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Question 1
Correct
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A 56-year-old man presents with a sudden onset of acute severe pain in his upper abdomen, which radiates to his back. He experiences severe nausea and vomiting and finds that sitting forwards is the only way to alleviate the pain. His medical history includes hypertension and gallstones, which were incidentally discovered during an ultrasound scan. What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute pancreatitis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Acute Upper Abdominal Pain
Acute upper abdominal pain can have various causes, and it is important to differentiate between them to provide appropriate treatment. Here are some possible diagnoses based on the given symptoms:
1. Acute pancreatitis: This condition is often caused by gallstones or alcohol consumption and presents with severe upper abdominal pain. Blood tests show elevated amylase levels, and immediate hospital admission is necessary.
2. Budd-Chiari syndrome: This rare condition involves the blockage of the hepatic vein and can cause right upper abdominal pain, hepatomegaly, and ascites.
3. Acute cholecystitis: This condition is characterized by localized pain in the upper right abdomen and a positive Murphy’s sign (pain worsened by deep breathing).
4. Perforated duodenal ulcer: This condition can cause sudden upper abdominal pain, but it is usually associated with a history of dyspepsia or NSAID use.
5. Renal colic: This condition causes severe pain in the loin-to-groin area and is often accompanied by urinary symptoms and hematuria.
In conclusion, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s symptoms and medical history is necessary to determine the underlying cause of acute upper abdominal pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a bowel issue. She has a history of irritable bowel syndrome and has experienced occasional abdominal bloating and changes in stool consistency for many years. However, over the past four weeks, she has noticed a significant increase in symptoms, including daily loose and frequent stools. She denies any rectal bleeding and cannot recall experiencing loose stools for this extended period before.
Upon examination, she appears well, with a soft and non-tender abdomen and no palpable masses. Rectal examination is normal, and her weight is comparable to her last visit a year ago.
Which of the following tests would you suggest for this patient?Your Answer: Quantitative faecal immunochemical testing
Correct Answer: Abdominal x ray
Explanation:Investigating Bowel Symptoms in Patients with Irritable Bowel Syndrome
A patient with a history of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) presenting with acute bowel symptoms is a common scenario. However, if their symptoms have undergone a marked change and become more persistent than usual, it is important to consider the possibility of colorectal cancer. In this context, an abdominal X-ray or ultrasound is not appropriate, and testing for inflammatory markers such as ESR doesn’t provide specific information that would aid referral. Tumour marker testing is also not an appropriate primary care investigation.
According to NICE guidelines, quantitative faecal immunochemical tests should be offered to assess for colorectal cancer in adults without rectal bleeding who are aged 50 and over with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, or aged under 60 with changes in their bowel habit or iron-deficiency anaemia. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure appropriate investigation and referral for patients with IBS and changing bowel symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents with a 3-day history of abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea, passing around 8 stools per day. He denies any recent travel or exposure to unwell individuals.
During examination, his heart rate is 95 beats per minute, blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and temperature is 37.8 ºC. His abdomen is soft but mildly tender throughout.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Advise simple analgesia and increased fluid intake and review in 5 days if not settling
Correct Answer: Admit to hospital
Explanation:Hospitalization and IV corticosteroids are necessary for the treatment of a severe flare of ulcerative colitis, as seen in this patient with over 6 bloody stools per day and systemic symptoms like tachycardia and fever. Mild to moderate cases can be managed with aminosalicylates and oral steroids. Simple analgesia, increased fluid intake, and oral antibiotics are not effective in managing severe flares of ulcerative colitis.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presented with persistent dyspepsia and was referred for a gastroscopy. The test confirmed a duodenal ulcer and a positive urease test. After completing the H. pylori eradication regimen of lansoprazole, amoxicillin and clarithromycin for seven days, she returned to her GP with ongoing epigastric pain. What is the most appropriate way to determine the successful eradication of H. pylori?
Your Answer: [13C] urea breath test
Explanation:Non-Invasive Tests for Confirming Eradication of H. pylori Infection
After completing eradication therapy for H. pylori infection, routine retesting is not recommended unless there are persistent symptoms. In such cases, the [13C] urea breath test is a sensitive and non-invasive option for detecting the presence of H. pylori bacteria. This test involves administering a drink containing urea labelled with an uncommon isotope and detecting the presence of isotope-labelled carbon dioxide in exhaled breath after 30 minutes. Faecal antigen testing can also be used as a second-line option if the urea breath test is not available. Blood serology testing is not recommended as it remains positive for several months after successful eradication. Endoscopy and histology or CLO test are invasive and costly options that are not justified when accurate non-invasive tests are available. Testing should occur at least four weeks after stopping antibiotics and two weeks after stopping proton pump inhibitors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with symptoms of intermittent diarrhoea containing blood and mucous, tiredness and anorexia that have been present for 6 months. Stool samples have been negative for any cultures. The abdomen and rectum examination is normal.
What is the most suitable course of action for primary care management?
Your Answer: Refer urgently to gastroenterology
Explanation:Management of a Patient with Suspected Inflammatory Bowel Disease
If a young person presents with rectal bleeding, diarrhea, and anorexia without an infective cause, inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) should be suspected. IBD includes Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis, and a definitive diagnosis is necessary for proper management. Colonoscopy and intestinal biopsies are required for diagnosis, while blood tests and fecal calprotectin may aid in the diagnosis but cannot differentiate between the two types of IBD. Urgent referral to gastroenterology is necessary for diagnostic investigations.
An abdominal X-ray is only indicated if acute bowel obstruction is suspected, which is unlikely in this patient’s case. Blood tests may be appropriate in primary care, including FBC, inflammatory markers, renal profile, TFTs, coeliac screen, and LFTs. However, loperamide should not be prescribed in undiagnosed IBD as it can increase the risk of toxic megacolon.
Once a confirmed diagnosis is made, referral to a dietician may be beneficial for dietary advice. A 2-week-wait referral to gastroenterology is not necessary in this patient’s case, as she is a young adult and malignancy is less likely to be the cause of her symptoms. Clinical judgement should be used, and the presence of a suspicious rectal or abdominal mass would warrant referral at any age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman with a history of Crohn's disease is seeking advice regarding her desire to start a family with her partner. She is currently taking methotrexate and wants to know if it is safe to conceive.
What would be the best course of action to recommend?Your Answer: There are no limitations on male patients
Correct Answer: He should wait at least 6 months after stopping treatment
Explanation:Men and women who are undergoing methotrexate treatment must use reliable contraception throughout the duration of the treatment and for a minimum of 6 months after it has ended.
Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.
Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.
It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman who is currently 4 weeks into a course of postoperative radiotherapy for locally advanced cervical carcinoma has abdominal pain and diarrhoea.
Select the single most likely cause.Your Answer: Radiation enteritis
Explanation:Radiation Enteritis: Understanding the Inflammation of the Bowel
Radiation enteritis is a condition that occurs as a result of radiation-induced inflammation of the bowel. The severity of the condition is dependent on the volume of bowel that has been irradiated and the radiation dose. During therapy, patients may experience acute radiation enteritis, which manifests as ileitis, colitis, or proctitis, with symptoms such as abdominal pain and diarrhea.
In virtually all patients undergoing radiation therapy, acute radiation-induced injury to the GI mucosa occurs when the bowel is irradiated. Delayed effects may occur after three months or more, and they are due to mucosal atrophy, vascular sclerosis, and intestinal wall fibrosis. These effects can lead to malabsorption or dysmotility, causing further complications.
It is important to note that the clinical picture of radiation enteritis is unlikely to be due to a surgical complication, given the time frame. Additionally, it is less suggestive of bowel obstruction or perforation. Local malignant infiltration into the bowel is most likely to present with obstruction. Understanding the symptoms and causes of radiation enteritis can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and management for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man who you have treated for obesity comes for review. Despite ongoing lifestyle interventions and trials of orlistat and sibutramine he has failed to lose a significant amount of weight. He is currently taking lisinopril for hypertension but a recent fasting glucose was normal. For this patient, what is the cut-off body mass index (BMI) that would trigger a referral for consideration of bariatric surgery?
Your Answer: BMI > 38 kg/m^2
Correct Answer: BMI > 35 kg/m^2
Explanation:Bariatric Surgery for Obesity Management
Bariatric surgery has become a significant option in managing obesity over the past decade. For obese patients who fail to lose weight with lifestyle and drug interventions, the risks and expenses of long-term obesity outweigh those of surgery. The NICE guidelines recommend that very obese patients with a BMI of 40-50 kg/m^2 or higher, particularly those with other conditions such as type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension, should be referred early for bariatric surgery rather than it being a last resort.
There are three types of bariatric surgery: primarily restrictive operations, primarily malabsorptive operations, and mixed operations. Laparoscopic-adjustable gastric banding (LAGB) is the first-line intervention for patients with a BMI of 30-39 kg/m^2. It produces less weight loss than malabsorptive or mixed procedures but has fewer complications. Sleeve gastrectomy reduces the stomach to about 15% of its original size, while the intragastric balloon can be left in the stomach for a maximum of six months. Biliopancreatic diversion with duodenal switch is usually reserved for very obese patients with a BMI of over 60 kg/m^2. Roux-en-Y gastric bypass surgery is both restrictive and malabsorptive in action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You see a 38-year-old lady who has come to you for help reducing her weight. Her BMI is 32 kg/m2. She has tried joining a local dieting group and increasing her physical activity but is still finding it difficult to lose weight. After discussion, it is decided to start her on orlistat. She manages to lose 2Kg after 3 months treatment. She wants to know how much longer she is allowed to be on this medication.
Following an initial weight loss at 3 months, what is the restriction on how long orlistat should be prescribed?Your Answer: 6 months
Correct Answer: 3 months
Explanation:Orlistat Prescription Guidelines
Orlistat is a medication that inhibits pancreatic lipase and is prescribed to patients with a BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more (or 28 kg/m2 with an associated risk factor). Patients are expected to lose 5% of their initial body weight at 3 months for the prescription to be continued. However, for patients with diabetes, a 3% loss of body weight at 3 months is recommended.
Beyond the initial weight loss at 3 months, there is no restriction on how long orlistat should be prescribed. The decision to continue treatment should be made on an individual basis, taking into account the benefits, risks, and cost of treatment. Regular reviews should be undertaken to assess the benefits, risks, and costs of treatment. According to NICE, For people who have lost the recommended amount of weight, there is no restriction on how long orlistat may be prescribed. This should be reviewed at regular intervals.
In summary, orlistat is a medication that can be prescribed for an extended period of time, but the decision to continue treatment should be made on an individual basis, taking into account the benefits, risks, and cost of treatment. Regular reviews should be conducted to ensure that the medication is still appropriate for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner concerned that he may have cirrhosis of the liver. He has regularly drunk more than 30 units of alcohol every week for many years. Over the last three months, he has lost 2 kg in weight. He attributes this to a poor appetite.
On examination, there are no obvious features.
What is the most appropriate advice you can provide this patient?
Your Answer: An ultrasound (US) scan of the liver is now necessary
Correct Answer: The presence of chronic hepatitis C infection makes a diagnosis of liver cirrhosis more likely
Explanation:Diagnosing Liver Cirrhosis in Patients with Chronic Hepatitis C Infection
Liver cirrhosis is a common complication of chronic hepatitis C infection and can be caused by other factors such as alcohol consumption. Patients with chronic hepatitis C infection who are over 55 years old, male, and consume moderate amounts of alcohol are at higher risk of developing cirrhosis. However, cirrhosis can be asymptomatic until complications arise. An ultrasound scan can detect cirrhosis and its complications, but a liver biopsy is the gold standard for diagnosis. Abnormal liver function tests may indicate liver damage, but they are not always conclusive. The absence of signs doesn’t exclude a diagnosis of liver cirrhosis. Further investigation is necessary before considering a liver biopsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman has been diagnosed as having coeliac disease. She has started on a gluten-free diet.
Select from the list the single most correct statement about her management.Your Answer: Gluten-free products cannot be prescribed on the NHS
Correct Answer: IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies and endomysial antibodies disappear if the diet is maintained
Explanation:Managing Coeliac Disease with a Gluten-Free Diet
Coeliac disease is a condition where the immune system reacts to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. The resulting damage to the intestinal mucosa can cause a range of symptoms, including abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhoea. However, starting a gluten-free diet can lead to rapid improvement.
The diet involves avoiding all foods containing wheat, barley, or rye, such as bread, cake, and pies. Oats can be consumed in moderate quantities if they are free from other contaminating cereals, as they do not damage the intestinal mucosa in most coeliac patients. Rice, maize, potatoes, soya, jam, syrup, sugar, and treacle are all allowed. Gluten-free flour, bread, biscuits, and pasta can be prescribed on the NHS, and Coeliac UK provides a list of prescribable products.
To monitor the response to the diet, serial tTGA or EMA antibodies can be used. If these antibodies continue to be present in the blood, it suggests dietary lapses.
Supplements of calcium, vitamin D, iron, and folic acid are only necessary if dietary intake is inadequate, which is often the case, particularly in elderly patients. Most patients with coeliac disease have some degree of hyposplenism, which warrants immunisation against influenza, pneumococcus, and H. influenza type B. However, lifelong prophylactic antibiotics are not needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 45-year-old man returns after he was found to have abnormal liver biochemistry. Investigations showed he had an alanine aminotransferase (ALT) of 98 iu/l and was Hep B surface-antigen positive.
Select from the list the single statement that is true of chronic hepatitis due to the hepatitis B virus.Your Answer: It carries an increased risk of subsequent hepatocellular carcinoma
Explanation:Understanding Chronic Hepatitis B Infection
Chronic hepatitis B infection occurs in up to 10% of adults who contract the virus. This means that the virus remains in the body long-term, with the surface antigen (HBsAg) persisting in the serum. However, up to two-thirds of people in the chronic phase remain well and do not experience any liver damage or other issues. This is known as the carrier state or chronic inactive hepatitis B, where HBeAg is absent, anti-HBe is present, and HBV DNA levels are low or undetectable. While carriers can still transmit the virus, their infectivity is lower than those with chronic active hepatitis.
Around 20% of carriers will eventually clear the virus naturally, but this can take several years. However, some carriers may experience spontaneous reactivation of hepatitis B due to the emergence of the HBeAg-negative strain of the virus. The remaining individuals with chronic hepatitis B experience persistent liver inflammation, also known as chronic active hepatitis B. Symptoms can include muscle aches, fatigue, nausea, lack of appetite, intolerance to alcohol, liver pain, jaundice, and depression. HBeAg is usually still present, and the virus is still replicating, with raised HBV DNA levels and high infectivity. Transaminase levels may be elevated, but not always significantly.
If left untreated, chronic active hepatitis B can lead to cirrhosis and even hepatocellular carcinoma. It’s important to note that hepatitis D is a separate virus that only infects individuals who are already infected with hepatitis B. Understanding the different phases and potential outcomes of chronic hepatitis B infection is crucial for proper management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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You encounter a client who is worried about having coeliac disease. They have recently reintroduced gluten in their diet. How long should the client be consuming gluten before NICE suggests testing for coeliac disease?
Your Answer: 6 weeks
Correct Answer: 4 weeks
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Coeliac Disease Testing
According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), individuals who are being tested for coeliac disease should have consumed gluten-containing foods equivalent to at least 4 slices of bread over the previous 6 weeks. Additionally, they should be consuming these foods at least twice per day during this time. This is important because consuming gluten is necessary to trigger the immune response that leads to the production of antibodies, which are used to diagnose coeliac disease. Therefore, it is essential that individuals do not follow a gluten-free diet before being tested for coeliac disease. Following these guidelines can help ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment for individuals with coeliac disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Oliver is a 25-year-old man, who was diagnosed with coeliac disease when he was aged five having been referred to the paediatricians with failure to thrive and anaemia.
He is very aware of foods that may cause problems, but wants to know if there are any drinks that should be avoided when he goes out clubbing with friends.
Which one of the following drinks can he safely ingest?Your Answer: Stout
Correct Answer: Whiskey
Explanation:Coeliac Disease and Gluten-Free Alcohol
Patients with coeliac disease must avoid consuming foodstuffs that contain gluten. This means that anything made with wheat, barley, and oats (in some cases) should be avoided. When it comes to alcohol, beers, lagers, stouts, and real ales, whether alcoholic or not, must be avoided due to their gluten content. However, there are now several gluten-free beers and lagers available in the market.
On the other hand, wine, champagne, port, sherry, ciders, liqueurs, and spirits, including whiskey, are all gluten-free. Although whiskey is initially made from barley, the distilling process involved in its production removes the gluten, making it safe for coeliacs to consume. It is essential for individuals with coeliac disease to be mindful of their alcohol intake and to choose gluten-free options to avoid any adverse reactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with new onset bilateral gynaecomastia.
He has been diagnosed with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome and heart failure in the last year. He underwent normal puberty at age 14.
Which of the following drugs would be most likely to cause gynaecomastia?Your Answer: Spironolactone
Correct Answer: Rabeprazole sodium
Explanation:Drugs that can cause gynaecomastia
Research has shown that the risk of developing gynaecomastia is almost insignificant when using other drugs as part of the treatment of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. However, there are other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia, including spironolactone, digoxin, methyldopa, gonadotrophins, and cyproterone acetate.
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is a condition where a gastrin-secreting pancreatic adenoma is associated with peptic ulcer, and 50-60% of cases are malignant. It is suspected in patients with multiple peptic ulcers that are resistant to drugs and occurs in approximately 0.1% of patients with duodenal ulcer disease.
A case study into male gynaecomastia has shown that spironolactone induced gynaecomastia by blocking androgen production, blocking androgens from binding to their receptors, and increasing both total and free oestrogen levels. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of these drugs and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare professional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman has been diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). She experiences spasms of pain in the left iliac fossa and has alternating periods of constipation and loose stools. As her healthcare provider, you are contemplating drug therapy to alleviate her symptoms.
What is the medication that NICE advises against using in patients with IBS?Your Answer: Lactulose
Explanation:NICE advises against the use of lactulose for the treatment of IBS.
Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man has had dysphagia for three weeks. He thinks it is getting worse. He has lost a small amount of weight.
What is the best course of action?Your Answer: Refer urgently for endoscopy
Correct Answer: Check an FBC and then consider referral
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Endoscopy in Suspected Oesophageal Cancer
This man requires an urgent referral for endoscopy as he may have cancer of the oesophagus. As a medical professional, it is important to identify alarm symptoms and understand referral guidelines that may apply. In this case, the patient’s dysphagia and weight loss are concerning and require urgent attention. An urgent referral is defined as one where the patient should be seen within two weeks.
It is crucial to get this question right, as nearly 20% of respondents did not refer this patient urgently. If you answered incorrectly, take a moment to review the latest NICE guidance to update your knowledge. Practice questions like these can highlight areas of knowledge deficiency and stimulate further learning. By remembering this scenario, you will be better equipped to handle similar situations in the future.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male presents with central abdominal pain that radiates to the back and vomiting. His amylase level is 1,245 u/dl. Which medication is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Metoclopramide
Correct Answer: Sodium valproate
Explanation:Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is primarily caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption in the UK. However, there are other factors that can contribute to the development of this condition. A popular mnemonic used to remember these factors is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine. CT scans can show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins in patients with acute pancreatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 68-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of fatigue and lack of energy. His recent blood test showed macrocytosis and a low haemoglobin level, indicating a folic acid deficiency. He requests dietary recommendations from the physician to address this issue.
What is the most suitable food item to suggest?Your Answer: Spinach
Explanation:Folate Content in Common Foods
Folate, also known as vitamin B9, is an essential nutrient that is important for cell growth and development. While it is found naturally in many foods, it is also added to processed foods and supplements in the form of folic acid. Here is a breakdown of the folate content in some common foods:
Spinach: With 194 μg of folic acid per 100g, spinach is the richest source of folate on this list.
Egg: While eggs contain 47 μg of folic acid per 100g, they only provide around a quarter of the folate per 100g that is found in spinach.
Carrot: Carrots contain about 21 μg of folic acid per 100g, less than half the amount of folate found in eggs and only around 11% of the amount provided by spinach.
Milk: Cow’s milk contains 5-7 μg of folic acid per 100g, making it the second-lowest source of folate in this range of options.
Apple: Apples provide the lowest source of folate in this range of options, with only about 3 μg of folic acid per 100g.
It is important to note that women who are pregnant or breastfeeding require more folate and should take a daily supplement of 400 micrograms. While many food manufacturers fortify their products with folic acid, wholegrain products already contain natural folate. Folate deficiency can occur due to poor intake, excessive alcohol consumption, or malnutrition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of abdominal cramps, bloating and diarrhoea. She has recently returned from a trip to Asia, where she consumed food from various street vendors. Upon examination, her temperature is normal. Analysis of three stool samples reveals cysts, and she responds well to a course of metronidazole. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cryptosporidiosis
Correct Answer: Giardiasis
Explanation:Possible Causes of a Patient’s Abdominal Symptoms: A Differential Diagnosis
The patient presents with abdominal symptoms including cramps, bloating, and diarrhea. The following are possible causes of these symptoms:
1. Giardiasis: Caused by the protozoan parasite Giardia lamblia, transmitted by poor hygiene, and often associated with travel to areas with poor sanitation. Symptoms include diarrhea, flatulence, cramps, bloating, and nausea. Treatment is with metronidazole.
2. Typhoid fever: Caused by Salmonella typhi, often associated with travel to India, Pakistan, and Bangladesh. Symptoms include fever, but not present in this case.
3. Cryptosporidiosis: A parasite infection often causing sudden onset of watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and fever. Can be foodborne, waterborne, or transmitted through direct contact with livestock or infected people. Self-limiting, but may require treatment with metronidazole.
4. Salmonella enteritidis infection: The most common cause of salmonella gastroenteritis, often associated with contaminated food or poor hygiene. Symptoms include fever, which is not reported in this case.
5. Tapeworm infection: Caused by ingestion of uncooked or undercooked meat/fish containing tapeworm larvae. Symptoms vary depending on the type of tapeworm and may include abdominal discomfort, weight loss, and abnormal LFTs. Eggs may be found on stool examination, not cysts as in this case.
Overall, giardiasis and cryptosporidiosis are the most likely diagnoses given the patient’s symptoms and travel history. However, further testing and evaluation may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 72-year-old male came to his doctor complaining of loose stool during the night for the past 2 months. He has a medical history of uncontrolled diabetes, chronic kidney disease, retinopathy, osteoarthritis, and coeliac disease. He denied experiencing abdominal pain, bloating, weight loss, or vomiting. Upon examination, his abdomen appeared normal, and his vital signs were stable. His blood glucose level was 18.7mmol/L.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Autonomic neuropathy
Explanation:Autonomic neuropathy is a possible cause of night time diarrhoea in diabetics with poor control of their condition. Other potential diagnoses, such as irritable bowel syndrome, microscopic colitis, Crohn’s disease, and chronic constipation, should be considered and ruled out before making a definitive diagnosis. However, given the patient’s age and medical history, autonomic neuropathy is a likely explanation for her symptoms.
Diabetes can cause peripheral neuropathy, which typically results in sensory loss rather than motor loss. This can lead to a glove and stocking distribution of symptoms, with the lower legs being affected first. Painful diabetic neuropathy is a common issue that can be managed with medications such as amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If these drugs do not work, tramadol may be used as a rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain. Topical capsaicin may also be used for localized neuropathic pain. Pain management clinics may be helpful for patients with resistant problems.
Gastrointestinal autonomic neuropathy is another complication of diabetes that can cause symptoms such as gastroparesis, erratic blood glucose control, bloating, and vomiting. This can be managed with medications such as metoclopramide, domperidone, or erythromycin, which are prokinetic agents. Chronic diarrhea is another common issue that often occurs at night. Gastroesophageal reflux disease is also a complication of diabetes that is caused by decreased lower esophageal sphincter pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 40-year-old police officer attends his General Practitioner to request screening for hepatitis B. He was exposed to blood from a person possibly infected with hepatitis B virus around three weeks ago. He has never been vaccinated against this and requests blood screening. He feels well and has no comorbidities.
What is the most important test to perform at this stage?
Your Answer: Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)
Explanation:Hepatitis B Markers: Understanding the Different Types
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. It is important to detect and monitor the different markers associated with the disease to determine the stage of infection and the appropriate treatment. Here are the different types of hepatitis B markers and their significance:
1. Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) – This is the first marker to appear in the serum after infection. It indicates the presence of the viral envelope and can be detected between one to nine weeks after infection. Its persistence indicates chronic hepatitis B.
2. Anti-hepatitis B envelope antigen (anti-HBeAg) – This antibody appears after the clearance of the e antigen, signifying the resolution of the acute phase.
3. Hepatitis B envelope antigen (HBeAg) – This marker develops during the early phases of the acute infection and can persist in chronic infections. It is associated with high levels of viral replication and infectivity.
4. Immunoglobulin G (IgG) anti-hepatitis B core antigen (anti-HBc) – This antibody stays positive for life following infection with hepatitis B, even once cleared.
5. Immunoglobulin M (IgM) anti-hepatitis B core antigen (anti-HBc) – This antibody confirms the diagnosis of acute infection but is detectable later than HBsAg.
Understanding these markers is crucial in the diagnosis and management of hepatitis B. Regular monitoring of these markers can help determine the progression of the disease and the effectiveness of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman is known to have diverticular disease. She has experienced pain in the left iliac fossa intermittently in the past put now the pain is more persistent and more severe. She is tender in the left iliac fossa but there is no guarding or rebound tenderness and a mass is not felt. Her temperature is 38oC.
Select from the list the single most useful drug in these circumstances.Your Answer: Mebeverine
Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Explanation:Management of Diverticulitis in Primary Care
Diverticulitis is a common condition that can be managed in primary care, provided there are no complications. If the patient is not dehydrated, experiencing severe bleeding, or showing signs of perforation, abscess or fistula formation, or significant comorbidity, they can be treated at home.
The first step in treatment is to prescribe broad-spectrum antibiotics that cover anaerobes and Gram-negative rods. Co-amoxiclav or a combination of ciprofloxacin and metronidazole (if allergic to penicillin) are good options. The course of antibiotics should last for at least 7 days.
If the patient’s symptoms worsen or persist beyond 48 hours, hospital admission may be necessary. However, with proper management and monitoring, most cases of diverticulitis can be successfully treated in primary care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 65-year-old man visits the GP clinic complaining of rectal bleeding that has been ongoing for two days. He has experienced eight episodes of diarrhoea in the past 24 hours, with visible blood mixed with stool. He also reports feeling nauseous and having abdominal pain. The patient has a medical history of ulcerative colitis, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes, and is currently taking mesalazine enteric coated 800 mg twice daily, amlodipine 10 mg once daily, and metformin 500mg twice daily.
During the examination, the patient appears pale and has a temperature of 38ºC. His heart rate is 108/min, and his blood pressure is 112/74 mmHg. The abdominal exam reveals generalised tenderness and guarding, but no rebound tenderness.
What is the appropriate course of action for managing this patient's condition?Your Answer: Urgent hospital admission
Explanation:The appropriate course of action for a severe flare-up of ulcerative colitis is urgent hospital admission for IV corticosteroids. This is based on the Truelove and Witts’ severity index, which indicates that the patient is experiencing a severe flare-up due to symptoms such as opening their bowels more than 6 times per day and systemic upset (e.g. fever and tachycardia). NICE guidelines recommend immediate hospital admission for assessment and treatment with IV corticosteroids. It should be noted that a short course of oral steroids or rectal mesalazine may be used for mild to moderate flare-ups, while loperamide and dose increases of mesalazine are not appropriate for managing severe flare-ups.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 62-year-old woman presents with long-standing gastrointestinal symptoms. She was diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome as a young adult and currently takes hyoscine butylbromide 10-20 mg QDS PRN and loperamide 2 mg PRN for her symptoms. She also has a history of type 1 diabetes diagnosed at the age of 10.
She has been experiencing intermittent abdominal pains and bloating, as well as periodic bouts of diarrhea for years. Her latest blood tests, which were done as part of her diabetic annual review, show a modest anemia (hemoglobin 105 g/L). Her liver function tests show a slight persistent elevation of ALT and ALP, which has been the case for the last six to seven years and has not significantly deteriorated. Her thyroid function, bone profile, and ESR are all within normal limits. Her HbA1c is satisfactory at 50 mmol/mol.
There has been no significant change in her gastrointestinal symptoms recently. She has never had any rectal bleeding or mucous passed per rectum. Her weight is stable. She reports no acute illness but does feel more tired than usual over the last few months. She follows a 'normal' diet. Clinical examination reveals no focal abnormalities. She denies any obvious source of blood loss with no reported gastro-oesophageal reflux, haematemesis, haemoptysis, or haematuria. Urine dipstick testing shows no blood.
She has no family history of bowel cancer, but her mother and one of her maternal aunts both suffered from irritable bowel syndrome. Follow-up blood tests show low ferritin and folate levels.
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this 62-year-old woman's symptoms?Your Answer: Reassure her that no further investigation or treatment is needed as her symptoms are chronic
Explanation:Coeliac Disease and Iron Deficiency Anaemia
Note the low folate levels and anaemia in a type 1 diabetic with chronic gastrointestinal symptoms and liver function test abnormalities. These features suggest coeliac disease, which is often misdiagnosed as irritable bowel syndrome. It is recommended by NICE to routinely test for coeliac disease when diagnosing IBS. Family members with IBS should also be investigated for coeliac disease if the diagnosis is confirmed.
Patients with untreated coeliac disease often have mild liver function test abnormalities and are at increased risk for osteoporosis and hypothyroidism. The low folate levels suggest malabsorption as a possible cause. NICE CKS recommends screening all people with iron deficiency anaemia for coeliac disease using coeliac serology.
For iron deficiency anaemia without dyspepsia, consider the possibility of gastrointestinal cancer and urgently refer for further investigations. For women who are not menstruating, with unexplained iron deficiency anaemia and a haemoglobin level of 10 g/100 mL or below, refer urgently within 2 weeks for upper and lower gastrointestinal investigations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 66-year-old woman presents to you for a medication review. She underwent H. pylori eradication treatment a year ago, but her symptoms of epigastric burning returned within a few months. She has been taking omeprazole 20 mg/day since then. She reports that her symptoms are worsening again and asks if further treatment for Helicobacter pylori would be beneficial. She has lost more than 7 lbs in weight. You urgently refer her for an upper GI endoscopy.
What advice would you give her while waiting for the investigation?Your Answer: Stop the omeprazole (and any other acid suppression medication) for a minimum of two weeks prior to the endoscopy
Correct Answer: Increase her omeprazole to 40 mg daily
Explanation:Importance of Stopping Acid Suppression Medication Prior to Endoscopy
In urgent cases where endoscopy is required, it is recommended to stop acid suppression medication for at least two weeks before the procedure. This is because acid suppression medication can hide serious underlying conditions that need to be addressed. However, there may be situations where stopping the medication is difficult due to symptoms, and clinical judgement must be used.
For instance, if a patient experiences unintentional weight loss, it is a red flag symptom for upper GI malignancy, and urgent referral for endoscopy is necessary. In such cases, the benefits of stopping acid suppression medication should be weighed against the potential risks of continuing it. Ultimately, the decision should be made based on the patient’s individual circumstances and the urgency of the situation. Proper evaluation and management can help ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman has been experiencing abdominal pain and intermittent bloody diarrhoea for the past 4 months. She has a history of perianal abscess. Her blood test shows hypochromic, microcytic anaemia and mild hypokalaemia. Although her liver function tests are normal, her albumin is reduced. Barium imaging reveals a small bowel stricture with evidence of mucosal ulceration extending into the colon, interspersed with normal looking mucosa ‘skipping’. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Tropical sprue
Correct Answer: Crohn's disease
Explanation:Understanding Crohn’s Disease: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis
Crohn’s disease is a chronic inflammatory condition that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract. The most commonly affected sites are the ileocecal region and the colon. Patients with Crohn’s disease experience relapses and remissions, with symptoms including low-grade fever, prolonged diarrhea, right lower quadrant or periumbilical pain, weight loss, and fatigue. Perianal disease may also occur, with symptoms such as perirectal pain, malodorous discharge, and fistula formation. Extra-intestinal manifestations may include arthritis, erythema nodosum, and primary sclerosing cholangitis.
To establish a diagnosis of Crohn’s disease, ileocolonoscopy and biopsies from affected areas are first-line procedures. A cobblestone-like appearance is often seen, representing areas of ulceration separated by narrow areas of healthy tissue. Barium follow-through examination is useful for looking for inflammation and narrowing of the small bowel.
Differential diagnosis for Crohn’s disease include coeliac disease, small bowel lymphoma, tropical sprue, and ulcerative colitis. Coeliac disease presents as a malabsorption syndrome with weight loss and steatorrhoea, while small bowel lymphoma is rare and presents with nonspecific symptoms such as abdominal pain and weight loss. Tropical sprue is a post-infectious malabsorption syndrome that occurs in tropical areas, and ulcerative colitis may be clinically indistinguishable from colonic Crohn’s disease but lacks the small bowel involvement and skip lesions seen in Crohn’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old patient visits the GP complaining of fatigue, bloating, and abdominal discomfort that has been ongoing for several months. Upon examination, no abnormalities are found. Blood tests reveal mild normocytic anemia and positive IgA tissue transglutaminase antibodies (tTGA).
What would be the most suitable course of action for the next step in management?Your Answer: Initiate gluten-free diet and refer for intestinal biopsy
Correct Answer: Continue gluten-containing diet and refer for intestinal biopsy
Explanation:The gold standard for diagnosing coeliac disease is endoscopic intestinal biopsy, which should be performed in all patients suspected of having the condition based on serology results. Therefore, the correct course of action for this patient presenting with abdominal discomfort, bloating, and fatigue, along with a positive tTGA blood test and likely anaemia, is to continue consuming gluten and refer for intestinal biopsy. It is important for patients to consume gluten in their diet for at least 6 weeks prior to serology testing and biopsy. Commencing iron tablets is not the most appropriate action as the anaemia is likely secondary to malabsorption resulting from coeliac disease. Initiating a gluten-free diet is also not appropriate until a diagnosis has been confirmed, as it may result in a false negative result on biopsy.
Investigating Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is a condition caused by sensitivity to gluten, which leads to villous atrophy and malabsorption. It is often associated with other conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with villous atrophy and immunology typically reversing on a gluten-free diet.
To investigate coeliac disease, NICE guidelines recommend using tissue transglutaminase (TTG) antibodies (IgA) as the first-choice serology test, along with endomyseal antibody (IgA) and testing for selective IgA deficiency. Anti-gliadin antibody (IgA or IgG) tests are not recommended. The ‘gold standard’ for diagnosis is an endoscopic intestinal biopsy, which should be performed in all suspected cases to confirm or exclude the diagnosis. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes, and lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes. Rectal gluten challenge is a less commonly used method.
In summary, investigating coeliac disease involves a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with NICE guidelines recommending specific tests and the ‘gold standard’ being an intestinal biopsy. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, and lymphocyte infiltration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old intravenous drug user presents to the clinic with abnormal liver function tests (LFTs) detected during routine screening. He is asymptomatic and shows no signs of liver disease upon examination. Further blood tests reveal a positive hepatitis B envelope-antigen (HBeAg) result.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Chronic hepatitis B in an inactive state
Correct Answer: Current active hepatitis B infection
Explanation:Understanding Hepatitis B and Related Tests
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. There are different stages of the disease, and various tests can help diagnose and monitor it.
Active Hepatitis B Infection:
The presence of HBeAg in the blood indicates ongoing viral replication and is associated with large quantities of HBV DNA. Patients who have not developed anti-HBeAb are highly infectious and at greater risk of progressing to chronic liver disease.Chronic Hepatitis B in an Inactive State:
Patients in the inactive carrier state have cleared HBeAg and have low levels of HBV DNA. However, they will still test positive for surface antigen.Cirrhosis of the Liver:
Hepatitis B patients are at risk of developing cirrhosis, which is diagnosed clinically, on ultrasound, and with liver biopsy.Hepatitis E:
Hepatitis E is a different viral infection spread via the faecal-oral route and is tested for with hepatitis E antibodies.Previous Hepatitis B Vaccination:
Patients who have been vaccinated against hepatitis B will show antibodies to the surface antibody (anti-HBsAb) only. This doesn’t account for deranged LFTs.Understanding Hepatitis B and Related Tests
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man has recently attended a well-man clinic. He is in good health and reports no symptoms. His body mass index is 22 kg/m2. He takes no regular medication. He is a non-smoker and drinks approximately 3 units of alcohol per week. He presents to you for review of his blood tests, as shown below:
- eGFR 92 mL/min/1.73m2
- HBA1c 38 mmol/mol
- Bilirubin 12 umol/l (3 - 17 umol/l)
- Alanine transferase (ALT) 70 iu/l (3 - 40 iu/l)
- Aspartate transaminase (AST) 30 iu/l (3 - 30 iu/l)
- Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 95 umol/l (30 - 100 umol/l)
- Gamma glutamyl transferase (yGT) 55 u/l (8 - 60 u/l)
- Total protein 72 g/l (60 - 80 g/l)
What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Refer the patient for urgent hepatology review to be seen within two-weeks
Correct Answer: Arrange a liver screen including a liver ultrasound and blood tests, and review the patient with the results
Explanation:It is common for incidental raised liver function tests to persist even after a month, and normalised liver function tests do not necessarily indicate the absence or resolution of chronic liver diseases. Standard liver screen blood tests include Antinuclear antibody, anti-smooth muscle antibody, serum immunoglobulins, anti-mitochondrial antibody, ferritin, transferrin saturation, and a viral hepatitis screen.
Given that the patient is currently well, there is no need for immediate hepatology review. Urgent hepatology referral within two weeks is also unnecessary as the patient is not exhibiting any concerning symptoms.
Since the patient is consuming alcohol within recommended limits, there is no need for a referral for FibroScan (transient elastography).
According to current guidelines, repeating liver function tests after an initial abnormal result is not recommended as they are unlikely to normalise unless an acute cause has been identified. Waiting for 12 months to repeat the bloods is also inappropriate.
Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It is a spectrum of disease that ranges from simple steatosis (fat in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. NAFLD is believed to be the hepatic manifestation of the metabolic syndrome, with insulin resistance as the key mechanism leading to steatosis. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a term used to describe liver changes similar to those seen in alcoholic hepatitis but without a history of alcohol abuse.
NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but patients may present with hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental findings of NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score may be used in combination with a FibroScan to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.
The mainstay of treatment for NAFLD is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. There is ongoing research into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone in the management of NAFLD. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, it is essential to identify and manage incidental findings of NAFLD to prevent disease progression and complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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