-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man visits his GP for routine blood tests after undergoing an elective hip replacement two weeks ago. He has been self-administering subcutaneous venous thromboembolism prophylaxis and reports feeling well. His medical history includes hypertension and polymyalgia rheumatica, and he is currently taking co-codamol, prednisolone, and ramipril. However, his blood tests reveal a platelet count of 36 * 109/L (150 - 400). What is the most likely cause of his thrombocytopenia?
Your Answer: Haemolysis across the prosthesis
Correct Answer: Enoxaparin
Explanation:Thrombocytopenia can be caused by heparin, including the low molecular weight heparin enoxaparin. Prosthetic joints are not a common cause of thrombocytopenia, while the other drugs listed are not typically associated with this condition. If heparin-induced thrombocytopenia is suspected or confirmed, it is important to discontinue heparin and switch to an alternative anticoagulant like danaparoid. Platelet counts should be monitored and normalized before administering warfarin.
Understanding Drug-Induced Thrombocytopenia
Drug-induced thrombocytopenia is a condition where a person’s platelet count drops due to the use of certain medications. This condition is believed to be immune-mediated, meaning that the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys platelets. Some of the drugs that have been associated with drug-induced thrombocytopenia include quinine, abciximab, NSAIDs, diuretics like furosemide, antibiotics such as penicillins, sulphonamides, and rifampicin, and anticonvulsants like carbamazepine and valproate. Heparin, a commonly used blood thinner, is also known to cause drug-induced thrombocytopenia. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of medications and to consult with a healthcare provider if any concerning symptoms arise. Proper management and monitoring of drug-induced thrombocytopenia can help prevent serious complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 65-year-old woman is experiencing persistent urge incontinence despite undergoing a two-month course of bladder training. Drug therapy is now being considered as a treatment option. What is the recommended first-line medication for this condition?
Your Answer: Tolterodine (immediate release)
Explanation:NICE suggests using oxybutynin (immediate release), tolterodine (immediate release), or darifenacin (once daily preparation) to manage urge incontinence pharmacologically. However, immediate release oxybutynin is not recommended for frail older women. Stress incontinence is better managed with pelvic floor exercises.
Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.
In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
The District Nurse requests a prescription for a syringe driver for a patient you assessed earlier in the day. The patient, who is in their late 70s, is dying from metastatic renal cancer. You recommend a 24-hour dose of 60mg of diamorphine. Please provide the correct wording for the prescription.
Your Answer: 180mg of diamorphine in 6 (six) ampoules. 60mg daily by subcutaneous infusion over 24 hours.
Correct Answer: Diamorphine 30 mg ampoules. Supply 6 (six) ampoules. 60mg daily by subcutaneous infusion over 24 hours.
Explanation:Controlled drugs are medications that have the potential for abuse and are regulated by the 2001 Misuse of Drugs Regulations act. The act divides these drugs into five categories or schedules, each with its own rules on prescribing, supply, possession, and record keeping. When prescribing a controlled drug, certain information must be present on the prescription, including the patient’s name and address, the form and strength of the medication, the total quantity or number of dosage units to be supplied, the dose, and the prescriber’s name, signature, address, and current date.
Schedule 1 drugs, such as cannabis and lysergide, have no recognized medical use and are strictly prohibited. Schedule 2 drugs, including diamorphine, morphine, pethidine, amphetamine, and cocaine, have recognized medical uses but are highly addictive and subject to strict regulations. Schedule 3 drugs, such as barbiturates, buprenorphine, midazolam, temazepam, tramadol, gabapentin, and pregabalin, have a lower potential for abuse but are still subject to regulation. Schedule 4 drugs are divided into two parts, with part 1 including benzodiazepines (except midazolam and temazepam) and zolpidem, zopiclone, and part 2 including androgenic and anabolic steroids, hCG, and somatropin. Schedule 5 drugs, such as codeine, pholcodine, and Oramorph 10 mg/5ml, have a low potential for abuse and are exempt from most controlled drug requirements.
Prescriptions for controlled drugs in schedules 2, 3, and 4 are valid for 28 days and must include all required information. Pharmacists are generally not allowed to dispense these medications unless all information is present, but they may amend the prescription if it specifies the total quantity only in words or figures or contains minor typographical errors. Safe custody requirements apply to schedules 2 and 3 drugs, but not to schedule 4 drugs. The BNF marks schedule 2 and 3 drugs with the abbreviation CD.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 5-year old healthy girl is brought to the General Practice Surgery by her parents who are concerned about some darker skin patches they have noticed on her legs, arms and back. They think they have been present since she was a small baby but seem to be more noticeable over the last few months. They have counted six in total.
On examination, you observe several hyperpigmented macules with a sharp border and variable diameter on the limbs, abdomen and lower back. You believe these to be café au lait spots. She also has some freckly pigmentation under both arms.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Tuberous sclerosis
Correct Answer: Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1)
Explanation:Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1) is a genetic disorder that causes lesions in the skin, nervous system, and skeleton. It is usually diagnosed in children under the age of eight, with 80% of cases being identified by age six. The condition is characterized by the presence of café au lait spots, which are hyperpigmented macules with a sharp border and a diameter of over 0.5 cm in children or 1.5 cm in adults. To be diagnosed with NF1, a patient must have at least two of the following seven presentations: six or more café au lait macules, two or more cutaneous/subcutaneous neurofibromas or one plexiform neurofibroma, axillary or groin freckling, optic pathway glioma, two or more Lisch nodules, bony dysplasia, or a first-degree relative with NF1. Other skin conditions, such as acanthosis nigricans, childhood lentigines, Sturge-Weber syndrome, and tuberous sclerosis, have different symptoms and are not associated with café au lait spots.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 75 year old man has come for a surgical consultation regarding an ambulatory blood pressure monitoring reading of 142/84 mmHg. He has no history of coronary heart disease, renal disease or diabetes, and is only taking lansoprazole regularly. His 10-year cardiovascular risk score was recently assessed to be 8%. Which of the following should be included in his management plan for follow up?
Your Answer: Calcium channel blocker
Correct Answer: Lifestyle advice
Explanation:When a patient is diagnosed with stage 2 hypertension, regardless of their age, it is recommended to start antihypertensive medication and reinforce lifestyle advice.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old female presents with oligomenorrhoea.
On examination she is obese but otherwise normal.
Investigations reveal a prolactin of 1500 mU/L (high), a LH of 1.1, FSH 1.2 and oestradiol 1200 pmol/L (high).
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Prolactinoma
Correct Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Explanation:Interpretation of Hormone Levels in a Woman Trying to Conceive
This young woman has successfully conceived, as evidenced by her high levels of oestradiol and prolactin. If her high prolactin levels were due to a prolactinoma, her oestradiol levels would be low. When hyperprolactinaemia is associated with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS), prolactin levels are typically below 1000 mU/L and oestradiol levels are normal, with an elevated LH:FSH ratio. It is not mentioned whether her TSH levels were tested, but hypothyroidism is usually associated with menorrhagia and doesn’t cause the high prolactin levels seen in this case.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 63-year-old female presents to the rheumatology clinic with progressive dyspnea. She has been taking medication for her rheumatoid arthritis for an extended period. During examination, her oxygen saturation levels on room air are found to be at 89%. Further investigations reveal bilateral interstitial shadowing on her chest x-ray. Which medication is the probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Methotrexate
Explanation:Respiratory Manifestations of Rheumatoid Arthritis
Patients with rheumatoid arthritis may experience a range of respiratory problems. These can include pulmonary fibrosis, pleural effusion, pulmonary nodules, bronchiolitis obliterans, and pleurisy. Additionally, drug therapy for rheumatoid arthritis, such as methotrexate, can lead to complications like pneumonitis. In some cases, patients may develop Caplan’s syndrome, which involves the formation of massive fibrotic nodules due to occupational coal dust exposure. Finally, immunosuppression caused by rheumatoid arthritis treatment can increase the risk of infection, including atypical infections. Overall, it is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential respiratory complications in patients with rheumatoid arthritis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old man seeks guidance on how to prevent motion sickness during a lengthy bus trip. Which medication is the most effective for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cyclizine
Explanation:The order of effectiveness for treating motion sickness is hyoscine, followed by cyclizine, and then promethazine.
Understanding Motion Sickness and Its Management
Motion sickness is a condition characterized by nausea and vomiting that occurs when there is a mismatch between what the eyes see and what the vestibular system senses. This discrepancy can happen when a person is in a moving vehicle, such as a car, boat, or plane. The brain receives conflicting signals from the eyes and the inner ear, which can lead to discomfort and other symptoms.
To manage motion sickness, the British National Formulary (BNF) recommends the use of hyoscine, which is available in a transdermal patch. However, this medication has limitations due to its side effects. Non-sedating antihistamines like cyclizine or cinnarizine are preferred over sedating preparations like promethazine. These medications can help alleviate the symptoms of motion sickness and make travel more comfortable for those who are prone to this condition.
In summary, motion sickness is a common problem that affects many people during travel. By understanding the causes and symptoms of this condition, individuals can take steps to manage it effectively. With the right medication and other strategies, it is possible to reduce the discomfort and inconvenience of motion sickness and enjoy travel without any issues.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
You are working as a clinical research fellow. You design a case-control study to investigate the association between maternal diet during pregnancy and adolescent obesity.
What kind of bias is this study most susceptible to?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Recall bias
Explanation:Recall bias is a significant concern in case-control studies, particularly those conducted retrospectively. Participants may be asked to recall past exposures, leading to the risk of certain events being forgotten or over-remembered.
Expectation bias is more likely to occur in non-blinded trials, where the observer’s cognitive biases can influence the recorded data. However, this is unlikely to be an issue in this retrospective study.
Late look bias can arise when there is a significant delay in gathering data. For example, if data were collected when the children were in their 40s, mothers who were particularly unhealthy during pregnancy may have died, leading to underrepresentation in the study.
Measurement bias can occur when the outcome of interest is poorly measured. In this study, for instance, measurement bias could arise if the children’s obesity status was determined based on the measurement of incorrectly calibrated scales.
Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials
Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnosis the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A researcher is analysing the body mass index (BMI) of patients in a geriatric ward. Most of the patients have a BMI that falls within the normal range; however, a few outliers have very low BMIs.
Which of the following is most likely to be affected by the outliers?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mean
Explanation:Measures of Central Tendency: Mean, Median, and Mode
When analyzing a set of data, it is important to understand the measures of central tendency: mean, median, and mode. The mean is calculated by adding up all the scores and dividing by the number of scores. However, the mean is heavily influenced by extreme values, which can significantly lower the overall value. The median, on the other hand, is the middle number in a sorted list of values and is less affected by extreme values. Finally, the mode is the most frequently occurring value in the data set and is not influenced by extreme values. Understanding these measures of central tendency can help provide a more accurate representation of the data.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old woman began to stumble when walking. Her right leg was slightly stiff and weak, especially after exercise and hot showers. These symptoms developed over 3 days and gradually disappeared over 4 weeks. She was on the college swimming team before these symptoms arose. There, she developed a unique and extreme type of fatigue that was different from the usual fatigue she experienced when swimming. This disappeared after several weeks, but reappeared again 6 months before her current presentation.
Select the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis
Explanation:Understanding Multiple Sclerosis and its Symptoms
Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a condition that often presents with symptoms that worsen with exercise and heat, and profound fatigue. These symptoms are not consistent with chronic fatigue syndrome, as MS symptoms are separated by time and can vary in intensity. Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis, Guillain-Barre syndrome, and diabetic neuropathy tend to have symmetrical neurological impairment, which is not typical of MS.
Fatigue is a common symptom experienced by about 70% of MS patients. It is different from regular tiredness or exhaustion and is often out of proportion to any activity performed. Primary fatigue is caused by MS itself, while secondary fatigue is caused by other factors that affect MS patients more than those without the condition, such as depression, pain, and sleep disturbance. Understanding the symptoms of MS can help patients manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of yellowing of her eyes and generalized itching for the past 5 days. She denies any fever, myalgia, or abdominal pain. She reports that her urine has become darker and her stools have become paler. She has been in good health otherwise.
The patient had visited the clinic 3 weeks ago for a sore throat and was prescribed antibiotics. She has been taking the combined oral contraceptive pill for the past 6 months.
On examination, the patient appears jaundiced in both her skin and sclera. She has no rash but has multiple scratches on her arms due to itching. There is no palpable hepatosplenomegaly, and she has no abdominal tenderness.
Laboratory tests reveal:
- Bilirubin 110 µmol/L (3 - 17)
- ALP 200 u/L (30 - 100)
- ALT 60 u/L (3 - 40)
- γGT 120 u/L (8 - 60)
- Albumin 40 g/L (35 - 50)
What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill
Explanation:The patient is presenting with cholestatic jaundice, likely caused by the oral contraceptive pill. This results in intrahepatic jaundice, dark urine, and pale stools. Paracetamol overdose and viral hepatitis would cause hepatocellular jaundice, while Gilbert’s syndrome is an unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia. Choledocholithiasis could also cause obstructive cholestasis. It is appropriate to stop the pill and consider alternative contraception methods, and additional imaging may be necessary if jaundice doesn’t resolve.
Drug-induced liver disease can be categorized into three types: hepatocellular, cholestatic, or mixed. However, there can be some overlap between these categories, as some drugs can cause a range of liver changes. Certain drugs tend to cause a hepatocellular picture, such as paracetamol, sodium valproate, and statins. On the other hand, drugs like the combined oral contraceptive pill, flucloxacillin, and anabolic steroids tend to cause cholestasis with or without hepatitis. Methotrexate, methyldopa, and amiodarone are known to cause liver cirrhosis. It is important to note that there are rare reported causes of drug-induced liver disease, such as nifedipine.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman who has never undergone a cervical smear test complains of post-coital bleeding. What is not considered a known risk factor for cervical cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Obesity
Explanation:Endometrial cancer is associated with obesity, while cervical cancer is not.
Understanding Cervical Cancer and its Risk Factors
Cervical cancer is a type of cancer that affects the cervix, which is the lower part of the uterus. It is most commonly diagnosed in women under the age of 45, with the highest incidence rates occurring in those aged 25-29. The cancer can be divided into two types: squamous cell cancer and adenocarcinoma. Symptoms of cervical cancer may include abnormal vaginal bleeding, such as postcoital, intermenstrual, or postmenopausal bleeding, as well as vaginal discharge.
The most significant risk factor for cervical cancer is infection with the human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly serotypes 16, 18, and 33. Other risk factors include smoking, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), early first intercourse, many sexual partners, high parity, and lower socioeconomic status. The mechanism by which HPV causes cervical cancer involves the production of oncogenes E6 and E7 by HPV 16 and 18, respectively. E6 inhibits the p53 tumour suppressor gene, while E7 inhibits the RB suppressor gene.
While the strength of the association between combined oral contraceptive pill use and cervical cancer is sometimes debated, a large study published in the Lancet in 2007 confirmed the link. It is important for women to undergo routine cervical cancer screening to detect any abnormalities early on and to discuss any potential risk factors with their healthcare provider.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old man presents to you after being involved in a car accident 3 weeks ago. He reports experiencing flashbacks of the crash while watching car chase scenes on TV and has been avoiding such shows. He also mentions having trouble falling asleep and feeling more irritable than usual. However, his symptoms have not significantly impacted his work or relationships, and he is generally functioning well. What is the recommended next step in primary care management according to current NICE guidelines?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange a period of watchful waiting, ensuring a follow-up appointment within 1 month
Explanation:If an individual is experiencing mild to moderate symptoms of PTSD for less than 4 weeks, it may be appropriate to suggest a period of watchful waiting, as per the current NICE guidelines. It is not recommended to use single session interventions that focus on the traumatic event, despite their common practice. Additionally, drug treatments should not be the first-line management for PTSD, whether used by general practitioners or specialist mental health professionals. There is no need for an urgent referral to the adult mental health team in this situation.
Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include natural disasters, physical or sexual assault, or military combat. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of triggers associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and substance abuse.
Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, including watchful waiting for mild symptoms, trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), and eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy for more severe cases. While drug treatments are not recommended as a first-line treatment for adults, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) such as sertraline may be used. In severe cases, risperidone may be recommended. It is important to note that single-session interventions, also known as debriefing, are not recommended following a traumatic event.
Understanding PTSD and its symptoms is crucial in providing effective support and treatment for those who have experienced trauma. With the right interventions, individuals with PTSD can learn to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner, reporting increased fatigue over the past few weeks. She has no other symptoms and no signs of liver disease upon examination. She was diagnosed with hepatitis B infection ten years ago and is concerned that the infection may still be active. What is the most suitable test for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis B virus (HBV) deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
Explanation:Understanding Hepatitis B Markers
Hepatitis B virus (HBV) can be detected through various markers in the blood. The most sensitive indicator of viral replication is the presence of HBV DNA, which is found in high concentrations in both acute and chronic infections. A high level of HBV DNA is associated with an increased risk of liver damage and cancer. Effective antiviral treatment can lower the HBV DNA level.
Anti-HBAb levels indicate decreased viral replication and infectivity in chronic carriers. These patients will only exhibit low levels of HBV DNA.
HBeAg testing is indicated in the follow-up of chronic infection. In those with chronic (active) infection, it remains positive. However, hepatitis B virus DNA can be found without e antigen in hepatitis due to mutant strains of the virus.
Anti-HBsAb is a marker of immunity to hepatitis B. Patients who are immune to the disease as a result of previous infection will also be positive for anti-HBeAg, but they will have cleared HBsAg and will not exhibit detectable HBV DNA. Patients who have been vaccinated for hepatitis B will also be positive for anti-HBsAb, without having any other positive markers.
The presence of IgM anti-HBc indicates acute hepatitis, but doesn’t provide detail on the likelihood that the condition has become chronic. Understanding these markers can help in the diagnosis and management of hepatitis B.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A researcher is studying the number of children in a family among a population of married couples. The distribution curve representing the results is positively skewed.
What is the correct effect on mean, median and mode in comparison to what the values would have been if the distribution had been normally distributed?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mean increases, median remains the same, mode remains the same
Explanation:Effects of Skewed Distribution on Mean, Median, and Mode
Skewed distribution can have different effects on the mean, median, and mode. In a positively skewed distribution, a small number of very large values will increase the mean, while the median and mode remain unchanged. On the other hand, a negatively skewed distribution with a small number of very small values will decrease the mean, while the median and mode remain unchanged. In some cases, the mode may increase while the mean and median remain the same, but this is not affected by skewed distribution. However, in all cases, the mean is affected by every score in the data set, while the median and mode are not.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old, seemingly healthy woman presents to your clinic reporting that she was surprised to find her left eye filled with blood when she woke up this morning. She denies any ocular discomfort and states that her vision is unaffected. There is no discharge from the eye and no active bleeding. Upon examination, you note the presence of a subconjunctival hemorrhage.
What is the most appropriate course of action to take next?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure the patient and check her blood pressure and blood glucose level
Explanation:Understanding Subconjunctival Haemorrhage
Subconjunctival haemorrhage can be a frightening sight, but it is usually not a cause for concern. This condition occurs when a blood vessel in the eye bursts, causing blood to pool under the conjunctiva. While it can be caused by rubbing the eye or minor trauma, it can also be associated with underlying health conditions such as hypertension and diabetes mellitus.
If you experience subconjunctival haemorrhage, it is important to have your blood pressure and blood glucose levels checked. This will help determine if there are any underlying health issues that need to be addressed. However, in most cases, reassurance and time are all that is needed for the blood to be reabsorbed and the eye to return to normal. So, while it may be alarming to look at, subconjunctival haemorrhage is usually a minor issue that can be easily managed.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 63-year-old man presents to the clinic with a persistent sore throat. He had visited three weeks ago and was diagnosed with acute tonsillitis by another doctor, for which he was prescribed amoxicillin. At that time, some left submandibular swelling was observed.
The patient is a heavy smoker, consuming around 40 cigarettes per day. Upon further questioning, he reveals that he has been experiencing a sore throat and pain while swallowing for the past three months.
During the examination, his blood pressure is 145/82 mmHg, pulse is 85 and regular. He has heavily nicotine-stained fingers and appears very thin with a BMI of 20 kg/m2. There is noticeable left submandibular gland enlargement, which has apparently grown even more since his last consultation.
Investigations reveal:
- Hb 114 g/L (135-180)
- WCC 6.0 ×109/L (4.5-10)
- PLT 189 ×109/L (150-450)
- Na 138 mmol/L (135-145)
- K 4.8 mmol/L (3.5-5.5)
- Cr 122 µmol/L (70-110)
A chest x-ray taken three months earlier was normal.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Viscosity and autoimmune profile
Explanation:Referral for Suspicion of Squamous Cell Carcinoma
In patients who are heavy smokers, squamous cell carcinoma should be considered as a possible diagnosis until proven otherwise. If a patient presents with an unexplained lump in the neck, persistent swelling in the parotid or submandibular gland, persistently sore or painful throat, or unexplained ulceration or patches in the oral mucosa, referral within two weeks is advised. Waiting for outpatient imaging results may cause an unacceptable delay in therapeutic intervention. In such cases, direct referral to the ENT department is recommended. Further oral antibiotics are unlikely to be of value, and checking viscosity may only add to the delay in referral. Therefore, prompt referral is crucial for timely diagnosis and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old man is undergoing treatment for prostate cancer with goserelin. What medication can be prescribed alongside goserelin to prevent a tumour flare during the initial period of treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tamoxifen
Explanation:Management of Prostate Cancer with Goserelin
Goserelin is a medication used in the management of prostate cancer. As a luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH) agonist, it works by lowering testosterone levels. However, in some men, it can cause a temporary worsening of symptoms known as a ‘tumour flare’ during the initial stages of treatment. To prevent this, bicalutamide, an anti-androgen, can be used concurrently with the LHRH agonist for 4-6 weeks.
In addition to managing tumour flare, medroxyprogesterone acetate and cyproterone acetate can be used to treat hot flashes associated with LHRH agonist use. Tamoxifen is another treatment option for gynaecomastia, a side effect of long-term bicalutamide treatment for prostate cancer. Finally, tamsulosin is a medication used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia. By understanding the various treatment options available, healthcare providers can better manage prostate cancer and its associated symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old woman visits her doctor to discuss her 2-year-old daughter, who has shown signs of developmental delay. She had delayed speech development, was a late walker, and is behind her peers in many areas.
The mother has been taking regular medication for bipolar disorder for the past seven years, which she has been told may have caused her daughter's issues. Currently, her mental health is stable, and she has no other diagnosed health conditions.
Which medication is the most likely culprit?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Valproic acid
Explanation:Teratogenic Risks of Common Medications During Pregnancy
Valproic acid, commonly used as a mood stabilizer in bipolar disorder, is highly teratogenic with a 30-40% chance of neurodevelopmental problems and 10% risk of congenital malformations in newborns if taken during pregnancy. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, carries a risk of neonatal tremor and hypertonia if taken during the third trimester, but no known neurodevelopmental risks. Prochlorperazine, used for nausea and vomiting, may cause extrapyramidal side effects or withdrawal in newborns during the third trimester, but no neurodevelopmental issues are listed. Procyclidine, an anticholinergic medication, has no specific teratogenic warnings. Sertraline, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor for anxiety and depression, has a small risk of congenital heart defect but no neurodevelopmental issues. It is important for healthcare providers to consider these risks and provide appropriate counseling and monitoring for pregnant patients taking these medications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman has been referred to you by her dentist. She underwent a tooth extraction 12 days ago and experienced excessive bleeding, requiring transfer to the maxillofacial unit for suturing. She denies any prior history of bleeding and is in good health. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Von Willebrand's disease
Explanation:Von Willebrand’s disease is a commonly inherited clotting disorder that is often characterized by prolonged bleeding after minor injuries, particularly mucosal membrane injuries. This autosomal dominant condition is caused by a reduction or structural abnormality of von Willebrand’s factor, which plays a crucial role in promoting normal platelet function and stabilizing coagulation factor VIII. Although screening tests may yield normal results, a specialist investigation and assay of von Willebrand Factor may be necessary for diagnosis. While most patients with mild disease respond well to desmopressin (DDAVP), clotting factor concentrates may be required for a minority. It is important to note that prolonged bleeding following dental extraction may be a sign of von Willebrand’s disease.
Understanding Von Willebrand’s Disease
Von Willebrand’s disease is a genetic bleeding disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant or recessive manner. It is the most common inherited bleeding disorder, and it behaves like a platelet disorder. Patients with this condition often experience epistaxis and menorrhagia, while haemoarthroses and muscle haematomas are rare.
The disease is caused by a deficiency or abnormality in von Willebrand factor, a large glycoprotein that promotes platelet adhesion to damaged endothelium and serves as a carrier molecule for factor VIII. There are three types of von Willebrand’s disease: type 1, which involves a partial reduction in vWF and accounts for 80% of cases; type 2, which is characterized by an abnormal form of vWF; and type 3, which involves a total lack of vWF and is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.
To diagnose von Willebrand’s disease, doctors may perform a bleeding time test, measure APTT, and check factor VIII levels. Defective platelet aggregation with ristocetin is also a common finding. Treatment options include tranexamic acid for mild bleeding, desmopressin to raise levels of vWF, and factor VIII concentrate. The type of von Willebrand’s disease a patient has doesn’t necessarily correlate with their symptoms, but common themes include excessive mucocutaneous bleeding, bruising without trauma, and menorrhagia in females.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 36-year-old woman is under evaluation. She is seeking exemption from job search due to weakness in her right leg. During the examination, the clinician instructs her to lift her unaffected leg against pressure while placing a hand under her affected leg. The clinician feels pressure pushing down against the hand under the unaffected leg.
What is the name of this sign and what does it indicate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hoover's sign suggesting malingering
Explanation:Hoover’s sign is a useful clinical tool for distinguishing between organic and non-organic leg paresis. In cases of non-organic paresis, pressure is felt under the affected leg when lifting the unaffected leg against resistance, due to involuntary contralateral hip extension.
In this particular case, the patient is exhibiting Hoover’s sign, which suggests that she may be feigning a unilateral lower limb weakness in order to obtain financial gain. However, this sign doesn’t indicate a somatisation disorder, which is characterized by persistent symptoms and a refusal to accept negative test results for serious conditions.
Lhermitte’s sign, on the other hand, is a sudden electric shock sensation that occurs when the head is bent forward towards the chest in patients with multiple sclerosis. This sign doesn’t suggest malingering or somatisation disorder.
Similarly, Uhthoff’s sign in multiple sclerosis, where symptoms worsen with heat, doesn’t indicate somatisation disorder.
Unexplained Symptoms in Psychiatry
In psychiatry, there are several terms used to describe patients who present with physical or psychological symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. Somatisation disorder is characterized by the presence of multiple physical symptoms that persist for at least two years, and the patient refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results. Illness anxiety disorder, also known as hypochondriasis, involves a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results. Conversion disorder typically involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient doesn’t consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Dissociative disorder involves the process of separating off certain memories from normal consciousness, and may present with psychiatric symptoms such as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms, while malingering refers to the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms for financial or other gain. These terms help clinicians to better understand and diagnose patients with unexplained symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 49-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis complains of a painful, red eye with watering and blurred vision for the past few days. She has a family history of glaucoma and is myopic. Upon examination, you diagnose her with scleritis. What potential complication should you be concerned about?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Perforation of the globe
Explanation:Scleritis is a serious condition that requires urgent ophthalmology attention within 24 hours to prevent complications such as perforation of the globe, glaucoma, cataracts, raised intraocular pressure, retinal detachment, and uveitis. It is important to note that scleritis can lead to raised intraocular pressure, not decreased, and entropion is not a complication of scleritis. Episcleritis, a less severe inflammatory condition of the episclera, can be managed within primary care and doesn’t affect vision.
Understanding Scleritis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Scleritis is a condition that involves inflammation of the sclera, which is the white outer layer of the eye. This condition is typically non-infectious and can cause a red, painful eye. The most common risk factor associated with scleritis is rheumatoid arthritis, but it can also be linked to other conditions such as systemic lupus erythematosus, sarcoidosis, and granulomatosis with polyangiitis.
Symptoms of scleritis include a red eye, which is often accompanied by pain and discomfort. Other common symptoms include watering and photophobia, which is sensitivity to light. In some cases, scleritis can also lead to a gradual decrease in vision.
Treatment for scleritis typically involves the use of oral NSAIDs as a first-line treatment. In more severe cases, oral glucocorticoids may be used. For resistant cases, immunosuppressive drugs may be necessary, especially if there is an underlying associated disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 15-year-old male with a history of asthma is brought in by his worried father due to the sudden appearance of a rash on his leg. The patient reports no new product usage or trauma. His father also expresses concerns about his recent lack of motivation in school.
Upon examination, there are distinct linear lesions forming geometric shapes on the left lower leg and dorsal aspect of the foot. The patient appears healthy, and there are no other notable findings.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dermatitis artefacta
Explanation:The sudden appearance of well-defined skin lesions in a linear pattern, accompanied by a lack of concern or emotional response, is indicative of dermatitis artefacta. This condition is often associated with self-inflicted injuries that stem from underlying psychological issues, such as deliberate self-harm or attention-seeking behavior. The lesions are typically geometric in shape and appear in easily accessible areas, such as the limbs or face. Patients with dermatitis artefacta may deny causing the lesions themselves. The patient’s declining grades may be linked to psychological difficulties that have led to this form of self-harm.
Understanding Dermatitis Artefacta
Dermatitis artefacta is a rare condition that affects individuals of any age, but is more common in females. It is characterised by self-inflicted skin lesions that patients typically deny are self-induced. The condition is strongly associated with personality disorder, dissociative disorders, and eating disorders, with a prevalence of up to 33% in patients with bulimia or anorexia.
Patients with dermatitis artefacta present with well-demarcated linear or geometric lesions that appear suddenly and do not evolve over time. The lesions may be caused by scratching with fingernails or other objects, burning skin with cigarettes, or chemical exposure. Commonly affected areas include the face and dorsum of the hands. Despite the severity of the skin lesions, patients may display a nonchalant attitude, known as la belle indifference.
Diagnosis of dermatitis artefacta is based on clinical history and exclusion of other dermatological conditions. Biopsy of skin lesions is not routine but may be helpful to exclude other conditions. Psychiatric assessment may be necessary. Differential diagnosis includes other dermatological conditions and factitious disorders such as Munchausen syndrome and malingering.
Management of dermatitis artefacta involves a multidisciplinary approach with dermatologists, psychologists, and psychiatrists. Direct confrontation is unhelpful and may discourage patients from seeking medical help. Treatment includes providing occlusive dressing, topical antibiotics, and bland emollients. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors and cognitive behavioural therapy may be helpful, although evidence is limited.
In summary, dermatitis artefacta is a rare condition that requires a multidisciplinary approach for management. Understanding the clinical features, risk factors, and differential diagnosis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
You see a 55-year-old lady with shortness of breath on exertion and a chronic non-productive cough. She quit smoking 5 years ago and reports no weight loss. On examination, you note clubbing and fine bilateral crackles.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Explanation:Consider Pulmonary Fibrosis in Patients with Persistent Breathlessness and Clubbing
It is crucial to consider a diagnosis of pulmonary fibrosis in patients who present with persistent breathlessness, dry cough, bilateral inspiratory crackles, and clubbing of the fingers. While COPD may be a possibility, it would not explain the presence of clubbing. Heart failure typically presents with other features such as orthopnoea, peripheral oedema, and a raised JVP. Bronchiectasis usually has a productive cough, and a pulmonary embolism typically presents more acutely with chest pain and without clubbing or bi-basal crackles. Therefore, it is essential to consider pulmonary fibrosis as a potential diagnosis in patients with these symptoms. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help improve patient outcomes and quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
Which statement is accurate when analyzing a semen analysis report?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 15% abnormal forms is within normal limits
Explanation:Understanding Semen Analysis Results
Semen analysis is a crucial test that helps determine male fertility. According to the World Health Organisation guidelines, a sperm sample showing 15% or more sperm of normal morphology is considered normal. It is recommended to abstain from masturbation and/or intercourse for at least two days before the test.
Low volume is a common issue, often caused by missing the container. Motility below 40% is a cause for concern, and the pH should be between 7 and 8.5. The specimen should be examined within an hour, and a count below 20 million would be of some concern, while below 10 million would be clinically significant.
When conducting semen analysis, the results should be compared with the WHO reference values. The semen volume should be 1.5 ml or more, pH should be 7.2 or more, sperm concentration should be 15 million spermatozoa per ml or more, and the total sperm number should be 39 million spermatozoa per ejaculate or more. The total motility should be 40% or more motile or 32% or more with progressive motility, vitality should be 58% or more, and live spermatozoa sperm morphology should be 4% or more.
In conclusion, understanding semen analysis results is crucial in determining male fertility. It is important to follow the WHO guidelines and compare the results with the reference values to identify any potential issues.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man who is a type II diabetic presents to his General Practitioner with concerns about persistent premature ejaculation. He also reports occasional erectile dysfunction. The only medication he takes is metformin. His recent glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) result is 72 mmol/l (normal: 48 mmol/l).
What is the most appropriate medication alteration required to improve this man’s symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start sildenafil
Explanation:Treatment Options for Premature Ejaculation and Erectile Dysfunction in Diabetic Patients
Premature ejaculation affects a small percentage of men, while over 50% of diabetic men experience erectile dysfunction. When both conditions are present, it is recommended to treat erectile dysfunction first with a phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE5) inhibitor like sildenafil. This medication prevents the breakdown of cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP), leading to smooth-muscle relaxation and increased blood flow to the penis for an erection. There is no conclusive evidence that reducing HbA1c levels improves erectile dysfunction. Gliclazide is not the most suitable medication for improving symptoms. Citalopram, an off-licence selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor (SSRI), can treat premature ejaculation but should not be used when erectile dysfunction is present. Dapoxetine is the initial treatment for isolated premature ejaculation in those under 65. Stopping metformin is not recommended as it is not a known cause of premature ejaculation and may still be necessary for diabetic control.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old woman has terminal breast cancer. Her General Practitioner visits her at home. Until her diagnosis five years ago, she had no significant medical history. She is known to have liver metastases and is quite breathless. Her oxygen saturations are 92% in air, and her respiratory rate is 28 breaths per minute. She is alert, but very frail.
Which of the following treatments is most likely to be of benefit for this patient’s dyspnoea?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Morphine
Explanation:Managing Dyspnoea in Terminally Ill Patients: Treatment Options
Dyspnoea is a common symptom in terminally ill patients and can significantly impact their quality of life. When managing dyspnoea, it is important to identify and treat any reversible causes, such as cardiac failure or pneumonia. However, in cases where the cause cannot be reversed, there are several treatment options available.
One such option is the use of opioids, such as morphine, which can reduce breathlessness at rest and in the end-of-life phase. A therapeutic trial should be given, and the patient should be monitored for response and side-effects. If morphine is not tolerated, alternative opioids can be used.
Dexamethasone is another option, particularly in cases of lymphangitis carcinomatosis and superior vena cava airway obstruction. It reduces inflammatory oedema and can also be used post-radiotherapy.
Furosemide is not likely to be of benefit unless there is evidence of cardiac failure.
Lorazepam, a benzodiazepine, may relieve anxiety and panic associated with severe breathlessness, but it is less effective than opioids and should be considered a second-line treatment.
Finally, if oxygen saturations are below 92%, a trial of oxygen can be considered for symptom relief. However, it is important to note that there may be a poor relationship between hypoxaemia, dyspnoea, and response to oxygen.
In conclusion, managing dyspnoea in terminally ill patients requires a multi-faceted approach, including identifying and treating reversible causes and utilizing appropriate medications for symptom relief.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
You are a GPST1 working in a general practice. A practice nurse seeks your guidance on a routine ECG performed on a 50-year-old man. Upon examining the ECG, you observe that the patient is in regular sinus rhythm with a rate of 70 beats per minute. However, the patient has a long QT interval and small T waves.
What could be the reason for this distinct ECG pattern?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:Long QT syndrome may result from hypokalaemia.
Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a genetic condition that causes a delay in the ventricles’ repolarization. This delay can lead to ventricular tachycardia/torsade de pointes, which can cause sudden death or collapse. The most common types of LQTS are LQT1 and LQT2, which are caused by defects in the alpha subunit of the slow delayed rectifier potassium channel. A normal corrected QT interval is less than 430 ms in males and 450 ms in females.
There are various causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital factors, drugs, and other conditions. Congenital factors include Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome and Romano-Ward syndrome. Drugs that can cause a prolonged QT interval include amiodarone, sotalol, tricyclic antidepressants, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Other factors that can cause a prolonged QT interval include electrolyte imbalances, acute myocardial infarction, myocarditis, hypothermia, and subarachnoid hemorrhage.
LQTS may be detected on a routine ECG or through family screening. Long QT1 is usually associated with exertional syncope, while Long QT2 is often associated with syncope following emotional stress, exercise, or auditory stimuli. Long QT3 events often occur at night or at rest and can lead to sudden cardiac death.
Management of LQTS involves avoiding drugs that prolong the QT interval and other precipitants if appropriate. Beta-blockers are often used, and implantable cardioverter defibrillators may be necessary in high-risk cases. It is important to note that sotalol may exacerbate LQTS.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old man presents with a 10-day history of mucopurulent anal discharge, anal bleeding, and pain during defecation.
What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gonorrhoea
Explanation:Symptoms and Causes of Rectal Infections
Rectal infections can have various symptoms and causes. Gonorrhoea, for instance, is often asymptomatic but may cause anal discharge or perianal/anal pain, pruritus, or bleeding. Primary syphilis, on the other hand, is characterized by a painless ulcer or chancre. Candidiasis is associated with a perianal intertrigenous rash, while Crohn’s disease may lead to perianal pendulous skin tags, abscesses, and fistulas. Salmonella infection, meanwhile, causes acute diarrhea, vomiting, abdominal cramps, and fever. It is important to seek medical attention if you experience any of these symptoms to receive proper diagnosis and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)