00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 20-year-old woman presents with complaints of malaise, tiredness, headache and abdominal discomfort...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old woman presents with complaints of malaise, tiredness, headache and abdominal discomfort over the past 3–4 days. She was prescribed amoxicillin two days ago and has developed a rash. She has lymphadenopathy and exudative tonsillitis. Her white cell count shows abnormal lymphocytosis.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Infectious mononucleosis

      Explanation:

      Common Viral Infections: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Infectious mononucleosis, also known as the kissing disease, is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus and is characterized by fever, pharyngitis, and adenopathy. It is primarily transmitted through intimate contact with body secretions, particularly oropharyngeal secretions. Pharyngitis is caused by the proliferation of infected B lymphocytes in the lymphatic tissue of the oropharynx. It is most common in young adults and can be mistaken for streptococcal pharyngitis.

      German measles, or rubella, is a communicable exanthematous disease that is generally benign. However, pregnant women who contract the disease in the early weeks of gestation can experience teratogenic effects. The exanthema of rubella consists of a rose-pink maculopapular rash that starts on the face and neck and spreads to the trunk and extremities within 24 hours. It typically fades by the end of the third day.

      Chickenpox is a childhood illness caused by the varicella-zoster virus. It is characterized by a vesicular exanthem and is typically self-limited and mild.

      Herpes simplex viruses are host-adapted pathogens that cause a wide variety of disease states. HSV-1 is associated with orofacial disease, while HSV-2 is associated with genital disease. Oropharyngeal HSV-1 infection causes pharyngitis and tonsillitis more often than gingivostomatitis. Herpes labialis, or cold sores, is the most common manifestation of recurrent HSV-1 infection.

      Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection is prevalent in developed countries, with at least 60% of the population having been exposed. It typically causes an asymptomatic infection or produces mild flu-like symptoms, with few clinical findings on physical examination. High-risk groups, such as fetuses whose mothers become infected during pregnancy or people with HIV, are more susceptible to severe complications.

      Overview of Common Viral Infections and Their Characteristics

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 45-year-old man is diagnosed with end-stage renal disease. What is the most...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man is diagnosed with end-stage renal disease. What is the most frequent complication that may arise when considering long-term peritoneal dialysis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Squamous cell cancer of the skin

      Correct Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Chronic dialysis patients may experience median nerve compression, which can be caused by oedema or vascular insufficiency related to a dialysis shunt or fistula. Amyloid disease, which can infiltrate the synovium within the carpal tunnel, may also contribute to nerve compression in patients with renal failure. Anaemia is a common complication of chronic kidney disease, resulting from decreased renal synthesis of erythropoietin. This type of anaemia is normochromic normocytic and can lead to the development of new-onset heart failure. However, the use of erythropoiesis-stimulating agents has reduced the incidence of congestive heart failure due to anaemia. Squamous cell skin cancer is a type of skin cancer that is strongly associated with high total exposure to ultraviolet radiation from the sun. Individuals who have received solid organ transplants and are taking chronic immunosuppressive medication are at a significantly increased risk of developing this type of cancer, particularly squamous cell carcinoma. There is no known increased risk of gastrointestinal malignancy in patients on long-term haemodialysis. Immunosuppression, such as in the case of kidney transplant recipients, is associated with an increased risk of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 63-year-old woman with no significant medical history presents with chest pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman with no significant medical history presents with chest pain and an ECG showing anterolateral T wave inversion. Her troponin I level at 12 hours is 300 ng/L (reference range < 50 ng/L). She is managed conservatively and discharged on aspirin, atorvastatin, bisoprolol, and ramipril. What is the appropriate use of ticagrelor in this case?

      Your Answer: Should be prescribed for life for all patients

      Correct Answer: Should be prescribed for the next 12 months for all patients

      Explanation:

      Myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious condition that requires proper management to prevent further complications. In 2013, NICE released guidelines on the secondary prevention of MI. One of the key recommendations is the use of four drugs: dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin plus a second antiplatelet agent), ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, and statin. Patients are also advised to adopt a Mediterranean-style diet and engage in regular exercise. Sexual activity may resume four weeks after an uncomplicated MI, and PDE5 inhibitors may be used six months after the event.

      Most patients with acute coronary syndrome are now given dual antiplatelet therapy, with ticagrelor and prasugrel being the preferred options. The treatment period for these drugs is 12 months, after which they should be stopped. However, this period may be adjusted for patients at high risk of bleeding or further ischaemic events. Additionally, patients with heart failure and left ventricular systolic dysfunction should be treated with an aldosterone antagonist within 3-14 days of the MI, preferably after ACE inhibitor therapy.

      Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to the secondary prevention of MI. By following these recommendations, patients can reduce their risk of further complications and improve their overall health outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      29.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A client is observed to have a missing triceps reflex. To which nerve...

    Incorrect

    • A client is observed to have a missing triceps reflex. To which nerve root does this correspond?

      Your Answer: C6-C7

      Correct Answer: C7-C8

      Explanation:

      Understanding Common Reflexes

      Reflexes are automatic responses of the body to certain stimuli. These responses are controlled by the nervous system and do not require conscious thought. Common reflexes include the ankle reflex, knee reflex, biceps reflex, and triceps reflex. Each reflex is associated with a specific root in the spinal cord.

      The ankle reflex is associated with the S1-S2 root, which is located in the lower part of the spinal cord. This reflex is elicited by tapping the Achilles tendon with a reflex hammer. The resulting contraction of the calf muscle indicates the integrity of the spinal cord and the peripheral nerves.

      The knee reflex is associated with the L3-L4 root, which is located in the middle part of the spinal cord. This reflex is elicited by tapping the patellar tendon with a reflex hammer. The resulting contraction of the quadriceps muscle indicates the integrity of the spinal cord and the peripheral nerves.

      The biceps reflex is associated with the C5-C6 root, which is located in the upper part of the spinal cord. This reflex is elicited by tapping the biceps tendon with a reflex hammer. The resulting contraction of the biceps muscle indicates the integrity of the spinal cord and the peripheral nerves.

      The triceps reflex is associated with the C7-C8 root, which is located in the upper part of the spinal cord. This reflex is elicited by tapping the triceps tendon with a reflex hammer. The resulting contraction of the triceps muscle indicates the integrity of the spinal cord and the peripheral nerves.

      Understanding these common reflexes can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat various neurological conditions. By testing these reflexes, they can determine if there is any damage or dysfunction in the nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      104.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 21-year-old is brought unconscious to the Emergency Department. An alert ambulance attendant...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old is brought unconscious to the Emergency Department. An alert ambulance attendant notes that the patient's breath smells like fruit punch. The patient was found holding a glass containing a clear liquid, and the ambulance attendant had noted a syringe on the patient's coffee table and a pool of vomit near the patient.
      With which of the following would this presentation be most consistent?

      Your Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between medical conditions based on breath scent

      When a comatose patient presents with a distinct scent on their breath, it can be a helpful clue in determining the underlying medical condition. The smell of acetone is strongly indicative of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which is commonly seen in patients with poorly controlled type I diabetes. In contrast, alcohol intoxication produces a scent of alcohol rather than a fruity odor. Diabetic hyperosmolar coma, typically seen in older patients with type II diabetes, does not produce a specific scent as there is no acetone production. Heroin overdose and profound hypoglycemia also do not result in a distinct breath scent. Understanding the different scents associated with various medical conditions can aid in prompt and accurate diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 64-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of worsening dyspnea. Upon taking...

    Correct

    • A 64-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of worsening dyspnea. Upon taking a detailed medical history and conducting a thorough physical examination, the GP orders an outpatient chest CT scan. The results reveal lung fibrosis as the likely cause of the patient's symptoms. The patient has a medical history of gout and rheumatoid arthritis. Which medication prescribed to the patient is most likely responsible for causing lung fibrosis?

      Your Answer: Sulfasalazine

      Explanation:

      Drugs that can lead to lung fibrosis

      Lung fibrosis is a condition where the lung tissue becomes scarred and thickened, making it difficult for the lungs to function properly. There are several drugs that can cause lung fibrosis as a side effect. These drugs include amiodarone, which is used to treat heart rhythm problems, cytotoxic agents such as busulphan and bleomycin, which are used to treat cancer, and anti-rheumatoid drugs like methotrexate and sulfasalazine. Nitrofurantoin, an antibiotic used to treat urinary tract infections, and ergot-derived dopamine receptor agonists like bromocriptine, cabergoline, and pergolide, which are used to treat Parkinson’s disease, can also cause lung fibrosis. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of these drugs and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider. Proper monitoring and management can help prevent or minimize the risk of lung fibrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You are on-call and reviewing a potassium result. The patient's details are as...

    Incorrect

    • You are on-call and reviewing a potassium result. The patient's details are as follows:
      Na+ 141 mmol/l
      K+ 6.4 mmol/l
      Bicarbonate 16 mmol/l
      Urea 13.1 mmol/l
      Creatinine 195 µmol/l
      You are uncertain about administering calcium gluconate and decide to seek advice from your senior. She advises you to only give calcium gluconate if there are ECG changes. What ECG changes are most indicative of hyperkalaemia in a patient who is 60 years old?

      Your Answer: U waves

      Correct Answer: Widening of the QRS complex

      Explanation:

      ECG characteristics of hypokalaemia include a prolonged QT interval, prolonged PR interval, and the presence of U waves.

      Understanding Hyperkalaemia: Causes and Symptoms

      Hyperkalaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. The regulation of plasma potassium levels is influenced by various factors such as aldosterone, insulin levels, and acid-base balance. When metabolic acidosis occurs, hyperkalaemia may develop as hydrogen and potassium ions compete for exchange with sodium ions across cell membranes and in the distal tubule. ECG changes that may be observed in hyperkalaemia include tall-tented T waves, small P waves, widened QRS leading to a sinusoidal pattern, and asystole.

      There are several causes of hyperkalaemia, including acute kidney injury, metabolic acidosis, Addison’s disease, rhabdomyolysis, and massive blood transfusion. Certain drugs such as potassium-sparing diuretics, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, spironolactone, ciclosporin, and heparin can also cause hyperkalaemia. It is important to note that beta-blockers can interfere with potassium transport into cells and potentially cause hyperkalaemia in renal failure patients. On the other hand, beta-agonists like Salbutamol are sometimes used as emergency treatment.

      Foods that are high in potassium include salt substitutes, bananas, oranges, kiwi fruit, avocado, spinach, and tomatoes. It is essential to monitor potassium levels in the blood to prevent complications associated with hyperkalaemia. If left untreated, hyperkalaemia can lead to serious health problems such as cardiac arrhythmias and even death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      58
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old female with a history of alcoholic liver disease presents with frank...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female with a history of alcoholic liver disease presents with frank haematemesis. She had been discharged just two months ago after receiving treatment for bleeding oesophageal varices. What is the most suitable course of action to take while waiting for endoscopy after resuscitation?

      Your Answer: Omeprazole

      Correct Answer: Terlipressin

      Explanation:

      Variceal haemorrhage is a serious condition that requires prompt management. The initial treatment involves resuscitation of the patient before endoscopy. Correcting clotting with FFP and vitamin K is important, as is the use of vasoactive agents such as terlipressin or octreotide. Prophylactic IV antibiotics are also recommended to reduce mortality in patients with liver cirrhosis. Endoscopic variceal band ligation is the preferred method of treatment, and the use of a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube or Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPSS) may be necessary if bleeding cannot be controlled. Propranolol and EVL are effective in preventing rebleeding and mortality, and are recommended by NICE guidelines. Proton pump inhibitor cover is given to prevent EVL-induced ulceration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      46.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old administrative assistant complains of pain on the thumb side of her...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old administrative assistant complains of pain on the thumb side of her left wrist, persisting for the past week. She also notices that her left wrist seems more swollen than her right. During the examination, she experiences discomfort over her radial styloid when her thumb is forcefully flexed.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tenosynovitis

      Explanation:

      The patient is positive for Finkelstein test, indicating De Quervain’s tenosynovitis. This condition causes pain over the radial styloid when the thumb is forcefully abducted or flexed. Unlike De Quervain’s tenosynovitis, rheumatoid arthritis affects both sides of the body. Mallet thumb is an injury that causes the thumb to bend towards the palm. Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by compression of the median nerve and results in numbness and tingling in the thumb, index, and middle fingers. Osteoarthritis is a degenerative condition that primarily affects the elderly due to mechanical wear and tear.

      De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is a condition that commonly affects women between the ages of 30 and 50. It occurs when the sheath containing the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons becomes inflamed. The condition is characterized by pain on the radial side of the wrist, tenderness over the radial styloid process, and pain when the thumb is abducted against resistance. A positive Finkelstein’s test, in which the thumb is pulled in ulnar deviation and longitudinal traction, can also indicate the presence of tenosynovitis.

      Treatment for De Quervain’s tenosynovitis typically involves analgesia, steroid injections, and immobilization with a thumb splint (spica). In some cases, surgical treatment may be necessary. With proper diagnosis and treatment, most patients are able to recover from this condition and resume their normal activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You are urgently called to the ward where you encounter a 54-year-old woman...

    Correct

    • You are urgently called to the ward where you encounter a 54-year-old woman in ventricular tachycardia. The patient had a syncopal episode while walking to the restroom with nursing staff and currently has a blood pressure (BP) of 85/56 mmHg. Although she is oriented to time, place, and person, she is experiencing dizziness. What is the most suitable approach to managing this patient's ventricular tachycardia?

      Your Answer: Synchronised direct current (DC) cardioversion

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Ventricular Tachycardia

      Ventricular tachycardia is a serious cardiac arrhythmia that requires prompt treatment. The Resuscitation Council tachycardia guideline recommends immediate synchronised electrical cardioversion for unstable patients with ventricular tachycardia who exhibit adverse features such as shock, myocardial ischaemia, syncope, or heart failure. Synchronised cardioversion is preferred over unsynchronised cardioversion as it reduces the risk of causing ventricular fibrillation or cardiac arrest.

      In the event that synchronised cardioversion fails to restore sinus rhythm after three attempts, a loading dose of amiodarone 300 mg IV should be given over 10-20 minutes, followed by another attempt of cardioversion. However, in an uncompromised patient with tachycardia and no adverse features, the first-line treatment involves amiodarone 300 mg as a loading dose IV, followed by an infusion of 900 mg over 24 hours.

      It is important to note that digoxin and metoprolol are not appropriate treatments for ventricular tachycardia. Digoxin is used in the treatment of atrial fibrillation, while metoprolol is a β blocker that should be avoided in patients with significant hypotension, as it can further compromise the patient’s condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      41.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 5-year-old boy presents to the Paediatric Emergency Department with a fever and...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old boy presents to the Paediatric Emergency Department with a fever and a rash. He has been feeling sick for 5 days with persistent high temperatures. During the examination, he displays cracked lips, a bright red tongue, a widespread erythematous maculopapular rash, and peeling of the skin on his hands and feet. Additionally, he has bilateral conjunctivitis. What is the necessary investigation to screen for a potential complication, given the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      Kawasaki disease can lead to coronary artery aneurysms, which can be detected through an echocardiogram. To diagnose Kawasaki disease, the patient must have a fever for more than 5 days and at least 4 of the following symptoms: bilateral conjunctivitis, cervical lymphadenopathy, polymorphic rash, cracked lips/strawberry tongue, and oedema/desquamation of the hands/feet. This patient has a rash, conjunctivitis, mucosal involvement, and desquamation of the hands and feet, indicating Kawasaki disease. While cardiac magnetic resonance angiography is a non-invasive alternative to coronary angiography, it is not first-line due to its cost and limited availability. A chest x-ray may be considered to check for cardiomegaly, but it is not necessary as echocardiography can diagnose pericarditis or myocarditis without radiation. Coronary angiography is invasive and carries risks, so it is not first-line unless large coronary artery aneurysms are seen on echocardiography. A lumbar puncture is not necessary at this stage unless the patient displays symptoms of meningitis.

      Understanding Kawasaki Disease

      Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.

      Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.

      Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 42-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with burning pain on the...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with burning pain on the lateral aspect of his left thigh for the past two weeks. His body mass index is 30 kg/m² and he has no other significant past medical history. He does not recall any trauma before the onset of the pain.
      On examination, the pain is reproduced with extension of the hip but there is no weakness and the examination is otherwise normal. All lower limb reflexes are intact.
      Which of the following diagnoses is most likely?

      Your Answer: Sciatica

      Correct Answer: Meralgia paraesthetica

      Explanation:

      Common Nerve Conditions: Symptoms and Causes

      Meralgia paraesthetica, Sciatica, Common peroneal nerve palsy, Guillain–Barré syndrome, and L1/L2 disc herniation are all nerve conditions that can cause various symptoms. Meralgia paraesthetica is caused by an impingement of the lateral cutaneous femoral nerve and is often seen in obese individuals, pregnant women, and those with diabetes. Sciatica is caused by a herniated disc or other spinal issues and presents with pain radiating down the leg. Common peroneal nerve palsy causes foot drop and sensory loss in the lower leg. Guillain–Barré syndrome is an acute, inflammatory, post-infectious polyneuropathy that causes progressive, bilateral, ascending weakness. L1/L2 disc herniation is rare and can cause non-specific symptoms such as weakness in the psoas muscle and pain in the lumbar spine. It is more likely to occur in individuals who have suffered trauma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      46.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 7-year-old girl visits her GP clinic with her mother who is worried...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl visits her GP clinic with her mother who is worried about her continued bedwetting at night. They had visited the clinic 4 weeks ago and have seen no improvement despite following general management advice and a basic reward system. The girl is healthy otherwise and has no history of constipation or daytime incontinence. She does not complain of any issues at home or school. Physical examination reveals no abnormalities.
      What additional treatment options would you suggest for her?

      Your Answer: Enuresis alarm

      Explanation:

      When general management advice has not been effective for nocturnal enuresis, an enuresis alarm is typically the first-line recommendation. This device detects urine moisture and triggers an alarm (either through sound or vibration) to wake the child and prompt them to use the toilet. Enuresis alarms have a high success rate when used consistently, and a review is typically conducted after four weeks to assess progress. Bladder training and retention control training are not recommended by NICE guidelines due to limited evidence and concerns about promoting voiding dysfunction. Desmopressin, a vasopressin analogue that reduces urine production, may be considered if the family is not receptive to or finds an enuresis alarm ineffective. However, an enuresis alarm should be offered first. Desmopressin can provide short-term control, but it can cause hyponatremia. Desmopressin plus oxybutynin may be helpful if there are daytime symptoms or if desmopressin alone does not improve the condition. As not all anticholinergic medications have UK marketing authorization for bedwetting treatment, a healthcare professional with appropriate expertise should manage this combination, often requiring a specialist referral and further investigations.

      Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.

      When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.

      The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      36.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 32-year-old woman presents with intense itching at 36 weeks of pregnancy. The...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with intense itching at 36 weeks of pregnancy. The itching began 3 weeks ago and has been causing her sleepless nights. She experiences itching all over her body, particularly in her hands and feet, but has not observed any rashes. Her mother had comparable symptoms during her second pregnancy. Apart from this, she is in good health. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Check liver function tests

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis that needs to be ruled out first is obstetric cholestasis, as it can heighten the chances of premature birth and fetal death. The condition is identified by abnormal liver function tests and itching without any skin rash. Unlike uric acid, it is the bile acids that are elevated in obstetric cholestasis.

      Liver Complications During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, there are several liver complications that may arise. One of the most common is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which occurs in about 1% of pregnancies and is typically seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include intense itching, especially in the palms and soles, as well as elevated bilirubin levels. Treatment involves the use of ursodeoxycholic acid for relief and weekly liver function tests. Women with this condition are usually induced at 37 weeks to prevent stillbirth, although maternal morbidity is not typically increased.

      Another rare complication is acute fatty liver of pregnancy, which may occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. Severe cases may result in pre-eclampsia. ALT levels are typically elevated, and support care is the primary management until delivery can be performed once the patient is stabilized.

      Finally, conditions such as Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets, is a serious complication that can occur in the third trimester and requires immediate medical attention. Overall, it is important for pregnant women to be aware of these potential liver complications and to seek medical attention if any symptoms arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old woman and her partner visit their GP with concerns about their...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman and her partner visit their GP with concerns about their inability to conceive. Despite having regular unprotected intercourse for 12 months, they have not been successful in getting pregnant. The husband's semen analysis came back normal. The GP decides to order a serum progesterone test to assess ovulation.
      At what point should the blood test be conducted?

      Your Answer: 7 days before her next expected period

      Explanation:

      To confirm ovulation in patients struggling to conceive, a serum progesterone level should be taken 7 days prior to the expected next period. This timing coincides with ovulation and is the most accurate way to confirm it. Taking the test 14 days before the next expected period or on the first day of the next period would not be timed correctly. It is also important to note that the timing of intercourse does not affect the confirmation of ovulation through serum progesterone testing.

      Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. It is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sexual intercourse will conceive within the first year, and 92% within the first two years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.

      When investigating infertility, there are some basic tests that can be done. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test. The serum progesterone test is done 7 days prior to the expected next period, typically on day 21 for a 28-day cycle. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if it is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it remains consistently low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.

      It is important to counsel patients on lifestyle factors that can impact fertility. This includes taking folic acid, maintaining a healthy BMI between 20-25, and advising regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Additionally, patients should be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption to increase their chances of conceiving.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A middle-aged man presents with a round, slowly enlarging erythema on his thigh....

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged man presents with a round, slowly enlarging erythema on his thigh. He also complains of joint discomfort and fatigue. Lyme disease is suspected.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate laboratory test to confirm this diagnosis?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate laboratory test from the list below.

      Your Answer: Antinuclear antibodies

      Correct Answer: Anti-Borrelia burgdorferi titre

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Lyme Disease: Understanding the Results

      Lyme disease is a common illness caused by the spirochaete B. burgdorferi, transmitted to humans via tick bites. Serologic testing is the most frequently used diagnostic tool, but false positives and negatives are common. The enzyme immunoassay (EIA) or enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is the first step, followed by a western blot if necessary. However, serologic results cannot distinguish active from inactive disease. Antinuclear antibodies and rheumatoid factor test results are negative in B. burgdorferi infection. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate is usually elevated but is not specific to detect infection. Culture of joint fluids can rule out gout and pseudogout, but detection of B. burgdorferi DNA in synovial fluid is not reliable. Blood cultures are impractical. Understanding the limitations of these tests is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment of Lyme disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What is a true statement about trigeminal neuralgia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about trigeminal neuralgia?

      Your Answer: All patients with suspected trigeminal neuralgia should be referred to secondary care

      Correct Answer: The pain is commonly triggered by touching the skin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Trigeminal Neuralgia

      Trigeminal neuralgia is a type of pain syndrome that is characterized by severe pain on one side of the face. While most cases are idiopathic, some may be caused by compression of the trigeminal roots due to tumors or vascular problems. According to the International Headache Society, trigeminal neuralgia is defined as a disorder that causes brief electric shock-like pains that are limited to one or more divisions of the trigeminal nerve. The pain is often triggered by light touch, such as washing, shaving, or brushing teeth, and can occur spontaneously. Certain areas of the face, such as the nasolabial fold or chin, may be more susceptible to pain. The pain may also remit for varying periods.

      Red flag symptoms and signs that suggest a serious underlying cause include sensory changes, ear problems, a history of skin or oral lesions that could spread perineurally, pain only in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, optic neuritis, a family history of multiple sclerosis, and onset before the age of 40.

      The first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia is carbamazepine. If there is a failure to respond to treatment or atypical features are present, such as onset before the age of 50, referral to neurology is recommended. Understanding the symptoms and management of trigeminal neuralgia is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      86.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 54-year-old man presented to the Emergency Department with a 1-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man presented to the Emergency Department with a 1-day history of blurring of vision and headache. He does not complain of any pain when touching the scalp or any pain when eating and chewing food.
      Past medical history includes hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, which is well controlled with metformin.
      On further history taking, he tells you that he has a family history of brain cancer and he is afraid that this could be relevant to his symptoms.
      On examination, his visual acuity is 6/18 in both eyes. On dilated fundoscopy, you could see some arterioles narrower than others. You also see venules being compressed by arterioles. There are also some dot-and-blot and flame-shaped haemorrhages, as well as some cotton-wool spots. There is no optic disc swelling.
      His vital observations are as follows:
      Heart rate 80 bpm
      Blood pressure 221/119 mmHg
      Oxygen saturation 98% on room air
      Respiratory rate 14 per minute
      Temperature 37 °C
      According to the Keith-Wagener-Barker classification of hypertensive retinopathy, what grade of hypertensive retinopathy is this?

      Your Answer: Grade 3

      Explanation:

      Stages of Diabetic Retinopathy

      Diabetic retinopathy is a condition that affects the eyes of people with diabetes. It is important to detect and treat it early to prevent vision loss. There are different stages of diabetic retinopathy, each with its own set of features.

      Grade 1 is characterized by arteriolar narrowing. Grade 2 includes features of grade 1 and arteriovenous nipping. Grade 3 includes features of grade 2 and microaneurysms, dot-and-blot haemorrhages, flame-shaped haemorrhages, cotton-wool spots, and hard exudates. Grade 4 includes features of grade 3 and optic disc swelling.

      It is important to have regular eye exams if you have diabetes to detect any signs of diabetic retinopathy early. With proper management and treatment, vision loss can be prevented or delayed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 32-year-old woman at 28 weeks gestation reports decreased fetal movements. Upon ultrasound,...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman at 28 weeks gestation reports decreased fetal movements. Upon ultrasound, it is discovered that the fetus is hydropic. Her 5-year-old child had a fever and redness on the cheeks recently. What is the probable infectious agent responsible for this?

      Your Answer: Group B Streptococcus

      Correct Answer: Parvovirus B19

      Explanation:

      The symptoms exhibited by the child indicate erythema infectiosum, which is caused by an infection with parvovirus B19. Most pregnant women have immunity to this virus and it typically does not pose a risk. However, in rare cases, infection during the first trimester has been associated with hydrops fetalis, which can lead to miscarriage.

      Parvovirus B19: A Virus with Various Clinical Presentations

      Parvovirus B19 is a DNA virus that can cause different clinical presentations. One of the most common is erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease or slapped-cheek syndrome. This illness may manifest as a mild feverish condition or a noticeable rash that appears after a few days. The rash is characterized by rose-red cheeks, which is why it is called slapped-cheek syndrome. It may spread to the rest of the body but rarely involves the palms and soles. The rash usually peaks after a week and then fades, but for some months afterwards, a warm bath, sunlight, heat, or fever may trigger a recurrence of the bright red cheeks and rash. Most children recover without specific treatment, and school exclusion is unnecessary as the child is not infectious once the rash emerges. However, in adults, the virus may cause acute arthritis.

      Aside from erythema infectiosum, parvovirus B19 can also present as asymptomatic, pancytopenia in immunosuppressed patients, aplastic crises in sickle-cell disease, and hydrops fetalis. The virus suppresses erythropoiesis for about a week, so aplastic anemia is rare unless there is a chronic hemolytic anemia. In pregnant women, the virus can cross the placenta and cause severe anemia due to viral suppression of fetal erythropoiesis, which can lead to heart failure secondary to severe anemia and the accumulation of fluid in fetal serous cavities (e.g. ascites, pleural and pericardial effusions). This condition is treated with intrauterine blood transfusions.

      It is important to note that the virus can affect an unborn baby in the first 20 weeks of pregnancy. If a woman is exposed early in pregnancy (before 20 weeks), she should seek prompt advice from her antenatal care provider as maternal IgM and IgG will need to be checked. The virus is spread by the respiratory route, and a person is infectious 3 to 5 days before the appearance of the rash. Children are no longer infectious once the rash appears, and there is no specific treatment. Therefore, the child need not be excluded from school as they are no longer infectious by the time the rash occurs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      39
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 55-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a sudden-onset blurring of...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a sudden-onset blurring of vision in both eyes as well as light sensitivity. She is a known type II diabetic with blood sugars well maintained with medication.
      On examination, her temperature is 36.8 oC, while her blood pressure (BP) is 180/110 mmHg. Her pulse is 70 beats per minute. Her respiratory rate is 18 breaths per minute, and her oxygen saturations are 98% on room air.
      On dilated fundoscopy, both optic discs are swollen with widespread flame-shaped haemorrhages and cotton-wool spots.
      What is the most appropriate first-line management of this condition?

      Your Answer: Intravenous (IV) labetalol

      Explanation:

      Misconceptions about Treatment for Hypertensive Retinopathy

      Hypertensive retinopathy is a condition that occurs when high blood pressure damages the blood vessels in the retina. However, there are several misconceptions about the treatment for this condition.

      Firstly, in a hypertensive emergency with retinopathy, it is important to lower blood pressure slowly to avoid brain damage. Intravenous labetalol is a suitable medication for this purpose, with the aim of reducing diastolic blood pressure to 100 mmHg or reducing it by 20-25 mmHg per day, whichever is less.

      Secondly, oral calcium channel blockers like amlodipine are not useful in an acute setting of hypertensive emergency. They are not effective in treating hypertensive retinopathy.

      Thirdly, intravitreal anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (anti-VEGF) injection is not a treatment for hypertensive retinopathy. It is used to treat wet age-related macular degeneration.

      Fourthly, pan-retinal photocoagulation or any laser treatment for the eye is not a treatment for hypertensive retinopathy. It is a treatment for proliferative diabetic retinopathy.

      Lastly, sublingual glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray is not a suitable treatment for hypertensive retinopathy. It is typically used in patients with angina and acute coronary syndrome.

      In conclusion, it is important to understand the appropriate treatments for hypertensive retinopathy to avoid misconceptions and ensure proper care for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 25-year-old female patient complains of red, itchy, and sore eyelids with crusts...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient complains of red, itchy, and sore eyelids with crusts on the eyelashes and a gritty feeling in both eyes. What is the primary treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Oily tear eye drops

      Correct Answer: Eyelid hygiene with warm compresses, lid massage and lid margin cleaning

      Explanation:

      The initial step in treating blepharitis is to apply hot compresses to the affected area. This is followed by eyelid hygiene, which involves cleaning the lid margins and massaging them. If this does not work, chloramphenicol eye drops and oral antibiotics may be prescribed. Oily tear eye drops can be used to prevent rapid evaporation of tears caused by blepharitis. While an omega-3 rich diet may help improve the condition, it is not considered a first-line treatment.

      Blepharitis is a condition where the eyelid margins become inflamed. This can be caused by dysfunction of the meibomian glands (posterior blepharitis) or seborrhoeic dermatitis/staphylococcal infection (anterior blepharitis). It is more common in patients with rosacea. The meibomian glands secrete oil to prevent rapid evaporation of the tear film, so any problem affecting these glands can cause dryness and irritation of the eyes. Symptoms of blepharitis are usually bilateral and include grittiness, discomfort around the eyelid margins, sticky eyes in the morning, and redness of the eyelid margins. Styes and chalazions are also more common in patients with blepharitis, and secondary conjunctivitis may occur.

      Management of blepharitis involves softening the lid margin with hot compresses twice a day and practicing lid hygiene to remove debris from the lid margins. This can be done using cotton wool buds dipped in a mixture of cooled boiled water and baby shampoo or sodium bicarbonate in cooled boiled water. Artificial tears may also be given for symptom relief in people with dry eyes or an abnormal tear film.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 38-year-old woman complains of itching and yellowing of the skin.
    Blood tests reveal:
    Bilirubin...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman complains of itching and yellowing of the skin.
      Blood tests reveal:
      Bilirubin 45 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      ALP 326 u/L (30 - 100)
      ALT 72 u/L (3 - 40)
      Positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis

      Correct Answer: Primary biliary cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Primary biliary cholangitis is a likely diagnosis for a middle-aged female patient with an obstructive liver injury picture and positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies, M2 subtype. This differential is important to consider, as alcohol abuse may not always be obvious and gallstones could produce a similar result on liver function tests. However, the absence of pain and positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies make these less likely. Paracetamol overdose is also a potential differential, but the liver function profile in this case is more consistent with an obstructive picture, with a higher ALP and bilirubin and a modest increase in ALT. Additionally, anti-mitochondrial antibodies are not associated with paracetamol overdose.

      Primary Biliary Cholangitis: A Chronic Liver Disorder

      Primary biliary cholangitis, previously known as primary biliary cirrhosis, is a chronic liver disorder that is commonly observed in middle-aged women. The exact cause of this condition is not yet fully understood, but it is believed to be an autoimmune disease. The disease is characterized by the progressive damage of interlobular bile ducts due to chronic inflammation, leading to cholestasis and eventually cirrhosis. The most common symptom of primary biliary cholangitis is itching in middle-aged women.

      This condition is often associated with other autoimmune diseases such as Sjogren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and thyroid disease. Early symptoms of primary biliary cholangitis may be asymptomatic or may include fatigue, pruritus, and cholestatic jaundice. Late symptoms may progress to liver failure. Diagnosis of primary biliary cholangitis involves immunology tests such as anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMA) M2 subtype and smooth muscle antibodies, as well as imaging tests to exclude an extrahepatic biliary obstruction.

      The first-line treatment for primary biliary cholangitis is ursodeoxycholic acid, which slows down the progression of the disease and improves symptoms. Cholestyramine is used to alleviate pruritus, and fat-soluble vitamin supplementation is recommended. In severe cases, liver transplantation may be necessary, especially if bilirubin levels exceed 100. However, recurrence in the graft can occur, but it is not usually a problem. Complications of primary biliary cholangitis include cirrhosis, portal hypertension, ascites, variceal hemorrhage, osteomalacia, osteoporosis, and an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - As a junior doctor on the neonatal ward, you are called to a...

    Correct

    • As a junior doctor on the neonatal ward, you are called to a forceps delivery. During the delivery, the midwives notice shoulder dystocia in a newborn. What is the initial management approach for shoulder dystocia in a neonate?

      Your Answer: McRoberts manoeuvre (hyperflexion of the legs)

      Explanation:

      The McRoberts maneuver involves hyperflexing the legs.

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication that can occur during vaginal delivery when the body of the fetus cannot be delivered after the head has already been delivered. This is usually due to the anterior shoulder of the fetus becoming stuck on the mother’s pubic bone. Shoulder dystocia can cause harm to both the mother and the fetus. Risk factors for shoulder dystocia include fetal macrosomia, high maternal body mass index, diabetes mellitus, and prolonged labor.

      If shoulder dystocia is identified, it is important to call for senior help immediately. The McRoberts’ maneuver is often performed, which involves flexing and abducting the mother’s hips to increase the angle of the pelvis and facilitate delivery. An episiotomy may be performed to provide better access for internal maneuvers, but it will not relieve the bony obstruction. Symphysiotomy and the Zavanelli maneuver are not recommended as they can cause significant maternal morbidity. Oxytocin administration is not indicated for shoulder dystocia.

      Complications of shoulder dystocia can include postpartum hemorrhage and perineal tears for the mother, and brachial plexus injury and neonatal death for the fetus. It is important to manage shoulder dystocia promptly and appropriately to minimize the risk of these complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 56-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and benign...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and benign prostatic hyperplasia presents to dermatology with multiple lesions on his shin. Upon examination, symmetrical, tender, erythematous nodules are observed. The lesions are healing without scarring. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Syphilis

      Correct Answer: Erythema nodosum

      Explanation:

      The relevant diagnosis for this question relies solely on the description of the lesions, as the patient’s medical history is not a factor. Specifically, the tender shin lesions are indicative of erythema nodosum.

      Understanding Shin Lesions: Differential Diagnosis and Characteristic Features

      Shin lesions can be caused by a variety of conditions, and it is important to differentiate between them in order to provide appropriate treatment. The four most common conditions that can cause shin lesions are erythema nodosum, pretibial myxoedema, pyoderma gangrenosum, and necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum.

      Erythema nodosum is characterized by symmetrical, tender, erythematous nodules that heal without scarring. It is often caused by streptococcal infections, sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, or certain medications such as penicillins, sulphonamides, or oral contraceptive pills.

      Pretibial myxoedema, on the other hand, is seen in Graves’ disease and is characterized by symmetrical, erythematous lesions that give the skin a shiny, orange peel appearance.

      Pyoderma gangrenosum initially presents as a small red papule, which later develops into deep, red, necrotic ulcers with a violaceous border. It is idiopathic in 50% of cases, but may also be seen in inflammatory bowel disease, connective tissue disorders, and myeloproliferative disorders.

      Finally, necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is characterized by shiny, painless areas of yellow/red skin typically found on the shin of diabetics. It is often associated with telangiectasia.

      In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis and characteristic features of shin lesions can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 7-year-old girl is seen in clinic after falling off her scooter two...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl is seen in clinic after falling off her scooter two hours ago. She fell forward and used her right arm to break her fall. Upon examination, she has minor scrapes on her right forearm but no indication of a fracture. Her nose is red and has some scrapes. Upon examination of her nostrils, there is a bilateral red swelling in the middle that is slightly soft. There are no other indications of a head injury. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Arrange an urgent ENT review

      Explanation:

      Nasal Septal Haematoma: A Complication of Nasal Trauma

      Nasal septal haematoma is a serious complication that can occur after even minor nasal trauma. It is characterized by the accumulation of blood between the septal cartilage and the surrounding perichondrium. The most common symptom is nasal obstruction, but pain and rhinorrhoea may also be present. On examination, a bilateral, red swelling arising from the nasal septum is typically seen. It is important to differentiate this from a deviated septum, which will be firm to the touch.

      If left untreated, nasal septal haematoma can lead to irreversible septal necrosis within just a few days. This occurs due to pressure-related ischaemia of the cartilage, which can result in necrosis and a saddle-nose deformity. To prevent this, surgical drainage and intravenous antibiotics are necessary. It is important to be vigilant for this complication after any nasal trauma, no matter how minor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 32-year-old man with cystic fibrosis (CF) has been experiencing a significant increase...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with cystic fibrosis (CF) has been experiencing a significant increase in productive cough with large amounts of sputum, occasional haemoptysis and difficulty breathing for the past few months.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Asthma

      Correct Answer: Bronchiectasis

      Explanation:

      Identifying Bronchiectasis in a Patient with Cystic Fibrosis

      Cystic Fibrosis (CF) is a genetic disorder that can lead to the development of bronchiectasis. Bronchiectasis is a condition characterized by dilated, thick-walled bronchi, which can result from continual or recurrent infection and inflammation caused by thick, difficult to expectorate mucus in patients with CF. In contrast, bronchiolitis is an acute lower respiratory infection that occurs in children aged <2 years, while asthma typically presents with variable wheeze, cough, breathlessness, and chest tightness. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) typically develops in smokers aged >40, and interstitial lung disease generally affects patients aged >45 and is associated with persistent breathlessness on exertion and cough. Therefore, in a patient with CF presenting with symptoms such as cough, breathlessness, and chest infections, bronchiectasis should be considered as a possible diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      64
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 55-year-old rancher presents to the ER with his spouse. He is experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old rancher presents to the ER with his spouse. He is experiencing a high fever and excessive sweating. During the examination, multiple black blisters are observed, which are producing a malodorous discharge. What is the typical microorganism linked to this ailment?

      Your Answer: Group A streptococci

      Correct Answer: Clostridium perfringens

      Explanation:

      Gas gangrene is a severe bacterial infection that can lead to muscle necrosis, sepsis, gas production, and ultimately, death. The infection can occur in two ways: through traumatic or surgical inoculation of a wound with bacteria, or spontaneously, which is often observed in immunocompromised patients. While there are multiple causes of gas gangrene, clostridium perfringens, a type of clostridia species, is frequently implicated. The condition typically begins with pain and progresses to systemic symptoms such as fever and dehydration. Skin changes, including blisters that can burst and produce a foul-smelling discharge, are also common. Movement may produce a crackling sound known as crepitus.

      Clostridia: Gram-Positive Anaerobic Bacilli

      Clostridia are a group of gram-positive, obligate anaerobic bacilli. There are several species of Clostridia, each with their own unique features and pathologies. C. perfringens produces α-toxin, a lecithinase, which can cause gas gangrene and haemolysis. Symptoms of gas gangrene include tender, oedematous skin with haemorrhagic blebs and bullae, and crepitus may be present on palpation. C. botulinum is typically found in canned foods and honey and can cause flaccid paralysis by preventing the release of acetylcholine. C. difficile is known for causing pseudomembranous colitis, which is often seen after the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics. This species produces both an exotoxin and a cytotoxin. Finally, C. tetani produces an exotoxin called tetanospasmin, which prevents the release of glycine from Renshaw cells in the spinal cord, leading to spastic paralysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following is a contraindication to using a triptan for treating...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a contraindication to using a triptan for treating migraines in elderly patients?

      Your Answer: Concurrent pizotifen use

      Correct Answer: A history of ischaemic heart disease

      Explanation:

      Triptan use is contraindicated in individuals with cardiovascular disease.

      Triptans for Migraine Treatment

      Triptans are medications that act as agonists for 5-HT1B and 5-HT1D receptors and are commonly used in the acute treatment of migraines. They are often prescribed in combination with NSAIDs or paracetamol and are typically taken as soon as possible after the onset of a headache, rather than at the onset of an aura. Triptans are available in various forms, including oral tablets, orodispersible tablets, nasal sprays, and subcutaneous injections.

      While triptans are generally well-tolerated, some patients may experience triptan sensations, such as tingling, heat, tightness in the throat and chest, heaviness, or pressure. It is important to note that triptans are contraindicated in patients with a history of or significant risk factors for ischaemic heart disease or cerebrovascular disease.

      In summary, triptans are a commonly used medication for the acute treatment of migraines. They should be taken as soon as possible after the onset of a headache and are available in various forms. However, patients should be aware of potential adverse effects and contraindications before taking triptans.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      39.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old woman, who has been struggling with drug addiction and living on...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman, who has been struggling with drug addiction and living on the streets, presents to the Emergency Department complaining of epigastric pain. The patient reports that she developed acute abdominal pain two hours prior to the presentation after eating a hot dog. The patient otherwise has no significant past medical history, takes no medications and admits to smoking and occasional alcohol consumption.
      On examination, the patient has normal vital signs. Her abdominal examination demonstrates normoactive bowel sounds, no tenderness to palpation in the epigastrium and no guarding or rebound tenderness. Rectal exam for stool occult blood is negative and a chest X-ray does not reveal free air under the diaphragm. A right upper quadrant ultrasound does not demonstrate stones. The doctor recommends antacids. When the doctor tells the patient that she is safe for discharge, the patient insists that she must be admitted to the hospital for further tests.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Malingering

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between Malingering, Hypochondriasis, Conversion Disorder, Factitious Disorder, and Munchausen Syndrome by Proxy

      When evaluating patients, it is important to differentiate between various conditions that may present with similar symptoms. Malingering is a condition where a patient feigns or exaggerates symptoms for secondary gain, such as meals or a place to sleep. Hypochondriasis, on the other hand, is a condition where a patient fears having a medical illness despite negative tests and reassurance. Conversion disorder refers to the manifestation of psychological illness as neurologic pathology, while factitious disorder involves a patient who assumes the sick role for personal satisfaction. Finally, Munchausen syndrome by proxy is similar to factitious disorder but involves a patient seeking the sick role vicariously through a second patient, often a child. By understanding the differences between these conditions, healthcare providers can provide appropriate care and treatment for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with right lower-limb pain. This...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with right lower-limb pain. This is mainly localised over a red patch that has recently developed on the inner part of her thigh.
      On examination, there is a well-demarcated area of erythematous skin on the patient’s thigh, which is warm and tender to touch. There are no other rashes or skin changes present in the rest of her body. Her temperature is 37.5°C and the rest of her parameters are within normal limits.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cellulitis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Lower Limb Rash: Cellulitis, Atopic Dermatitis, Contact Dermatitis, Necrobiosis Lipoidica, and Pretibial Myxedema

      The patient in question is most likely suffering from cellulitis, as evidenced by the presence of erythema, warmth, tenderness, and swelling in the affected area. Cellulitis typically presents as a unilateral rash in the lower limbs, with a well-defined margin and potential skin breakdown or ulceration in severe cases. Localized lymph node swelling may also occur, and systemic symptoms such as tachycardia, fever, confusion, or respiratory distress may be present in more severe cases. It is important to examine the skin carefully for potential points of entry for pathogens, such as wounds, local skin infections, or recent injection sites.

      Atopic dermatitis, on the other hand, typically presents as an itchy rash in a flexural distribution, with a history of atopy and episodic flares starting from a young age. Contact dermatitis, which can be either irritant or allergic, is characterized by erythema and may present with crusting or vesicles in rare cases. Necrobiosis lipoidica is a condition that typically occurs in diabetic patients, presenting as shiny, painless areas of yellow or red skin on the shins, often with telangiectasia. Pretibial myxedema, which occurs in patients with Graves’ disease, presents as a shiny, waxy, orange-peel texture on the shins.

      In summary, a lower limb rash can have various causes, and a careful examination of the skin and consideration of the patient’s medical history can help narrow down the differential diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Infectious Diseases (2/2) 100%
Renal Medicine/Urology (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (1/3) 33%
Neurology (0/3) 0%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (2/2) 100%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (3/4) 75%
Reproductive Medicine (2/2) 100%
Ophthalmology (2/3) 67%
Dermatology (2/2) 100%
ENT (1/1) 100%
Respiratory Medicine (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Passmed