left ventricular hypertrophy but no systolic dysfunction. He was a non-smoker, had a healthy diet, and was of average height and weight. As a first-line anti-hypertensive, what medication should the GP prescribe?

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Post Myocardial Infarction Patients

      In patients who have suffered a myocardial infarction, either a beta blocker or an Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE) inhibitor is typically prescribed. However, in cases where left ventricular systolic dysfunction is not present, ramipril has been shown to be the most effective in reducing cardiac events. Therefore, it is the logical choice for treatment in this patient group.

      It is important to note that while both beta blockers and ACE inhibitors are effective in treating post myocardial infarction patients, ramipril has been found to have a greater impact on reducing cardiac events. This is particularly true in cases where left ventricular systolic dysfunction is not present. As such, ramipril should be considered as the first-line treatment option for these patients. By selecting the most effective treatment option, healthcare providers can help to improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of future cardiac events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      585.8
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  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the Cardiology Clinic for follow up after experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the Cardiology Clinic for follow up after experiencing two episodes of fainting. The Cardiology Clinic previously conducted a 24-hour tape which shows one episode of nocturnal paroxysmal atrial fibrillation (AF) with a maximum ventricular rate of 150 beats per minute (bpm). Her PR interval is 135 ms, and the QT interval is within normal limits. Echocardiography (ECHO) results are normal. Thyroid function testing is unremarkable.
      What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Electrophysiological studies and ablation

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Paroxysmal Atrial Fibrillation

      Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation can be managed with various treatment options. Bisoprolol is recommended as initial prophylaxis, but electrophysiological studies coupled with possible ablation is an increasingly popular option for patients who do not want to commit to long-term medical therapy. Class Ic agents can also be used to control ventricular rates if atrial fibrillation evolves into atrial flutter. Amiodarone is useful in acute management but not appropriate for long-term use due to its side-effects. Disopyramide is an anti-arrhythmic medication used for treatment of ventricular tachycardia. Digoxin should not be used in paroxysmal atrial fibrillation or if direct-current (DC) cardioversion is planned as it is pro-fibrillatory. Diltiazem can be used if there is no evidence of structural heart disease on echocardiogram or if patients have severe asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      102.9
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  • Question 10 - A 75-year-old woman presents to the Cardiology Clinic for follow-up. Her GP referred...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman presents to the Cardiology Clinic for follow-up. Her GP referred her to the clinic when she was diagnosed with isolated systolic hypertension six months ago. Her systolic BP ranged between 160 and 190 mmHg and her diastolic BP ranged between 70 and 80 mmHg. She was advised to make lifestyle changes such as reducing salt intake, losing weight, and exercising regularly. She was not prescribed any medication at that time. During her examination in your clinic, her BP is 185/80 mmHg. She has been monitoring her BP at home, with the systolic ranging from 155 to 180 mmHg and diastolic ranging from 65 to 75 mmHg. What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Isolated Systolic Hypertension in Older Patients

      When it comes to managing isolated systolic hypertension in older patients, NICE guidelines suggest following the same approach as hypertension where both systolic and diastolic blood pressure are elevated. For patients over 55 years, amlodipine is a suitable initial therapy. Thiazide diuretics like bendroflumethiazide are no longer recommended as a first-line intervention for hypertension in patients with diabetes due to an increased risk of incident type 2 diabetes. ACE inhibitors or calcium channel blockers are the preferred first option for hypertension treatment, according to NICE guidance. Lifestyle measures alone may not be sufficient for patients with marked elevation in systolic blood pressure. ARBs like valsartan are not recommended as initial therapy and should not be used in combination with ACE inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      105.1
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiology (4/10) 40%
Passmed