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  • Question 1 - You are speaking with a 57-year-old man who is worried about his blood...

    Incorrect

    • You are speaking with a 57-year-old man who is worried about his blood pressure control. He has been monitoring his blood pressure at home daily for the past week and consistently reads over 140/90 mmHg, with the highest reading being 154/86 mmHg. He has no chest symptoms and is otherwise healthy. He has a history of hypertension and is currently taking perindopril. He previously took amlodipine, but it was discontinued due to significant ankle edema. His recent blood test results are as follows:

      Na+ 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 24 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 5.1 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 80 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing his hypertension?

      Your Answer: Aldosterone antagonist

      Correct Answer: Thiazide-like diuretic

      Explanation:

      To improve control of poorly managed hypertension in a patient already taking an ACE inhibitor, the recommended step 2 treatment is to add either a calcium channel blocker or a thiazide-like diuretic. In this case, the preferred choice is a thiazide-like diuretic as the patient has a history of intolerance to calcium channel blockers. Aldosterone antagonist and beta-blocker are not appropriate choices for step 2 management. It is important to note that combining an ACE inhibitor with an angiotensin receptor blocker is not recommended due to the risk of acute kidney injury.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      1512
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 70-year-old man with a history of treated hypertension comes in for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with a history of treated hypertension comes in for a check-up. He experienced a 2-hour episode yesterday where he struggled to find the right words while speaking. This is a new occurrence and there were no other symptoms present. Upon examination, there were no neurological abnormalities and his blood pressure was 150/100 mmHg. He is currently taking amlodipine. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Specialist review within 24 hours

      Correct Answer: Aspirin 300 mg immediately + specialist review within 24 hours

      Explanation:

      This individual has experienced a TIA and is at a higher risk due to their age, blood pressure, and duration of symptoms. It is recommended by current guidelines that they receive specialist evaluation within 24 hours. If their symptoms have not completely subsided, aspirin should not be administered until the possibility of a hemorrhagic stroke has been ruled out. However, since this is a TIA with symptoms lasting less than 24 hours, aspirin should be administered promptly.

      A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax), diplopia, and homonymous hemianopia.

      NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy, giving aspirin 300 mg immediately unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If aspirin is contraindicated, management should be discussed urgently with the specialist team. Specialist review is necessary if the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis. Urgent assessment within 24 hours by a specialist stroke physician is required if the patient has had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment should be made as soon as possible within 7 days if the patient has had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. The person should be advised not to drive until they have been seen by a specialist.

      Neuroimaging should be done on the same day as specialist assessment if possible. MRI is preferred to determine the territory of ischaemia or to detect haemorrhage or alternative pathologies. Carotid imaging is necessary as atherosclerosis in the carotid artery may be a source of emboli in some patients. All patients should have an urgent carotid doppler unless they are not a candidate for carotid endarterectomy.

      Antithrombotic therapy is recommended, with clopidogrel being the first-line treatment. Aspirin + dipyridamole should be given to patients who cannot tolerate clopidogrel. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the patient has suffered a stroke or TIA in the carotid territory and is not severely disabled. It should only be recommended if carotid stenosis is greater

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      103.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the most suitable amount of adrenaline to administer during a heart...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most suitable amount of adrenaline to administer during a heart attack?

      Your Answer: 1 ml 1:100,000 IV

      Correct Answer: 10ml 1:10,000 IV

      Explanation:

      Here are the recommended doses of adrenaline for Adult Life Support (ALS):
      – Anaphylaxis: Administer 0.5mg or 0.5ml of 1:1,000 adrenaline via intramuscular injection.
      – Cardiac arrest: Administer 1 mg of adrenaline.

      Understanding Adrenaline and Its Effects on the Body

      Adrenaline is a hormone that is responsible for the body’s fight or flight response. It is released by the adrenal glands and acts on both alpha and beta adrenergic receptors. Adrenaline has various effects on the body, including increasing cardiac output and total peripheral resistance, causing vasoconstriction in the skin and kidneys, and stimulating glycogenolysis and glycolysis in the liver and muscle.

      Adrenaline also has different actions on alpha and beta adrenergic receptors. It inhibits insulin secretion by the pancreas and stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle through alpha receptors. On the other hand, it stimulates glucagon secretion in the pancreas, ACTH, and lipolysis by adipose tissue through beta receptors. Adrenaline also acts on beta 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels, causing vasodilation.

      Adrenaline is used in emergency situations such as anaphylaxis and cardiac arrest. The recommended adult life support adrenaline doses for anaphylaxis are 0.5ml 1:1,000 IM, while for cardiac arrest, it is 10ml 1:10,000 IV or 1 ml of 1:1000 IV. However, accidental injection of adrenaline can occur, and in such cases, local infiltration of phentolamine is recommended.

      In conclusion, adrenaline is a hormone that plays a crucial role in the body’s response to stress. It has various effects on the body, including increasing cardiac output and total peripheral resistance, causing vasoconstriction in the skin and kidneys, and stimulating glycogenolysis and glycolysis in the liver and muscle. Adrenaline is used in emergency situations such as anaphylaxis and cardiac arrest, and accidental injection can be managed through local infiltration of phentolamine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      949.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 40-year-old male smoker with a family history of hypertension has persistently high...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male smoker with a family history of hypertension has persistently high resting blood pressure.

      Ambulatory testing revealed a level of 146/84 mmHg. He has no signs of end organ damage on standard testing.

      According to the latest NICE guidance (NG136), what would be your most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Encourage lifestyle changes and repeat his ambulatory measurement in three months

      Correct Answer: Start treatment with a calcium antagonist

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Importance of NICE Guidance on Hypertension

      This passage discusses the latest NICE guidance on hypertension and its importance in evaluating the long-term balance of treatment benefit and risks for adults under 40 with hypertension. However, it also highlights the criticism that the guidance has received from some clinicians, particularly regarding the use of ambulatory and home blood pressure monitoring. It is important to have a balanced view and be aware of other guidelines and consensus opinions in medicine. While AKT questions may not contradict NICE guidance, it is essential to consider the bigger picture and not solely rely on the latest guidance. Remember that the questions test your knowledge of national guidance and consensus opinion. Proper understanding of NICE guidance on hypertension is crucial, but it is equally important to have a broader perspective on the matter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      230.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 56-year-old man comes in for a follow-up on his angina. Despite taking...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man comes in for a follow-up on his angina. Despite taking the maximum dose of atenolol, he still experiences chest discomfort during physical activity, which is hindering his daily routine. He wishes to explore other treatment options. He reports no chest pain at rest and his vital signs are within normal limits.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for managing his condition?

      Your Answer: Add diltiazem

      Correct Answer: Add amlodipine

      Explanation:

      If a beta-blocker is not effective in controlling angina, the recommended course of action is to add a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker to the treatment plan. Among the options listed, amlodipine is the only dihydropyridine available.

      It is not advisable to add diltiazem due to the risk of complete heart block when used with atenolol. Although the risk is lower compared to verapamil, the potential harm outweighs the benefits.

      Verapamil should also not be added as it can cause complete heart block due to the combined blockade of the atrioventricular node with beta-blockers.

      While switching to diltiazem or verapamil is possible, it is not the best option. Dual therapy is recommended when monotherapy fails to control angina.

      Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

      Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      597.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old man is referred by the practice nurse following a routine health...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man is referred by the practice nurse following a routine health check. He is a smoker with a strong family history of premature death from ischaemic heart disease. His fasting cholesterol concentration is 7.2 mmol/l and his estimated 10-year risk of a coronary heart disease event is >30%.
      Select from the list the single most suitable management option in this patient.

      Your Answer: Dietary advice

      Correct Answer: Statin

      Explanation:

      NICE recommends primary prevention for individuals under 84 years old who have a risk of over 10% of developing cardiovascular disease, which can be estimated using the QRISK2 assessment tool. To address modifiable risk factors, interventions such as dietary advice, smoking cessation support, alcohol moderation, and weight reduction should be offered. For lipid management, both non-pharmacological and pharmacological interventions should be utilized, with atorvastatin 20 mg being the recommended prescription for primary prevention. Lipids should be checked after 3 months, with the aim of reducing non-HDL cholesterol by over 40%. However, excessive drug usage in the elderly should be considered carefully by doctors, as cardiovascular risks exceeding 5-10% may be found in elderly men based on age and gender alone. NICE advises against routinely prescribing fibrates, bile acid sequestrants, nicotinic acid, omega-3 fatty acid compounds, or a combination of a statin and another lipid-modifying drug. First-line treatment for primary hyperlipidaemia is a statin, with other options such as bile acid sequestrants being considered if statins are contraindicated or not tolerated. For primary prevention of CVD, high-intensity statin treatment should be offered to individuals under 84 years old with an estimated 10-year risk of 10% or more using the QRISK assessment tool. Diet modification alone is not recommended for individuals with a risk score over 30%. Ezetimibe can be considered for individuals with primary hypercholesterolaemia if a statin is contraindicated or not tolerated, but it is not the first choice of drug in this scenario.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      49.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 45-year-old man presents for a follow-up of his hypertension. He is of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents for a follow-up of his hypertension. He is of Caucasian descent. He was diagnosed with essential hypertension six months ago and was prescribed ramipril, which has been increased to 10 mg daily. He also has a medical history of hypercholesterolemia and gout, and he takes atorvastatin 20 mg once nightly.

      He provides a set of home blood pressure readings with an average of 140/95 mmHg.

      What is the best course of action for managing his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add amlodipine

      Explanation:

      For a patient with poorly controlled hypertension who is already taking an ACE inhibitor, the recommended medication to add would be either a calcium channel blocker or a thiazide-like diuretic. In this case, since the patient has a history of gout, a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine would be the most appropriate choice. Losartan, an A2RB drug, should not be used in combination with ACE inhibitors. The maximum daily dose of ramipril is 10 mg. The target home readings for this patient would be less than 135/85 mmHg.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Barbara is a 57-year-old woman who has come to see you after high...

    Incorrect

    • Barbara is a 57-year-old woman who has come to see you after high blood pressure readings during a routine check with the nurse.

      You take two blood pressure readings, the lower of which is 190/126 mmHg.

      Barbara has no headache or chest pain. On examination of her cardiovascular and neurological systems, there are no abnormalities. Fundoscopy is normal.

      What is the most crucial next step to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgently carry out investigations for target organ damage including ECG, urine dip and blood tests

      Explanation:

      If Cynthia’s blood pressure is equal to or greater than 180/120 mmHg and she has no worrying signs, the first step is to urgently investigate for any damage to her organs.

      According to NICE guidelines, if a person has severe hypertension but no symptoms or signs requiring immediate referral, investigations for target organ damage should be carried out as soon as possible. Since Cynthia has no such symptoms or signs, investigating for target organ damage is the correct option.

      If target organ damage is found, antihypertensive drug treatment should be considered immediately, without waiting for the results of ABPM or HBPM. Therefore, prescribing a calcium channel blocker is not the correct answer as assessing for organ damage is the more urgent priority.

      Repeating clinic blood pressure measurement within 7 days at this stage would not be helpful in guiding further management, as assessing for target organ damage is the priority. NICE recommends repeating clinic blood pressure measurement within 7 days only if no target organ damage is identified.

      Assessing for target organ damage involves testing for protein and haematuria in the urine, measuring HbA1C, electrolytes, creatinine, estimated glomerular filtration rate, total cholesterol, and HDL cholesterol in the blood, examining the fundi for hypertensive retinopathy, and performing a 12-lead electrocardiograph.

      NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.

      To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.

      If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.

      ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.

      Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 60-year-old woman undergoes successful DC cardioversion for atrial fibrillation (AF).
    Select from the...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman undergoes successful DC cardioversion for atrial fibrillation (AF).
      Select from the list the single factor that best predicts long-term maintenance of sinus rhythm following this procedure.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Absence of structural or valvular heart disease

      Explanation:

      Factors Affecting Success of Cardioversion

      Cardioversion is a medical procedure used to restore a normal heart rhythm in patients with atrial fibrillation. However, the success of cardioversion can be influenced by various factors.

      Factors indicating a high likelihood of success include being under the age of 65, having a first episode of atrial fibrillation, and having no evidence of structural or valvular heart disease.

      On the other hand, factors indicating a low likelihood of success include being over the age of 80, having atrial fibrillation for more than three years, having a left atrial diameter greater than 5cm, having significant mitral valve disease, and having undergone two or more cardioversions.

      Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to consider these factors when deciding whether or not to perform cardioversion on a patient with atrial fibrillation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 75 year old man has come for a surgical consultation regarding an...

    Incorrect

    • A 75 year old man has come for a surgical consultation regarding an ambulatory blood pressure monitoring reading of 142/84 mmHg. He has no history of coronary heart disease, renal disease or diabetes, and is only taking lansoprazole regularly. His 10-year cardiovascular risk score was recently assessed to be 8%. Which of the following should be included in his management plan for follow up?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lifestyle advice

      Explanation:

      When a patient is diagnosed with stage 2 hypertension, regardless of their age, it is recommended to start antihypertensive medication and reinforce lifestyle advice.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 11 - A 58-year-old woman who has just been diagnosed with hypertension wants to know...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman who has just been diagnosed with hypertension wants to know your opinion on salt consumption. What would be the most suitable answer based on the latest available evidence?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lowering salt intake significantly reduces blood pressure, the target should be less than 6g per day

      Explanation:

      Studies conducted recently have highlighted the noteworthy and swift decrease in blood pressure that can be attained through the reduction of salt consumption.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 55-year-old man presents after experiencing a panic attack at work. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents after experiencing a panic attack at work. He reports feeling extremely hot and unable to concentrate, with a sensation of the world closing in on him. Although his symptoms have mostly subsided, he seeks medical attention. Upon examination, his pulse is 78 beats per minute, blood pressure is 188/112 mmHg, and respiratory rate is 14 breaths per minute. Fundoscopy reveals small retinal hemorrhages, but cardiovascular examination is otherwise unremarkable. The patient's PHQ-9 score is 15 out of 27. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit for a same day assessment of his blood pressure

      Explanation:

      This individual is experiencing severe hypertension, according to NICE guidelines, and is also exhibiting retinal haemorrhages. In such cases, NICE advises immediate referral and assessment. While the reported panic attack may be unrelated, it is important to rule out the possibility of an underlying phaeochromocytoma.

      NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.

      To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.

      If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.

      ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.

      Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - You are requested to finalize a medical report for a patient who has...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to finalize a medical report for a patient who has applied for life insurance. Two years ago, he began treatment for hypertension but stopped taking medication eight months later due to adverse reactions. His latest blood pressure reading is 154/92 mmHg. During the patient's visit to your clinic, he requests that you omit any reference to hypertension as everything appears to be fine now. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contact the insurance company stating that you cannot write a report and give no reason

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Insurance Reports

      When writing insurance reports, it is important for doctors to be familiar with the GMC Good Medical Practice and supplementary guidance documents. The Association of British Insurers (ABI) website provides helpful information on best practices for insurance reports. One key point to remember is that NHS referrals to clarify a patient’s condition are not appropriate for insurance reports. Instead, the ABI and BMA have developed a standard GP report (GPR) form that doctors can use. It is acceptable for GPs to charge the insurance company a fee for this work, and reports should be sent within 20 working days of receiving the request.

      When writing the report, it is important to only include relevant information and not send a full print-out of the patient’s medical records. Written consent is required before releasing any information, and patients have the right to see the report before it is sent. However, doctors cannot comply with requests to leave out relevant information from the report. If an applicant or insured person refuses to give permission for certain relevant information to be included, the doctor should indicate to the insurance company that they cannot write a report. It is also important to note that insurance companies may have access to a patient’s medical records after they have died. By following these guidelines, doctors can ensure that their insurance reports are accurate and ethical.

      Guidelines for Insurance Reports:
      – Use the standard GP report (GPR) form developed by the ABI and BMA
      – Only include relevant information and do not send a full print-out of medical records
      – Obtain written consent before releasing any information
      – Patients have the right to see the report before it is sent
      – Insurance companies may have access to medical records after a patient has died

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 14 - A 58-year-old African gentleman is seen by his GP at a first visit...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old African gentleman is seen by his GP at a first visit registration medical.

      He is completely asymptomatic but his blood pressure measures 150/95 mmHg, then 148/90 mmHg and 155/98 mmHg on two further visits a few weeks apart. He is not taking any medication currently.

      What is the next best treatment option for this gentleman?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Organise a 24 hour ambulatory blood pressure monitoring

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Blood Pressure Monitoring

      The latest NICE guidelines recommend ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) or home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) before starting therapy, except for patients with severe hypertension (BP 180/120 mmHg). If the clinic blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg or higher, ABPM should be offered to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. When using ABPM to confirm hypertension, it is important to take at least two measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours (e.g., between 08:00 and 22:00). To confirm a diagnosis of hypertension, the average value of at least 14 measurements taken during the person’s usual waking hours should be used. These guidelines aim to improve the accuracy of hypertension diagnosis and ensure appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 15 - A 55-year-old male with diabetes is diagnosed with hypertension.

    You discuss starting treatment and...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male with diabetes is diagnosed with hypertension.

      You discuss starting treatment and initiate ramipril at a dose of 1.25 mg daily. His recent blood test results show normal full blood count, renal function, liver function, thyroid function and fasting glucose.

      His other medications are: metformin 500 mg TDS, gliclazide 80 mg OD and simvastatin 40 mg ON.

      What blood test monitoring should next be performed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat renal function in 7-14 days

      Explanation:

      Renal Function Monitoring for ACE Inhibitor Treatment

      Renal function monitoring is crucial before initiating treatment with an ACE inhibitor and one to two weeks after initiation or any subsequent dose increase, according to NICE recommendations. Although ACE inhibitors have a role in managing chronic kidney disease, they can also cause impairment of renal function that may be progressive. The concomitant use of NSAIDs and potassium-sparing diuretics increases the risks of renal side effects and hyperkalaemia, respectively.

      In patients with bilateral renal stenosis who are given ACE inhibitors, marked renal failure can occur. Therefore, if there is a significant deterioration in renal function as a result of ACE inhibition, a specialist should be involved. It is important to monitor renal function regularly to ensure the safe and effective use of ACE inhibitors in the management of various conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 16 - A 59-year-old man comes to your clinic with hypertension. His initial investigations, including...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man comes to your clinic with hypertension. His initial investigations, including blood tests, electrocardiogram, and urine dip, all come back normal. His QRisk2 score is 18%. His blood pressure readings are consistently above 150/100. He has no significant medical history, but there is a family history of high blood pressure. Despite making lifestyle changes, his blood pressure remains elevated, and you both agree on treatment.

      What is your plan for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe a calcium channel blocker

      Explanation:

      First Step in Managing Hypertension

      Having diagnosed hypertension, the first step in management involves considering several key factors in the patient’s history. One important factor is whether the patient has diabetes, as this influences the choice of antihypertensive medication. In diabetic patients, ACE inhibitors or ARBs are preferred over calcium antagonists due to their secondary benefits in managing diabetes.

      Another important factor is the patient’s age, with a threshold of 55 years indicating the preference for a calcium antagonist over an ACE inhibitor or ARB in step 1. This is because these medications are less effective in older individuals. Other age thresholds, such as 40 and 80 years, are also important in diagnosis and monitoring.

      While not relevant to this question, it is important to note that in patients under 80 years of age, the target blood pressure should be below 140/90 in clinic or below 135/85 in home or ambulatory monitoring. Additionally, a statin may be considered for patients with a QRisk2 score above 10.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 17 - Which of the following patients is most likely to have their actual risk...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following patients is most likely to have their actual risk of cardiovascular disease underestimated by QRISK2?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 54-year-old man with a history of schizophrenia who takes olanzapine

      Explanation:

      Patients with a serious mental health disorder and those taking antipsychotics may have their cardiovascular disease risk underestimated by QRISK2.

      Management of Hyperlipidaemia: NICE Guidelines

      Hyperlipidaemia, or high levels of lipids in the blood, is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease (CVD). In 2014, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on lipid modification, which caused controversy due to the recommendation of statins for a significant proportion of the population over the age of 60. The guidelines suggest a systematic strategy to identify people over 40 years who are at high risk of CVD, using the QRISK2 CVD risk assessment tool. A full lipid profile should be checked before starting a statin, and patients with very high cholesterol levels should be investigated for familial hyperlipidaemia. The new guidelines recommend offering a statin to people with a QRISK2 10-year risk of 10% or greater, with atorvastatin 20 mg offered first-line. Special situations, such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease, are also addressed. Lifestyle modifications, including a cardioprotective diet, physical activity, weight management, alcohol intake, and smoking cessation, are important in managing hyperlipidaemia.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 18 - A 60-year-old man meets the criteria for initiating statin therapy for CVD prevention....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man meets the criteria for initiating statin therapy for CVD prevention. He reports a history of persistent unexplained generalised muscle pains and so a creatine kinase (CK) level is checked on a blood test prior to starting treatment.

      The CK result comes back and it is four times the upper limit of normal.

      What is the most appropriate management approach in this instance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Statin therapy should not be started and a fibrate should be prescribed instead

      Explanation:

      Statin Therapy and Creatine Kinase Levels

      Prior to offering a statin, it is recommended to check creatine kinase (CK) levels in individuals with persistent generalised unexplained muscle pain, according to NICE guidelines. If CK levels are more than 5 times the upper limit of normal, statin therapy should not be started. The CK level should be rechecked after 7 days, and if it remains elevated to more than 5 times the upper limit of normal, a statin should not be initiated. However, if CK levels are elevated but less than 5 times the upper limit of normal, statin treatment can be initiated, but a lower dose is recommended. It is important to monitor CK levels in patients receiving statin therapy to ensure that muscle damage is not occurring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 19 - A 72 year old woman presents to your clinic complaining of ankle swelling...

    Incorrect

    • A 72 year old woman presents to your clinic complaining of ankle swelling that has persisted for the past 2 weeks. The swelling is present in both ankles and there is pitting edema up to the mid-shin. She recently had a modification in her medication 2 weeks ago. Which medication is the most probable cause of this symptom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      Ankle oedema is not a known side effect of bendroflumethiazide. However, it may cause postural hypotension and electrolyte imbalances, particularly hypokalaemia.

      Beta blockers such as bisoprolol do not typically cause ankle oedema. They may cause peripheral coldness due to vasoconstriction, hypotension, and bronchospasm.

      Clopidogrel is not associated with ankle oedema. However, it may cause gastrointestinal symptoms or bleeding disorders in rare cases.

      ACE inhibitors like ramipril may cause hypotension, renal dysfunction, and a dry cough. They are not typically associated with ankle oedema.

      Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, is known to cause ankle oedema, which may not respond fully to diuretics. It may also cause other side effects related to vasodilation, such as flushing and headaches.

      References: BNF

      Calcium channel blockers are a class of drugs commonly used to treat cardiovascular disease. These drugs target voltage-gated calcium channels found in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these areas, making it important to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is used to treat angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. It is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Side effects include heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is used to treat angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Side effects include hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      Nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are dihydropyridines used to treat hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. They affect peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, which means they do not worsen heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter acting dihydropyridines like nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia. Side effects include flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves a flow chart that takes into account various factors such as age, ethnicity, and comorbidities. Calcium channel blockers may be used as part of the treatment plan depending on the individual patient’s needs.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 20 - A 60-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner complaining of shortness of breath...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner complaining of shortness of breath during physical activity. He has a medical history of hypertension and has experienced a STEMI in the past. Upon examination, his pulse is 68 beats per minute, his blood pressure is 122/72 mmHg, and he displays bilateral pitting ankle edema. Which medication is most likely to decrease mortality in this patient? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      This man is experiencing heart failure due to ischaemic heart disease, which is a leading cause of death among men in the UK. Beta-blockers are the only medication proven to reduce all-cause mortality in patients with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction, and they can also help control hypertension. However, before starting treatment, his blood pressure and pulse should be checked to ensure that he is not at risk of bradycardia or hypotension. Spironolactone is not recommended for improving mortality in heart failure patients, but it can be used to treat hypertension and oedema. U&Es should be monitored regularly to avoid renal function deterioration and hyperkalaemia. Amlodipine and furosemide have not been shown to improve mortality in heart failure patients, but they can be used to control hypertension and oedema, respectively. U&Es should also be monitored regularly when using these medications. Ramipril has been shown to reduce hospital admissions in heart failure patients, but it can impair renal function and cause hyperkalaemia. U&Es should be checked regularly, and the medication should not be initiated if the patient’s potassium level is too high. Patients should also be advised to stop taking ramipril during diarrhoea or vomiting illnesses to avoid dehydration and acute kidney injury.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 21 - What factors in a patient's medical record could potentially elevate natriuretic peptide levels...

    Incorrect

    • What factors in a patient's medical record could potentially elevate natriuretic peptide levels (such as NT-proBNP) that are utilized to evaluate possible heart failure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

      Explanation:

      Natriuretic Peptide Levels in Heart Failure Assessment

      Natriuretic peptide levels, specifically NT-ProBNP levels, are utilized in the evaluation of heart failure to determine the likelihood of diagnosis and the urgency of any necessary referral. These levels can be influenced by various factors.

      Factors that can decrease natriuretic peptide levels include a body mass index over 35 kg/m2, diuretics, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers, beta blockers, and aldosterone antagonists. On the other hand, factors that can increase natriuretic peptide levels include age over 70, left ventricular hypertrophy, myocardial ischaemia, tachycardia, right ventricular overload, hypoxia, pulmonary hypertension, pulmonary embolism, chronic kidney disease with an eGFR less than 60 mL/min/1.73m2, sepsis, COPD, diabetes mellitus, and liver cirrhosis.

      It is important to consider these factors when interpreting natriuretic peptide levels in the assessment of heart failure.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 22 - An 80 year old male underwent an ECG due to palpitations and was...

    Incorrect

    • An 80 year old male underwent an ECG due to palpitations and was found to have AF with a heart rate of 76 bpm. Upon further evaluation, you determine that he has permanent AF and a history of hypertension. If there are no contraindications, what would be the most suitable initial step to take at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Direct oral anticoagulant

      Explanation:

      According to the patient’s CHADSVASC2 score, which is 4, they have a high risk of stroke due to factors such as congestive cardiac failure, hypertension, age over 75, and being female. As per NICE guidelines, all patients with a CHADSVASC score of 2 or more should be offered anticoagulation, while taking into account their bleeding risk using the ORBIT score. Direct oral anticoagulants are now preferred over warfarin as the first-line treatment. For men with a score of 1, anticoagulation should be considered. Beta-blockers or a rate-limiting calcium channel blocker should be offered first-line for rate control, while digoxin should only be used for sedentary patients.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.

      When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.

      For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 23 - A 45-year-old woman comes to you with sudden leg swelling after starting nifedipine...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman comes to you with sudden leg swelling after starting nifedipine for her consistently high blood pressure. She appears distressed and informs you that she is already taking 10 mg of ramipril daily. You discontinue nifedipine and record her intolerance in her medical history. Upon further inquiry, you discover that she had previously experienced leg swelling with amlodipine and a rash with verapamil. Unfortunately, her blood pressure rises again after discontinuing amlodipine. What alternative medication can be prescribed next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Indapamide

      Explanation:

      For a patient with hypertension who is under 55 years old and cannot tolerate calcium channel blockers, the next line of therapy is a thiazide-like diuretic such as indapamide. It is important to note that drug intolerance refers to the inability to tolerate adverse effects of a medication, while tolerance refers to the ability to tolerate adverse effects and continue taking the medication. Beta-blockers like atenolol may be considered as a fourth-line intervention depending on the patient’s potassium levels, but they are no longer part of initial hypertension management. Candesartan should not be co-prescribed with an ACE inhibitor like ramipril unless directed by a specialist. Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, is also not recommended as the patient has been found to be intolerant to this class of medication.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 24 - A 70-year-old woman is prescribed amlodipine 5mg once daily for hypertension. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman is prescribed amlodipine 5mg once daily for hypertension. She has no significant medical history and her routine blood tests (including fasting glucose) and ECG were unremarkable.

      What is the recommended target blood pressure for her while on amlodipine treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The recommended blood pressure target for individuals under 80 years old during a clinic reading is 140/90 mmHg. However, the Quality and Outcomes Framework (QOF) indicator for GPs practicing in England specifies a slightly higher target of below 150/90 mmHg.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 25 - A 52-year-old man comes to the clinic four weeks after being released from...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man comes to the clinic four weeks after being released from the hospital. He was admitted due to chest pain and was given thrombolytic therapy for a heart attack. Today, he experienced significant swelling of his tongue and face. Which medication is the most probable cause of this reaction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Drug-induced angioedema is most frequently caused by ACE inhibitors.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 26 - A 65-year-old man presents with symptoms of intermittent claudication and is referred to...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with symptoms of intermittent claudication and is referred to the local vascular unit. Peripheral arterial disease is diagnosed and his blood pressure is measured at 130/80 mmHg with a fasting cholesterol level of 3.9 mmol/l. According to the latest NICE guidelines, what medication should be prescribed for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clopidogrel + statin

      Explanation:

      Managing Peripheral Arterial Disease

      Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is closely associated with smoking, and patients who still smoke should be provided with assistance to quit. Comorbidities such as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and obesity should also be treated. All patients with established cardiovascular disease, including PAD, should be taking a statin, with atorvastatin 80 mg currently recommended. In 2010, NICE recommended clopidogrel as the first-line treatment for PAD patients over aspirin.

      Exercise training has been shown to have significant benefits, and NICE recommends a supervised exercise program for all PAD patients before other interventions. Severe PAD or critical limb ischaemia may be treated with endovascular or surgical revascularization, with endovascular techniques typically used for short segment stenosis, aortic iliac disease, and high-risk patients. Surgical techniques are typically used for long segment lesions, multifocal lesions, lesions of the common femoral artery, and purely infrapopliteal disease. Amputation should be reserved for patients with critical limb ischaemia who are not suitable for other interventions such as angioplasty or bypass surgery.

      Drugs licensed for use in PAD include naftidrofuryl oxalate, a vasodilator sometimes used for patients with a poor quality of life, and cilostazol, a phosphodiesterase III inhibitor with both antiplatelet and vasodilator effects, which is not recommended by NICE.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 27 - You assess a patient who has been hospitalized with a non-ST elevation myocardial...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a patient who has been hospitalized with a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction in the ED. They have been administered aspirin 300 mg stat and glyceryl trinitrate spray (2 puffs). As per the latest NICE recommendations, which patients should be given ticagrelor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All patients

      Explanation:

      Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines

      Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.

      ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and oxygen therapy if the patient has low oxygen saturation.

      For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI or unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool. Based on the risk assessment, decisions are made regarding whether a patient has coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.

      This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines on the management of ACS. However, it is important to note that emergency departments may have their own protocols based on local factors. The full NICE guidelines should be reviewed for further details.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 28 - You assess a 52-year-old patient with hypertension who has been taking 2.5mg of...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 52-year-old patient with hypertension who has been taking 2.5mg of ramipril for a month. He reports experiencing a persistent tickly cough that is causing him to lose sleep at night. Despite this, his blood pressure is now under control.

      What recommendations would you provide to him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop the ramipril and prescribe candesartan

      Explanation:

      When patients are unable to tolerate ACE inhibitors due to the common side effect of a dry, persistent cough, angiotensin-receptor blockers (ARBs) should be considered as an alternative. For individuals under the age of 55 who experience intolerance to ACE inhibitors, prescribing medications such as candesartan, an ARB, may be the next appropriate step.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 29 - Which one of the following statements regarding B-type natriuretic peptide is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding B-type natriuretic peptide is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The positive predictive value of BNP is greater than the negative predictive value

      Explanation:

      The negative predictive value of BNP for ventricular dysfunction is good, but its positive predictive value is poor.

      B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is a hormone that is primarily produced by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Although heart failure is the most common cause of elevated BNP levels, any condition that causes left ventricular dysfunction, such as myocardial ischemia or valvular disease, may also raise levels. In patients with chronic kidney disease, reduced excretion may also lead to elevated BNP levels. Conversely, treatment with ACE inhibitors, angiotensin-2 receptor blockers, and diuretics can lower BNP levels.

      BNP has several effects, including vasodilation, diuresis, natriuresis, and suppression of both sympathetic tone and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Clinically, BNP is useful in diagnosing patients with acute dyspnea. A low concentration of BNP (<100 pg/mL) makes a diagnosis of heart failure unlikely, but elevated levels should prompt further investigation to confirm the diagnosis. Currently, NICE recommends BNP as a helpful test to rule out a diagnosis of heart failure. In patients with chronic heart failure, initial evidence suggests that BNP is an extremely useful marker of prognosis and can guide treatment. However, BNP is not currently recommended for population screening for cardiac dysfunction.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 30 - A 44-year-old woman has been released from the nearby stroke unit following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old woman has been released from the nearby stroke unit following a lacunar ischaemic stroke. She has a history of hypertension and is a smoker who is currently taking lisinopril. However, her discharge medications do not include a statin. What would be the most suitable prescription for initiating statin therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atorvastatin 80 mg

      Explanation:

      For primary prevention of cardiovascular disease, atorvastatin 20 mg is recommended, while for secondary prevention, the dose is increased to 80 mg. The patient was previously not on statin therapy for primary prevention despite being hypertensive. However, after experiencing a confirmed vascular event, the patient now requires the higher dose of atorvastatin for secondary prevention as per current guidelines. Simvastatin is not the preferred choice for secondary prevention and neither the 40 mg nor the 20 mg dose would be appropriate. Atorvastatin 10 mg is not recommended for secondary prevention, and the 20 mg dose is only licensed for primary prevention. High-intensity statin treatment is recommended for both primary and secondary prevention.

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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