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  • Question 1 - A 27-year-old primigravida female comes in for a 36-week ultrasound scan and it...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old primigravida female comes in for a 36-week ultrasound scan and it is found that her baby is in the breech position. What should be done in this situation?

      Your Answer: Offer external cephalic version if still breech at 36 weeks

      Explanation:

      If the foetus is in a breech position at 36 weeks, it is recommended to undergo external cephalic version. However, before 36 weeks, the foetus may naturally move into the correct position, making the procedure unnecessary. It is not necessary to schedule a Caesarean section immediately, but if ECV is unsuccessful, a decision must be made regarding the risks of a vaginal delivery with a breech presentation or a Caesarean section.

      Breech presentation occurs when the caudal end of the fetus is in the lower segment, and it is more common at 28 weeks than near term. Risk factors include uterine malformations, placenta praevia, and fetal abnormalities. Management options include spontaneous turning, external cephalic version (ECV), planned caesarean section, or vaginal delivery. The RCOG recommends informing women that planned caesarean section reduces perinatal mortality and early neonatal morbidity, but there is no evidence that the long-term health of babies is influenced by how they are born. ECV is contraindicated in certain cases, such as where caesarean delivery is required or there is an abnormal cardiotocography.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 2 - A 26-year-old epileptic woman presents to the clinic with her partner, reporting several...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old epileptic woman presents to the clinic with her partner, reporting several instances of tonic-clonic seizures. They plan to start a family within the next year and seek advice. She is currently controlling her epilepsy with sodium valproate. What is the most appropriate recommendation for managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Refer to an epilepsy specialist for evaluation and recommendation of antiepileptic medication changes

      Explanation:

      Minimizing Teratogenicity in Antiepileptic Medications for Women Wishing to Start a Family

      For women with epilepsy who wish to start a family, it is crucial to minimize exposure to teratogenic antiepileptic medications while still controlling their seizures. Sodium valproate, a commonly used antiepileptic drug, is highly teratogenic and associated with congenital malformations and neural tube defects. Therefore, it is recommended to change medication prior to conception, as advised by an epilepsy specialist after a thorough evaluation of risks and benefits.

      One option may be to add levetiracetam to the current medication regimen, as it is a pregnancy category C drug that may help control seizures. However, carbamazepine or lamotrigine may be preferred based on limited evidence.

      Stopping sodium valproate and starting phenytoin is not recommended, as phenytoin also carries a significant risk of teratogenicity and has toxic and side effects.

      Increasing the dose of sodium valproate is not advised, as it can negatively affect fetal neurodevelopment.

      Similarly, stopping sodium valproate and adding phenobarbital is not indicated, as phenobarbital is also associated with an increased risk of teratogenicity.

      Overall, it is important for women with epilepsy who wish to start a family to consult with an epilepsy specialist to evaluate and recommend appropriate antiepileptic medication changes to minimize teratogenicity while still controlling seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 3 - A 29-year-old pregnant woman has presented for her 36-week antenatal care check. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old pregnant woman has presented for her 36-week antenatal care check. On the ultrasound scan (USS), there is a possibility of oesophageal atresia. The patient has been having an uneventful pregnancy so far and this is her first pregnancy. Her blood tests have all been normal, without signs of any infections or diabetes. Her blood pressure at the antenatal care check was 124/87 mmHg and she is not obese.
      What finding would you expect on fetal USS?

      Your Answer: Microcephaly

      Correct Answer: Polyhydramnios

      Explanation:

      Fetal Abnormalities: Causes and Characteristics

      Polyhydramnios, oligohydramnios, macrosomia, fetal oedema, and microcephaly are all fetal abnormalities with distinct causes and characteristics. Polyhydramnios is an accumulation of amniotic fluid caused by impaired swallowing due to oesophageal atresia. Oligohydramnios, on the other hand, is a lack of amniotic fluid caused by various factors such as chromosomal abnormalities and renal agenesis. Macrosomia, or a large-for-gestational age baby, is commonly caused by gestational diabetes. Fetal oedema, also known as hydrops fetalis, is characterised by an excess of fluid in the fetus and can be caused by immunological or non-immunological factors. Finally, microcephaly is a congenital abnormality characterised by a small head circumference and can be caused by various factors such as chromosomal abnormalities and infections. Understanding the causes and characteristics of these fetal abnormalities is crucial for proper diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old woman is 24 weeks pregnant and she receives a letter about...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman is 24 weeks pregnant and she receives a letter about her routine cervical smear. She asks her obstetrician if she should make an appointment for her smear. All her smears in the past have been negative. What should the obstetrician advise?

      Your Answer: Reschedule the smear to occur at least 12 weeks post-delivery

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, women who are due for routine cervical screening should wait until 12 weeks after giving birth. If a woman has had an abnormal smear in the past and becomes pregnant, she should seek specialist advice. If there are no contraindications, such as a low-lying placenta, a cervical smear can be performed during the middle trimester of pregnancy. It is crucial to encourage women to participate in regular cervical screening.

      Cervical Cancer Screening in the UK

      Cervical cancer screening is a well-established program in the UK that aims to detect pre-malignant changes in the cervix. This program is estimated to prevent 1,000-4,000 deaths per year. However, it should be noted that around 15% of cervical adenocarcinomas are frequently undetected by screening.

      The screening program has evolved significantly in recent years. Initially, smears were examined for signs of dyskaryosis, which may indicate cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. However, the introduction of HPV testing allowed for further risk stratification, and the NHS has now moved to an HPV first system. This means that a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.

      All women between the ages of 25-64 years are offered a smear test. Women aged 25-49 years are screened every three years, while those aged 50-64 years are screened every five years. However, cervical screening cannot be offered to women over 64. In Scotland, screening is offered from 25-64 every five years.

      In special situations, cervical screening in pregnancy is usually delayed until three months post-partum, unless there are missed screenings or previous abnormal smears. Women who have never been sexually active have a very low risk of developing cervical cancer and may wish to opt-out of screening.

      It is recommended to take a cervical smear around mid-cycle, although there is limited evidence to support this advice. Overall, the UK’s cervical cancer screening program is an essential tool in preventing cervical cancer and promoting women’s health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old female presents with intense pruritus during pregnancy, particularly in her hands...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female presents with intense pruritus during pregnancy, particularly in her hands and feet, which worsens at night. She has no visible rash and has a history of a stillbirth at 36 weeks. What is the most efficient management for her condition?

      Your Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely suffering from obstetric cholestasis, which can increase the risk of premature birth and stillbirth. The main symptom is severe itching, and elevated serum bile acids are typically present. Liver function tests, including bilirubin levels, may not be reliable. The most effective treatment is ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA), which is now mostly synthetic. While antihistamines and topical menthol creams can provide some relief, UDCA is more likely to improve outcomes.

      Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy: Symptoms and Management

      Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, also known as obstetric cholestasis, is a condition that affects approximately 1% of pregnancies in the UK. It is characterized by intense itching, particularly on the palms, soles, and abdomen, and may also result in clinically detectable jaundice in around 20% of patients. Raised bilirubin levels are seen in over 90% of cases.

      The management of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy typically involves induction of labor at 37-38 weeks, although this practice may not be evidence-based. Ursodeoxycholic acid is also widely used, although the evidence base for its effectiveness is not clear. Additionally, vitamin K supplementation may be recommended.

      It is important to note that the recurrence rate of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy in subsequent pregnancies is high, ranging from 45-90%. Therefore, close monitoring and management are necessary for women who have experienced this condition in the past.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old woman is ready to leave the postnatal ward after giving birth...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman is ready to leave the postnatal ward after giving birth to her daughter through normal vaginal delivery 12 hours ago. She asks about contraceptive options as she feels her family is complete. She has a clean medical history and had no complications during her pregnancy or labour. She has previously used the intrauterine system (IUS) and wishes to continue with it. What recommendations should she receive?

      Your Answer: She should wait until at least 48 hours after delivery for the IUS to be inserted

      Correct Answer: She may have the IUS inserted up to 48 hours after delivery if she wishes

      Explanation:

      The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after a minimum of 4 weeks. However, it is important to note that insertion between 48 hours and 4 weeks after delivery should be avoided due to the increased risk of expulsion and lack of data on uterine perforation with newer models. In addition to general contraindications, contraindications to postpartum insertion within 48 hours include peripartum chorioamnionitis, endometritis, puerperal sepsis, or post-partum haemorrhage. Waiting a minimum of 6 weeks or 2 months after delivery is not necessary. If waiting the recommended minimum of 4 weeks, the progesterone-only pill may be used as an interim measure to reduce the risk of pregnancy.

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.

      The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 7 - A 30-year-old multiparous female at 10 weeks gestation visits her general practitioner to...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old multiparous female at 10 weeks gestation visits her general practitioner to book her pregnancy. She has a history of gestational diabetes and returns the next day for an oral glucose tolerance test. Her blood results show a fasting glucose level of 7.2 mmol/L and a 2-hour glucose level of 8.9 mmol/L. What is the recommended course of action based on these findings?

      Your Answer: Patient to be started on metformin

      Correct Answer: Patient to be started on insulin

      Explanation:

      If the fasting glucose level is equal to or greater than 7 mmol/l at the time of gestational diabetes diagnosis, immediate administration of insulin (with or without metformin) is necessary. For patients with a fasting plasma glucose level below 7.0 mmol/L, a trial of diet and exercise with follow-up in 1-2 weeks is appropriate. Within a week of diagnosis, the patient should be seen in a joint antenatal and diabetic clinic. Statins are not recommended during pregnancy due to potential congenital abnormalities resulting from reduced cholesterol synthesis. Sitagliptin, a DPP-4 inhibitor, is also not recommended for use during pregnancy or breastfeeding.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 8 - A 23-year-old woman who is pregnant at 37 weeks gestation develops spontaneous labour....

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old woman who is pregnant at 37 weeks gestation develops spontaneous labour. She has a history of pre-eclampsia. Her blood pressure is 170/110 mmHg.

      Blood results are as follows:

      Hb 110 g/L
      Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)

      Platelets 100 * 109/L
      (150 - 400)

      WBC 15.0 * 109/L
      (4.0 - 11.0)

      The medical team decides to administer magnesium sulphate to the patient. However, shortly after receiving the medication, the patient experiences respiratory depression with a respiratory rate of 6 breaths per minute.

      What is the urgent treatment required for this patient?

      Your Answer: Calcium gluconate

      Explanation:

      The patient is showing signs of severe pre-eclampsia, including high blood pressure and thrombocytopenia, and requires urgent delivery and magnesium sulphate. While magnesium sulphate is effective in preventing and treating seizures, it can also cause toxicity, which is characterized by loss of deep tendon reflexes, respiratory depression, and cardiac arrest. In this case, the patient is likely experiencing magnesium sulphate toxicity due to respiratory depression. The appropriate treatment is calcium gluconate, which is the first-line option for this condition. BiPAP and CPAP are not suitable in this situation, and intubation and ventilation should only be considered if non-invasive strategies fail.

      Understanding Eclampsia and its Treatment

      Eclampsia is a condition that occurs when seizures develop in association with pre-eclampsia, a pregnancy-induced hypertension that is characterized by proteinuria and occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. To prevent seizures in patients with severe pre-eclampsia and treat seizures once they develop, magnesium sulphate is commonly used. However, it is important to note that this medication should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. In cases of eclampsia, an IV bolus of 4g over 5-10 minutes should be given, followed by an infusion of 1g/hour. During treatment, it is crucial to monitor urine output, reflexes, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturations. Respiratory depression can occur, and calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment for magnesium sulphate-induced respiratory depression. Treatment should continue for 24 hours after the last seizure or delivery, as around 40% of seizures occur post-partum. Additionally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid the potentially serious consequences of fluid overload.

      In summary, understanding the development of eclampsia and its treatment is crucial in managing this potentially life-threatening condition. Magnesium sulphate is the primary medication used to prevent and treat seizures, but it should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. Monitoring vital signs and urine output is essential during treatment, and calcium gluconate should be readily available in case of respiratory depression. Finally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid complications associated with fluid overload.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old pregnant woman comes to her antenatal check-up and asks for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old pregnant woman comes to her antenatal check-up and asks for a screening test to detect any chromosomal abnormalities. She is in her 16th week of pregnancy and wants the most precise screening test available. She is worried about Edward's syndrome due to her family's medical history.
      What outcome from the screening test would suggest a high probability of Edward's syndrome?

      Your Answer: ↑ hCG, ↓ PAPP-A, thickened nuchal translucency

      Correct Answer: ↓ AFP ↓ oestriol ↓ hCG ↔ inhibin A

      Explanation:

      The correct result for the quadruple test screening for Edward’s syndrome is ↓ AFP ↓ oestriol ↓ hCG ↔ inhibin A. This test is offered to pregnant women between 15-20 weeks gestation and measures alpha fetoprotein, unconjugated oestriol, hCG, and inhibin A levels. A ‘high chance’ result would require further screening or diagnostic tests to determine if the baby is affected by Edward’s syndrome. The incorrect answers include a result indicating a higher chance of Down’s syndrome (↑ hCG, ↓ PAPP-A, thickened nuchal translucency), neural tube defects (↑AFP ↔ oestriol ↔ hCG ↔ inhibin A), and a higher chance of Down’s syndrome (↓ AFP ↓ oestriol ↑ hCG ↑ inhibin A). It is important to note that the combined test for Down’s syndrome should not be given to women outside of the appropriate gestation bracket.

      NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The test includes nuchal translucency measurement, serum B-HCG, and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). The quadruple test is offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results are interpreted as either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ of chromosomal abnormalities. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she may be offered a non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities. Private companies offer NIPT screening from 10 weeks gestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 10 - A 29-year-old woman, who is 12 weeks pregnant, visits her midwife for a...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman, who is 12 weeks pregnant, visits her midwife for a check-up. She has a BMI of 33 kg/m² and no other medical conditions. The patient is anxious about gestational diabetes, which she believes is common in larger women. She has one child previously, a boy, who was born after a complicated and prolonged delivery. He weighed 4.6kg at birth and required no additional post-natal care. There is no family history of any pregnancy-related issues. What is the most appropriate test to address her concerns and medical history?

      Your Answer: Oral glucose tolerance test at 24-28 weeks

      Explanation:

      The preferred method for diagnosing gestational diabetes is still the oral glucose tolerance test.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      35.1
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (6/10) 60%
Passmed