00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - You are alone walking in the countryside when an elderly man collapses in...

    Correct

    • You are alone walking in the countryside when an elderly man collapses in front of you. There is nobody else around. You look, listen and feel, ensuring his airway is open. He is not breathing and is unresponsive. You phone for an ambulance.
      What is the next step that you would take while waiting for the ambulance to arrive?

      Your Answer: Begin chest compressions at a rate of 100–120 per minute, giving two rescue breaths after every 30 compressions

      Explanation:

      How to Perform Chest Compressions and Rescue Breaths in Basic Life Support

      When faced with a non-responsive person who is not breathing, it is important to act quickly and perform basic life support. Begin by confirming that the person is not breathing and calling for an ambulance. Then, kneel by the person’s side and place the heel of one hand in the centre of their chest, with the other hand on top, interlocking fingers. Apply pressure to the sternum to a depth of 5-6 cm at a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute. After 30 compressions, open the airway and give two rescue breaths. Pinch the nose closed and blow steadily into the mouth, watching for the chest to rise. Repeat chest compressions and rescue breaths until help arrives.

      Note: The previous recommendation of two rescue breaths before chest compressions has been replaced with immediate chest compressions. Do not delay potentially life saving resuscitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An 85-year-old woman has been brought to Accident and Emergency from her residential...

    Incorrect

    • An 85-year-old woman has been brought to Accident and Emergency from her residential home due to increasing concern from staff there. She has been experiencing increasing confusion over the past few days, which staff initially attributed to her Alzheimer's dementia. She has a known history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), but no other long-term medical conditions. During the ambulance ride to the hospital, she was given intravenous (IV) paracetamol. Unfortunately, you are unable to obtain any useful medical history from her. However, she is responding to voice only, with some minor abdominal tenderness found on examination and little else. She appears to be in shock, and her vital signs are as follows:
      Temperature 37.6 °C
      Blood pressure 88/52 mmHg
      Heart rate 112 bpm
      Saturations 92% on room air
      An electrocardiogram (ECG) is performed, which shows first-degree heart block and nothing else.
      What type of shock is this woman likely experiencing?

      Your Answer: Hypovolaemic

      Correct Answer: Septic

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Shock Types: A Case Vignette

      An elderly woman presents with a change in mental state, indicating delirium. Abdominal tenderness suggests a urinary tract infection (UTI), which may have progressed to sepsis. Although there is no pyrexia, the patient has received IV paracetamol, which could mask a fever. Anaphylactic shock is unlikely as there is no mention of new medication administration. Hypovolaemic shock is also unlikely as there is no evidence of blood loss or volume depletion. Cardiogenic shock is improbable due to the absence of cardiac symptoms. Neurogenic shock is not a consideration as there is no indication of spinal pathology. Urgent intervention is necessary to treat the sepsis according to sepsis guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      49.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old nurse suddenly falls ill in the break room during her lunch...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old nurse suddenly falls ill in the break room during her lunch break. She has a known severe shellfish allergy. She appears pale and agitated, with a respiratory rate of 60 breaths/minute, audible wheezing, a pulse rate of 130 bpm, and a blood pressure of 80/50 mmHg. Some of her coworkers are present. Anaphylaxis is suspected.

      What is the initial emergency intervention that should be given by her colleagues?

      Your Answer: 0.5 mg of 1 in 1000 adrenaline intramuscular (IM) injection

      Explanation:

      Treatment Algorithm for Anaphylaxis: Medications and IV Fluids

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that requires immediate treatment. The following medications and IV fluids are part of the treatment algorithm for anaphylaxis:

      1. 0.5 mg of 1 in 1000 adrenaline intramuscular (IM) injection: This should be given to treat anaphylaxis, repeated after five minutes if the patient is no better. An IV injection should only be used by experienced practitioners.

      2. Hydrocortisone 200 mg intravenous (IV): Once adrenaline has been administered, IV access should be obtained to administer steroids, fluids and antihistamines.

      3. 1 mg of 1 in 10 000 adrenaline im injection: The recommended initial dose of adrenaline is 0.5 mg im of 1 in 1000 strength.

      4. IV fluids through a wide-bore cannula: Once adrenaline has been administered, IV access should be obtained to administer steroids, fluids and antihistamines.

      5. Promethazine 50 mg IV: Once adrenaline has been administered, IV access should be obtained to administer steroids, fluids and antihistamines.

      It is important to note that administration of adrenaline should not be delayed and the patient’s airway, breathing, and circulation should be assessed before administering any medication. IV access should also be obtained as soon as possible to administer the necessary medications and fluids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old woman presents to Accident and Emergency with chest pain.
    For which of...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to Accident and Emergency with chest pain.
      For which of the following is a chest X-ray the least appropriate as an investigation to best manage the patient?

      Your Answer: Suspected rib fracture without respiratory compromise

      Explanation:

      Indications for Chest X-Ray: When to Perform a CXR

      Chest X-rays (CXRs) are a common imaging modality used to diagnose various conditions affecting the chest. However, it is important to use CXRs judiciously and only when they are likely to provide useful information. Here are some indications for performing a CXR:

      Suspected rib fracture without respiratory compromise: In patients with musculoskeletal chest pain, a CXR should not be the first-line investigation. Instead, a CT scan of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis is more useful. However, if the patient is unstable, has respiratory compromise, or is a child with concerns for radiation exposure, a CXR can be considered.

      Suspected pleural effusion: A CXR is useful in diagnosing pleural effusions, which appear as an opacity with a meniscal superior edge.

      Suspected pneumonia: A CXR is useful in diagnosing pneumonia, which appears as consolidation in the affected lobe of the lung.

      Suspected sepsis: A CXR can be used as part of a septic screen, alongside cultures and urinalysis.

      Suspected pneumothorax: A CXR is diagnostic of a pneumothorax, which appears as air within the pleural space. Treatment modalities can be directed based on the size of the pneumothorax.

      In summary, CXRs should be used judiciously and only when they are likely to provide useful information. In some cases, a CT scan may be more useful as a first-line investigation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 93-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department from a nursing home...

    Correct

    • A 93-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department from a nursing home with a 4-day history of fever and lethargy. He has a background history of chronic urinary catheterisation for benign prostatic hyperplasia. On clinical examination, he is noted to be acutely confused. His temperature is 38.5 °C, and he has a heart rate of 97 bpm, blood pressure of 133/70 mmHg and a respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute.
      Investigation Result Normal value
      White cell count 13 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Blood glucose 6 mmol/l 4–10 mmol/l
      Urinalysis
      2+ blood
      2+ leukocytes
      1+ nitrites
      NAD
      What is the diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Sepsis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sepsis, SIRS, Urinary Tract Infection, and Septic Shock

      Sepsis is a serious medical condition that occurs when the body’s response to an infection causes damage to its own tissues and organs. One way to diagnose sepsis is by using the Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS) criteria, which include tachycardia, tachypnea, fever or hypo/hyperthermia, and leukocytosis, leukopenia, or bandemia. If a patient meets two or more of these criteria, with or without evidence of infection, they may be diagnosed with SIRS.

      A urinary tract infection (UTI) is a common type of infection that can occur in patients with a long-term catheter. However, if a patient with a UTI also meets the SIRS criteria and has a source of infection, they should be treated as sepsis.

      Septic shock is a severe complication of sepsis that occurs when blood pressure drops to dangerously low levels. In this case, there is no evidence of septic shock as the patient’s blood pressure is normal.

      In summary, this patient meets the SIRS criteria for sepsis and has a source of infection, making it a case of high-risk sepsis. It is important to understand the differences between sepsis, SIRS, UTI, and septic shock to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old previously healthy man with a 3-day history of feeling unwell, difficulty...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old previously healthy man with a 3-day history of feeling unwell, difficulty tolerating oral fluids and symptoms of a cold, is referred to the hospital by his primary care physician. The senior Accident and Emergency (A&E) nurse triages him and takes his vital signs, which are mostly normal except for a slightly elevated heart rate (102 bpm). She also performs a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) and draws blood for testing, but the results are pending. The nurse suspects that the ECG shows some abnormalities and consults with the A&E senior resident, who confirms that the QRS complexes are widened, P-waves are absent, and T-waves are abnormally large.
      What is the most appropriate initial course of action?

      Your Answer: 10 ml of 10% calcium gluconate

      Explanation:

      Managing Hyperkalaemia: The Importance of Calcium Gluconate as a Cardioprotectant

      Hyperkalaemia can lead to serious cardiac complications, including suppression of impulse generation and reduced conduction. Therefore, the priority in managing hyperkalaemia is to administer calcium gluconate as a cardioprotectant. This should be followed by the administration of salbutamol nebuliser and Actrapid® with 50% dextrose to shift potassium into the cells. If refractory hyperkalaemia occurs, senior support should be sought, potentially requiring bicarbonate or dialysis. It is important to prioritize the administration of calcium gluconate to prevent potential myocardial infarction. Once interventions have been administered, alerting senior support is recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 70-year-old known cardiopath is brought to hospital by ambulance, complaining of chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old known cardiopath is brought to hospital by ambulance, complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. He looks pale and is very sweaty. Examination reveals a blood pressure of 80/55 mmHg, pulse of 135 bpm, SpO2 of 93% and bibasal wet crackles in the chest, as well as peripheral oedema. Peripheral pulses are palpable. A previous median sternotomy is noted. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals regular tachycardia, with QRS complexes of uniform amplitude, a QRS width of 164 ms and a rate of 135 bpm.
      What is the most important step in management?

      Your Answer: IV furosemide and oxygen

      Correct Answer: DC cardioversion

      Explanation:

      Management of Ventricular Tachycardia in a Patient with Ischaemic Heart Disease

      When faced with a patient with a broad-complex tachycardia, it is important to consider ventricular tachycardia as the most common cause, particularly in patients with a history of ischaemic heart disease. In a haemodynamically unstable patient with regular ventricular tachycardia, the initial step is to evaluate for adverse signs or symptoms. If present, the patient should be sedated and synchronised DC shock should be administered, followed by amiodarone infusion and correction of electrolyte abnormalities. If there are no adverse signs or symptoms, amiodarone IV and correction of electrolyte abnormalities should begin immediately.

      Other management options, such as primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), IV magnesium, aspirin and clopidogrel, IV furosemide, and oxygen, may be indicated depending on the underlying cause of the ventricular tachycardia, but DC cardioversion is the most important step in a haemodynamically unstable patient. Diuretics are not indicated in a hypotensive patient, and improving cardiac function is the key to clearing fluid from the lungs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      35.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 68-year-old man with known long-term chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) visits his...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with known long-term chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) visits his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of increasing breathlessness and wheeze. He reports that a week ago, he could walk to the store and back without getting breathless, but now he cannot even leave his house. He has been coughing up thick green sputum for the past 48 hours and is currently hypoxic - 90% on oxygen saturations, in respiratory distress, and deteriorating rapidly. An ambulance is called, and he is taken to the Emergency Department for treatment.
      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Intravenous (IV) hydrocortisone

      Correct Answer: Nebulised bronchodilators

      Explanation:

      Management of Acute Exacerbation of COPD: Key Steps

      When a patient experiences an acute exacerbation of COPD, prompt and appropriate management is crucial. The following are key steps in managing this condition:

      1. Nebulised bronchodilators: Salbutamol 5 mg/4 hours and ipratropium bromide should be used as first-line treatment for immediate symptom relief.

      2. Steroids: IV hydrocortisone and oral prednisolone should be given following bronchodilator therapy ± oxygen therapy, if needed. Steroids should be continued for up to two weeks.

      3. Oxygen therapy: Care must be taken when giving oxygen due to the risk of losing the patient’s hypoxic drive to breathe. However, oxygen therapy should not be delayed while awaiting arterial blood gas results.

      4. Arterial blood gas: This test will help direct the oxygen therapy required.

      5. Physiotherapy: This can be a useful adjunct treatment in an acute infective exacerbation of COPD, but it is not the most important next step.

      Pulmonary function testing is not indicated in the management of acute COPD exacerbations. While it is useful for measuring severity of disease in patients with COPD to guide their long-term management, it is unnecessary in this acute setting. The most important next step after administering steroids is to add nebulised bronchodilators for immediate symptom relief.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old man is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) after acute...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) after acute haemorrhagic pancreatitis. On day 3, he develops acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).
      Which of the following physiological variables is most likely to be low in this patient?

      Your Answer: Lung compliance

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Pathophysiology of Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome

      Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a life-threatening condition that occurs as a result of damage to the pulmonary and vascular endothelium. This damage leads to increased permeability of the vessels, causing the extravasation of neutrophils, inflammatory factors, and macrophages. The leakage of fluid into the lungs results in diffuse pulmonary edema, which disrupts the production and function of surfactant and impairs gas exchange. This, in turn, causes hypoxemia and impaired carbon dioxide excretion.

      The decrease in lung compliance, lung volumes, and the presence of a large intrapulmonary shunt are the consequences of the edema. ARDS can be caused by pneumonia, sepsis, aspiration of gastric contents, and trauma, and it has a mortality rate of 40%.

      The work of breathing is affected by pulmonary edema, which causes hypoxemia. In the initial phase, hyperventilation and an increased work of breathing compensate for the hypoxemia. However, if the underlying cause is not treated promptly, the patient tires, leading to decreased work of breathing and respiratory arrest.

      The increase in alveolar surface tension has been shown to increase lung water content by lowering interstitial hydrostatic pressure and increasing interstitial oncotic pressure. In ARDS, there is an increase in alveolar-arterial pressure difference due to a ventilation-perfusion defect. Blood is perfusing unventilated segments of the lung. ARDS is also associated with impaired production and function of surfactant, increasing the surface tension of the alveolar fluid.

      In conclusion, understanding the pathophysiology of ARDS is crucial in the management of this life-threatening condition. Early recognition and prompt treatment of the underlying cause can improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department following a fall off...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department following a fall off a ladder. She was witnessed to have lost consciousness at the scene and remained confused with the ambulance personnel. She is complaining of a headache and has vomited three times. Her eyes are open to voice and she is able to squeeze your hand using both hands, when asked, and wiggle her toes. She is confused about what has happened and does not remember falling. Her pupils are equal and reactive.
      How would you manage this patient?

      Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) head scan within 1 h

      Explanation:

      Management of Head Injury: Importance of CT Scan and Neuro Observation

      Head injury is a serious medical condition that requires prompt and appropriate management. The current imaging modality used to investigate brain injury is CT. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) head injury guidelines, patients who sustained a head injury and have any of the following risk factors should be scanned within 1 hour: GCS <13 on initial assessment in the Emergency Department, GCS <15 at 2 hours after the injury on assessment in the Emergency Department, suspected open or depressed skull fracture, any sign of basal skull fracture, post-traumatic seizure, focal neurological deficit, and more than one episode of vomiting. A provisional radiology report should be given to the requesting clinician within 1 hour of the scan performed to aid immediate clinical management. While waiting for the CT scan, the patient should be monitored using a neuro observation chart, and any deterioration needs to be immediately reported to the responsible clinician for the patient’s care. Admitting the patient for neuro observation is crucial to ensure prompt management of any changes in the patient’s condition. There is no indication to discuss the patient with the neurosurgical department at present. Once the imaging has been performed and if new surgically significant intracranial pathology is detected, then discussion of the care plan should take place with the local neurosurgical team. Discussion of the care plan with a neurosurgeon is warranted, regardless of imaging, if any of the following is present: GCS 8 or less persisting despite initial resuscitation, unexplained confusion lasting >4 hours, deterioration in GCS score after admission, progressing focal neurological signs, a seizure without full recovery, CSF leak, suspected/definitive.

      In conclusion, the immediate CT scan and neuro observation are crucial steps in the management of head injury. Discharging a patient with a high-risk head injury is inappropriate and can lead to serious consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 38-year-old man is brought in by ambulance as a trauma call following...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old man is brought in by ambulance as a trauma call following a road traffic collision. On admission, he has a GCS score of 10 and a primary survey reveals asymmetric pupils, an open right forearm fracture, absent breath sounds on the right side, extensive RUQ pain, a painful abdomen, and a systolic blood pressure of 90 mmHg. When prioritizing intervention and stabilization of the patient, which injury should be given priority?

      Your Answer: Absent breath sounds on the right side

      Explanation:

      Prioritizing Management in a Trauma Patient: An ABCDE Approach

      When managing a trauma patient, it is important to prioritize interventions based on the severity of their injuries. Using an ABCDE approach, we can assess and address each issue in order of priority.

      In the case of absent breath sounds on the right side, the priority would be to assess for a potential tension pneumothorax and treat it with needle decompression and chest drain insertion if necessary. Asymmetric pupils suggest an intracranial pathology, which would require confirmation via a CT head, but addressing the potential tension pneumothorax would still take priority.

      RUQ pain and abdominal tenderness would fall under ‘E’, but if there is suspicion of abdominal bleeding, then this would be elevated into the ‘C’ category. Regardless, addressing the breathing abnormality would be the priority here.

      An open forearm fracture would also fall under ‘E’, with the breathing issue needing to be addressed beforehand.

      Finally, the underlying hypotension, potentially caused by abdominal bleeding, falls under ‘C’, and therefore the breathing abnormality should be prioritized.

      In summary, using an ABCDE approach allows for a systematic and prioritized management of trauma patients, ensuring that the most life-threatening issues are addressed first.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old male inpatient with an infective exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old male inpatient with an infective exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has suddenly become very unwell in the space of 10–15 minutes and is struggling to breathe. The nurse tells you he is on intravenous (IV) antibiotics for this exacerbation and has been on the ward for a few days.
      Which one of the following would be the most concerning observation after assessing this patient?

      Your Answer: Left-sided pleuritic chest pain

      Explanation:

      Assessing Symptoms and Vital Signs in a Patient with COPD Exacerbation

      When evaluating a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is experiencing an infective exacerbation, it is important to consider their symptoms and vital signs. Left-sided pleuritic chest pain is a concerning symptom that may indicate pneumothorax, which requires urgent attention. However, it is common for COPD patients with exacerbations to be on non-invasive ventilation (NIV), which is not necessarily alarming. A slightly elevated heart rate and respiratory rate may also be expected in this context. An increased antero-posterior (AP) diameter on X-ray is a typical finding in COPD patients due to hyperinflated lungs. A borderline fever is also common in patients with infective exacerbations of COPD. Overall, a comprehensive assessment of symptoms and vital signs is crucial in managing COPD exacerbations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 75-year-old is brought to the Emergency Department after being found at home...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old is brought to the Emergency Department after being found at home on the floor by her daughter. Her daughter tried to rouse her but had no response. She has a laceration to her head and her daughter believes she may have had a fall. You notice she has a sudden decrease in consciousness in the department. You are unable to get the patient to make any vocalisation. When you apply supraorbital pressure, she briefly opens her eyes and withdraws from the pain.
      Which one of the following is the best immediate management option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Insert Guedel airway

      Explanation:

      Management of a Patient with Low Glasgow Coma Scale Score

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in patients. A patient with a GCS score below 8 requires urgent referral to critical care or the anaesthetist on-call for appropriate management. In this case, the patient has a GCS score of 7 (E2, V1, M4) and needs immediate attention.

      Airway management is the top priority in patients with a low GCS score. The patient may need invasive ventilation if they lose the capacity to maintain their own airway. Once the airway is secured, a referral to the neurosurgical registrar may be necessary, and investigations such as a CT brain scan should be carried out to determine the cause of the low GCS score.

      A neurological observation chart is also needed to detect any deteriorating central nervous system function. A medication review can be done once the patient is stabilised and an intracranial bleed has been ruled out. This will help identify medications that could cause a fall and stop unnecessary medication.

      In summary, a patient with a low GCS score requires urgent attention to secure their airway, determine the cause of the low score, and monitor for any neurological deterioration. A medication review can be done once the patient is stable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - An adolescent recovering from a first-time anaphylactic reaction to shellfish is being discharged.
    What...

    Correct

    • An adolescent recovering from a first-time anaphylactic reaction to shellfish is being discharged.
      What should be done at discharge?

      Your Answer: Discharge with two adrenaline autoinjectors

      Explanation:

      Discharge and Follow-Up of Anaphylactic Patients: Recommendations and Advice

      When it comes to discharging and following up with patients who have experienced anaphylaxis, there are certain recommendations and advice that healthcare professionals should keep in mind. Here are some key points to consider:

      Recommendations and Advice for Discharging and Following Up with Anaphylactic Patients

      – Give two adrenaline injectors as an interim measure after emergency treatment for anaphylaxis, before a specialist allergy service appointment. This is especially important in the event the patient has another anaphylactic attack before their specialist appointment.
      – Auto-injectors are given to patients at an increased risk of a reaction. They are not usually necessary for patients who have suffered drug-induced anaphylaxis, unless it is difficult to avoid the drug.
      – Advise that one adrenaline auto-injector will be prescribed if the patient has a further anaphylactic reaction.
      – Arrange for a blood test after one week for serum tryptase, immunoglobulin E (IgE) and histamine levels to assess biphasic reaction. Discharge and follow-up of anaphylactic patients do not involve a blood test. Tryptase sample timings, measured while the patient is in hospital, should be documented in the patient’s records.
      – Patients who have suffered from anaphylaxis should be given information about the potential of biphasic reactions (i.e. the reaction can recur hours after initial treatment) and what to do if a reaction occurs again.
      – All patients presenting with anaphylaxis should be referred to an Allergy Clinic to identify the cause, and thereby reduce the risk of further reactions and prepare the patient to manage future episodes themselves. All patients should also be given two adrenaline injectors in the event the patient has another anaphylactic attack.

      By following these recommendations and providing patients with the necessary information and resources, healthcare professionals can help ensure the best possible outcomes for those who have experienced anaphylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 42-year-old man is pulled from the water onto the shore by lifeguards...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man is pulled from the water onto the shore by lifeguards after being seen struggling in strong currents. He was underwater for six minutes before being rescued. As a bystander on the beach, you assist in the resuscitation efforts while waiting for the ambulance. The man is unconscious and not breathing. You open his airway.
      What is the next best course of action in attempting to revive this individual?

      Your Answer: Give 30 chest compressions at a rate of 100–120 per minute and two rescue breaths

      Correct Answer: Give five rescue breaths before commencing chest compressions

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Bystander CPR in Drowning Patients

      Drowning patients are at high risk of hypoxia and require immediate intervention. Bystander CPR is crucial in these cases, and it is recommended to give five initial rescue breaths, supplemented with oxygen if available. If the victim does not respond, chest compressions should be started at a rate of 100-120 per minute, with two rescue breaths given for every 30 compressions. Continuous chest compressions are essential for cerebral circulation during cardiac arrest, and rescue breaths should be given until the ambulance arrives. Compression-only CPR is likely to be ineffective in drowning patients and should be avoided. Remember, early intervention can save lives in drowning cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 32-year-old patient is brought in by ambulance to Accident and Emergency. He...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old patient is brought in by ambulance to Accident and Emergency. He is unresponsive, and therefore obtaining a medical history is not possible. He is breathing on his own, but his respiratory rate (RR) is low at 10 breaths per minute and his oxygen saturation is at 90% on room air. His arterial blood gas (ABG) reveals respiratory acidosis, and his pupils are constricted.
      What would be the most suitable medication for initial management in this case?

      Your Answer: Naloxone

      Explanation:

      Antidote Medications: Uses and Dosages

      Naloxone:
      Naloxone is a medication used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose. It works by blocking the opioid receptors in the brain, which can cause respiratory depression and reduced consciousness. It is administered in incremental doses every 3-5 minutes until the desired effect is achieved. However, full reversal may cause withdrawal symptoms and agitation.

      N-acetyl-L-cysteine (NAC):
      NAC is an antidote medication used to treat paracetamol overdose. Paracetamol overdose can cause liver damage and acute liver failure. NAC is administered if the serum paracetamol levels fall to the treatment level on the nomogram or if the overdose is staggered.

      Flumazenil:
      Flumazenil is a specific reversal agent for the sedative effects of benzodiazepines. It works by competing with benzodiazepines for the same receptors in the brain. However, it is not effective in treating pupillary constriction caused by benzodiazepine toxicity.

      Adrenaline:
      Adrenaline is used in the treatment of cardiac arrest and anaphylaxis. It has no role in the treatment of opiate toxicity. The dosage of adrenaline varies depending on the indication, with a stronger concentration required for anaphylaxis compared to cardiac arrest.

      Atropine:
      Atropine is a medication used to treat symptomatic bradycardia, where the patient’s slow heart rate is causing hemodynamic compromise. However, it can cause agitation in the hours following administration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 32-year-old man presents with oral and genital ulcers and a red rash,...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents with oral and genital ulcers and a red rash, parts of which have started to blister. On examination, he is noted to have red eyes. He had been treated with antibiotics ten days ago for a chest infection.
      What is the most probable reason behind these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Herpes simplex

      Correct Answer: Stevens-Johnson syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis: Stevens-Johnson Syndrome and Other Skin Conditions

      Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe medical condition that requires immediate recognition and treatment. It is characterized by blistering of the skin and mucosal surfaces, leading to the loss of the skin barrier. This condition is rare and is part of a spectrum of diseases that includes toxic epidermal necrolysis. Stevens-Johnson syndrome is the milder end of this spectrum.

      The use of certain drugs can trigger the activation of cytotoxic CD8+ T-cells, which attack the skin’s keratinocytes, leading to blister formation and skin sloughing. It is important to note that mucosal involvement may precede cutaneous manifestations. Stevens-Johnson syndrome is associated with the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, allopurinol, antibiotics, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, phenytoin, and others.

      Prompt treatment is essential, as the condition can progress to multi-organ failure and death if left untreated. Expert clinicians and nursing staff should manage the treatment to minimize skin shearing, fluid loss, and disease progression.

      Other skin conditions that may present similarly to Stevens-Johnson syndrome include herpes simplex, bullous pemphigoid, pemphigus vulgaris, and graft-versus-host disease. Herpes simplex virus infection causes oral and genital ulceration but does not involve mucosal surfaces. Bullous pemphigoid is an autoimmune blistering condition that affects the skin but not the mucosa. Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune condition that affects both the skin and mucosal surfaces. Graft-versus-host disease is unlikely in the absence of a history of transplantation.

      In conclusion, Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe medical condition that requires prompt recognition and treatment. It is essential to differentiate it from other skin conditions that may present similarly to ensure appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 54-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-week history...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-week history of productive cough and fever. She has had no sick contacts or foreign travel. She has a background history of mild intermittent asthma and is a non-smoker. She has been taking paracetamol and salbutamol. On clinical examination, her respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute, oxygen saturations 96% (on room air), blood pressure 136/82 mmHg and temperature 38.2 °C. On chest auscultation, there is mild expiratory wheeze and coarse crackles in the right lung base.
      What is the most appropriate management of this woman?

      Your Answer: Prescribe amoxicillin 500 mg three times daily for five days

      Explanation:

      Management of Community-Acquired Pneumonia in a Woman with a CRB-65 Score of 0

      When managing a woman with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) and a CRB-65 score of 0, the recommended treatment is amoxicillin 500 mg three times daily for five days. If there is no improvement after three days, the duration of treatment should be extended to seven to ten days.

      If the CRB-65 score is 1 or 2, dual therapy with amoxicillin 500 mg three times daily and clarithromycin 500 mg twice daily for 7-10 days, or monotherapy with doxycycline for 7-10 days, should be considered. However, in this case, the CRB-65 score is 0, so this is not necessary.

      Admission for intravenous (IV) antibiotics and steroids is not required for this woman, as she is relatively well with mild wheeze and a CRB-65 score of 0. A chest X-ray is also not necessary, as she is younger and a non-smoker.

      Symptomatic management should be continued, and the woman should be advised to return in three days if there is no improvement. It is important to prescribe antibiotics for people with suspected CAP, unless this is not appropriate, such as in end-of-life care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 15-year-old with a known peanut allergy arrives at the Emergency Department after...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old with a known peanut allergy arrives at the Emergency Department after consuming a peanut butter sandwich. During the examination, she displays symptoms of anaphylaxis.
      What is the initial sign that is likely to appear first in a patient experiencing anaphylaxis?

      Your Answer: Runny nose, skin rash, swelling of the lips

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Signs of Anaphylaxis: From Early Symptoms to Late Indicators of Shock

      Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. The first signs of anaphylaxis may look like normal symptoms of an allergy, such as a runny nose, skin rash, and swelling of the lips. However, if left untreated, more serious signs can appear within 30 minutes, indicating compromise of circulation and end-organs.

      One of the later and more severe indicators of respiratory compromise in patients with anaphylaxis is stridor. This is a prominent wheezing sound caused by the obstruction of the airway due to swelling of the lips, tongue, and throat. If the swelling continues, complete blockage can occur, resulting in asphyxiation.

      Hypotension is another late sign of anaphylaxis when the patient goes into shock. During anaphylaxis, the body reacts and releases chemicals such as histamine, causing blood vessels to vasodilate and leading to a drop in blood pressure. This can result in episodes of syncope, or fainting, as well as other symptoms of end-organ dysfunction such as hypotonia and incontinence.

      A weak pulse is also a late sign of anaphylaxis, indicating compromised circulation. However, it is not one of the first signs to present, as the body goes through a series of reactions before reaching this stage.

      In summary, understanding the signs of anaphylaxis is crucial for prompt treatment and prevention of life-threatening complications. Early symptoms such as a runny nose, skin rash, and swelling of the lips should not be ignored, as they can progress to more severe indicators of respiratory and circulatory compromise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 65-year-old man, with a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation being treated...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man, with a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation being treated with warfarin, experiences a catastrophic intracranial hemorrhage. Despite receiving the highest level of organ support in the ICU, he fails to show any signs of improvement. Before deciding to withdraw organ support, he is evaluated for brain death.
      What healthcare professionals are necessary to diagnose brain death?

      Your Answer: Two doctors, one of whom must be a consultant, both fully registered for at least five years and both competent in the assessment, conduct and interpretation of brainstem examinations

      Explanation:

      Requirements for Diagnosis of Death by Neurological Criteria

      To diagnose death by neurological criteria, at least two medical practitioners must be involved. They should be fully registered for at least five years and competent in the assessment, conduct, and interpretation of brainstem examinations. At least one of the doctors must be a consultant, but not both.

      It is important to note that a nurse cannot be one of the medical practitioners involved in the diagnosis. Additionally, the number of doctors required for the diagnosis does not need to be three, as two competent doctors are sufficient.

      Overall, the diagnosis of death by neurological criteria should be taken seriously and conducted by qualified medical professionals to ensure accuracy and ethical considerations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 34-year-old surgical patient develops wheeze, lip swelling, and pallor while receiving antibiotics....

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old surgical patient develops wheeze, lip swelling, and pallor while receiving antibiotics. Her blood pressure is 70/38 mmHg. What urgent treatment is required?

      Your Answer: 1:10,000 IM adrenaline

      Correct Answer: 1:1000 IM adrenaline

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Correct Treatment for Anaphylaxis

      Anaphylaxis is a severe medical emergency that requires immediate treatment. The administration of adrenaline via the intramuscular (IM) route is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis. Adrenaline’s inotropic action provides an immediate response, making it a lifesaving treatment. Once the patient is stabilized, intravenous hydrocortisone and chlorphenamine can also be administered. However, adrenaline remains the primary treatment.

      It is crucial to conduct a full ABCDE assessment and involve an anaesthetist if there are concerns about the airway. Using 1:10,000 IM adrenaline is sub-therapeutic in the setting of anaphylaxis. This dose is only used during cardiopulmonary resuscitation. Similarly, 1:10,000 IM noradrenaline is the wrong choice of drug and dose for anaphylaxis treatment.

      Intramuscular glucagon is used to treat severe hypoglycemia when the patient is unconscious or too drowsy to administer glucose replacement therapy orally. Intravenous noradrenaline is not the correct drug or route for anaphylaxis treatment. Understanding the correct treatment for anaphylaxis is crucial in saving lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A middle-aged woman is brought to the Emergency Department (ED), after being found...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged woman is brought to the Emergency Department (ED), after being found unconscious in the town centre by members of the police. She is poorly kept, and a police handover reports that she has no fixed abode. She is well known to various members of ED. On arrival in ED, she is still unconscious. Her airway is patent; she is saturating at 94% on room air, with a respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min. She is haemodynamically stable, with a temperature of 35.6 °C and small, constricted pupils. There appears to be an area of minor external bleeding and a scalp haematoma on the back of her head.
      What is the most appropriate initial course of action?

      Your Answer: Naloxone 400 μg intramuscularly (IM)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Priorities for Opioid Overdose: A Case Vignette

      In cases of suspected opioid overdose, the priority is to address respiratory compromise with the administration of naloxone. The British National Formulary recommends an initial dose of 400 μg, with subsequent doses of 800 μg at 1-minute intervals if necessary, and a final dose of 2 mg if there is still no response. Naloxone acts as a non-selective and competitive opioid receptor antagonist, and is a relatively safe drug.

      In the case of an unkempt man with a low respiratory rate and pinpoint pupils, the priority is to administer naloxone. High-flow oxygen is not necessary if the patient is maintaining saturations of 94%. A CT head scan or neurosurgical referral may be necessary in cases of head injury, but in this case, the priority is to address the opioid overdose.

      Flumazenil, a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist, is not the correct choice for opioid overdose. Benzodiazepine overdose presents with CNS depression, ataxia, and slurred speech, but not pupillary constriction. Naloxone is the appropriate antidote for opioid overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 25-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department in a very unwell state....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department in a very unwell state. She reports having had the flu for the past few days and is having difficulty keeping anything down. She feels weak, drowsy, and disoriented, and experiences dizziness upon standing. Upon observation, you note that she is tachycardic and hypotensive and has a fever. She informs you that she only takes hydrocortisone 20 mg orally (PO) once daily for Addison's disease. What is the most crucial management step in this case?

      Your Answer: Give 100 mg hydrocortisone IM STAT

      Explanation:

      When a patient experiences an Addisonian crisis, the first-line treatment is to administer 100 mg of hydrocortisone intramuscularly. It is important for patients with Addison’s disease to carry an autoinjector in case of emergencies. After administering hydrocortisone, fluid resuscitation should be carried out, and glucose may be added if the patient is hypoglycemic. Fludrocortisone may be used if the crisis is caused by adrenal disease. Oral hydrocortisone should not be given if the patient is vomiting. In cases of hypoglycemia, hydrocortisone should be given before glucose gel. Blood tests should be carried out urgently, and IV fluids may be necessary. Fludrocortisone may be given after hydrocortisone if the cause is adrenal disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 28-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department after an episode of...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department after an episode of near-drowning. He fell from a boat into a lake and was unable to swim. He was underwater for < 2 minutes before he was rescued. He did not lose consciousness. He reports swallowing lots of water and vomited twice in the ambulance. He is awake and alert; his observations are as follows: blood pressure 126/76 mmHg, pulse 94 bpm, oxygen saturations 94% on room air, and temperature 36 °C. He is coughing occasionally, and his lungs are clear to auscultation. One hour after the episode, he feels well and wishes to go home.
      What is the best management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Admit overnight for observation

      Explanation:

      Management of Near-Drowning Patients: Recommendations for Observation and Treatment

      Admission for Observation:
      If a patient has experienced near-drowning but is awake and alert, it is recommended to observe them for at least six hours. This is because pulmonary oedema, a potential complication, may develop later on (usually within four hours).

      Discharge Home:
      While it may be tempting to discharge a patient after only one hour of observation, it is important to note that pulmonary oedema can occur late in near-drowning cases. Therefore, it is recommended to observe the patient for at least six hours before considering discharge.

      Admission to ICU:
      If the patient is alert and stable, there is no indication to admit them to the ICU. In cases where submersion durations are less than 10 minutes, the chances of a good outcome are very high.

      Antibiotics and IV Fluids:
      The need for antibiotics and IV fluids depends on the severity of the near-drowning incident. If the water was grossly contaminated, antibiotics may be necessary. However, if the patient is alert and able to swallow, oral antibiotics can be given. IV fluids are not necessary if the patient is haemodynamically stable and alert.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 28 year old patient is brought in by ambulance to the emergency...

    Correct

    • A 28 year old patient is brought in by ambulance to the emergency department. He is a known intravenous drug user and is currently presenting with mild respiratory depression, reduced level of consciousness, and pinpoint pupils. What would be the most appropriate medication for initial management?

      Your Answer: Naloxone

      Explanation:

      Medication Antidotes: Understanding the Role of Naloxone, Flumazenil, N-acetyl-L-cysteine, Adrenaline, and Atropine

      Naloxone is a medication used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose. Pinpoint pupils, reduced level of consciousness, and respiratory depression are common symptoms of opioid toxicity. Naloxone should be administered in incremental doses to avoid full reversal, which can cause withdrawal symptoms and agitation.

      Flumazenil is a specific antidote for benzodiazepine sedation. However, it would not be effective in cases of pupillary constriction.

      N-acetyl-L-cysteine is the antidote for paracetamol overdose, which can cause liver damage and acute liver failure.

      Adrenaline is used in cardiac arrest and anaphylaxis, but it has no role in the treatment of opiate toxicity.

      Atropine is a muscarinic antagonist used to treat symptomatic bradycardia. However, it can cause agitation in the hours following administration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 35-year-old patient arrives by ambulance after developing breathing difficulties. She is otherwise...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old patient arrives by ambulance after developing breathing difficulties. She is otherwise healthy but had recently been prescribed amoxicillin by her doctor for a lower respiratory tract infection.
      During examination, she is unable to speak and has harsh upper airway sounds on inspiration. She also has a noticeable rash. Her pulse is 160 bpm and her blood pressure is 80/40. Her oxygen saturation is 90% on high-flow oxygen.
      What is the initial step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Administer 0.5 ml of 1 : 1000 adrenaline solution intramuscularly (im)

      Explanation:

      Management of Anaphylaxis: Initial Steps and Common Mistakes

      Anaphylaxis is a life-threatening emergency that requires prompt and appropriate management. The initial steps in managing anaphylaxis follow the ABCDE approach, which includes securing the airway, administering high-flow oxygen, and giving adrenaline intramuscularly (IM). The recommended dose of adrenaline is 0.5 ml of 1 : 1000 solution, which can be repeated after 5 minutes if necessary. However, administering adrenaline via the intravenous (IV) route should only be done during cardiac arrest or by a specialist experienced in its use for circulatory support.

      While other interventions such as giving a 500-ml bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride IV, administering 10 mg of chlorphenamine IV, and administering 200 mg of hydrocortisone IV are important parts of overall management, they should not be the first steps. Giving steroids, such as hydrocortisone, may take several hours to take effect, and anaphylaxis can progress rapidly. Similarly, administering IV fluids and antihistamines may be necessary to treat hypotension and relieve symptoms, but they should not delay the administration of adrenaline.

      One common mistake in managing anaphylaxis is administering IV adrenaline in the wrong dose and route. This can lead to fatal complications and should be avoided. Therefore, it is crucial to follow the recommended initial steps and seek expert help if necessary to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 17-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department via ambulance with reduced...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department via ambulance with reduced level of consciousness, non-blanching rash, headache, neck stiffness and fever. Her mother accompanies her and states that this confusion started several hours previously. She also states that her daughter has not passed urine since the previous day, at least 16 hours ago. On clinical examination, she appears unwell and confused, and she has a purpuric rash over her lower limbs. Her observation results are as follows:
      Temperature 39.5 °C
      Blood pressure 82/50 mmHg
      Heart rate 120 bpm
      Respiratory rate 20 breaths per minute
      Which of the following are high-risk criteria when diagnosing and risk-stratifying suspected sepsis?

      Your Answer: Not passing urine for the previous 16 hours

      Correct Answer: Systolic blood pressure of 82 mmHg

      Explanation:

      Understanding the High-Risk Criteria for Suspected Sepsis

      Sepsis is a life-threatening condition that requires prompt medical attention. To help healthcare professionals identify and grade the severity of suspected sepsis, certain high-risk criteria are used. Here are some important points to keep in mind:

      – A systolic blood pressure of 90 mmHg or less, or a systolic blood pressure of > 40 mmHg below normal, is a high-risk criterion for grading the severity of suspected sepsis. A moderate- to high-risk criterion is a systolic blood pressure of 91–100 mmHg.
      – Not passing urine for the previous 18 hours is a high-risk criterion for grading the severity of suspected sepsis. For catheterised patients, passing < 0.5 ml/kg of urine per hour is also a high-risk criterion, as is a heart rate of > 130 bpm. Not passing urine for 12-18 hours is considered a ‘amber flag’ for sepsis.
      – Objective evidence of new altered mental state is a high-risk criteria for grading the severity of suspected sepsis. Moderate- to high-risk criteria would include: history from patient, friend or relative of new onset of altered behaviour or mental state and history of acute deterioration of functional ability.
      – Non-blanching rash of the skin, as well as a mottled or ashen appearance and cyanosis of the skin, lips or tongue, are high-risk criteria for severe sepsis.
      – A raised respiratory rate of 25 breaths per minute or more is a high-risk criterion for sepsis, as is a new need for oxygen with 40% FiO2 (fraction of inspired oxygen) or more to maintain saturation of > 92% (or > 88% in known chronic obstructive pulmonary disease). A raised respiratory rate is 21–24 breaths per minute.

      By understanding these high-risk criteria, healthcare professionals can quickly identify and treat suspected sepsis, potentially saving lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 50-year-old publican presents with severe epigastric pain and vomiting for the past...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old publican presents with severe epigastric pain and vomiting for the past 8 hours. He is becoming dehydrated and confused. Shortly after admission, he develops increasing shortness of breath. On examination, he has a blood pressure of 128/75 mmHg, a pulse of 92 bpm, and bilateral crackles on chest auscultation. The jugular venous pressure is not elevated. Laboratory investigations reveal a haemoglobin level of 118 g/l, a WCC of 14.8 × 109/l, a platelet count of 162 × 109/l, a sodium level of 140 mmol/l, a potassium level of 4.8 mmol/l, a creatinine level of 195 μmol/l, and an amylase level of 1330 U/l. Arterial blood gas analysis shows a pH of 7.31, a pO2 of 8.2 kPa, and a pCO2 of 5.5 kPa. Chest X-ray reveals bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute (adult) respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

      Explanation:

      Mucopolysacchirodosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      34.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old woman is admitted to the Emergency Department with vomiting. She has...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman is admitted to the Emergency Department with vomiting. She has vague abdominal pain, and a particularly keen junior surgeon takes her to theatre for an appendectomy; the appendix is removed and is normal. In recovery, she becomes hypotensive and tachycardic and does not respond as expected to fluid replacement. On examination, she is very well tanned and slim; her blood pressure is 90/65 mmHg, with a pulse rate of 100 bpm.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Potassium (K+) 6.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Sodium (Na+) 127 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Urea 9.1 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 165 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Haemoglobin 98 g/l (normochromic normocytic) 115–155 g/l
      Free T4 6.2 pmol/l (low) 11–22 pmol/l
      Which of the following fits best with this clinical scenario?

      Your Answer: iv hydrocortisone is the initial treatment of choice

      Explanation:

      The recommended initial treatment for patients experiencing an adrenal crisis is intravenous hydrocortisone. This is because the adrenal glands are not producing enough cortisol, which can lead to severe adrenal insufficiency. The most common causes of an adrenal crisis include undiagnosed adrenal insufficiency with associated major stress, abrupt cessation of glucocorticoid therapy, and bilateral infarction of the adrenal glands. Symptoms of an adrenal crisis can include hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, renal impairment, and normochromic normocytic anemia, as well as non-specific symptoms such as vomiting, abdominal pain, weakness, fever, and lethargy. The patient’s tan may be due to increased melanocyte activity caused by raised levels of adrenocorticotrophic hormone. Intravenous T3 replacement may be effective in treating the patient’s low free T4 levels, which are likely a result of adrenal insufficiency. Fluid replacement alone will not be sufficient to treat the patient’s shock, which is the main manifestation of an adrenal crisis. Normochromic normocytic anemia can be treated with corticosteroid replacement, and the patient’s deranged renal function is likely a result of sepsis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - An 81-year-old man, who is confused and aggressive, is admitted to the Medical...

    Incorrect

    • An 81-year-old man, who is confused and aggressive, is admitted to the Medical Admission Unit. He is unable to give any history due to confusion. His wife had taken him to the general practice surgery yesterday due to increased confusion, and trimethoprim was prescribed to treat a urinary tract infection. From a previous discharge letter, you ascertain that he has a background of Alzheimer’s dementia, atrial fibrillation (AF), ischaemic heart disease and osteoarthritis. His wife reports that he is normally forgetful but is much more confused than usual.
      On examination, his pulse is 124 bpm (irregularly irregular), blood pressure 134/74 mmHg, oxygen saturation (SaO2) 95% (on 28% oxygen), respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute and temperature 38.4 °C. He has crepitations and increased vocal resonance at the right lung base, with an area of bronchial breathing above this. Neurological examination of the upper and lower limbs is normal.
      Chest X-ray (CXR): focal consolidation, right base
      Electrocardiogram (ECG): AF with rapid ventricular response
      Urine dip: protein ++, otherwise NAD
      Blood results are pending.
      What is the most likely cause of this patient's acute deterioration?

      Your Answer: Urinary tract infection

      Correct Answer: Community-acquired pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Acute Deterioration in Elderly Patients: Community-Acquired Pneumonia as the Likely Cause

      Elderly patients with underlying dementia often present with non-specific symptoms, making it challenging to diagnose the cause of acute deterioration. In this case, the patient presented with acute confusion, and potential causes included community-acquired pneumonia, urinary tract infection, atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response, and progression of Alzheimer’s disease. However, clinically and radiologically, the patient showed evidence of community-acquired pneumonia, making it the most likely diagnosis.

      Urinary tract infection and Alzheimer’s disease were ruled out based on urinalysis findings and chest findings, respectively. Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response could have been a cause of the patient’s confusion, but the clinical findings suggested pneumonia as the primary cause. Myocardial infarction was also a possibility, but the chest findings made it less likely.

      In conclusion, diagnosing acute deterioration in elderly patients with underlying dementia requires a thorough evaluation of potential causes. In this case, community-acquired pneumonia was the most likely diagnosis, highlighting the importance of considering multiple pathologies that can coexist in elderly patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      18
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Acute Medicine And Intensive Care (22/30) 73%
Passmed