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Question 1
Correct
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A 29-year-old male complains of experiencing low back pain and stiffness for a few months now, with the worst symptoms occurring in the mornings. He reports that exercise helps alleviate the pain, but prolonged sitting at his desk exacerbates it. During the examination, there is limited lumbar flexion, and a pelvic X-ray reveals sacroiliitis. What is the best initial approach to managing this condition?
Your Answer: Ibuprofen
Explanation:Ankylosing spondylitis, a spondyloarthropathy associated with HLA-B27 and commonly seen in men aged 20-30, can be managed with exercise regimes and NSAIDs as the first line of treatment. Pelvic X-rays are helpful in identifying subchondral erosions and sclerosis in the commonly affected sacroiliac joints. Physiotherapy and NSAIDs like ibuprofen are recommended as the initial management. Intra-articular corticosteroid injections are useful for unilateral joint symptoms, while methotrexate may be considered for peripheral joint involvement. Paracetamol can be used in conjunction with NSAIDs if needed, but ibuprofen should be the first-line option.
Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis
Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.
Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 2
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of persistent coloured sputum for the past 2 years. She has a history of frequent chest infections. On examination, bilateral basal crepitations were heard.
Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bronchiectasis
Explanation:Differentiating Bronchiectasis from Other Respiratory Conditions
Bronchiectasis is a condition characterized by permanent dilatation of the bronchi and bronchioles due to chronic infection. Patients with bronchiectasis typically present with a persistent cough, copious purulent sputum, and occasional haemoptysis. Bilateral crackles are often found during examination. It is important to differentiate bronchiectasis from other respiratory conditions such as COPD, aspergilloma, extrinsic allergic alveolitis, and idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. While patients with COPD may have sputum production and chronic dyspnoea, they are likely to have quiet breath sounds or wheeze. Aspergilloma, on the other hand, is usually asymptomatic with little sputum production, but may cause cough, haemoptysis, lethargy, and weight loss. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis results from a hypersensitivity reaction to fungal spores or avian proteins, causing a dry, non-productive cough. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, which causes a dry cough, exertional dyspnoea, weight loss, and arthralgia, is also different from bronchiectasis. Therefore, a thorough evaluation of symptoms and examination is necessary to accurately diagnose bronchiectasis and differentiate it from other respiratory conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 3
Correct
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A 31-year-old female patient visits her doctor with complaints of feeling unwell for the past week. She reports experiencing headaches and mild abdominal discomfort. She denies having any diarrhea but mentions severe constipation. Recently, she returned from a 3-week trip to India. During the examination, her temperature is recorded as 38.5ºC, and she appears bloated. Additionally, a sparse macular rash is observed on her chest. What is the probable causative agent for this presentation?
Your Answer: Salmonella typhi
Explanation:While salmonella can cause diarrhoea, typhoid fever is more likely to result in constipation. This is a typical symptom of typhoid fever, along with the appearance of rose spots. It’s important to note that constipation can be a significant indicator of this illness. In contrast, Campylobacter jejuni infection usually causes bloody diarrhoea and abdominal pain. E. coli is a common cause of watery diarrhoea, but certain strains like E. coli O157:H7 can lead to severe abdominal cramping, vomiting, and bloody diarrhoea. Giardiasis can cause similar symptoms such as bloating and abdominal pain, but it usually results in chronic diarrhoea. Shigellosis typically causes abdominal pain and diarrhoea, which may or may not be bloody.
Enteric fever, also known as typhoid or paratyphoid, is caused by Salmonella typhi and Salmonella paratyphi respectively. These bacteria are not normally found in the gut and are transmitted through contaminated food and water or the faecal-oral route. The symptoms of enteric fever include headache, fever, and joint pain, as well as abdominal pain and distension. Constipation is more common in typhoid than diarrhoea, and rose spots may appear on the trunk in some patients. Complications can include osteomyelitis, gastrointestinal bleeding or perforation, meningitis, cholecystitis, and chronic carriage. Chronic carriage is more likely in adult females and occurs in approximately 1% of cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man is experiencing insomnia and is prescribed temazepam. What is the mechanism of action of temazepam?
Your Answer: Inhibits the effect gamma-aminobutyric acid
Correct Answer: Enhances the effect of gamma-aminobutyric acid
Explanation:The primary inhibitory neurotransmitter, GABA, is amplified by benzodiazepines.
Benzodiazepines are drugs that enhance the effect of the neurotransmitter GABA, which inhibits brain activity. They are used for various purposes, including sedation, anxiety relief, muscle relaxation, and seizure prevention. However, patients can develop a tolerance and dependence on these drugs, so they should only be prescribed for a short period of time. When withdrawing from benzodiazepines, it is important to do so gradually to avoid withdrawal symptoms, which can include insomnia, anxiety, and seizures. Barbiturates are another type of drug that affect GABA, but they work differently than benzodiazepines by increasing the duration of chloride channel opening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 5
Correct
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A 56-year-old man is admitted to the Emergency Department. His wife reports that he has been experiencing worsening confusion for approximately one week. Upon examination, there are evident indications of chronic liver disease, along with nystagmus and cerebellar ataxia. The patient appears highly confused. His liver function tests (LFTs) are normal except for elevated gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT), a full blood count reveals macrocytosis, and blood glucose levels are normal. What is the most appropriate diagnosis for this clinical presentation?
Your Answer: Wernicke encephalopathy (WE)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Confusion in a Patient with Alcohol Misuse
Wernicke Encephalopathy (WE), caused by thiamine deficiency and commonly associated with chronic alcoholism, is a serious neurological disorder that presents with a classic triad of ocular findings, cerebellar dysfunction, and confusion. Rapid correction of brain thiamine deficiency is crucial, and treatment is initially administered parenterally. Neurological dysfunction, especially memory and learning impairment, can persist even after treatment, leading to Korsakoff syndrome.
Subdural hematoma, more common in individuals who misuse alcohol, is an important differential diagnosis in cases of acute confusion. However, a history of head injury, even minor, and a headache with or without vomiting are typically present. Acute hematomas present soon after the injury, while chronic hematomas may not present until 2-3 weeks after the trauma.
Acute alcohol poisoning is unlikely in a patient with worsening confusion over the past week. Sudden onset of confusion following an alcohol binge that improves with abstinence is expected.
Hepatic encephalopathy, a spectrum that develops in patients with advanced liver disease, may present with a change in personality, short-term memory loss, or reduced level of consciousness. However, cerebellar signs such as nystagmus and ataxia are not associated with this condition.
Delirium tremens, a rapid onset of confusion as a result of alcohol withdrawal, typically appears three days after abstinence from alcohol and may include visual hallucinations, acute confusion, and tremor. If untreated, seizures may occur. However, the presence of nystagmus and ataxia in this case makes WE the more likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 6
Correct
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A 32-year-old man presents with a recent change in bowel habit and is scheduled for outpatient sigmoidoscopy. He reports passing 3 stools daily with some mucus but no blood. The patient is in good overall health, with stable vital signs and normal blood test results. He has no known allergies and is not taking any medications at present.
During the sigmoidoscopy, the patient is found to have localised proctitis, with no inflammation detected further up the gastrointestinal tract. Based on these findings, the patient is diagnosed with ulcerative colitis and receives appropriate counselling.
What would be the most effective drug management approach for this patient's current symptoms?Your Answer: Rectal aminosalicylates
Explanation:For a mild-moderate flare of distal ulcerative colitis, the recommended first-line treatment is rectal aminosalicylates. This is particularly effective if the inflammation is limited to the rectum. If rectal aminosalicylates are not effective, oral aminosalicylates may be used in combination with or instead of the topical treatment. However, if the patient has contraindications or intolerances to aminosalicylates, topical or oral steroids may be preferred. Intravenous steroids are typically reserved for severe flares of colitis with symptoms such as frequent bloody stools, systemic upset, anemia, or elevated inflammatory markers.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools and presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Extensive disease may require a high-dose oral aminosalicylate and topical treatment. Severe colitis should be treated in a hospital with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin. Maintaining remission can involve using a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate or oral azathioprine/mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended, but probiotics may prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 7
Correct
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A 50-year old-man comes to see you saying that his father recently passed away due to an abdominal aortic aneurysm. He inquires if he will be screened for this condition and when should he start screening?
Your Answer: Single abdominal ultrasound at 65
Explanation:Understanding Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms
Abdominal aortic aneurysms occur when the elastic proteins within the extracellular matrix fail, causing dilation of all layers of the arterial wall. This degenerative disease is most commonly seen in individuals over the age of 50, with diameters of 3 cm or greater considered aneurysmal. The development of aneurysms is a complex process involving the loss of the intima and elastic fibers from the media, which is associated with increased proteolytic activity and lymphocytic infiltration.
Smoking and hypertension are major risk factors for the development of aneurysms, while rare causes include syphilis and connective tissue diseases such as Ehlers Danlos type 1 and Marfan’s syndrome. It is important to understand the pathophysiology of abdominal aortic aneurysms in order to identify and manage risk factors, as well as to provide appropriate treatment for those affected. By recognizing the underlying causes and risk factors, healthcare professionals can work to prevent the development of aneurysms and improve outcomes for those affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 8
Correct
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You are called to attend a premature delivery. The neonate is born at 34 weeks gestation via emergency Caesarean section. The neonate is having trouble starting to breathe and needs resuscitation. They are dyspnoeic and tachypnoeic at a rate of 85 breaths/min. Upon listening to the chest, there is decreased breath sounds on both sides. Heart sounds are displaced towards the middle. The abdominal wall looks sunken. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
Explanation:The appearance of a scaphoid abdomen is a common presentation of congenital diaphragmatic hernia, which occurs when abdominal contents protrude into the chest cavity. This condition can cause breathing difficulties and rapid breathing in newborns. The characteristic auscultation findings are caused by underdeveloped lungs and compression due to the presence of abdominal organs in the chest. Immediate medical attention and respiratory support are necessary. It is important to note that this specific concave abdominal appearance is not seen in any other conditions mentioned.
Understanding Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
Congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH) is a rare condition that affects approximately 1 in 2,000 newborns. It occurs when the diaphragm, a muscle that separates the chest and abdominal cavities, fails to form completely during fetal development. As a result, abdominal organs can move into the chest cavity, which can lead to underdeveloped lungs and high blood pressure in the lungs. This can cause respiratory distress shortly after birth.
The most common type of CDH is a left-sided posterolateral Bochdalek hernia, which accounts for about 85% of cases. This type of hernia occurs when the pleuroperitoneal canal, a structure that connects the chest and abdominal cavities during fetal development, fails to close properly.
Despite advances in medical treatment, only about 50% of newborns with CDH survive. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment are crucial for improving outcomes. Treatment may involve surgery to repair the diaphragm and move the abdominal organs back into their proper position. In some cases, a ventilator or extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) may be necessary to support breathing until the lungs can function properly. Ongoing care and monitoring are also important to manage any long-term complications that may arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 9
Correct
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A 56-year-old man comes to the clinic with a continuous tremor. During the examination, it is observed that his arms have a tremor of 6-8 Hz, which worsens when he stretches them out. His father also had a similar condition. What is the most appropriate initial treatment option?
Your Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms are consistent with essential tremor, an autosomal dominant condition that worsens with outstretched arms but improves with alcohol and propranolol. Propranolol is typically the initial treatment option.
Understanding Essential Tremor
Essential tremor, also known as benign essential tremor, is a genetic condition that typically affects both upper limbs. The most common symptom is a postural tremor, which worsens when the arms are outstretched. However, the tremor can be improved by rest and alcohol consumption. Essential tremor is also the leading cause of head tremors, known as titubation.
When it comes to managing essential tremor, the first-line treatment is propranolol. This medication can help reduce the severity of the tremors. In some cases, primidone may also be used to manage the condition. It’s important to note that essential tremor is a lifelong condition, but with proper management, individuals can lead a normal life. By understanding the symptoms and treatment options, those with essential tremor can take control of their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 59-year-old man with known cirrhosis secondary to hepatitis C infection attends for review. There is a past history of intravenous heroin abuse and alcoholism. He has been feeling progressively more unwell over the past six months, with weight loss and worsening ascites. He is on long-term sick leave and has been closely monitored by his live-in partner, who maintains that there has been no further drug abuse or consumption of alcohol.
What is the most probable diagnosis based on this clinical presentation?Your Answer: Hepatocellular carcinoma
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Worsening Ascites
Worsening ascites can be a sign of various underlying conditions. One possible diagnosis is hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC), which is a primary malignancy of the liver that often occurs in patients with chronic liver disease and cirrhosis. Another possible diagnosis is chronic active hepatitis, which is caused by the hepatitis C virus and can result in joint and muscle pain, nausea, and exhaustion. Superimposed hepatitis B infection can also cause liver injury and jaundice. Alcoholism, which can lead to alcoholic hepatitis, is another possible diagnosis, but it is not consistent with the clinical scenario given if there has been no further alcohol consumption. Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis is an acute bacterial infection of ascitic fluid that can cause fever, abdominal pain, and other symptoms. It is important to consider these and other possible diagnoses when evaluating a patient with worsening ascites.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 11
Correct
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A 61-year-old man presents to the emergency department after experiencing syncope. Upon assessment, his respiratory rate is 20/min, heart rate is 170/min, and BP is 78/40 mmHg. An ECG reveals a regular tachycardia with a wide complex. The patient is given a peripheral venous line, blood is drawn, and an ECG monitor is attached. What is the next best course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer: DC cardioversion
Explanation:Given the patient’s syncope, low BP, and regular wide complex tachycardia, which is likely to be ventricular tachycardia, the appropriate next step is DC cardioversion since the systolic BP is below 90 mmHg. Adenosine is not relevant in this scenario as it is used for managing narrow complex regular tachycardia with no adverse features. Amiodarone is an antiarrhythmic medication that could be used to treat ventricular tachycardia, but it is not appropriate in this case due to the patient’s syncope and low BP.
Management of Peri-Arrest Tachycardias
The Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines for the management of peri-arrest tachycardias have been simplified in the 2015 update. The previous separate algorithms for broad-complex tachycardia, narrow complex tachycardia, and atrial fibrillation have been replaced by a unified treatment algorithm. After basic ABC assessment, patients are classified as stable or unstable based on the presence of adverse signs such as hypotension, pallor, sweating, confusion, or impaired consciousness. If any of these signs are present, synchronised DC shocks should be given, up to a maximum of three shocks.
The treatment following this is based on whether the QRS complex is narrow or broad and whether the rhythm is regular or irregular. For broad-complex tachycardia, a loading dose of amiodarone followed by a 24-hour infusion is given if the rhythm is regular. If the rhythm is irregular, expert help should be sought as it could be due to atrial fibrillation with bundle branch block, atrial fibrillation with ventricular pre-excitation, or torsade de pointes.
For narrow-complex tachycardia, vagal manoeuvres followed by IV adenosine are given if the rhythm is regular. If unsuccessful, atrial flutter is considered, and rate control is achieved with beta-blockers. If the rhythm is irregular, it is likely due to atrial fibrillation, and electrical or chemical cardioversion is considered if the onset is less than 48 hours. Beta-blockers are usually the first-line treatment for rate control unless contraindicated. The full treatment algorithm can be found on the Resuscitation Council website.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female with a past medical history of anorexia nervosa complains of red crusted lesions located at the corners of her mouth and below her lower lip. What nutrient deficiency is she most likely experiencing?
Your Answer: Magnesium
Correct Answer: Zinc
Explanation:Angular cheilitis can also be caused by a lack of vitamin B2 (riboflavin).
Understanding Zinc Deficiency and Acrodermatitis Enteropathica
Zinc deficiency is a condition that can lead to a range of symptoms, including acrodermatitis, which is characterized by red, crusted lesions that appear in an acral distribution, peri-orificial, perianal, and alopecia. Other symptoms of zinc deficiency include short stature, hypogonadism, hepatosplenomegaly, geophagia (ingesting clay/soil), cognitive impairment, and more.
One specific type of zinc deficiency is known as acrodermatitis enteropathica, which is a recessively inherited partial defect in intestinal zinc absorption. This condition can lead to a range of symptoms, including the characteristic skin lesions, as well as other physical and cognitive impairments. It is important to recognize the signs of zinc deficiency and seek appropriate treatment to prevent further complications. With proper management, individuals with zinc deficiency can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 13
Correct
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At her routine check-up, a 75 year old woman is discovered to have a serum sodium level of 128 mmol/L. Despite feeling fine and having no symptoms, which of the following medications could be responsible for her hyponatraemia?
Your Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Hyponatraemia, a condition where there is low sodium levels in the blood, can be caused by various drugs that either increase the production or enhance the effects of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Among these drugs, diuretics (especially thiazides), SSRIs, antipsychotics like haloperidol, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories, and carbamazepine are the most commonly implicated. SSRIs, in particular, can trigger the release of ADH, leading to hyponatraemia within the first few weeks of treatment. However, this condition usually resolves within two weeks of discontinuing the drug. The risk of developing hyponatraemia is higher in older patients and those taking diuretics concomitantly with SSRIs.
Understanding the Side-Effects and Interactions of SSRIs
SSRIs, or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, are commonly prescribed antidepressants that can have various side-effects and interactions with other medications. The most common side-effect of SSRIs is gastrointestinal symptoms, and patients taking these medications are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. To mitigate this risk, a proton pump inhibitor should be prescribed if the patient is also taking a NSAID. Hyponatraemia, or low sodium levels, can also occur with SSRIs, and patients should be vigilant for increased anxiety and agitation after starting treatment.
Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and citalopram has been associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has advised that citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram has been reduced for certain patient populations.
SSRIs can also interact with other medications, such as NSAIDs, warfarin/heparin, aspirin, and triptans. It is important to review patients after starting antidepressant therapy and to gradually reduce the dose when stopping treatment to avoid discontinuation symptoms. These symptoms can include mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
In summary, understanding the potential side-effects and interactions of SSRIs is crucial for safe and effective treatment of depression and other mental health conditions. Patients should be closely monitored and counseled on the risks and benefits of these medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 14
Correct
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A human immunodeficiency virus-1 (HIV-1)-positive woman develops multiple raised purple lesions on her legs. Her CD4 count is 96 cells/mm3 (normal range: > 600 mm3) and her viral load measures greater than 500 000 copies/ml.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Kaposi’s sarcoma
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Raised Nodular Lesion: Common Skin Conditions in HIV-1 Patients
Kaposi’s sarcoma is a prevalent tumour in HIV-1-positive individuals and a leading cause of death in these patients. It is an AIDS-defining illness in 15% of patients and commonly occurs with a CD4 count of fewer than 200 cells/mm3. Other common tumours in HIV-1 include non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, and those caused by human papillomavirus. Basal cell carcinoma, the most common non-melanoma skin cancer, typically presents with a single, shiny, pearlised nodule and may ulcerate, but does not match the description in this scenario. Cryoglobulinaemia, a condition associated with hepatitis C infection, causes a vasculitic rash and does not match this scenario’s description. Fixed drug eruption describes the development of one or more annular or oval erythematous plaques resulting from systemic exposure to a drug and does not tend to cause raised nodular lesions. Melanoma is typically black/darkly pigmented and usually a single lesion, therefore it does not match the description in this scenario.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 15
Correct
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A 25-year-old Caucasian female teacher visits the clinic to inquire about preconception care. She intends to conceive and is interested in learning about the supplements she should take. She has never given birth before and is in good health. She is not on any medication and has no known allergies. She does not smoke or consume alcohol.
What supplements do you suggest she take?Your Answer: Folic acid 400 micrograms once a day and vitamin D 10 micrograms once a day
Explanation:For this patient, who has a low risk of having a baby with neural tube defects and is not at high risk of vitamin D deficiency, the standard care is recommended. This includes taking a daily supplement of 10 micrograms of vitamin D. There is no need for her to take folic acid 5mg or higher doses of vitamin D, as they exceed the recommended amount.
Antenatal care guidelines were issued by NICE in March 2008, which included specific points for the care of healthy pregnant women. Nausea and vomiting can be treated with natural remedies such as ginger and acupuncture on the ‘p6’ point, as recommended by NICE. Antihistamines, with promethazine as the first-line option according to the BNF, can also be used. Adequate vitamin D intake is crucial for the health of both the mother and baby, and women should be informed about this at their booking appointment. The Chief Medical Officer advises all pregnant and breastfeeding women to take a daily supplement containing 10 micrograms of vitamin D, with particular care taken for those at risk. In 2016, new guidelines were proposed by the Chief Medical Officer regarding alcohol consumption during pregnancy. The government now advises pregnant women not to drink any alcohol to minimize the risk of harm to the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 16
Correct
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A 50-year-old man who is being treated for schizophrenia with chlorpromazine experiences involuntary puckering of the lips. Which side effect of antipsychotic medication does this exemplify?
Your Answer: Tardive dyskinesia
Explanation:Tardive dyskinesia can be caused by antipsychotics.
Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.
Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 17
Correct
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An 80-year-old man complains of lower back pain and right hip pain. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results were obtained:
Calcium 2.20 mmol/l
Phosphate 0.8 mmol/l
ALP 890 u/L
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Paget's disease
Explanation:Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone
Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities. Predisposing factors include increasing age, male sex, northern latitude, and family history.
Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. The stereotypical presentation is an older male with bone pain and an isolated raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP). Classical, untreated features include bowing of the tibia and bossing of the skull. Diagnosis is made through blood tests, which show raised ALP, and x-rays, which reveal osteolysis in early disease and mixed lytic/sclerotic lesions later.
Treatment is indicated for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fracture, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, either oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are the preferred treatment. Calcitonin is less commonly used now. Complications of Paget’s disease include deafness, bone sarcoma (1% if affected for > 10 years), fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.
Overall, understanding Paget’s disease of the bone is important for early diagnosis and management of symptoms and complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 18
Correct
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A 42 year old athlete visits his team physician for a yearly check-up. What ECG findings should be considered worrisome?
Your Answer: Left bundle branch block
Explanation:Left bundle branch block is typically indicative of underlying ischaemic or structural heart disease and is never considered normal. However, there are several normal variants that can appear on an ECG, such as sinus arrhythmia, right axis deviation (common in tall and thin individuals), left axis deviation (common in short, obese individuals), and partial right bundle branch block. Additionally, athletes may exhibit certain normal variants due to their high vagal tone, such as sinus bradycardia and 1st degree atrioventricular block.
Normal Variants in Athlete ECGs
Athletes may exhibit certain ECG changes that are considered normal variants. These include sinus bradycardia, junctional rhythm, first degree heart block, and Mobitz type 1 (Wenckebach phenomenon). Sinus bradycardia refers to a slower than normal heart rate originating from the sinus node, which is the natural pacemaker of the heart. Junctional rhythm occurs when the heart’s electrical impulses originate from the junction between the atria and ventricles, rather than the sinus node. First degree heart block is a delay in the electrical conduction between the atria and ventricles, resulting in a prolonged PR interval on the ECG. Mobitz type 1, also known as Wenckebach phenomenon, is a type of heart block where there is a progressive lengthening of the PR interval until a beat is dropped. These ECG changes are considered normal in athletes and do not necessarily indicate any underlying cardiac pathology.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 19
Correct
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A 68-year-old male visits his primary care physician with a complaint of persistent left-sided ear pain for over a month. He reports no hearing loss or discharge and feels generally healthy. He has a history of hypertension and currently smokes 15 cigarettes a day. Otoscopy reveals no abnormalities in either ear. What is the best course of action to take?
Your Answer: Refer to ENT under 2-week wait
Explanation:If a person experiences unexplained ear pain on one side for more than 4 weeks and there are no visible abnormalities during an otoscopy, it is important to refer them for further investigation under the 2-week wait. This is particularly crucial for individuals who smoke, as they are at a higher risk for head and neck cancer. Using topical antibiotic/steroid drops or nasal steroid sprays without identifying any underlying pathology is not recommended. While amitriptyline may provide relief for symptoms, it should not be used as a substitute for proper diagnosis and treatment. Referring the patient for further evaluation is necessary to rule out the possibility of malignancy.
Understanding Head and Neck Cancer
Head and neck cancer is a broad term that encompasses various types of cancer, including oral cavity cancers, pharynx cancers, and larynx cancers. Symptoms of head and neck cancer may include a neck lump, hoarseness, persistent sore throat, and mouth ulcers.
To ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has established suspected cancer pathway referral criteria. For instance, individuals aged 45 and over with persistent unexplained hoarseness or an unexplained lump in the neck may be referred for an appointment within two weeks to assess for laryngeal cancer. Similarly, those with unexplained ulceration in the oral cavity lasting for more than three weeks or a persistent and unexplained lump in the neck may be referred for an appointment within two weeks to assess for oral cancer.
Dentists may also play a role in identifying potential cases of oral cancer. Individuals with a lump on the lip or in the oral cavity or a red or red and white patch in the oral cavity consistent with erythroplakia or erythroleukoplakia may be urgently referred for assessment within two weeks. Finally, individuals with an unexplained thyroid lump may be referred for an appointment within two weeks to assess for thyroid cancer. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can help ensure timely diagnosis and treatment of head and neck cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman is contemplating hormone replacement therapy but is concerned about the potential risk of developing breast cancer. She began menstruating at the age of 11 and experienced premature menopause at 45. She has three children, all of whom she breastfed, and has never used oral contraceptives. Apart from hormone replacement therapy, which of the following factors is most strongly linked to an elevated risk of breast cancer?
Your Answer: Lack of oral contraceptive use
Correct Answer: Early menarche
Explanation:Breast cancer risk is increased by HRT, early menarche, late menopause, and COCP, while it is reduced by multiple pregnancy and breastfeeding.
Breast Cancer Risk Factors: Understanding the Predisposing Factors
Breast cancer is a complex disease that can be influenced by various factors. Some of these factors are considered predisposing factors, which means they increase the likelihood of developing breast cancer. One of the most well-known predisposing factors is the presence of BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes, which can increase a person’s lifetime risk of breast and ovarian cancer by 40%. Other predisposing factors include having a first-degree relative with premenopausal breast cancer, nulliparity, having a first pregnancy after the age of 30, early menarche, late menopause, combined hormone replacement therapy, combined oral contraceptive use, past breast cancer, not breastfeeding, ionizing radiation, p53 gene mutations, obesity, and previous surgery for benign disease.
To reduce the risk of developing breast cancer, it is important to understand these predisposing factors and take steps to minimize their impact. For example, women with a family history of breast cancer may choose to undergo genetic testing to determine if they carry the BRCA1 or BRCA2 genes. Women who have not yet had children may consider having their first child before the age of 30, while those who have already had children may choose to breastfeed. Additionally, women who are considering hormone replacement therapy or oral contraceptives should discuss the potential risks and benefits with their healthcare provider. By understanding these predisposing factors and taking proactive steps to reduce their impact, women can help protect themselves against breast cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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