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  • Question 1 - Lily is a 32-year-old female who has been in a relationship for 3...

    Incorrect

    • Lily is a 32-year-old female who has been in a relationship for 3 years. Lily and her partner have been trying to conceive regularly for over a year without success. They have visited their doctor to arrange some tests to investigate a potential cause. What is the hormone that is released after ovulation and can be utilized as an indicator of fertility?

      Your Answer: Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)

      Correct Answer: Progesterone

      Explanation:

      To test for ovulation in women with regular cycles, Day 21 progesterone (mid-luteal cycle progesterone) is used. However, for those with irregular cycles, progesterone should be tested a week before the predicted menstruation. Ovulation is necessary for fertilization to occur, as it indicates the release of an egg.

      Oestrogen and Progesterone: Their Sources and Functions

      Oestrogen and progesterone are two important hormones in the female body. Oestrogen is primarily produced by the ovaries, but can also be produced by the placenta and blood via aromatase. Its functions include promoting the development of genitalia, causing the LH surge, and increasing hepatic synthesis of transport proteins. It also upregulates oestrogen, progesterone, and LH receptors, and is responsible for female fat distribution. On the other hand, progesterone is produced by the corpus luteum, placenta, and adrenal cortex. Its main function is to maintain the endometrium and pregnancy, as well as to thicken cervical mucous and decrease myometrial excitability. It also increases body temperature and is responsible for spiral artery development.

      It is important to note that these hormones work together in regulating the menstrual cycle and preparing the body for pregnancy. Oestrogen promotes the proliferation of the endometrium, while progesterone maintains it. Without these hormones, the menstrual cycle and pregnancy would not be possible. Understanding the sources and functions of oestrogen and progesterone is crucial in diagnosing and treating hormonal imbalances and reproductive disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 2 - A 75-year-old man comes to the smoking cessation clinic seeking help to quit...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man comes to the smoking cessation clinic seeking help to quit smoking. He is motivated to quit after witnessing his brother's death from lung cancer.

      What health condition is the patient more susceptible to if he successfully quits smoking?

      Your Answer: Endometrial cancer

      Explanation:

      Smoking is a protective factor against only one type of cancer, which is endometrial cancer (3), as found by a meta-analysis. However, smoking is a risk factor for all the other types of cancer mentioned.

      For bladder cancer (1), it is suggested that the aromatic amines found in cigarettes are a known carcinogen of the bladder, thus contributing to the increased risk of bladder cancer with smoking.

      Although smoking is a well-established co-factor for the development of cervical cancer (2), the mechanism by which smoking increases the risk is not known, although there are two theories.

      Smoking has been found to cause numerous DNA changes in laryngeal cancer (4), including TP53 gene mutations.

      Smoking is also theorized to cause renal cell cancer (5) as cigarette smoke induces oxidative stress and injury in the kidney, and free radicals in cigarettes can cause DNA damage that may lead to the development of cancer.

      Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Symptoms of endometrial cancer include postmenopausal bleeding, which is usually slight and intermittent at first before becoming heavier, and changes in intermenstrual bleeding for premenopausal women. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.

      When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness of less than 4 mm. Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for diagnosis. Treatment for localized disease typically involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may require postoperative radiotherapy. Progestogen therapy may be used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old female visits her GP with worries about having gone through menopause...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old female visits her GP with worries about having gone through menopause due to the absence of periods for 1 year. What is the reason for the cessation of the menstrual cycle?

      Your Answer: Reduced production of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)

      Correct Answer: The demise of ovarian follicles

      Explanation:

      The ovarian cycle consists of three main stages: the follicular phase (day 1-10), the ovulatory phase (day 11-14), and the luteal phase (day 15-28). During the follicular phase, follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH) stimulate the growth of 10-20 follicles, from which one oocyte is selected while the others become atretic. The mature follicle releases oestrogen, which stimulates the renewal and thickening of the uterine lining. In the ovulatory phase, the mature follicle (2 cm) ruptures and exits. Finally, during the luteal phase, the oocyte travels through the uterine tubule while the remaining follicular cells develop into the corpus luteum. As the ovaries age, the number of available and viable ovarian follicles decreases, resulting in a reduced response to FSH and LH.

      Understanding Menopause and Contraception

      Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It typically occurs when a woman reaches the age of 51 in the UK. However, prior to menopause, women may experience a period known as the climacteric. During this time, ovarian function starts to decline, and women may experience symptoms such as hot flashes, mood swings, and vaginal dryness.

      It is important for women to understand that they can still become pregnant during the climacteric period. Therefore, it is recommended to use effective contraception until a certain period of time has passed. Women over the age of 50 should use contraception for 12 months after their last period, while women under the age of 50 should use contraception for 24 months after their last period. By understanding menopause and the importance of contraception during the climacteric period, women can make informed decisions about their reproductive health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 4 - A 26-year-old first-time mother is interested in learning about the benefits of breastfeeding...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old first-time mother is interested in learning about the benefits of breastfeeding for her newborn. You inform her that breast milk contains essential nutrients and enzymes, including lactoferrin.

      What is the function of lactoferrin in breast milk?

      Your Answer: Promotes rapid absorption of iron

      Explanation:

      Breast Milk lactoferrin facilitates the quick absorption of iron in the gut, while simultaneously limiting the amount of iron accessible to gut bacteria due to its antibacterial properties. Additionally, lactoferrin has been found to promote bone health by increasing bone formation and reducing bone resorption.

      Advantages and Disadvantages of Breastfeeding

      Breastfeeding has numerous advantages for both the mother and the baby. For the mother, it promotes bonding with the baby and helps with the involution of the uterus. It also provides protection against breast and ovarian cancer and is a cheap alternative to formula feeding as there is no need to sterilize bottles. However, it should not be relied upon as a contraceptive method as it is unreliable.

      Breast milk contains immunological components such as IgA, lysozyme, and lactoferrin that protect mucosal surfaces, have bacteriolytic properties, and ensure rapid absorption of iron so it is not available to bacteria. This reduces the incidence of ear, chest, and gastrointestinal infections, as well as eczema, asthma, and type 1 diabetes mellitus. Breastfeeding also reduces the incidence of sudden infant death syndrome.

      One of the advantages of breastfeeding is that the baby is in control of how much milk it takes. However, there are also disadvantages such as the transmission of drugs and infections such as HIV. Prolonged breastfeeding may also lead to nutrient inadequacies such as vitamin D and vitamin K deficiencies, as well as breast milk jaundice.

      In conclusion, while breastfeeding has numerous advantages, it is important to be aware of the potential disadvantages and to consult with a healthcare professional to ensure that both the mother and the baby are receiving adequate nutrition and care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old woman visits her GP at 36 weeks of pregnancy, complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman visits her GP at 36 weeks of pregnancy, complaining of nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and blurry vision. The GP suspects pre-eclampsia and performs a blood pressure reading and urine dip, which confirms proteinuria and hypertension with a reading of 167/98 mmHg. What medication would be prescribed to control her high blood pressure?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Correct Answer: Labetalol

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, Labetalol is the preferred medication for treating hypertension in pregnant women. While Nifedipine is considered safe for use during pregnancy, it is not the first option. However, Ramipril and Candesartan should not be used during pregnancy due to potential risks.

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common condition that can be managed effectively with proper care. In normal pregnancy, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, if a pregnant woman develops hypertension, it is usually defined as a systolic blood pressure of over 140 mmHg or a diastolic blood pressure of over 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from booking readings can also indicate hypertension.

      After confirming hypertension, the patient should be categorized into one of three groups: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), or pre-eclampsia. PIH, also known as gestational hypertension, occurs in 3-5% of pregnancies and is more common in older women. If a pregnant woman takes an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin II receptor blocker for pre-existing hypertension, it should be stopped immediately, and alternative antihypertensives should be started while awaiting specialist review.

      Pregnancy-induced hypertension in association with proteinuria, which occurs in around 5% of pregnancies, may also cause oedema. The 2010 NICE guidelines recommend oral labetalol as the first-line treatment for hypertension during pregnancy. Oral nifedipine and hydralazine may also be used, depending on the patient’s medical history. It is important to manage hypertension during pregnancy effectively to reduce the risk of complications and ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 6 - A young lady comes with complaints of dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia. Upon undergoing an...

    Incorrect

    • A young lady comes with complaints of dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia. Upon undergoing an ultrasound scan, indications of endometrial infiltration into the myometrium are detected. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adenomyosis

      Explanation:

      Adenomyosis is characterized by the presence of endometrial tissue within the myometrium, leading to symptoms such as heavy menstrual bleeding and painful periods. This can occur due to the separation of the endometrium from the myometrium, causing inflammation and discomfort. Ultrasound scans can detect an irregular myometrial border and a swollen uterus due to the accumulation of blood in the endometrial tissue. It is important to note that although adenomyosis and endometriosis share similar symptoms, they are distinct conditions that can coexist. Endometrial cancer is not a possible diagnosis as it does not involve the invasion of endometrial tissue into the myometrium.

      Adenomyosis is a condition where the endometrial tissue is found within the myometrium. It is more commonly seen in women who have had multiple pregnancies and are nearing the end of their reproductive years. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as dysmenorrhoea, menorrhagia, and an enlarged, boggy uterus.

      To diagnose adenomyosis, an MRI is the preferred investigation method. Treatment options include symptomatic management, tranexamic acid to manage menorrhagia, GnRH agonists, uterine artery embolisation, and hysterectomy, which is considered the definitive treatment.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 7 - A concerned parent brings their 14-year-old daughter to the general practice, worried that...

    Incorrect

    • A concerned parent brings their 14-year-old daughter to the general practice, worried that she has not yet started her periods.

      The 14-year-old has breast bud development, but no signs of menstruation. A pregnancy test comes back negative.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary amenorrhoea

      Explanation:

      Primary amenorrhoea occurs when a girl has not started menstruating by the age of 15, despite having normal secondary sexual characteristics like breast development. In girls with no secondary sexual characteristics, primary amenorrhoea is defined as the absence of menstruation by the age of 13. Possible causes of primary amenorrhoea include hypothyroidism and imperforate hymen, but not endometriosis, which typically causes heavy and/or painful periods. While delayed menarche can occur spontaneously before the age of 18, this girl’s symptoms are not within the normal range of variation. Malnutrition or extreme exercise are more likely to cause primary amenorrhoea than obesity-induced amenorrhoea, which typically results in secondary amenorrhoea where periods stop for 6 months or more after menarche has occurred.

      Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management

      Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls with no secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.

      The causes of amenorrhoea vary depending on the type. Primary amenorrhoea may be caused by gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, and thyrotoxicosis. Meanwhile, secondary amenorrhoea may be caused by stress, excessive exercise, PCOS, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and other underlying medical conditions.

      To diagnose amenorrhoea, initial investigations may include pregnancy tests, full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels. Management of amenorrhoea involves treating the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause and treat the underlying cause accordingly. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis and other complications.

      In conclusion, amenorrhoea is a condition that requires proper diagnosis and management. Understanding the causes and appropriate investigations can help in providing the necessary treatment and care for women experiencing this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 8 - A 16-year-old male is suspected to have testicular torsion and requires scrotal exploration...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male is suspected to have testicular torsion and requires scrotal exploration surgery. After making an incision in the skin and dartos muscle, what is the next layer of tissue that the surgeon will encounter during dissection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: External spermatic fascia

      Explanation:

      The layers that will be encountered in the given scenario are as follows, in sequential order:

      1. The skin layer
      2. The dartos fascia and muscle layer
      3. The external spermatic fascia layer
      4. The cremasteric muscle and fascia layer
      5. (Unknown or unspecified layer)

      Anatomy of the Scrotum and Testes

      The scrotum is composed of skin and dartos fascia, with an arterial supply from the anterior and posterior scrotal arteries. It is also the site of lymphatic drainage to the inguinal lymph nodes. The testes are surrounded by the tunica vaginalis, a closed peritoneal sac, with the parietal layer adjacent to the internal spermatic fascia. The testicular arteries arise from the aorta, just below the renal arteries, and the pampiniform plexus drains into the testicular veins. The left testicular vein drains into the left renal vein, while the right testicular vein drains into the inferior vena cava. Lymphatic drainage occurs to the para-aortic nodes.

      The spermatic cord is formed by the vas deferens and is covered by the internal spermatic fascia, cremasteric fascia, and external spermatic fascia. The cord contains the vas deferens, testicular artery, artery of vas deferens, cremasteric artery, pampiniform plexus, sympathetic nerve fibers, genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve, and lymphatic vessels. The vas deferens transmits sperm and accessory gland secretions, while the testicular artery supplies the testis and epididymis. The cremasteric artery arises from the inferior epigastric artery, and the pampiniform plexus is a venous plexus that drains into the right or left testicular vein. The sympathetic nerve fibers lie on the arteries, while the parasympathetic fibers lie on the vas. The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve supplies the cremaster. Lymphatic vessels drain to lumbar and para-aortic nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old female presents with sudden onset of pain in her lower right...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presents with sudden onset of pain in her lower right abdomen. She has no significant medical history. Her last menstrual period was six weeks ago and her cycles have been regular in the past.

      During the physical examination, her temperature is 37.5°C, pulse rate is 98 bpm regular, and blood pressure is 110/72 mmHg. There is tenderness and guarding in the right iliac fossa.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ectopic pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Causes of Right Iliac Fossa Pain in Women

      Right iliac fossa pain in women can be caused by various conditions such as mittelschmerz, appendicitis, and ectopic pregnancy. However, in the case of a young woman who is seven weeks past her last period, ectopic pregnancy is highly suspected. This condition occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube.

      To confirm or rule out ectopic pregnancy, the most appropriate initial test would be a pregnancy test. This test detects the presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), a hormone produced by the placenta after implantation. If the test is positive, further evaluation such as ultrasound and blood tests may be necessary to determine the location of the pregnancy and the appropriate management. It is important to seek medical attention promptly if experiencing RIF pain, as delay in diagnosis and treatment of ectopic pregnancy can lead to serious complications.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old pregnant woman attends her 20-week anomaly scan. She has had two...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old pregnant woman attends her 20-week anomaly scan. She has had two previous pregnancies resulting in two sons. The pregnancy has been uneventful so far. During the scan, the sonographer observes that the foetus is below the 10th percentile for size, indicating that it is small for gestational age.

      What potential risk factors could have played a role in this outcome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      Smoking while pregnant is associated with a higher likelihood of having a baby that is small for gestational age. The increased risk is thought to be due to exposure to nicotine and carbon monoxide. Diabetes mellitus, previous pregnancy, and maternal obesity are not linked to small for gestational age babies, but rather to large for gestational age babies.

      Small for Gestational Age (SGA) is a statistical definition used to describe babies who are smaller than expected for their gestational age. Although there is no universally agreed percentile, the 10th percentile is often used, meaning that 10% of normal babies will be below this threshold. SGA can be determined either antenatally or postnatally. There are two types of SGA: symmetrical and asymmetrical. Symmetrical SGA occurs when the fetal head circumference and abdominal circumference are equally small, while asymmetrical SGA occurs when the abdominal circumference slows relative to the increase in head circumference.

      There are various causes of SGA, including incorrect dating, constitutionally small (normal) babies, and abnormal fetuses. Symmetrical SGA is more common and can be caused by idiopathic factors, race, sex, placental insufficiency, pre-eclampsia, chromosomal and congenital abnormalities, toxins such as smoking and heroin, and infections such as CMV, parvovirus, rubella, syphilis, and toxoplasmosis. Asymmetrical SGA is less common and can be caused by toxins such as alcohol, cigarettes, and heroin, chromosomal and congenital abnormalities, and infections.

      The management of SGA depends on the type and cause. For symmetrical SGA, most cases represent the lower limits of the normal range and require fortnightly ultrasound growth assessments to demonstrate normal growth rates. Pathological causes should be ruled out by checking maternal blood for infections and searching the fetus carefully with ultrasound for markers of chromosomal abnormality. Asymmetrical SGA also requires fortnightly ultrasound growth assessments, as well as biophysical profiles and Doppler waveforms from umbilical circulation to look for absent end-diastolic flow. If results are sub-optimal, delivery may be considered.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 11 - A 65-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of a nodule on his scrotum....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of a nodule on his scrotum. Upon biopsy, it is revealed to be a squamous cell carcinoma of the scrotum. Which group of nearby lymph nodes is most likely to be affected by the spread of this cancer through the lymphatic system?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inguinal

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Scrotum and Testes

      The scrotum is composed of skin and dartos fascia, with an arterial supply from the anterior and posterior scrotal arteries. It is also the site of lymphatic drainage to the inguinal lymph nodes. The testes are surrounded by the tunica vaginalis, a closed peritoneal sac, with the parietal layer adjacent to the internal spermatic fascia. The testicular arteries arise from the aorta, just below the renal arteries, and the pampiniform plexus drains into the testicular veins. The left testicular vein drains into the left renal vein, while the right testicular vein drains into the inferior vena cava. Lymphatic drainage occurs to the para-aortic nodes.

      The spermatic cord is formed by the vas deferens and is covered by the internal spermatic fascia, cremasteric fascia, and external spermatic fascia. The cord contains the vas deferens, testicular artery, artery of vas deferens, cremasteric artery, pampiniform plexus, sympathetic nerve fibers, genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve, and lymphatic vessels. The vas deferens transmits sperm and accessory gland secretions, while the testicular artery supplies the testis and epididymis. The cremasteric artery arises from the inferior epigastric artery, and the pampiniform plexus is a venous plexus that drains into the right or left testicular vein. The sympathetic nerve fibers lie on the arteries, while the parasympathetic fibers lie on the vas. The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve supplies the cremaster. Lymphatic vessels drain to lumbar and para-aortic nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 12 - At a routine check-up, a teenage girl is being educated by her physician...

    Incorrect

    • At a routine check-up, a teenage girl is being educated by her physician about the ovarian cycle. The physician informs her that the primordial follicles undergo modifications until they develop into mature follicles. What specific alteration indicates the conversion of the primordial follicle into a primary follicle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Development of the zona pellucida

      Explanation:

      The formation of the zona pellucida is a significant milestone in the growth of the ovarian follicle, indicating the transition from a primordial follicle to a primary follicle. As the follicle continues to develop, it undergoes several changes, each marking a different stage of growth.

      The stages of ovarian follicle development are as follows:

      1. Primordial follicles: These contain an oocyte and granulosa cells.

      2. Primary follicles: At this stage, the zona pellucida begins to form, and the granulosa cells start to proliferate.

      3. Pre-antral follicles: The theca develops during this stage.

      4. Mature/Graafian follicles: The antrum forms, marking the final stage of follicular growth.

      5. Corpus luteum: The oocyte is released due to the enzymatic breakdown of the follicular wall, and the corpus luteum forms.

      Anatomy of the Ovarian Follicle

      The ovarian follicle is a complex structure that plays a crucial role in female reproductive function. It consists of several components, including granulosa cells, the zona pellucida, the theca, the antrum, and the cumulus oophorus.

      Granulosa cells are responsible for producing oestradiol, which is essential for follicular development. Once the follicle becomes the corpus luteum, granulosa lutein cells produce progesterone, which is necessary for embryo implantation. The zona pellucida is a membrane that surrounds the oocyte and contains the protein ZP3, which is responsible for sperm binding.

      The theca produces androstenedione, which is converted into oestradiol by granulosa cells. The antrum is a fluid-filled portion of the follicle that marks the transition of a primary oocyte into a secondary oocyte. Finally, the cumulus oophorus is a cluster of cells surrounding the oocyte that must be penetrated by spermatozoa for fertilisation to occur.

      Understanding the anatomy of the ovarian follicle is essential for understanding female reproductive function and fertility. Each component plays a unique role in the development and maturation of the oocyte, as well as in the processes of fertilisation and implantation.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department of her nearby hospital. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department of her nearby hospital. She is 12 weeks pregnant and has been experiencing constant nausea and vomiting. She is dehydrated and has lost 7kg in the past month.

      What medical condition is a risk factor for the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trophoblastic disease

      Explanation:

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that affects around 1% of pregnancies. It is usually experienced between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy but can persist up to 20 weeks. The condition is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels and is more common in women who are obese, nulliparous, or have multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, or hyperthyroidism. Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.

      The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommend that a woman must have a 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance before a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum can be made. Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.

      Management of hyperemesis gravidarum involves using antihistamines as a first-line treatment, with oral cyclizine or oral promethazine being recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Oral prochlorperazine is an alternative, while ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used as second-line treatments. Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure can be tried, but there is little evidence of benefit. Admission may be needed for IV hydration.

      Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth restriction, pre-term birth, and cleft lip/palate (if ondansetron is used during the first trimester). The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend considering admission if a woman is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics, has ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), or has a confirmed or suspected comorbidity that may be adversely affected by nausea and vomiting.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 14 - A 23-year-old female presents to the Emergency department with significant pain in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female presents to the Emergency department with significant pain in her right iliac region and slight vaginal bleeding. She reports having missed her period for the past seven weeks, despite previously having regular 28-day cycles. Upon examination, tenderness is noted in her lower abdomen near the site of pain. A quantitative urine pregnancy test is ordered to detect which hormone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: β- human chorionic gonadotrophin

      Explanation:

      Pregnancy can be detected through urine tests that identify the beta subunit of the human chorionic gonadotrophin. This hormone increases during the first trimester of pregnancy to support progesterone production by the corpus luteum. Although the alpha subunit of this hormone is identical to that of other hormones, such as luteinising hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, and thyroid stimulating hormone, it is the beta subunit that is recognized and used as a marker for pregnancy. The pituitary gland secretes luteinising hormone and follicle stimulating hormone in all humans, but these hormones are not indicative of pregnancy.

      Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy: The Pathophysiology

      Ectopic pregnancy occurs when the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, most commonly in the fallopian tube. In fact, 97% of ectopic pregnancies occur in the tubal region, with the majority in the ampulla. However, if the implantation occurs in the isthmus, it can be more dangerous. The remaining 3% of ectopic pregnancies can occur in the ovary, cervix, or peritoneum.

      During ectopic pregnancy, the trophoblast, which is the outer layer of cells that forms the placenta, invades the tubal wall. This invasion can cause bleeding, which may dislodge the embryo. The natural history of ectopic pregnancy includes absorption and tubal abortion, with the latter being the most common. In tubal abortion, the embryo is expelled from the tube, resulting in bleeding and pain. In tubal absorption, the tube may not rupture, and the blood and embryo may be shed or converted into a tubal mole and absorbed. However, if the tube ruptures, it can lead to severe bleeding and potentially life-threatening complications.

      In summary, understanding the pathophysiology of ectopic pregnancy is crucial in identifying and managing this potentially life-threatening condition. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected individuals.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 15 - A 32-year-old woman visits her GP after receiving a positive pregnancy test result....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her GP after receiving a positive pregnancy test result. During her pregnancy, she will require regular blood tests due to the potential risk of haemolytic disease of the newborn. What is the underlying pathology of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maternal production of IgG antibodies against fetal red blood cells

      Explanation:

      The development of haemolytic disease of the newborn is caused by the production of IgG antibodies by the mother against the red blood cells of the fetus, which then cross the placenta and attack the fetal red blood cells. This condition is not caused by antibodies to platelets or the bone marrow, and it is the maternal antibodies that are the problem, not the fetal antibodies.

      Rhesus negative mothers can develop anti-D IgG antibodies if they deliver a Rh +ve child, which can cause haemolysis in future pregnancies. Prevention involves testing for D antibodies and giving anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks. Anti-D should also be given in various situations, such as delivery of a Rh +ve infant or amniocentesis. Tests include cord blood FBC, blood group, direct Coombs test, and Kleihauer test. Affected fetuses may experience oedema, jaundice, anaemia, hepatosplenomegaly, heart failure, and kernicterus, and may require transfusions and UV phototherapy.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 16 - A 29-year-old primigravida woman in her third trimester attends her antenatal appointment. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old primigravida woman in her third trimester attends her antenatal appointment. During an ultrasound scan, it is discovered that the fetal abdominal circumference is smaller than expected. However, the fetal head circumference is normal and no congenital abnormalities are detected. The diagnosis is asymmetrical intrauterine growth restriction. What is the most probable cause of this condition in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Placental insufficiency

      Explanation:

      Placental insufficiency is linked to asymmetrical growth restriction in small for gestational age babies.

      When a fetus or infant experiences growth restriction, it can be categorized as either symmetrical or asymmetrical.

      Asymmetrical growth restriction occurs when the weight or abdominal circumference is lower than the head circumference. This is typically caused by inadequate nutrition from the placenta in the later stages of pregnancy, with brain growth being prioritized over liver glycogen and skin fat. Placental insufficiency is often associated with this type of growth restriction.

      Symmetrical growth restriction, on the other hand, is characterized by a reduction in head circumference that is equal to other measurements. This type of growth restriction is usually caused by factors such as congenital infection, fetal chromosomal disorder (such as Down syndrome), underlying maternal hypothyroidism, or malnutrition. It suggests a prolonged period of poor intrauterine growth that begins early in pregnancy.

      In reality, it is often difficult to distinguish between asymmetrical and symmetrical growth restriction.

      Small for Gestational Age (SGA) is a statistical definition used to describe babies who are smaller than expected for their gestational age. Although there is no universally agreed percentile, the 10th percentile is often used, meaning that 10% of normal babies will be below this threshold. SGA can be determined either antenatally or postnatally. There are two types of SGA: symmetrical and asymmetrical. Symmetrical SGA occurs when the fetal head circumference and abdominal circumference are equally small, while asymmetrical SGA occurs when the abdominal circumference slows relative to the increase in head circumference.

      There are various causes of SGA, including incorrect dating, constitutionally small (normal) babies, and abnormal fetuses. Symmetrical SGA is more common and can be caused by idiopathic factors, race, sex, placental insufficiency, pre-eclampsia, chromosomal and congenital abnormalities, toxins such as smoking and heroin, and infections such as CMV, parvovirus, rubella, syphilis, and toxoplasmosis. Asymmetrical SGA is less common and can be caused by toxins such as alcohol, cigarettes, and heroin, chromosomal and congenital abnormalities, and infections.

      The management of SGA depends on the type and cause. For symmetrical SGA, most cases represent the lower limits of the normal range and require fortnightly ultrasound growth assessments to demonstrate normal growth rates. Pathological causes should be ruled out by checking maternal blood for infections and searching the fetus carefully with ultrasound for markers of chromosomal abnormality. Asymmetrical SGA also requires fortnightly ultrasound growth assessments, as well as biophysical profiles and Doppler waveforms from umbilical circulation to look for absent end-diastolic flow. If results are sub-optimal, delivery may be considered.

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  • Question 17 - At what age should a girl be investigated if her mother is concerned...

    Incorrect

    • At what age should a girl be investigated if her mother is concerned about her not starting her menstrual cycle and demands tests to determine the cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 13 with no budding breasts or pubic hair development

      Explanation:

      Primary amenorrhoea is when a girl has not started menstruating by the age of 15, despite having normal secondary sexual characteristics, or by the age of 13 with no secondary sexual characteristics such as breast development or pubic hair growth. If a girl has not developed any secondary sexual characteristics by the age of 13, this could indicate primary amenorrhoea and should be investigated further with blood tests to rule out any hormonal issues such as Turner’s syndrome. However, if a girl is 8 years old and has not yet developed any secondary sexual characteristics, this is not a concern for primary amenorrhoea but may indicate precocious puberty, which requires treatment. On the other hand, if a 10-year-old girl has not yet developed any secondary sexual characteristics, this is a normal presentation and does not require investigation. Finally, if a 12-year-old girl has normal breast and pubic hair growth, she would need to have three more years of amenorrhoea before it is considered pathological.

      Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management

      Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls with no secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.

      The causes of amenorrhoea vary depending on the type. Primary amenorrhoea may be caused by gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, and thyrotoxicosis. Meanwhile, secondary amenorrhoea may be caused by stress, excessive exercise, PCOS, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and other underlying medical conditions.

      To diagnose amenorrhoea, initial investigations may include pregnancy tests, full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels. Management of amenorrhoea involves treating the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause and treat the underlying cause accordingly. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis and other complications.

      In conclusion, amenorrhoea is a condition that requires proper diagnosis and management. Understanding the causes and appropriate investigations can help in providing the necessary treatment and care for women experiencing this condition.

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  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant presents to the hospital with...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant presents to the hospital with a blood pressure reading of 160/110 mmHg, proteinuria, headache, blurred vision, and abdominal pain. What typical feature would be anticipated in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes and low platelets

      Explanation:

      The patient’s medical history suggests pre-eclampsia, which is characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine after 20 weeks of pregnancy. antihypertensive medication should be used to manage blood pressure. Women with this condition may also develop HELLP syndrome, which is characterized by low platelets, elevated liver enzymes, and haemolysis (indicated by raised LDH levels). If left untreated, pre-eclampsia can progress to eclampsia, which can be prevented by administering magnesium sulphate. Delivery is the only definitive treatment for pre-eclampsia.

      Symptoms of shock include tachycardia and hypotension, while Cushing’s triad (bradycardia, hypertension, and respiratory irregularity) is indicative of raised intracranial pressure. Anaphylaxis is characterized by facial swelling, rash, and stridor, while sepsis may present with warm extremities, rigors, and a strong pulse.

      Jaundice During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, jaundice can occur due to various reasons. One of the most common liver diseases during pregnancy is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which affects around 1% of pregnancies and is usually seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include itching, especially in the palms and soles, and raised bilirubin levels. Ursodeoxycholic acid is used for symptomatic relief, and women are typically induced at 37 weeks. However, this condition can increase the risk of stillbirth.

      Acute fatty liver of pregnancy is a rare complication that can occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. ALT levels are typically elevated. Supportive care is the initial management, and delivery is the definitive management once the patient is stabilized.

      Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may also be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for Haemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets, can also cause jaundice during pregnancy. It is important to monitor liver function tests and seek medical attention if any symptoms of jaundice occur during pregnancy.

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  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of consistent abdominal bloating over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of consistent abdominal bloating over the past 3 months. She reports no other symptoms and her physical examination appears normal. However, she is anxious as her acquaintance experienced comparable symptoms before being diagnosed with an advanced gynecological cancer. What diagnostic test should be conducted to assess her likelihood of having ovarian cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CA125

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptom is non-specific and could have various causes. However, given her age and the fact that she has lost a friend to ovarian cancer, it is reasonable to perform a simple test to rule out this possibility and alleviate her concerns. It is important to note that the patient does not exhibit any other common symptoms associated with ovarian cancer, such as weight loss.

      CA-125 is a tumour marker for ovarian cancer, while CA19-9 is associated with pancreatic cancer. CEA is a marker for bowel cancer, and colonoscopy may be considered if the patient presents with additional symptoms that suggest gastrointestinal disease.

      Understanding Ovarian Cancer: Risk Factors, Symptoms, and Management

      Ovarian cancer is a type of cancer that affects women, with the peak age of incidence being 60 years. It is the fifth most common malignancy in females and carries a poor prognosis due to late diagnosis. Around 90% of ovarian cancers are epithelial in origin, with 70-80% of cases being due to serous carcinomas. Interestingly, recent studies suggest that the distal end of the fallopian tube is often the site of origin of many ‘ovarian’ cancers.

      There are several risk factors associated with ovarian cancer, including a family history of mutations of the BRCA1 or the BRCA2 gene, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity. Clinical features of ovarian cancer are notoriously vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms, early satiety, and diarrhea.

      To diagnose ovarian cancer, a CA125 test is usually done initially. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 should not be used for screening for ovarian cancer in asymptomatic women. Diagnosis is difficult and usually involves diagnostic laparotomy.

      Management of ovarian cancer usually involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. The prognosis for ovarian cancer is poor, with 80% of women having advanced disease at presentation and the all stage 5-year survival being 46%. It is traditionally taught that infertility treatment increases the risk of ovarian cancer, as it increases the number of ovulations. However, recent evidence suggests that there is not a significant link. The combined oral contraceptive pill reduces the risk (fewer ovulations) as does having many pregnancies.

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  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old woman, who is 10 weeks pregnant with twins, presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman, who is 10 weeks pregnant with twins, presents to the emergency department with worsening nausea and vomiting over the last 3 weeks. This is her second pregnancy. Her first pregnancy had several complications, including hypertension of pregnancy and delivering a large for gestational age baby. What is a significant risk factor for developing HG based on this history?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multiple pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Hyperemesis gravidarum (HG) is a condition characterized by persistent vomiting, dehydration, weight loss, and electrolyte imbalance, often accompanied by ketosis. Women with multiple pregnancies are at an increased risk of developing HG due to the higher concentrations of pregnancy-related hormones.

      Other risk factors for HG include trophoblastic disease, molar pregnancy, and a history of previous hyperemesis. Hypertension of pregnancy typically occurs after 16 weeks and is not associated with an increased risk of HG.

      Large for gestational age is not a risk factor for HG as it is usually diagnosed later in pregnancy during growth scans. Multiparity alone is not a risk factor, but a history of previous hyperemesis or nausea and vomiting during pregnancy increases the risk.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that affects around 1% of pregnancies. It is usually experienced between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy but can persist up to 20 weeks. The condition is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels and is more common in women who are obese, nulliparous, or have multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, or hyperthyroidism. Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.

      The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommend that a woman must have a 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance before a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum can be made. Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.

      Management of hyperemesis gravidarum involves using antihistamines as a first-line treatment, with oral cyclizine or oral promethazine being recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Oral prochlorperazine is an alternative, while ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used as second-line treatments. Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure can be tried, but there is little evidence of benefit. Admission may be needed for IV hydration.

      Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth restriction, pre-term birth, and cleft lip/palate (if ondansetron is used during the first trimester). The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend considering admission if a woman is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics, has ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), or has a confirmed or suspected comorbidity that may be adversely affected by nausea and vomiting.

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  • Question 21 - A 23-year-old woman presents to the clinic with lower abdominal pain, vomiting, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman presents to the clinic with lower abdominal pain, vomiting, and bloody vaginal discharge. She has a history of being treated for a genital tract infection two years ago but cannot recall the name of the condition. She is sexually active with one male partner and occasionally uses condoms. Her last menstrual period was five weeks ago, and she has never been pregnant. A positive urine beta-hCG test confirms the diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy. What is a potential risk factor for the development of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pelvic inflammatory disease

      Explanation:

      Ectopic pregnancy is more likely to occur in women who have had pelvic inflammatory disease, which can cause damage to the tubes. Other risk factors include a history of ectopic pregnancy, the presence of an intrauterine contraceptive device, endometriosis, and undergoing in-vitro fertilization. However, the use of antibiotics, condoms, and being young are not considered established risk factors. While endometriosis can increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy, this patient does not have a history of symptoms associated with the condition.

      Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy: Incidence and Risk Factors

      Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tubes. This condition is a serious medical emergency that requires immediate attention. According to epidemiological studies, ectopic pregnancy occurs in approximately 0.5% of all pregnancies.

      Several risk factors can increase the likelihood of ectopic pregnancy. These include damage to the fallopian tubes due to pelvic inflammatory disease or surgery, a history of previous ectopic pregnancy, endometriosis, the use of intrauterine contraceptive devices (IUCDs), and the progesterone-only pill. In vitro fertilization (IVF) also increases the risk of ectopic pregnancy, with approximately 3% of IVF pregnancies resulting in ectopic implantation.

      It is important for women to be aware of the risk factors associated with ectopic pregnancy and to seek medical attention immediately if they experience symptoms such as abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, or shoulder pain. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent serious complications and improve outcomes for both the mother and the fetus.

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  • Question 22 - Which of the following is a characteristic of the Leydig cells in the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a characteristic of the Leydig cells in the testes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Produce testosterone

      Explanation:

      The production of testosterone in response to LH is carried out by Leydig cells, not Sertoli cells in the testes.

      Leydig cells are responsible for the secretion of testosterone when LH is released from the anterior pituitary gland. On the other hand, Sertoli cells are referred to as nurse cells because they provide nourishment to developing sperm during spermatogenesis. These cells have an elongated shape, secrete androgen-binding protein and tubular fluid, support the development of sperm during spermatogenesis, and form the blood-testes barrier.

      Endocrine Changes During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, there are several physiological changes that occur in the body, including endocrine changes. Progesterone, which is produced by the fallopian tubes during the first two weeks of pregnancy, stimulates the secretion of nutrients required by the zygote/blastocyst. At six weeks, the placenta takes over the production of progesterone, which inhibits uterine contractions by decreasing sensitivity to oxytocin and inhibiting the production of prostaglandins. Progesterone also stimulates the development of lobules and alveoli.

      Oestrogen, specifically oestriol, is another major hormone produced during pregnancy. It stimulates the growth of the myometrium and the ductal system of the breasts. Prolactin, which increases during pregnancy, initiates and maintains milk secretion of the mammary gland. It is essential for the expression of the mammotropic effects of oestrogen and progesterone. However, oestrogen and progesterone directly antagonize the stimulating effects of prolactin on milk synthesis.

      Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is secreted by the syncitiotrophoblast and can be detected within nine days of pregnancy. It mimics LH, rescuing the corpus luteum from degenerating and ensuring early oestrogen and progesterone secretion. It also stimulates the production of relaxin and may inhibit contractions induced by oxytocin. Other hormones produced during pregnancy include relaxin, which suppresses myometrial contractions and relaxes the pelvic ligaments and pubic symphysis, and human placental lactogen (hPL), which has lactogenic actions and enhances protein metabolism while antagonizing insulin.

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  • Question 23 - At a routine appointment, a teenage girl is being educated by her GP...

    Incorrect

    • At a routine appointment, a teenage girl is being educated by her GP about the ovarian cycle. The GP informs her that the theca of the pre-antral follicle has receptors for hormones that help in the production of significant amounts of hormones. What is the type of receptor present on the theca?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: LH receptors

      Explanation:

      LH binds to LH receptors on thecal cells, stimulating the production of androstenedione. This androgen is then converted into oestradiol by aromatase in the granulosa cells.

      The process of follicle development can be divided into several stages. Primordial follicles contain an oocyte and granulosa cells. Primary follicles are characterized by the development of the zona pellucida and proliferation of granulosa cells. Pre-antral follicles develop a theca layer. Mature or Graafian follicles are marked by the presence of an antrum. Finally, the corpus luteum forms after the oocyte is released due to enzymatic breakdown of the follicular wall.

      It is important to note that FSH, progesterone, testosterone, and oestrogen receptors are not involved in the production of oestradiol from androstenedione.

      Anatomy of the Ovarian Follicle

      The ovarian follicle is a complex structure that plays a crucial role in female reproductive function. It consists of several components, including granulosa cells, the zona pellucida, the theca, the antrum, and the cumulus oophorus.

      Granulosa cells are responsible for producing oestradiol, which is essential for follicular development. Once the follicle becomes the corpus luteum, granulosa lutein cells produce progesterone, which is necessary for embryo implantation. The zona pellucida is a membrane that surrounds the oocyte and contains the protein ZP3, which is responsible for sperm binding.

      The theca produces androstenedione, which is converted into oestradiol by granulosa cells. The antrum is a fluid-filled portion of the follicle that marks the transition of a primary oocyte into a secondary oocyte. Finally, the cumulus oophorus is a cluster of cells surrounding the oocyte that must be penetrated by spermatozoa for fertilisation to occur.

      Understanding the anatomy of the ovarian follicle is essential for understanding female reproductive function and fertility. Each component plays a unique role in the development and maturation of the oocyte, as well as in the processes of fertilisation and implantation.

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  • Question 24 - A soon-to-be mother is advised on the significance of screening for Rhesus incompatibility...

    Incorrect

    • A soon-to-be mother is advised on the significance of screening for Rhesus incompatibility between her and her unborn child. What maternal and fetal Rh status combination could potentially lead to Rhesus disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive baby

      Explanation:

      When the baby has Rh-positive blood and the mother has Rh-negative blood, their blood supplies can mix during pregnancy. This can lead to the mother producing antibodies that may harm the baby by passing through the placenta and causing conditions like hydrops fetalis. Additionally, subsequent pregnancies may also be impacted.

      Rhesus negative mothers can develop anti-D IgG antibodies if they deliver a Rh +ve child, which can cause haemolysis in future pregnancies. Prevention involves testing for D antibodies and giving anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks. Anti-D should also be given in various situations, such as delivery of a Rh +ve infant or amniocentesis. Tests include cord blood FBC, blood group, direct Coombs test, and Kleihauer test. Affected fetuses may experience oedema, jaundice, anaemia, hepatosplenomegaly, heart failure, and kernicterus, and may require transfusions and UV phototherapy.

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  • Question 25 - A 28-year-old woman visits her GP for a routine cervical smear test and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her GP for a routine cervical smear test and receives a positive result for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV). She has no symptoms and is generally healthy.

      What should be the next appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Examine sample cytologically

      Explanation:

      If a cervical smear sample tests positive for hrHPV, it should be examined cytologically to check for any abnormal nuclear changes in the cells. Referral to colposcopy would only be necessary if the cytological examination shows abnormal results. Patients who test negative for hrHPV should return to routine screening. If the initial sample is inadequate, it should be repeated in three months. However, if there are three inadequate smears, the patient should be referred to colposcopy. If the cytology is normal despite being positive for hrHPV, the sample should be repeated in 12 months.

      Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening Results

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved significantly in recent years, with the introduction of HPV testing allowing for further risk stratification. The NHS now uses an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.

      If the hrHPV test is negative, individuals can return to normal recall, unless they fall under the test of cure pathway, untreated CIN1 pathway, or require follow-up for incompletely excised cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia (CGIN) / stratified mucin producing intraepithelial lesion (SMILE) or cervical cancer. If the hrHPV test is positive, samples are examined cytologically, and if the cytology is abnormal, individuals will require colposcopy.

      If the cytology is normal but the hrHPV test is positive, the test is repeated at 12 months. If the repeat test is still hrHPV positive and cytology is normal, a further repeat test is done 12 months later. If the hrHPV test is negative at 24 months, individuals can return to normal recall, but if it is still positive, they will require colposcopy. If the sample is inadequate, it will need to be repeated within 3 months, and if two consecutive samples are inadequate, colposcopy will be required.

      For individuals who have previously had CIN, they should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample in the community 6 months after treatment. The most common treatment for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is large loop excision of transformation zone (LLETZ), which may be done during the initial colposcopy visit or at a later date depending on the individual clinic. Cryotherapy is an alternative technique.

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  • Question 26 - A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a lump in the upper...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a lump in the upper outer quadrant of her left breast. Which of the following statements about the breast is false?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nipple retraction may occur as a result of tumour infiltration of the clavipectoral fascia

      Explanation:

      Breast malignancy often leads to skin dimpling and nipple retraction, which are caused by the tumour infiltrating the breast ligaments and ducts. The axillary contents are enclosed by the clavipectoral fascia, and the breast’s lymphatic drainage occurs in both the axilla and internal mammary chain. The breast is highly vascularized, with the internal mammary artery being a subclavian artery branch.

      The breast is situated on a layer of pectoral fascia and is surrounded by the pectoralis major, serratus anterior, and external oblique muscles. The nerve supply to the breast comes from branches of intercostal nerves from T4-T6, while the arterial supply comes from the internal mammary (thoracic) artery, external mammary artery (laterally), anterior intercostal arteries, and thoraco-acromial artery. The breast’s venous drainage is through a superficial venous plexus to subclavian, axillary, and intercostal veins. Lymphatic drainage occurs through the axillary nodes, internal mammary chain, and other lymphatic sites such as deep cervical and supraclavicular fossa (later in disease).

      The preparation for lactation involves the hormones oestrogen, progesterone, and human placental lactogen. Oestrogen promotes duct development in high concentrations, while high levels of progesterone stimulate the formation of lobules. Human placental lactogen prepares the mammary glands for lactation. The two hormones involved in stimulating lactation are prolactin and oxytocin. Prolactin causes milk secretion, while oxytocin causes contraction of the myoepithelial cells surrounding the mammary alveoli to result in milk ejection from the breast. Suckling of the baby stimulates the mechanoreceptors in the nipple, resulting in the release of both prolactin and oxytocin from the pituitary gland (anterior and posterior parts respectively).

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  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of shortness of breath 3 hours...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of shortness of breath 3 hours after giving birth. The delivery was uncomplicated. On examination, her pulse is 120/min, blood pressure is 160/100 mmHg, and respirations are 24/min. Diffuse crackles are heard in all lung fields and pulse oximetry shows 85%. A chest x-ray reveals a peripheral wedge-shaped opacity. Despite appropriate interventions, she passes away. Autopsy findings reveal fetal squamous cells in the pulmonary blood vessels.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amniotic fluid embolism

      Explanation:

      The presence of fetal squamous cells in the maternal blood vessels of a woman who died during or after labor suggests that she had amniotic fluid embolism instead of pulmonary thromboembolism.

      The patient displayed symptoms of pulmonary embolism shortly after giving birth, including acute shortness of breath, tachycardia, and tachypnea, as well as a wedge-shaped infarction on her chest x-ray. The resulting hypoventilation caused hypoxia. Given that pregnancy is a hypercoagulable state, there is an increased risk of thrombus formation and subsequent embolization, making pulmonary thromboembolism the primary differential diagnosis.

      However, the histological findings during autopsy confirmed that the woman had amniotic fluid embolism, as fetal squamous cells were found in her maternal blood vessels. The risk of fetal and maternal blood mixing is highest during the third trimester and delivery, and fetal cells can act as thrombogenic factors. Although rare, this condition has a high mortality rate, and even those who survive often experience severe deficits, including neurological damage.

      Fat embolism typically occurs after long bone fractures or orthopedic surgeries, while air embolism is very rare but can cause immediate death. Cholesterol embolization is a common scenario after cannulation, such as angiography, where the catheter mechanically displaces the cholesterol thrombus, leading to emboli.

      Amniotic Fluid Embolism: A Rare but Life-Threatening Complication of Pregnancy

      Amniotic fluid embolism is a rare but potentially fatal complication of pregnancy that occurs when fetal cells or amniotic fluid enter the mother’s bloodstream, triggering a severe reaction. Although many risk factors have been associated with this condition, such as maternal age and induction of labor, the exact cause remains unknown. It is believed that exposure of maternal circulation to fetal cells or amniotic fluid is necessary for the development of an amniotic fluid embolism, but the underlying pathology is not well understood.

      The majority of cases occur during labor, but they can also occur during cesarean section or in the immediate postpartum period. Symptoms of amniotic fluid embolism include chills, shivering, sweating, anxiety, and coughing, while signs include cyanosis, hypotension, bronchospasms, tachycardia, arrhythmia, and myocardial infarction. However, there are no definitive diagnostic tests for this condition, and diagnosis is usually made by excluding other possible causes of the patient’s symptoms.

      Management of amniotic fluid embolism requires immediate critical care by a multidisciplinary team, as the condition can be life-threatening. Treatment is primarily supportive, and the focus is on stabilizing the patient’s vital signs and providing respiratory and cardiovascular support as needed. Despite advances in medical care, the mortality rate associated with amniotic fluid embolism remains high, underscoring the need for continued research into the underlying causes and potential treatments for this rare but serious complication of pregnancy.

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  • Question 28 - A woman in her early menopausal stage is prescribed hormone replacement therapy (HRT)...

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her early menopausal stage is prescribed hormone replacement therapy (HRT) by her physician to relieve her symptoms, which includes both oestrogen and progesterone components. However, the physician cautions her about the potential complications associated with HRT. What is the complication that this woman is at a higher risk of developing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stroke

      Explanation:

      The use of HRT is associated with a higher likelihood of thrombotic events, including stroke. This is due to platelet aggregation, which is distinct from the accumulation of cholesterol that primarily contributes to atheroma formation. HRT does not elevate the risk of thrombocytopaenia or vulval cancer, and the inclusion of progesterone in the HRT helps to reduce the risk of developing endometrial cancer.

      Understanding Menopause and Contraception

      Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It typically occurs when a woman reaches the age of 51 in the UK. However, prior to menopause, women may experience a period known as the climacteric. During this time, ovarian function starts to decline, and women may experience symptoms such as hot flashes, mood swings, and vaginal dryness.

      It is important for women to understand that they can still become pregnant during the climacteric period. Therefore, it is recommended to use effective contraception until a certain period of time has passed. Women over the age of 50 should use contraception for 12 months after their last period, while women under the age of 50 should use contraception for 24 months after their last period. By understanding menopause and the importance of contraception during the climacteric period, women can make informed decisions about their reproductive health.

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  • Question 29 - A 16-year-old girl arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of dizziness and pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of dizziness and pain in her right iliac fossa. She had taken a home pregnancy test the day before, which came back positive. After a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy, the patient's condition worsens, and she undergoes an emergency salpingectomy. What is the most common site of fertilization in the excised structure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ampulla

      Explanation:

      Fertilisation typically takes place in the ampulla of the fallopian tube. Salpingectomy involves removing the fallopian tube and is often performed in cases of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. It is rare for fertilisation to occur in the uterus, which is not removed during salpingectomy. The infundibulum, located closest to the ovary, is the third most common site of fertilisation, while the isthmus, the narrowest part of the fallopian tube, is the second most common site. The myometrium refers to the muscular wall of the uterus.

      Anatomy of the Uterus

      The uterus is a female reproductive organ that is located within the pelvis and is covered by the peritoneum. It is supplied with blood by the uterine artery, which runs alongside the uterus and anastomoses with the ovarian artery. The uterus is supported by various ligaments, including the central perineal tendon, lateral cervical, round, and uterosacral ligaments. The ureter is located close to the uterus, and injuries to the ureter can occur when there is pathology in the area.

      The uterus is typically anteverted and anteflexed in most women. Its topography can be visualized through imaging techniques such as ultrasound or MRI. Understanding the anatomy of the uterus is important for diagnosing and treating various gynecological conditions.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 30 - John, a 67-year-old male, visited his doctor with concerns about blood in his...

    Incorrect

    • John, a 67-year-old male, visited his doctor with concerns about blood in his urine. He is post-retirement age.

      With a clinical suspicion of bladder cancer, the doctor urgently refers him via the 2-week wait pathway.

      After cystoscopy and biopsy, bladder cancer of the urothelium is excluded and he is given the all clear.

      What is the normal type of epithelium lining the bladder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium

      Explanation:

      The ectocervix is covered by a layer of stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium, while the endocervix is lined with simple columnar epithelium that secretes mucus.

      Abnormal cells are often found in the transformation zone, which is the area where the stratified squamous non-keratinized cells transition into the mucus-secreting simple columnar cells.

      Other examples of epithelial cell types include stratified squamous keratinized epithelium found on palmer skin, and stratified columnar non-keratinized epithelium found on the conjunctiva of the eye.

      Understanding Cervical Cancer and its Risk Factors

      Cervical cancer is a type of cancer that affects the cervix, which is the lower part of the uterus. It is most commonly diagnosed in women under the age of 45, with the highest incidence rates occurring in those aged 25-29. The cancer can be divided into two types: squamous cell cancer and adenocarcinoma. Symptoms of cervical cancer may include abnormal vaginal bleeding, such as postcoital, intermenstrual, or postmenopausal bleeding, as well as vaginal discharge.

      The most significant risk factor for cervical cancer is infection with the human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly serotypes 16, 18, and 33. Other risk factors include smoking, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), early first intercourse, many sexual partners, high parity, and lower socioeconomic status. The mechanism by which HPV causes cervical cancer involves the production of oncogenes E6 and E7 by HPV 16 and 18, respectively. E6 inhibits the p53 tumour suppressor gene, while E7 inhibits the RB suppressor gene.

      While the strength of the association between combined oral contraceptive pill use and cervical cancer is sometimes debated, a large study published in the Lancet in 2007 confirmed the link. It is important for women to undergo routine cervical cancer screening to detect any abnormalities early on and to discuss any potential risk factors with their healthcare provider.

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      • Reproductive System
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