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Question 1
Correct
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A study investigated the effectiveness of a new statin therapy in preventing ischaemic heart disease in a diabetic population. Over a period of five years, 1000 patients were randomly assigned to receive the new therapy and 1000 were given a placebo. The placebo group experienced 150 myocardial infarctions (MIs), while the group treated with the new statin had 100 infarctions. What is the yearly percentage of MIs in the diabetic population who received the placebo?
Your Answer: 3%
Explanation:Incidence of Myocardial Infarction in Diabetic Patients
This study found that out of 1000 diabetic patients treated with a placebo over a five-year period, there were 150 cases of myocardial infarction (MI). This means that the rate of infarction in this group was 15%, which translates to an annual MI rate of 3%. These findings provide important information for healthcare professionals treating diabetic patients, as they highlight the increased risk of MI in this population. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of this risk and take appropriate measures to prevent and manage cardiovascular complications in diabetic patients. This study emphasizes the need for continued research and development of effective prevention and treatment strategies for diabetic patients at risk for MI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of muscle aches that have been ongoing for more than a year. She reports that her chest and back are more affected than her limbs. She also mentions experiencing shortness of breath every 3 months. The patient leads a healthy lifestyle and does not drink or smoke.
During the physical examination, the doctor observes a flat erythematous rash on the patient's torso and purple discoloration around her eyelids, which she has had for a long time. What is the antibody associated with this patient's condition?Your Answer: Anti-smooth muscle
Correct Answer: Anti-Jo-1
Explanation:Dermatomyositis is characterized by muscle weakness, muscle pain, and a skin rash, and is often associated with the anti-Jo-1 antibody. The weakness typically affects proximal muscles and can even impact breathing, while systemic symptoms may include dysphagia, arrhythmias, and joint calcifications. One key feature to look out for is the heliotrope rash, which is a purple discoloration often seen in dermatomyositis cases.
There are several other antibodies that can be associated with dermatomyositis, such as ANA, anti M2, and anti-Jo1. However, anti-Jo-1 is more commonly found in polymyositis, although it can also be present in dermatomyositis cases.
Other antibodies that are associated with different autoimmune conditions include anti-smooth muscle antibody (autoimmune hepatitis), anti-histone (drug-induced lupus), and anti Scl-70 (scleroderma).
Understanding Dermatomyositis
Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and weakness in the muscles, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying malignancies. Patients with dermatomyositis may experience symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness, and photosensitive skin rashes. The skin lesions may include a macular rash over the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash in the periorbital region, Gottron’s papules, and mechanic’s hands. Other symptoms may include Raynaud’s, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease, dysphagia, and dysphonia.
To diagnose dermatomyositis, doctors may perform various tests, including screening for underlying malignancies. The majority of patients with dermatomyositis are ANA positive, and around 30% have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, such as anti-synthetase antibodies, antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.
In summary, dermatomyositis is a condition that affects both the muscles and skin. It can be associated with other disorders or malignancies, and patients may experience a range of symptoms. Proper diagnosis and management are essential for improving outcomes and quality of life for those with dermatomyositis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 3
Correct
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A 58-year-old man presents to the emergency department with fast atrial fibrillation. Despite beta-blocker therapy, he requires cardioversion and is subsequently prescribed flecainide by the cardiologist. What is the mechanism of action of flecainide?
Your Answer: Blocking the Nav1.5 sodium channels in the heart
Explanation:Flecainide, Procainamide, and Ibutilide all affect the heart’s electrical activity by blocking or prolonging certain ion channels. Flecainide and Procainamide block sodium channels, while Ibutilide blocks potassium channels. Bisoprolol works by blocking beta one adrenergic receptors, which reduces stimulation of the heart muscle. Dronedarone’s mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to affect both potassium and calcium channels.
Flecainide: A Sodium Channel Blocker for Cardiac Arrhythmias
Flecainide is a type of antiarrhythmic drug that belongs to the Vaughan Williams class 1c. It works by blocking the Nav1.5 sodium channels, which slows down the conduction of the action potential. This can cause the QRS complex to widen and the PR interval to prolong. Flecainide is commonly used to treat atrial fibrillation and supraventricular tachycardia associated with accessory pathways like Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome.
However, it is important to note that flecainide is contraindicated in certain situations. For instance, it should not be used in patients who have recently experienced a myocardial infarction or have structural heart disease like heart failure. It is also not recommended for those with sinus node dysfunction or second-degree or greater AV block, as well as those with atrial flutter.
Like any medication, flecainide can cause adverse effects. It may have a negative inotropic effect, which means it can weaken the heart’s contractions. It can also cause bradycardia, proarrhythmic effects, oral paraesthesia, and visual disturbances. Therefore, it is important to use flecainide only under the guidance of a healthcare professional and to report any unusual symptoms immediately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 4
Correct
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A 10-year-old patient presents with recurrent skin cancer and is diagnosed with xeroderma pigmentosum. What is the defective biochemical mechanism in this disease?
Your Answer: DNA excision repair
Explanation:Xeroderma Pigmentosum and DNA Repair
Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) found in the skin cells can absorb ultraviolet (UV) light, which can cause the formation of pyrimidine dimers. These dimers are removed through a process called excision repair, where the damaged DNA is cut out and replaced with new DNA. However, if this process fails, it can lead to mutations in genes that suppress tumors or promote their growth, potentially leading to cancer.
Xeroderma pigmentosum is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. This means that an individual must inherit two copies of the mutated gene, one from each parent, to develop the disorder. Generally, disorders that affect metabolism or DNA replication on a cellular or genetic level are inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. On the other hand, genetic disorders that affect larger structural components are usually inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. While there are exceptions to these rules, they can serve as a helpful guide for exam preparation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old boy visits his pediatrician with his parents, complaining of blood in his urine. He recently started playing basketball and noticed the red urine after a game. The patient reports experiencing painful leg cramps during games, but he pushes through them to continue playing. He never sought medical attention for the cramps, assuming they were due to lack of training. This is the first time he has experienced these symptoms. The boy is referred for a test to check for a deficiency in a specific muscle enzyme that may be causing his presentation. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Metachromatic leukodystrophy
Correct Answer: McArdle disease
Explanation:The patient exhibited muscle cramps during physical activity and myoglobinuria due to muscle cell breakdown, along with a second-wind phenomenon. These symptoms suggest a possible diagnosis of McArdle disease, a type of glycogen storage disease caused by a deficiency of glycogen phosphorylase in skeletal muscle. Despite adequate glycogen stores, the inability to utilize glycogen leads to muscle cramps, which may resolve with increased blood flow during exercise.
Other genetic disorders with distinct characteristics include Hurler syndrome, a mucopolysaccharidosis involving developmental delay, corneal clouding, and hepatosplenomegaly due to a deficiency of alpha-L-iduronidase. Niemann-Pick disease, caused by a deficiency of sphingomyelinase, leads to neurodegeneration and foam cell formation, with a characteristic cherry-red spot on the macula. Von Gierke disease, a type I glycogen storage disease caused by a deficiency of glucose-6-phosphatase, impairs gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis, leading to severe fasting hypoglycemia and elevated levels of lactate, uric acid, and triglycerides.
Inherited Metabolic Disorders: Types and Deficiencies
Inherited metabolic disorders are a group of genetic disorders that affect the body’s ability to process certain substances. These disorders can be categorized into different types based on the specific substance that is affected. One type is glycogen storage disease, which is caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in glycogen metabolism. This can lead to the accumulation of glycogen in various organs, resulting in symptoms such as hypoglycemia, lactic acidosis, and hepatomegaly.
Another type is lysosomal storage disease, which is caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in lysosomal metabolism. This can lead to the accumulation of various substances within lysosomes, resulting in symptoms such as hepatosplenomegaly, developmental delay, and optic atrophy. Examples of lysosomal storage diseases include Gaucher’s disease, Tay-Sachs disease, and Fabry disease.
Finally, mucopolysaccharidoses are a group of disorders caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in the breakdown of glycosaminoglycans. This can lead to the accumulation of these substances in various organs, resulting in symptoms such as coarse facial features, short stature, and corneal clouding. Examples of mucopolysaccharidoses include Hurler syndrome and Hunter syndrome.
Overall, inherited metabolic disorders can have a wide range of symptoms and can affect various organs and systems in the body. Early diagnosis and treatment are important in managing these disorders and preventing complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male presents with a painless swelling of the testis. Histologically the stroma has a lymphocytic infiltrate. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Seminoma is the most common type of testicular tumor and is frequently seen in males aged between 25-40 years. The classical subtype is the most prevalent, and histology shows a lymphocytic stromal infiltrate. Other subtypes include spermatocytic, anaplastic, and syncytiotrophoblast giant cells. A teratoma is more common in males aged 20-30 years.Your Answer: Differentiated teratoma
Correct Answer: Classical seminoma
Explanation:The most prevalent form of testicular tumor is seminoma, which is typically found in males between the ages of 30 and 40. The classical subtype of seminoma is the most common and is characterized by a lymphocytic stromal infiltrate. Other subtypes include spermatocytic, which features tumor cells that resemble spermatocytes and has a favorable prognosis, anaplastic, and syncytiotrophoblast giant cells, which contain β HCG. Teratoma, on the other hand, is more frequently observed in males between the ages of 20 and 30.
Overview of Testicular Disorders
Testicular disorders can range from benign conditions to malignant tumors. Testicular cancer is the most common malignancy in men aged 20-30 years, with germ-cell tumors accounting for 95% of cases. Seminomas are the most common subtype, while non-seminomatous germ cell tumors include teratoma, yolk sac tumor, choriocarcinoma, and mixed germ cell tumors. Risk factors for testicular cancer include cryptorchidism, infertility, family history, Klinefelter’s syndrome, and mumps orchitis. The most common presenting symptom is a painless lump, but pain, hydrocele, and gynecomastia may also be present.
Benign testicular disorders include epididymo-orchitis, which is an acute inflammation of the epididymis often caused by bacterial infection. Testicular torsion, which results in testicular ischemia and necrosis, is most common in males aged between 10 and 30. Hydrocele presents as a mass that transilluminates and may occur as a result of a patent processus vaginalis in children. Treatment for these conditions varies, with orchidectomy being the primary treatment for testicular cancer. Surgical exploration is necessary for testicular torsion, while epididymo-orchitis and hydrocele may require medication or surgical procedures depending on the severity of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department with acute onset pain in her hands for the past 2 hours. She has a history of recurrent infections. Physical examination shows tender diffuse swelling of her hands bilaterally.
Her blood tests show:
Hb 85 g/L Male: (119-150)
Female: (119-150)
Platelets 250 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 6 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 90 fL (80-100)
Peripheral smear examination shows numerous sickled red blood cells (RBC) and Howell-jolly bodies. Haemoglobin electrophoresis confirms sickle cell disease.
Which of the following is a beneficial prophylactic drug for her?Your Answer: Erythropoietin
Correct Answer: Hydroxyurea
Explanation:Hydroxyurea is utilized in the prophylactic management of sickle cell anemia to prevent painful episodes by increasing the levels of HbF. The management of sickle cell disease involves two aspects: acute episodes and chronic management. Acute episodes are treated with adequate hydration and effective analgesia, while chronic management aims to prevent acute episodes and treat complications. Hydroxyurea has been proven to reduce the frequency of painful crises and the need for blood transfusions by increasing HbF levels, which has a higher affinity for oxygen than haemoglobin A. Acetaminophen is an analgesic that inhibits the cyclooxygenase enzyme and is only useful in mild pain cases. Methotrexate is a chemotherapeutic agent that has no role in sickle cell disease management.
Managing Sickle-Cell Anaemia
Sickle-cell anaemia is a genetic blood disorder that causes red blood cells to become misshapen and break down, leading to a range of complications. When a crisis occurs, management involves providing analgesia, rehydration, oxygen, and potentially antibiotics if there is evidence of infection. Blood transfusions may also be necessary, and in some cases, an exchange transfusion may be required if there are neurological complications.
In the longer term, prophylactic management of sickle-cell anaemia involves the use of hydroxyurea, which increases the levels of HbF to prevent painful episodes. Additionally, it is recommended that sickle-cell patients receive the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine every five years to reduce the risk of infection. By implementing these management strategies, individuals with sickle-cell anaemia can better manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female patient visits your clinic complaining of fatigue and unexplained weight gain. She mentions feeling extremely sensitive to cold temperatures. You suspect hypothyroidism and decide to conduct a test on her serum levels of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) and free thyroxine (T4). Which of the following hormones is not secreted from the anterior pituitary gland, where TSH is released?
Your Answer: Adrenocorticotropic hormone
Correct Answer: antidiuretic hormone
Explanation:The hormone ADH (also known as vasopressin) is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland and acts in the collecting ducts of the kidneys to increase water reabsorption. Unlike ADH, all of the other hormone options presented are released from the anterior pituitary. ACTH is a component of the hypothalamic-pituitary-axis and increases the production and release of cortisol from the adrenal gland. GH (also called somatotropin) is an anabolic hormone that stimulates growth in childhood and has metabolic effects on protein, glucose, and lipids. FSH is a gonadotropin that promotes the maturation of germ cells.
Thyroid disorders are commonly encountered in clinical practice, with hypothyroidism and thyrotoxicosis being the most prevalent. Women are ten times more likely to develop these conditions than men. The thyroid gland is a bi-lobed structure located in the anterior neck and is part of a hypothalamus-pituitary-end organ system that regulates the production of thyroxine and triiodothyronine hormones. These hormones help regulate energy sources, protein synthesis, and the body’s sensitivity to other hormones. Hypothyroidism can be primary or secondary, while thyrotoxicosis is mostly primary. Autoimmunity is the leading cause of thyroid problems in the developed world.
Thyroid disorders can present in various ways, with symptoms often being the opposite depending on whether the thyroid gland is under or overactive. For example, hypothyroidism may result in weight gain, while thyrotoxicosis leads to weight loss. Thyroid function tests are the primary investigation for diagnosing thyroid disorders. These tests primarily look at serum TSH and T4 levels, with T3 being measured in specific cases. TSH levels are more sensitive than T4 levels for monitoring patients with existing thyroid problems.
Treatment for thyroid disorders depends on the cause. Patients with hypothyroidism are given levothyroxine to replace the underlying deficiency. Patients with thyrotoxicosis may be treated with propranolol to control symptoms such as tremors, carbimazole to reduce thyroid hormone production, or radioiodine treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 9
Correct
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A 15-year-old boy comes to your clinic complaining of feeling unsteady when walking for the past 7 days. He mentions that he has been increasingly clumsy over the past month. During the examination, you notice a lack of coordination and an intention tremor on the left side, but no changes in tone, sensation, power, or reflexes. You urgently refer him to a neurologist and request an immediate MRI head scan. The scan reveals a mass in the left cerebellar hemisphere that is invading the fourth ventricle and potentially blocking the left lateral aperture. What is the name of the space into which cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) drains from the fourth ventricle through each lateral aperture (of Luschka)?
Your Answer: Cerebellopontine angle cistern
Explanation:The correct answer is the cerebellopontine cistern, which receives CSF from the fourth ventricle via one of four openings. CSF can leave the fourth ventricle through the lateral apertures (foramina of Luschka) or the median aperture (foramen of Magendie). The lateral apertures drain CSF into the cerebellopontine angle cistern, while the median aperture drains CSF into the cisterna magna. CSF is circulated throughout the subarachnoid space, but it is not present in the extradural or subdural spaces. The lateral ventricles are not directly connected to the fourth ventricle. The superior sagittal sinus is a large venous sinus that allows the absorption of CSF. The patient’s symptoms of clumsiness, intention tremor, and lack of coordination indicate a lesion of the ipsilateral cerebellar hemisphere, which can also cause gait ataxia, scanning speech, and dysdiadochokinesia.
Cerebrospinal Fluid: Circulation and Composition
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear, colorless liquid that fills the space between the arachnoid mater and pia mater, covering the surface of the brain. The total volume of CSF in the brain is approximately 150ml, and it is produced by the ependymal cells in the choroid plexus or blood vessels. The majority of CSF is produced by the choroid plexus, accounting for 70% of the total volume. The remaining 30% is produced by blood vessels. The CSF is reabsorbed via the arachnoid granulations, which project into the venous sinuses.
The circulation of CSF starts from the lateral ventricles, which are connected to the third ventricle via the foramen of Munro. From the third ventricle, the CSF flows through the cerebral aqueduct (aqueduct of Sylvius) to reach the fourth ventricle via the foramina of Magendie and Luschka. The CSF then enters the subarachnoid space, where it circulates around the brain and spinal cord. Finally, the CSF is reabsorbed into the venous system via arachnoid granulations into the superior sagittal sinus.
The composition of CSF is essential for its proper functioning. The glucose level in CSF is between 50-80 mg/dl, while the protein level is between 15-40 mg/dl. Red blood cells are not present in CSF, and the white blood cell count is usually less than 3 cells/mm3. Understanding the circulation and composition of CSF is crucial for diagnosing and treating various neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 10
Correct
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A 31-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department feeling lethargic. Her Glasgow coma scale score is 12/15 upon examination.
Her capillary blood glucose level is 1.9 mmol/L.
What is the initial hormone released naturally in this situation?Your Answer: Glucagon
Explanation:When blood glucose levels drop, the first hormone to be secreted is glucagon. This can happen due to various reasons, such as insulin or alcohol consumption. The initial response to hypoglycaemia is a decrease in insulin secretion, followed by the release of glucagon from the pancreas’ alpha cells. This prompts the liver to convert stored glycogen into glucose, thereby increasing blood glucose levels.
Later on, growth hormone and cortisol are also released in response to hypoglycaemia. If cortisol production is reduced, as in Addison’s disease, it can lead to low blood glucose levels. This concept is used in the insulin tolerance test, where cortisol levels are measured after inducing hypoglycaemia with insulin.
Incretins, on the other hand, are hormones that lower blood glucose levels, especially after meals. One such incretin is glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1), which is used to treat type 2 diabetes. Exenatide is an example of an injectable GLP-1 analogue medication.
Understanding Hypoglycaemia: Causes, Features, and Management
Hypoglycaemia is a condition characterized by low blood sugar levels, which can lead to a range of symptoms and complications. There are several possible causes of hypoglycaemia, including insulinoma, liver failure, Addison’s disease, and alcohol consumption. The physiological response to hypoglycaemia involves hormonal and sympathoadrenal responses, which can result in autonomic and neuroglycopenic symptoms. While blood glucose levels and symptom severity are not always correlated, common symptoms of hypoglycaemia include sweating, shaking, hunger, anxiety, nausea, weakness, vision changes, confusion, and dizziness. In severe cases, hypoglycaemia can lead to convulsions or coma.
Managing hypoglycaemia depends on the severity of the symptoms and the setting in which it occurs. In the community, individuals with diabetes who inject insulin may be advised to consume oral glucose or a quick-acting carbohydrate such as GlucoGel or Dextrogel. A ‘HypoKit’ containing glucagon may also be prescribed for home use. In a hospital setting, treatment may involve administering a quick-acting carbohydrate or subcutaneous/intramuscular injection of glucagon for unconscious or unable to swallow patients. Alternatively, intravenous glucose solution may be given through a large vein.
Overall, understanding the causes, features, and management of hypoglycaemia is crucial for individuals with diabetes or other conditions that increase the risk of low blood sugar levels. Prompt and appropriate treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old male visits his doctor with complaints of feeling unwell for several months. He reports a weight loss of 9kg and chronic diarrhea. During a skin examination, the doctor observes purple skin lesions on the tip of his nose, inside his mouth, and bleeding around his gums. The doctor suspects Kaposi's sarcoma and wonders which Human Herpes Virus (HHV) is responsible for this condition?
Your Answer: HHV-4
Correct Answer: HHV-8
Explanation:Kaposi’s sarcoma is a type of cancer that is caused by the human herpes virus 8 (HHV-8). It is characterized by the appearance of purple papules or plaques on the skin or mucosa, such as in the gastrointestinal and respiratory tract. These skin lesions may eventually ulcerate, while respiratory involvement can lead to massive haemoptysis and pleural effusion. Treatment options for Kaposi’s sarcoma include radiotherapy and resection. It is commonly seen in patients with HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 12
Correct
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What are the probable outcomes of the discharge of vasopressin from the pituitary gland?
Your Answer: Increased water permeability of the distal tubule cells of the kidney
Explanation:Aquaporin channels are inserted into the apical membrane of the distal tubule and collecting ducts as a result of ADH (vasopressin).
The Loop of Henle and its Role in Renal Physiology
The Loop of Henle is a crucial component of the renal system, located in the juxtamedullary nephrons and running deep into the medulla. Approximately 60 litres of water containing 9000 mmol sodium enters the descending limb of the loop of Henle in 24 hours. The osmolarity of fluid changes and is greatest at the tip of the papilla. The thin ascending limb is impermeable to water, but highly permeable to sodium and chloride ions. This loss means that at the beginning of the thick ascending limb the fluid is hypo osmotic compared with adjacent interstitial fluid. In the thick ascending limb, the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions occurs by both facilitated and passive diffusion pathways. The loops of Henle are co-located with vasa recta, which have similar solute compositions to the surrounding extracellular fluid, preventing the diffusion and subsequent removal of this hypertonic fluid. The energy-dependent reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the thick ascending limb helps to maintain this osmotic gradient. Overall, the Loop of Henle plays a crucial role in regulating the concentration of solutes in the renal system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with hypocalcaemia has elevated parathyroid hormone levels. Is it a typical physiological response to increase calcium levels? In the kidney, where does parathyroid hormone act to enhance calcium reabsorption?
Your Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule
Correct Answer: Distal convoluted tubule
Explanation:Understanding Parathyroid Hormone and Its Effects
Parathyroid hormone is a hormone produced by the chief cells of the parathyroid glands. Its main function is to increase the concentration of calcium in the blood by stimulating the PTH receptors in the kidney and bone. This hormone has a short half-life of only 4 minutes.
The effects of parathyroid hormone are mainly seen in the bone, kidney, and intestine. In the bone, PTH binds to osteoblasts, which then signal to osteoclasts to resorb bone and release calcium. In the kidney, PTH promotes the active reabsorption of calcium and magnesium from the distal convoluted tubule, while decreasing the reabsorption of phosphate. In the intestine, PTH indirectly increases calcium absorption by increasing the activation of vitamin D, which in turn increases calcium absorption.
Overall, understanding the role of parathyroid hormone is important in maintaining proper calcium levels in the body. Any imbalances in PTH secretion can lead to various disorders such as hyperparathyroidism or hypoparathyroidism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which one of the following structures is not closely related to the posterior tibial artery?
Your Answer: Flexor hallucis longus postero-inferiorly
Correct Answer: Deep peroneal nerve laterally
Explanation:The deep peroneal nerve is in the front compartment and the tibial nerve is on the inner side. The tibial nerve is located beneath the flexor retinaculum at its end.
Anatomy of the Posterior Tibial Artery
The posterior tibial artery is a major branch of the popliteal artery that terminates by dividing into the medial and lateral plantar arteries. It is accompanied by two veins throughout its length and its position corresponds to a line drawn from the lower angle of the popliteal fossa to a point midway between the medial malleolus and the most prominent part of the heel.
The artery is located anteriorly to the tibialis posterior and flexor digitorum longus muscles, and posteriorly to the surface of the tibia and ankle joint. The posterior tibial nerve is located 2.5 cm distal to its origin. The proximal part of the artery is covered by the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles, while the distal part is covered by skin and fascia. The artery is also covered by the fascia overlying the deep muscular layer.
Understanding the anatomy of the posterior tibial artery is important for medical professionals, as it plays a crucial role in the blood supply to the foot and ankle. Any damage or blockage to this artery can lead to serious complications, such as peripheral artery disease or even amputation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 15
Correct
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A 29-year-old male is admitted after a car accident. During examination, his heart rate is found to be 125 beats/min, and his blood pressure is 120/105 mmHg. Upon palpation, his abdomen is tense and tender. The diagnosis is hypovolemic shock. Which receptor stimulation has led to compensation for the blood loss?
Your Answer: Alpha 1 adrenergic
Explanation:Activation of alpha 1 adrenergic receptors leads to the contraction of smooth muscles. This causes vasoconstriction in the skin, gut, and kidney arterioles, increasing total peripheral resistance and mean arterial pressure. It also helps to improve perfusion of vital organs such as the brain, heart, and lungs during the fight or flight response.
On the other hand, activation of beta 2 adrenergic receptors results in the dilation of smooth muscles, such as bronchodilation. Activation of beta 3 adrenergic receptors enhances lipolysis in adipose tissue. Activation of alpha 2 adrenergic receptors inhibits the release of noradrenaline, providing negative feedback.
Activation of the muscarinic M2 acetylcholine receptor decreases heart rate, which could worsen compensation.
Adrenergic receptors are a type of G protein-coupled receptors that respond to the catecholamines epinephrine and norepinephrine. These receptors are primarily involved in the sympathetic nervous system. There are four types of adrenergic receptors: α1, α2, β1, and β2. Each receptor has a different potency order and primary action. The α1 receptor responds equally to norepinephrine and epinephrine, causing smooth muscle contraction. The α2 receptor has mixed effects and responds equally to both catecholamines. The β1 receptor responds equally to epinephrine and norepinephrine, causing cardiac muscle contraction. The β2 receptor responds much more strongly to epinephrine than norepinephrine, causing smooth muscle relaxation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male has been struggling with anger issues for a while. Following a disagreement with a relative, he vents his frustration by punching the wall, resulting in a cut on his hand. At the hospital, the medical team orders an x-ray to rule out any fractures and discovers a 'boxer's fracture.'
What bone did this young man break?Your Answer: Hamate
Correct Answer: 5th metacarpal
Explanation:A fracture of the 5th metacarpal, known as a ‘Boxer fracture’, is commonly caused by punching a hard surface. This type of fracture is typically minimally displaced. Fracture of the scaphoid bone in the wrist can lead to avascular necrosis. The 2nd metacarpal is not typically fractured in punching injuries, while the lunate and hamate bones in the wrist are not commonly affected by this type of injury.
Boxer fracture is a type of fracture that occurs in the fifth metacarpal bone. It is usually caused by punching a hard surface, such as a wall. The fracture is typically minimally displaced, meaning that the bone is still in its proper position but has a small crack or break. This injury is commonly seen in boxers, hence the name, but can also occur in other individuals who engage in activities that involve punching or striking objects. The treatment for a boxer fracture may involve immobilization of the affected hand with a cast or splint, and in some cases, surgery may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 17
Correct
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A 72-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of painful legs, particularly in her thighs, which occur after walking and subside on rest. She occasionally takes paracetamol to alleviate the pain. Her medical history includes hyperlipidaemia, type II diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and depression. The physician suspects that her pain may be due to claudication of the femoral artery, which is a continuation of the external iliac artery. Can you correctly identify the anatomical landmark where the external iliac artery becomes the femoral artery?
Your Answer: Inguinal ligament
Explanation:After passing the inguinal ligament, the external iliac artery transforms into the femoral artery. This means that the other options provided are not accurate. Here is a brief explanation of their anatomical importance:
– The medial edge of the sartorius muscle creates the lateral wall of the femoral triangle.
– The medial edge of the adductor longus muscle creates the medial wall of the femoral triangle.
– The femoral vein creates the lateral border of the femoral canal.
– The pectineus muscle creates the posterior border of the femoral canal.The inguinal canal is located above the inguinal ligament and measures 4 cm in length. Its superficial ring is situated in front of the pubic tubercle, while the deep ring is found about 1.5-2 cm above the halfway point between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle. The canal is bounded by the external oblique aponeurosis, inguinal ligament, lacunar ligament, internal oblique, transversus abdominis, external ring, and conjoint tendon. In males, the canal contains the spermatic cord and ilioinguinal nerve, while in females, it houses the round ligament of the uterus and ilioinguinal nerve.
The boundaries of Hesselbach’s triangle, which are frequently tested, are located in the inguinal region. Additionally, the inguinal canal is closely related to the vessels of the lower limb, which should be taken into account when repairing hernial defects in this area.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old woman has presented with dyspnea. During cardiovascular examination, a faint murmur is detected in the mitral area. If the diagnosis is mitral stenosis, what is the most probable factor that would increase the loudness and clarity of the murmur during auscultation?
Your Answer: Listen in the axilla
Correct Answer: Ask the patient to breathe out
Explanation:To accentuate the sound of a left-sided murmur consistent with mitral stenosis during a cardiovascular examination, the patient should be asked to exhale. Conversely, a right-sided murmur is louder during inspiration. Listening in the left lateral position while the patient is lying down can also emphasize a mitral stenosis. To identify a mitral regurgitation murmur, listening in the axilla is helpful as it radiates. Diastolic murmurs can be heard better with a position change, while systolic murmurs tend to radiate and can be distinguished by listening in different anatomical landmarks. For example, an aortic stenosis may radiate to the carotids, while an aortic regurgitation may be heard better with the patient leaning forward.
Understanding Mitral Stenosis
Mitral stenosis is a condition where the mitral valve, which controls blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle, becomes obstructed. This leads to an increase in pressure within the left atrium, pulmonary vasculature, and right side of the heart. The most common cause of mitral stenosis is rheumatic fever, but it can also be caused by other rare conditions such as mucopolysaccharidoses, carcinoid, and endocardial fibroelastosis.
Symptoms of mitral stenosis include dyspnea, hemoptysis, a mid-late diastolic murmur, a loud S1, and a low volume pulse. Severe cases may also present with an increased length of murmur and a closer opening snap to S2. Chest x-rays may show left atrial enlargement, while echocardiography can confirm a cross-sectional area of less than 1 sq cm for a tight mitral stenosis.
Management of mitral stenosis depends on the severity of the condition. Asymptomatic patients are monitored with regular echocardiograms, while symptomatic patients may undergo percutaneous mitral balloon valvotomy or mitral valve surgery. Patients with associated atrial fibrillation require anticoagulation, with warfarin currently recommended for moderate/severe cases. However, there is an emerging consensus that direct-acting anticoagulants may be suitable for mild cases with atrial fibrillation.
Overall, understanding mitral stenosis is important for proper diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Cortisol is mainly synthesized by which of the following?
Your Answer: Zona glomerulosa of the adrenal
Correct Answer: Zona fasciculata of the adrenal
Explanation:The adrenal gland’s zona fasciculata produces cortisol, with a relative glucocorticoid activity of 1. Prednisolone has a relative glucocorticoid activity of 4, while dexamethasone has a relative glucocorticoid activity of 25.
Cortisol: Functions and Regulation
Cortisol is a hormone produced in the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex. It plays a crucial role in various bodily functions and is essential for life. Cortisol increases blood pressure by up-regulating alpha-1 receptors on arterioles, allowing for a normal response to angiotensin II and catecholamines. However, it inhibits bone formation by decreasing osteoblasts, type 1 collagen, and absorption of calcium from the gut, while increasing osteoclastic activity. Cortisol also increases insulin resistance and metabolism by increasing gluconeogenesis, lipolysis, and proteolysis. It inhibits inflammatory and immune responses, but maintains the function of skeletal and cardiac muscle.
The regulation of cortisol secretion is controlled by the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis. The pituitary gland secretes adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), which stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce cortisol. The hypothalamus releases corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH), which stimulates the pituitary gland to release ACTH. Stress can also increase cortisol secretion.
Excess cortisol in the body can lead to Cushing’s syndrome, which can cause a range of symptoms such as weight gain, muscle weakness, and high blood pressure. Understanding the functions and regulation of cortisol is important for maintaining overall health and preventing hormonal imbalances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A new antibody test is being researched to aid in the early diagnosis of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis. It has a specificity of 97%.
Which of the following statements is accurate?Your Answer: 97% of patients who have a positive result will have rheumatoid arthritis
Correct Answer: 97% of patients without the condition will have a negative test
Explanation:Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father, who reports that she has been unwell for a few weeks, refusing food and crying excessively. He mentions that she has lost weight and appears much paler than usual. Upon examination, a large mass is detected in the abdomen, crossing the midline.
A CT scan of the abdomen is scheduled after a urinalysis reveals elevated levels of homovanillic acid and vanillylmandelic acid. Based on the probable diagnosis, what is a common association?Your Answer: APC gene mutation
Correct Answer: N-MYC proto-oncogene
Explanation:Neuroblastoma is a malignant tumor that arises from sympathetic nervous tissue, with the adrenal glands being the most common primary site. It typically affects children under the age of 2 and can grow and spread rapidly, causing symptoms such as faltering growth, nausea and vomiting, and a palpable abdominal mass that often crosses the midline. Urinalysis can detect catecholamine derivatives, which can aid in diagnosis, and imaging is necessary to identify the site of origin.
Treatment depends on the tumor’s risk stratification, which is determined by staging and N-MYC status. Mutations in the N-MYC proto-oncogene are associated with a worse prognosis. APC gene mutations, which cause familial adenomatous polyposis and increase the risk of bowel cancer, are not linked to neuroblastoma. Similarly, the BRCA gene, which is implicated in breast and ovarian cancers, is not associated with neuroblastoma. Elevated calcitonin levels may indicate medullary thyroid cancer but are not associated with neuroblastoma. Elevated Ca-19-9 levels are seen in pancreatic or cholangiocarcinoma and are not associated with neuroblastoma.
Oncogenes are genes that promote cancer and are derived from normal genes called proto-oncogenes. Proto-oncogenes play a crucial role in cellular growth and differentiation. However, a gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer. Only one mutated copy of the gene is needed for cancer to occur, making it a dominant effect. Oncogenes are responsible for up to 20% of human cancers and can become oncogenes through mutation, chromosomal translocation, or increased protein expression.
In contrast, tumor suppressor genes restrict or repress cellular proliferation in normal cells. Their inactivation through mutation or germ line incorporation is implicated in various cancers, including renal, colonic, breast, and bladder cancer. Tumor suppressor genes, such as p53, offer protection by causing apoptosis of damaged cells. Other well-known genes include BRCA1 and BRCA2. Loss of function in tumor suppressor genes results in an increased risk of cancer, while gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old female patient has visited her doctor seeking advice on changing her current contraceptive pill due to concerns about its effectiveness. She wants to know the safest option available to minimize the risk of pregnancy.
What would be the most appropriate contraceptive to recommend?Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill
Correct Answer: Progesterone implant
Explanation:According to research, the contraceptive implant is the most reliable method of birth control, with the exception of abstinence. The intrauterine device (IUD) and depot injections are equally effective as the implant. However, oral contraceptive pills are not as dependable as implanted or injected medications.
Implanon and Nexplanon are both subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus. Nexplanon is an updated version of Implanon with a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a history of thromboembolism or migraines. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraception is required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1-5 of the menstrual cycle.
The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a different method or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment. Contraindications include ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, meaning it represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A father brings his 5-year-old daughter to the pediatrician with concerns about her health.
He has observed his daughter, while playing at home, suddenly become motionless and stare off into the distance while repeatedly smacking her lips. She does not respond to his voice or touch until she suddenly returns to normal after a minute or so. Following these episodes, she often has difficulty speaking clearly. The father is worried that his daughter may have epilepsy, as he knows someone whose child has the condition.
If the daughter has epilepsy, which specific area of the brain is likely affected?Your Answer: Occipital lobe
Correct Answer: Temporal lobe
Explanation:Temporal lobe seizures are often associated with lip smacking and postictal dysphasia, which are localizing features. These seizures may also involve hallucinations and a feeling of déjà vu. In contrast, focal seizures of the occipital lobe typically cause visual disturbances, while seizures of the parietal lobe may result in peripheral paraesthesia.
Localising Features of Focal Seizures in Epilepsy
Focal seizures in epilepsy can be localised based on the specific location of the brain where they occur. Temporal lobe seizures are common and may occur with or without impairment of consciousness or awareness. Most patients experience an aura, which is typically a rising epigastric sensation, along with psychic or experiential phenomena such as déjà vu or jamais vu. Less commonly, hallucinations may occur, such as auditory, gustatory, or olfactory hallucinations. These seizures typically last around one minute and are often accompanied by automatisms, such as lip smacking, grabbing, or plucking.
On the other hand, frontal lobe seizures are characterised by motor symptoms such as head or leg movements, posturing, postictal weakness, and Jacksonian march. Parietal lobe seizures, on the other hand, are sensory in nature and may cause paraesthesia. Finally, occipital lobe seizures may cause visual symptoms such as floaters or flashes. By identifying the specific location and type of seizure, doctors can better diagnose and treat epilepsy in patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 24
Correct
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A 42-year-old man undergoes a partial thyroidectomy and experiences hoarseness upon returning to the ward. As a healthcare professional, you know that this is a common complication of thyroid surgery. Which nerve is most likely responsible for the patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Recurrent laryngeal nerve
Explanation:The recurrent laryngeal nerve is a branch of the vagus nerve (CN X) that provides motor supply to all but one of the laryngeal muscles and sensory supply to the larynx below the vocal cords. The left nerve loops under the arch of the aorta and passes deep to the inferior constrictor muscle of the pharynx, while the right nerve usually loops under the right subclavian artery. Both nerves pass close to or through the thyroid ligament, making them susceptible to injury during thyroid surgery. Dysfunction of either nerve can result in a hoarse voice.
The internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve is the only other nerve among the given options that innervates the larynx. It carries sensory supply to the larynx above the vocal cords, while the external branch supplies the cricothyroid muscle. Dysfunction of the external branch can cause a hoarse voice, but dysfunction of the internal branch will not.
The greater auricular nerve and transverse cervical nerve are superficial cutaneous nerves that arise from the cervical plexus and supply the skin overlying the mandible, ear auricle, and neck. The phrenic nerve, also arising from the cervical plexus, provides motor innervation to the diaphragm and sensation to the parietal pericardium and pleura adjacent to the mediastinum.
During surgical procedures, there is a risk of nerve injury caused by the surgery itself. This is not only important for the patient’s well-being but also from a legal perspective. There are various operations that carry the risk of nerve damage, such as posterior triangle lymph node biopsy, Lloyd Davies stirrups, thyroidectomy, anterior resection of rectum, axillary node clearance, inguinal hernia surgery, varicose vein surgery, posterior approach to the hip, and carotid endarterectomy. Surgeons must have a good understanding of the anatomy of the area they are operating on to minimize the incidence of nerve lesions. Blind placement of haemostats is not recommended as it can also cause nerve damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which of the following cranial venous sinuses is singular?
Your Answer: Cavernous sinus
Correct Answer: Superior sagittal sinus
Explanation:The superior sagittal sinus is a single structure that starts at the crista galli and may connect with the veins of the frontal sinus and nasal cavity. It curves backwards within the falx cerebri and ends at the internal occipital protuberance, typically draining into the right transverse sinus. The parietal emissary veins provide a connection between the superior sagittal sinus and the veins on the outside of the skull.
Overview of Cranial Venous Sinuses
The cranial venous sinuses are a series of veins located within the dura mater, the outermost layer of the brain. Unlike other veins in the body, they do not have valves, which can increase the risk of sepsis spreading. These sinuses eventually drain into the internal jugular vein.
There are several cranial venous sinuses, including the superior sagittal sinus, inferior sagittal sinus, straight sinus, transverse sinus, sigmoid sinus, confluence of sinuses, occipital sinus, and cavernous sinus. Each of these sinuses has a specific location and function within the brain.
To better understand the topography of the cranial venous sinuses, it is helpful to visualize them as a map. The superior sagittal sinus runs along the top of the brain, while the inferior sagittal sinus runs along the bottom. The straight sinus connects the two, while the transverse sinus runs horizontally across the back of the brain. The sigmoid sinus then curves downward and connects to the internal jugular vein. The confluence of sinuses is where several of these sinuses meet, while the occipital sinus is located at the back of the head. Finally, the cavernous sinus is located on either side of the pituitary gland.
Understanding the location and function of these cranial venous sinuses is important for diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 26
Correct
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A 28-year-old male presents to his GP clinic with a history of unprotected sexual activity with a partner who has tested positive for Chlamydia trachomatis. Due to a penicillin allergy, what medical condition in his past would lead you to consider an alternative antibiotic for treatment, such as erythromycin?
Your Answer: Prolonged QT interval
Explanation:Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that include erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin. They work by blocking translocation during bacterial protein synthesis, ultimately inhibiting bacterial growth. While they are generally considered bacteriostatic, their effectiveness can vary depending on the dose and type of organism being treated. Resistance to macrolides can occur through post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA.
However, macrolides can also have adverse effects. They may cause prolongation of the QT interval and gastrointestinal side-effects, such as nausea. Cholestatic jaundice is a potential risk, but using erythromycin stearate may reduce this risk. Additionally, macrolides are known to inhibit the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP3A4, which metabolizes statins. Therefore, it is important to stop taking statins while on a course of macrolides to avoid the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Azithromycin is also associated with hearing loss and tinnitus.
Overall, while macrolides can be effective antibiotics, they do come with potential risks and side-effects. It is important to weigh the benefits and risks before starting a course of treatment with these antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Following a minor heart attack, how does atorvastatin work to reduce the risk of a subsequent MI in a 65-year-old patient?
Your Answer: Decreases LDLs and HDLs in the blood by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase in the liver
Correct Answer: Decreases LDLs in the blood by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase in the liver
Explanation:The primary goal of statins is to lower cholesterol levels in the bloodstream, which in turn reduces the risk of cardiovascular events. This is achieved by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase in the liver, which prevents the synthesis of mevalonate, a precursor to LDLs. As a result, statins decrease the amount of cholesterol being transported to body tissues by LDLs. However, statins do not affect the levels of HDLs, which transport cholesterol from body tissues back to the liver.
Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 28
Correct
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Which statement accurately describes the structure of the heart?
Your Answer: The aortic valve has three cusps
Explanation:Heart Chamber Locations and Echocardiography
The heart is a complex organ with four chambers that work together to pump blood throughout the body. The right ventricle is located in front of the left ventricle, while the left atrium is the most posterior chamber of the heart. The right atrium is situated to the right and anterior to the left atrium.
When it comes to imaging the heart, transthoracic echocardiography is a common method used to visualize the heart’s structures. However, the left atrial appendage, a small pouch-like structure attached to the left atrium, may not be easily seen with this technique. In such cases, transoesophageal echocardiography may be necessary to obtain a clearer image of the left atrial appendage. the locations of the heart’s chambers and the limitations of imaging techniques can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of various cardiac conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 29
Correct
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During a thyroidectomy, at what age do surgeons typically ligate the inferior thyroid artery?
Your Answer: Thyrocervical trunk
Explanation:The thyrocervical trunk gives rise to the inferior thyroid artery, which is a derivative of the subclavian artery.
Anatomy of the Thyroid Gland
The thyroid gland is a butterfly-shaped gland located in the neck, consisting of two lobes connected by an isthmus. It is surrounded by a sheath from the pretracheal layer of deep fascia and is situated between the base of the tongue and the fourth and fifth tracheal rings. The apex of the thyroid gland is located at the lamina of the thyroid cartilage, while the base is situated at the fourth and fifth tracheal rings. In some individuals, a pyramidal lobe may extend from the isthmus and attach to the foramen caecum at the base of the tongue.
The thyroid gland is surrounded by various structures, including the sternothyroid, superior belly of omohyoid, sternohyoid, and anterior aspect of sternocleidomastoid muscles. It is also related to the carotid sheath, larynx, trachea, pharynx, oesophagus, cricothyroid muscle, and parathyroid glands. The superior and inferior thyroid arteries supply the thyroid gland with blood, while the superior and middle thyroid veins drain into the internal jugular vein, and the inferior thyroid vein drains into the brachiocephalic veins.
In summary, the thyroid gland is a vital gland located in the neck, responsible for producing hormones that regulate metabolism. Its anatomy is complex, and it is surrounded by various structures that are essential for its function. Understanding the anatomy of the thyroid gland is crucial for the diagnosis and treatment of thyroid disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old rugby player presents with a sore throat, followed by severe malaise, high fever, and confusion two days later. He had a splenectomy three years ago after rupturing his spleen during a rugby match. The consultant suspects that he may have septicaemia.
Which organism poses the highest risk to patients who have had their spleen removed?Your Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Correct Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Explanation:Increased Infection Risk for Patients without a Spleen
Patients who have had their spleen removed have a weakened immune system, making them less capable of fighting off encapsulated bacteria. This puts them at a higher risk of infection from Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, Haemophilus influenzae, and Escherichia coli. While it is recommended for these patients to receive vaccinations and sometimes antibiotics, there is still a significant risk of overwhelming post-splenectomy infection (OPSI), with a lifetime risk as high as 4%. Therefore, it is important for patients without a spleen to take extra precautions to prevent infections and seek medical attention promptly if they experience any symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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