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  • Question 1 - A 23-year-old female who is overweight visits her doctor complaining of daily headaches...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old female who is overweight visits her doctor complaining of daily headaches that have been ongoing for two weeks. The headaches are felt on both sides of her forehead, persist throughout the day, and intensify when she bends over. She doesn't experience any aura with the headaches. During a fundoscopy, the doctor notices blurring of the optic disc. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic intracranial hypertension

      Explanation:

      Idiopathic intracranial hypertension is a possible diagnosis for a young woman with a high BMI, headache, and visual symptoms, as it is associated with papilloedema. Cluster headaches, migraines, and sinus headaches do not account for papilloedema and have different characteristics.

      Understanding Papilloedema

      Papilloedema is a condition characterized by swelling of the optic disc due to increased pressure within the skull. This condition typically affects both eyes. During a fundoscopy, several signs may be observed, including venous engorgement, loss of venous pulsation, blurring of the optic disc margin, elevation of the optic disc, loss of the optic cup, and Paton’s lines.

      There are several potential causes of papilloedema, including space-occupying lesions such as tumors or vascular abnormalities, malignant hypertension, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, hydrocephalus, and hypercapnia. In rare cases, papilloedema may be caused by hypoparathyroidism and hypocalcaemia or vitamin A toxicity.

      It is important to diagnose and treat papilloedema promptly, as it can lead to permanent vision loss if left untreated. Treatment typically involves addressing the underlying cause of the increased intracranial pressure, such as surgery to remove a tumor or medication to manage hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You assess a 64-year-old man who has recently been released from the hospital...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 64-year-old man who has recently been released from the hospital after being admitted for acute coronary syndrome. He has a medical history of myasthenia gravis and has been taking prednisolone for a long time. However, since his admission, his myasthenia symptoms have significantly worsened, and you observe bilateral ptosis and slurred speech. Which of the newly prescribed medications is most likely responsible for this?

      Your Answer: Clopidogrel

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Myasthenic crises are often triggered by beta-blockers like bisoprolol.

      Exacerbating Factors of Myasthenia Gravis

      Myasthenia gravis is a neuromuscular disorder that is characterized by fatigability, which is worsened by exertion. This means that symptoms become more pronounced as the day progresses. In addition to exertion, certain drugs can also exacerbate myasthenia gravis. These drugs include penicillamine, quinidine, procainamide, beta-blockers, lithium, and certain antibiotics such as gentamicin, macrolides, quinolones, and tetracyclines. It is important for individuals with myasthenia gravis to be aware of these exacerbating factors and to avoid them whenever possible in order to manage their symptoms effectively. By doing so, they can improve their quality of life and minimize the impact of this condition on their daily activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old man with type 2 diabetes is brought to the clinic by...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man with type 2 diabetes is brought to the clinic by his spouse for exhibiting strange behavior and acute confusion during questioning. He was recently initiated on insulin therapy for his diabetes. Upon assessment, the following vital signs were obtained:

      - Blood pressure: 145/87 mmHg
      - Heart rate: 110 beats per minute
      - Temperature: 37.2ºC
      - Oxygen saturation: 99% on room air
      - Respiratory rate: 18 breaths per minute
      - Capillary blood sugar level: 2.1 mmol/L

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Oral glucose gel

      Explanation:

      The recommended first-line treatment for hypoglycaemia in a conscious patient who is able to swallow is a fast-acting carbohydrate in the form of glucose liquids, tablets, or gels. In this case, the patient is conscious and able to swallow, so an oral glucose gel is the best option to quickly increase their blood glucose level.

      Administering intramuscular glucagon is not necessary in this situation as the patient is conscious and able to take oral glucose. However, if the patient becomes combative and unable to take any oral glucose, intramuscular glucagon may be considered.

      Intravenous administration is not a recommended route for glucagon and is therefore not a suitable option.

      Intravenous glucose is not necessary for this patient as they are conscious and able to take glucose orally. It may be considered in a hospital setting for patients who are unable to take glucose orally.

      Understanding Hypoglycaemia: Causes, Features, and Management

      Hypoglycaemia is a condition characterized by low blood sugar levels, which can lead to a range of symptoms and complications. There are several possible causes of hypoglycaemia, including insulinoma, liver failure, Addison’s disease, and alcohol consumption. The physiological response to hypoglycaemia involves hormonal and sympathoadrenal responses, which can result in autonomic and neuroglycopenic symptoms. While blood glucose levels and symptom severity are not always correlated, common symptoms of hypoglycaemia include sweating, shaking, hunger, anxiety, nausea, weakness, vision changes, confusion, and dizziness. In severe cases, hypoglycaemia can lead to convulsions or coma.

      Managing hypoglycaemia depends on the severity of the symptoms and the setting in which it occurs. In the community, individuals with diabetes who inject insulin may be advised to consume oral glucose or a quick-acting carbohydrate such as GlucoGel or Dextrogel. A ‘HypoKit’ containing glucagon may also be prescribed for home use. In a hospital setting, treatment may involve administering a quick-acting carbohydrate or subcutaneous/intramuscular injection of glucagon for unconscious or unable to swallow patients. Alternatively, intravenous glucose solution may be given through a large vein.

      Overall, understanding the causes, features, and management of hypoglycaemia is crucial for individuals with diabetes or other conditions that increase the risk of low blood sugar levels. Prompt and appropriate treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      34.7
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  • Question 4 - A 53-year-old female visits her GP after experiencing a brief episode of right-sided...

    Correct

    • A 53-year-old female visits her GP after experiencing a brief episode of right-sided weakness lasting 10-15 minutes. During examination, the GP discovers that the patient has atrial fibrillation. If the patient continues to have chronic atrial fibrillation, what is the most appropriate type of anticoagulation to use?

      Your Answer: Direct oral anticoagulant

      Explanation:

      When it comes to reducing the risk of stroke in patients with AF, DOACs should be the first option. In the case of this patient, her CHA2DS2-VASc score is 3, with 2 points for the transient ischaemic attack and 1 point for being female. Therefore, it is recommended that she be given anticoagulation treatment with DOACs, which are now preferred over warfarin.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.

      When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.

      For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which one of the following statements regarding retirement contracts is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding retirement contracts is true?

      Your Answer: PMS practices receive a Minimum Practice Income Guarantee (MPIG)

      Correct Answer: PMS practices may take part in the QOF scheme

      Explanation:

      Comparison of GP Contracts

      The General Medical Services (GMS), Personal Medical Services (PMS), and Alternative Provider Medical Services (APMS) contracts differ in several ways. The GMS contract is nationally negotiated and allows GPs or qualifying health professionals to provide essential services, with optional additional services and enhanced services. The PMS contract is locally negotiated with mandatory terms and includes core and additional services similar to GMS. The APMS contract has no restriction on providers and the scope of services depends on the individual contract.

      The payment structure also varies between the contracts. GMS has a global sum with a Minimum Practice Income Guarantee (MPIG), Quality and Outcomes Framework (QOF), enhanced services, premises, and IT. PMS has a baseline set nationally and QOF, while APMS is locally negotiated.

      The type of contract also differs. GMS is open-ended and cannot be terminated unless fault is proven. PMS is usually for five years, and the contract may be terminated. APMS is usually for three years, and the contract may also be terminated.

      It is worth noting that the majority of practices are under the GMS contract, while GPs in PMS tend to have higher incomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
      27.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 42-year-old woman who is typically healthy visits her GP complaining of hearing...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman who is typically healthy visits her GP complaining of hearing difficulties over the last 2 months. She has been an avid swimmer for the past 20 years. During the examination, Rinne's test is positive on her left ear but negative on her right ear. Weber's test shows sound localizing to the right side.

      What is the type of hearing loss that this patient is experiencing?

      Your Answer: Right-sided conductive hearing loss

      Correct Answer: Left-sided conductive hearing loss

      Explanation:

      If Rinne’s test is negative, it indicates that bone conduction is greater than air conduction, resulting in a conductive hearing loss in the affected ear. A positive test is considered normal when air conduction is greater than bone conduction. Therefore, the diagnosis of left-sided conductive hearing loss is correct, and Weber’s test would localize to the affected side in unilateral conductive hearing loss.

      Left-sided mixed hearing loss is an incorrect diagnosis because Weber’s test would localize to the right, and on an audiogram, mixed hearing loss would show both bone and air conduction at abnormal levels (>20 dB) with a difference of at least >15 dB between them.

      Left-sided sensorineural hearing loss is also an incorrect diagnosis because Weber’s test would localize to the right, and Rinne’s test would be positive in the left ear.

      Right-sided conductive hearing loss is an incorrect diagnosis because a positive Rinne’s test indicates that air conduction is greater than bone conduction, which is considered normal.

      Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness

      Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test indicates that BC is better than AC, suggesting conductive deafness.

      Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking the patient which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.

      The table below summarizes the interpretation of Rinne and Weber tests. A normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally and the sound is midline. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear and AC being greater than BC in the unaffected ear, with the sound lateralizing to the affected ear. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, with the sound lateralizing to the unaffected ear.

      Overall, Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are useful tools for differentiating between conductive and sensorineural deafness, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old man has abnormal liver function tests. He tests positive for anti-HCV...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has abnormal liver function tests. He tests positive for anti-HCV and HCV RNA.
      Select from the list the single correct statement about hepatitis C.

      Your Answer: Sexual contact is the commonest mode of transmission

      Correct Answer: Co-infection with HIV results in more rapid progression of liver disease

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis C: A Silent Threat to Liver Health

      Hepatitis C is a viral infection that often goes unnoticed in its acute phase, with only a minority of patients presenting with symptoms such as jaundice or abnormal liver enzymes. Unfortunately, the majority of patients do not clear the infection and go on to develop chronic disease, which can remain undetected for decades. The primary mode of transmission is through intravenous drug use and sharing needles, although sexual transmission is possible, especially in those co-infected with HIV. Needle-stick injuries and exposure to infected blood also pose a risk of transmission. Unfortunately, there is no post-exposure vaccine or effective preventative treatment. Factors that increase the risk of rapid progression of liver disease include male sex, age over 40, alcohol consumption, and co-infection with HIV or hepatitis B. With the increased survival of HIV patients, end-stage liver disease due to HCV infection has become a significant problem.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      28.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You are conducting an annual medication review for a 70-year-old female patient with...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting an annual medication review for a 70-year-old female patient with a medical history of hypertension and a myocardial infarction 6 years ago. During her blood test taken a week ago, her estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) was found to be 45 mL/min/1.73 m2, indicating reduced kidney function and a possible diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD). The patient is curious about what other tests are needed to confirm CKD, aside from repeating her kidney function test in 3 months. What other tests should be recommended?

      Your Answer: She should bring in an early morning urine sample for albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) calculation

      Correct Answer: She should bring in an early morning urine sample to be dipped for haematuria and sent for urine ACR calculation

      Explanation:

      To diagnose CKD in a patient with an eGFR <60, it is necessary to measure the creatinine level in the blood, obtain an early morning urine sample for ACR testing, and dip the urine for haematuria. CKD is confirmed when these tests show a persistent reduction in kidney function or the presence of proteinuria (ACR) for at least three months. Proteinuria is a significant risk factor for cardiovascular disease and mortality, and an early morning urine sample is preferred for ACR analysis. The patient should provide another blood sample after 90 days to confirm the diagnosis of CKD. Chronic kidney disease is often without symptoms and is typically identified through abnormal urea and electrolyte levels. However, some individuals with advanced, undetected disease may experience symptoms. These symptoms may include swelling in the ankles, weight gain, increased urination, fatigue, itching due to uraemia, loss of appetite leading to weight loss, difficulty sleeping, nausea and vomiting, and high blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      43.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You see a six-year-old girl one evening during your out of hours shift....

    Incorrect

    • You see a six-year-old girl one evening during your out of hours shift. She has become very sick quite suddenly, with a high fever, sore throat, and difficulty breathing.

      When you examine her, she is sitting upright with her mouth open, and you observe that saliva is drooling down her chin. She has a soft stridor audible at rest.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute epiglottitis

      Correct Answer: Acute tonsillitis

      Explanation:

      Causes of Acute Stridor

      A sudden onset of stridor without any warning signs such as cough and runny nose may indicate epiglottitis. Symptoms to look out for include respiratory distress, cyanosis, agitation, and drooling. However, there are other causes of acute stridor such as croup, bacterial tracheitis, subglottic stenosis, foreign body inhalation, and retropharyngeal abscess. Smoke inhalation, diphtheria, and angioneurotic edema can also lead to stridor. In all cases, it is important to administer oxygen to maintain adequate saturation. Severe cases may require ventilation. Enlarged adenoids and tonsils can also cause snoring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      43.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You have recommended a 60-year-old patient to purchase over-the-counter vitamin D at a...

    Incorrect

    • You have recommended a 60-year-old patient to purchase over-the-counter vitamin D at a dose of 10 micrograms. Later that day, the patient contacts you to inquire about the required dose in International Units since all medication labels at their local pharmacy are in this form.

      To convert Vitamin D dose from International Units to micrograms, divide the number of units by 40.

      What is the equivalent number of International Units for 10 mcg of Vitamin D?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.25

      Explanation:

      Common Mistakes in AKT Exams

      A common mistake made by candidates in RCGP AKT exams is making silly errors when performing simple calculations. This often results in incorrect answers. However, at onExamination, we have noticed that candidates also tend to misread questions, leading to incorrect answers.

      For instance, in a dose conversion question, candidates were asked to convert mcg to IU, but some failed to notice this and divided the 10 mcg dose by 40, resulting in an incorrect answer of 0.25. The correct method would have been to multiply the 10 mcg dose by 40 to convert to IU, giving the correct answer of 400.

      To avoid such errors, the RCGP advises candidates to do a reality check after their calculation. For example, if you are familiar with the CKS NICE recommended adult intake of Vitamin D (which is 400 IU), you should be able to recognize that 0.25 is not the correct answer and double-check your calculation. By paying attention to details and doing a reality check, candidates can avoid making common mistakes in AKT exams.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      0
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  • Question 11 - An 80-year-old man who lives alone is evaluated. He has a history of...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man who lives alone is evaluated. He has a history of dementia. His neighbors are becoming worried about his behavior as they frequently observe him wandering outside in a seemingly disoriented state. You believe he may require a care package or residential care, but he adamantly refuses to consider such an option. Which legal framework is the most suitable for addressing this matter?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mental Capacity Act

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate legal framework to use for non-mental health disorders is the Mental Capacity Act. This act, which was established in 2005 and implemented in 2007, applies to individuals over the age of 16 and outlines who can make decisions on behalf of a patient who becomes incapacitated, such as after a stroke. Mental capacity encompasses the ability to make decisions regarding daily life, healthcare, and financial matters.

      The Mental Capacity Act is based on five key principles. Firstly, a person is assumed to have capacity unless it is proven otherwise. Secondly, a person should not be considered unable to make a decision unless all possible steps have been taken to assist them in doing so. Thirdly, a person should not be deemed incapable of making a decision simply because they make an unwise choice. Fourthly, any action or decision made on behalf of a person who lacks capacity must be in their best interests. Finally, before any action or decision is taken, consideration must be given to whether there is a less restrictive way to achieve the desired outcome that respects the person’s rights and freedom.

      When patients lack capacity, they are typically treated without issue. However, problems arise when these patients refuse treatment that is deemed to be in their best interest. In such cases, there are three frameworks that can be used: common law for emergency scenarios, the Mental Capacity Act for physical disorders affecting brain function, and the Mental Health Act for mental disorders. For patients already admitted to hospital, a section 5(2) may be used if there is not enough time for a more formal section 2 or 3. An example of this would be a patient with a mental health disorder attempting to discharge themselves, which could result in harm. For a more detailed review, the BMJ article When and how to treat patients who refuse treatment provides an excellent resource.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      0
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  • Question 12 - A woman who is in her 4th decade of life comes to discuss...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who is in her 4th decade of life comes to discuss future contraception with you. This will be her 4th child and she has come to discuss sterilisation as she thinks this would be a good option for her after she has given birth. She is certain she doesn't want any further children and her family will be completed.

      Which of the following is correct advice to give?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tubal occlusion is the only truly effective method of female sterilisation after childbirth

      Explanation:

      Female Sterilisation as a Permanent Contraception Method

      Female sterilisation is a safe and effective method of permanent contraception that can be performed immediately after childbirth or as a delayed interval procedure. The two common techniques for sterilisation are partial salpingectomy and tubal occlusion. However, before opting for female sterilisation, women should be informed about all methods of contraception, including vasectomy. The discussion should be open, transparent, and non-pressurised. It is important to note that some long-acting reversible contraceptive methods are as, or more, effective than female sterilisation and may provide non-contraceptive benefits such as improving menorrhagia with levonorgestrel intrauterine device use. Therefore, women should be fully informed about all their options before making a decision about permanent contraception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      0
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  • Question 13 - A study compares the effectiveness of two treatments for hypertension. The first treatment...

    Incorrect

    • A study compares the effectiveness of two treatments for hypertension. The first treatment has a success rate of 75% whilst the second treatment has a success rate of 82%. What type of significance test should be used for comparing the two results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chi-squared test

      Explanation:

      The chi-squared test is appropriate for comparing percentages.

      Types of Significance Tests

      Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.

      Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.

      It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      0
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  • Question 14 - Which one of the following products is 'blacklisted' under Part XVIIIA of the...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following products is 'blacklisted' under Part XVIIIA of the Drug Tariff and hence cannot be dispensed on the NHS?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical minoxidil

      Explanation:

      The Blacklist and Selected List in the Drug Tariff

      The Drug Tariff has two important lists that determine what products can be prescribed on an NHS prescription. Part XVIIIA of the Drug Tariff, also known as ‘the blacklist’, contains a list of food, drug, toiletry, and cosmetic products that cannot be prescribed on the NHS. However, medical devices can be prescribed if they are listed in Part IX of the Drug Tariff.

      If a proprietary product is listed in ‘the blacklist’, it cannot be dispensed on the NHS, unless the prescription is issued using a generic name that is not included in the blacklist. For instance, Propecia and Regaine, which are used for male-pattern alopecia, are blacklisted products. However, Calpol, which contains paracetamol suspension, can be prescribed despite being a blacklisted product.

      On the other hand, Part XVIIIB of the Drug Tariff, also known as the Selected List, contains items that can only be prescribed for specific patient groups and purposes listed in the Drug Tariff. Prescribers must endorse prescriptions for these products with ‘SLS’. It is important to note that sildenafil was removed from the Selected List in 2014 and can now be prescribed freely.

      In summary, prescribers must be aware of the products listed in the Drug Tariff’s blacklist and Selected List to ensure that they prescribe the appropriate products for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old man presents to your urgent clinic with a red left eye....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to your urgent clinic with a red left eye. He reports that he woke up this morning and noticed the redness, which was not present when he went to bed last night. He denies any pain, discharge, or itching in the eye. His visual acuity is 6/6 in both eyes and he doesn't wear contact lenses. He has no significant medical history and takes no regular medications.

      Upon examination, his blood pressure is 128/80 mmHg. There is a uniform area of redness in the medial inferior quadrant of the left eye. The cornea appears normal and the pupil reacts appropriately to light.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subconjunctival haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      A painless red eye that occurs suddenly is often caused by subconjunctival haemorrhage. This condition doesn’t affect the cornea and typically resolves on its own within two weeks. However, it is important to check the patient’s blood pressure as subconjunctival haemorrhage can rarely be linked to hypertension. On the other hand, a painful red eye may be caused by conditions such as herpes zoster ophthalmicus, scleritis, or uveitis. Conjunctivitis, which is characterized by a gritty sensation and ocular discharge, usually affects both eyes.

      Subconjunctival haemorrhages occur when blood vessels in the subconjunctival space bleed. These vessels typically supply the conjunctiva or episclera. Trauma is the most common cause, followed by spontaneous idiopathic cases, Valsalva manoeuvres, and several systemic diseases. While subconjunctival haemorrhages can look alarming, they are rarely an indicator of anything serious. They are more common in women than men, and the risk increases with age. Newborns are also more susceptible. The incidence of both traumatic and non-traumatic subconjunctival haemorrhages is 2.6%.

      Risk factors for subconjunctival haemorrhages include trauma, contact lens usage, idiopathic causes, Valsalva manoeuvres, hypertension, bleeding disorders, certain drugs, diabetes, arterial disease, and hyperlipidaemia. Symptoms include a red eye, usually unilateral, and mild irritation. Signs include a flat, red patch on the conjunctiva with well-defined edges and normal conjunctiva surrounding it. The patch’s size can vary depending on the size of the bleed and can involve the whole conjunctiva. Traumatic haemorrhages are most common in the temporal region, with the inferior conjunctiva as the next most commonly affected area. Vision should be normal, including acuity, visual fields, and range of eye movements. On examination, the fundus should be normal.

      The diagnosis of a subconjunctival haemorrhage is clinical. If there is no obvious traumatic cause, check the patient’s blood pressure. If raised, refer the patient appropriately. If the patient is taking warfarin, check the INR. If raised, refer for appropriate adjustments to the dose to bring the INR back into the target range. If you cannot see the whole border of the haemorrhage, it may be associated with an intracranial bleed or an orbital roof fracture. Further appropriate investigations should then be done, including a full cranial nerve exam looking for neurological signs as well as a CT head, after discussion with a senior. Recurrent or spontaneous, bilateral subconjunctival haemorrhages warrant investigations for bleeding disorders or other pathology.

      Reassure the patient that subconjunctival haemorrhages are a benign condition that will resolve on their own in 2 to 3 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 16 - A 49-year-old woman presents with recurrent episodes of vertigo. She reports experiencing true...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman presents with recurrent episodes of vertigo. She reports experiencing true vertigo for about 10-20 seconds at a time, which has been happening on and off for the past few days. She became frightened while driving yesterday when she turned her head and became very dizzy, causing her to stop the car. She has since stopped driving altogether, but the vertigo continues to occur throughout the day in other situations, particularly when she turns her head. She denies any hearing loss or tinnitus. On examination, her cranial nerves are normal and there are no cerebellar signs. Dix-Hallpike testing is positive when she is manoeuvred to the right side, producing rotatory vertigo and nystagmus. What is the most appropriate management strategy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perform the Epley manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      Management of Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo

      This patient is exhibiting classic signs and symptoms of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV). The Epley manoeuvre is a highly effective treatment option that can be taught to the patient to reduce or eliminate their symptoms. Vestibular sedatives are not recommended for the management of BPPV.

      If the patient were experiencing unilateral deafness or tinnitus, an MRI would be necessary. However, at this stage, there is no indication for audiological or outpatient ENT assessment. It is important to note that early intervention and proper management can greatly improve the patient’s quality of life and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      0
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  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old female presents with dysuria and vaginal discharge which has deteriorated over...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female presents with dysuria and vaginal discharge which has deteriorated over the past week. She is in a steady relationship and uses the oral contraceptive pill. Her partner is asymptomatic.

      She has a temperature of 37.5°C. Vaginal examination reveals tenderness with an inflamed cervix and a purulent discharge, culture of which reveals Gram negative diplococci.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gonorrhoea

      Explanation:

      Gonorrhea: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications

      Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococci Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can affect both males and females, and they may be asymptomatic or have very few symptoms that can go unnoticed. However, some patients may experience cervicitis, a purulent discharge, and fever.

      Due to problems with resistance, current treatment guidelines recommend a combination of IM ceftriaxone and azithromycin. Oral Cefixime may be offered if the injection is refused. It is important to treat gonorrhea promptly to prevent complications such as sepsis, arthritis, pharyngitis, and ophthalmia.

      In conclusion, gonorrhea is a common sexually transmitted infection that can have serious consequences if left untreated. It is important to practice safe sex and get tested regularly to prevent the spread of the infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 18 - A 29-year-old woman comes to your clinic for a routine check-up regarding her...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman comes to your clinic for a routine check-up regarding her migraines. She reports experiencing these headaches twice a week for the past few months and has been managing them with sumatriptan. During her last visit, your colleague suggested trying a prophylactic medication if her symptoms do not improve. The patient mentions that she and her partner are considering starting a family soon but are not currently using any long-term contraception.

      Which of the following treatments should be avoided?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topiramate

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women are advised to avoid all pharmacological migraine prophylactics, but topiramate is particularly linked to foetal malformations. Women who take topiramate and are of reproductive age should use a reliable long-term contraception method. Although topiramate is also used to treat epilepsy, its use during pregnancy should be carefully monitored by a neurologist and an obstetrician. Propranolol and amitriptyline are licensed as migraine prophylactics, but their use during pregnancy should only be considered under the guidance of a neurologist. Acupuncture is recommended in the NICE guidelines for migraine as an alternative for women who cannot use pharmacological prophylaxis, but it is not generally available on the NHS.

      Topiramate: Mechanisms of Action and Contraceptive Considerations

      Topiramate is a medication primarily used to treat seizures. It can be used alone or in combination with other drugs. The drug has multiple mechanisms of action, including blocking voltage-gated Na+ channels, increasing GABA action, and inhibiting carbonic anhydrase. The latter effect results in a decrease in urinary citrate excretion and the formation of alkaline urine, which favors the creation of calcium phosphate stones.

      Topiramate is known to induce the P450 enzyme CYP3A4, which can reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. Therefore, the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Health (FSRH) recommends that patients taking topiramate consider alternative forms of contraception. For example, the combined oral contraceptive pill and progestogen-only pill are not recommended, while the implant is generally considered safe.

      Topiramate can cause several side effects, including reduced appetite and weight loss, dizziness, paraesthesia, lethargy, and poor concentration. However, the most significant risk associated with topiramate is the potential for fetal malformations. Additionally, rare but important side effects include acute myopia and secondary angle-closure glaucoma. Overall, topiramate is a useful medication for treating seizures, but patients should be aware of its potential side effects and contraceptive considerations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 19 - A 24-year-old woman is brought to the practice by her mother who is...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman is brought to the practice by her mother who is extremely concerned.

      For the past three months, she has been low in mood and over the last three weeks is increasingly withdrawn. She has stopped going to work and her evening fitness classes, has lost weight and has eaten nothing for two days. She is not sleeping and is unable to concentrate for any length of time. She had expressed feelings of guilt and hopelessness to her mother but is now barely speaking at all.

      She is usually bright and cheerful. Her father has a history of severe depression. Her engagement was broken off about four months ago. She doesn't have any children.

      How should this situation be managed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to a counsellor for CBT

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Severe Depression

      This patient is experiencing severe depression, with probable psychomotor retardation and an inability to function normally. There is also a family history of severe depression, putting her at risk of harm through self-neglect. Primary care is not equipped to manage this situation adequately, and urgent assessment and probable inpatient treatment are necessary.

      In cases where there is a risk to life, severe self-neglect, severe symptoms, or severe impairment, urgent referral is required. Taking the patient to the Emergency department may cause unnecessary delays, and the best course of action is to refer directly to psychiatry. By doing so, the patient can receive the specialist input needed for treatment and further management. It is crucial to act quickly in situations like this to ensure the patient’s safety and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old woman, who has a history of atrial fibrillation and is receiving...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman, who has a history of atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin and digoxin, tells you that she has been feeling low lately and has been self medicating with St John's wort which she bought from a health store.

      Which of the following interactions can be anticipated between St John's Wort and her current medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: INR is likely to be reduced

      Explanation:

      St John’s Wort and Medication Interactions

      St John’s wort is a popular natural remedy for depressive symptoms. However, it is important to note that it is a liver enzyme inducer, which can lead to interactions with other medications. For example, St John’s wort may reduce the efficacy of warfarin, a blood thinner, requiring an increased dose to maintain the desired level of anticoagulation. It may also reduce the efficacy of digoxin, a medication used to treat heart failure. Therefore, it is important to discuss the use of St John’s wort with a healthcare provider before taking it in combination with other medications. By doing so, potential interactions can be identified and managed appropriately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 21 - A 27-year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, back pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, back pain, anxiety and depression presents to your clinic as an emergency appointment. She has been booking emergency appointments with the clinic almost every week with mild and vague generalised symptoms. A few weeks ago, you diagnosed her with self-limiting gastroenteritis.

      Today, she complains of weakness in both her legs that has been worsening and moving up her legs from her feet over the last few days. She also reports some shooting pains and increased back pain. However, she denies any new incontinence or saddle anaesthesia.

      Upon examination, her observations are normal, and she has good power in her upper limbs. However, there appears to be some numbness in both hands. She also has reduced sensation and power in both lower legs symmetrically up to just below her knees. Additionally, she has absent plantar reflexes and reduced ankle reflexes.

      What is your plan for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit her to hospital for further investigations and treatment

      Explanation:

      The patient’s worsening lower limb weakness following gastroenteritis is concerning for Guillain-Barre syndrome, as indicated by abnormal neurological findings, timing of illness, and age. Immediate admission to hospital for further investigation and treatment is necessary.

      Guillain-Barre Syndrome: A Breakdown of its Features

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that occurs when the immune system attacks the peripheral nervous system, resulting in demyelination. This is often triggered by an infection, with Campylobacter jejuni being a common culprit. In the initial stages of the illness, around 65% of patients experience back or leg pain. However, the characteristic feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is progressive, symmetrical weakness of all limbs, with the legs being affected first in an ascending pattern. Reflexes are reduced or absent, and sensory symptoms tend to be mild. Other features may include a history of gastroenteritis, respiratory muscle weakness, cranial nerve involvement, diplopia, bilateral facial nerve palsy, oropharyngeal weakness, and autonomic involvement, which can lead to urinary retention and diarrhea. Less common findings may include papilloedema, which is thought to be secondary to reduced CSF resorption. To diagnose Guillain-Barre syndrome, a lumbar puncture may be performed, which can reveal a rise in protein with a normal white blood cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation) in 66% of cases. Nerve conduction studies may also be conducted, which can show decreased motor nerve conduction velocity due to demyelination, prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F wave latency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 22 - A 20-year-old patient comes in requesting to start taking a combined oral contraceptive...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old patient comes in requesting to start taking a combined oral contraceptive pill. During the consultation, she mentions having experienced migraine with aura in the past. She asks why the combined oral contraceptive pill is not recommended for her. How should you respond?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Significantly increased risk of ischaemic stroke

      Explanation:

      Managing Migraine in Relation to Hormonal Factors

      Migraine is a common neurological condition that affects many people, particularly women. Hormonal factors such as pregnancy, contraception, and menstruation can have an impact on the management of migraine. In 2008, the Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN) produced guidelines on the management of migraine, which provide useful information on how to manage migraine in relation to these hormonal factors.

      When it comes to migraine during pregnancy, paracetamol is the first-line treatment, while NSAIDs can be used as a second-line treatment in the first and second trimester. However, aspirin and opioids such as codeine should be avoided during pregnancy. If a patient has migraine with aura, the combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill is absolutely contraindicated due to an increased risk of stroke. Women who experience migraines around the time of menstruation can be treated with mefenamic acid or a combination of aspirin, paracetamol, and caffeine. Triptans are also recommended in the acute situation. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is safe to prescribe for patients with a history of migraine, but it may make migraines worse.

      In summary, managing migraine in relation to hormonal factors requires careful consideration and appropriate treatment. The SIGN guidelines provide valuable information on how to manage migraine in these situations, and healthcare professionals should be aware of these guidelines to ensure that patients receive the best possible care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 23 - A 47-year-old man seeks your guidance on quitting smoking and mentions his interest...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man seeks your guidance on quitting smoking and mentions his interest in using electronic cigarettes as a cessation aid. You recall reading a study that compared electronic cigarettes to nicotine replacement therapy for smoking cessation. The study involved primary care patients who were randomly assigned to either the intervention or control group.

      What type of bias could potentially threaten the validity of this study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Selection bias

      Explanation:

      Selection bias is a term used to describe the non-random assignment of patients to a study group, which can result in systematic differences in the baseline characteristics of the groups being compared. Randomisation is an effective way to prevent selection bias, but if it is not done properly, selection bias can occur. For example, if patients attending a primary care practice were allocated to an intervention or control group based on factors such as their smoking habits, this could lead to systematic differences in baseline characteristics. Attrition bias and performance bias are not the same as selection bias, as they refer to different types of systematic differences between groups in a study.

      Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials

      Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnoses the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 24 - A 70-year-old man presents with faecal incontinence and diarrhoea, which he finds embarrassing....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with faecal incontinence and diarrhoea, which he finds embarrassing. He has a history of irregular bowel movements but has never experienced this before. He was recently prescribed codeine for knee osteoarthritis. What is the most probable cause of his faecal incontinence?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Constipation with overflow

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Faecal Incontinence

      Faecal incontinence, or the inability to control bowel movements, can have various underlying causes. One of the strongest predictors of faecal incontinence is chronic diarrhoea, which can be caused by conditions such as irritable bowel syndrome, inflammatory bowel disease, lactose intolerance, and others. Another possible cause is constipation with overflow, where the patient is prone to constipation and may experience incontinence due to the addition of certain medications like codeine.

      Laxative abuse, although it can lead to diarrhoea, is not necessarily a direct cause of faecal incontinence. Cerebrovascular disease may also contribute to incontinence, but there is no indication of this in the given scenario. Haemorrhoids, which can result from chronic constipation, typically cause rectal bleeding and pain but are not commonly associated with faecal incontinence. Prostatic disease may contribute to constipation but is less likely to cause faecal incontinence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 25 - A 50-year old female presents with diffuse pain throughout her body. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year old female presents with diffuse pain throughout her body. She has a history of irritable bowel symptoms, tension headaches, and anxiety. The patient reports feeling stiff in the mornings with sore muscles, particularly around the neck, shoulders, and hips. She also experiences poor concentration, disturbed sleep, and constant exhaustion. There are no bowel or menstrual symptoms. On examination, her weight is stable, pulse rate is 78 regular, blood pressure is 112/72 mmHg, and she is afebrile. Palpation reveals tenderness around the muscles of the neck and shoulders, the outer aspect of the gluteal muscles, and around the greater trochanters. There are also areas of focal discomfort on palpation of the muscles around the elbows and knees. The patient walks with a normal gait, and her joints are clinically normal. Recent blood tests show a normal FBC, normal ESR, and normal CK levels. What treatments are most likely to alleviate her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ibuprofen 400 mg TDS

      Explanation:

      Understanding Fibromyalgia

      Fibromyalgia is a condition that causes chronic diffuse pain in the muscles, with a higher prevalence in women aged 40-50 years. It is often associated with anxiety and depression, as well as symptoms such as fatigue, paraesthesia, urinary frequency, and headaches. To diagnose fibromyalgia, a patient must have chronic widespread pain and tender points on digital palpation of specific sites around the body. Other conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, hypothyroidism, osteomalacia, and polymyositis must be ruled out through examination and investigation.

      Treatment options for fibromyalgia include pharmacological options such as amitriptyline and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor antidepressants, as well as trigger point injections, acupuncture, graded exercise regimens, and psychological therapies. Anti-inflammatories are not typically effective in treating fibromyalgia and can even worsen symptoms in some cases. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for fibromyalgia can help patients manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old woman has taken Ellaone (ulipristal) as emergency contraception within 96 hours...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman has taken Ellaone (ulipristal) as emergency contraception within 96 hours of unprotected sex. After consulting with you, her GP, she has decided to begin taking the combined contraceptive pill. What guidance do you provide her regarding commencing the combined contraceptive pill following the use of Ellaone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start the pill after 5 days and use barrier contraception for a further 7 days

      Explanation:

      When using Ellaone, it is recommended to wait for 5 days before starting the combined contraceptive pill and to use barrier contraception for 7 days. This is because taking progestogen within 5 days of using Ulipristal may reduce its effectiveness as an emergency contraceptive. Waiting for this period and avoiding further unprotected sexual intercourse ensures that Ellaone is as effective as possible in preventing pregnancy. When starting the combined contraceptive pill, patch, or ring, or the progesterone-only implant or injection, barrier contraception should be used for 7 days. For Qlaira contraceptive pill, barrier contraceptives should be used for 9 days, and for the progesterone-only pill, for 2 days after starting the method.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 27 - A 56-year-old lady presents to your clinic seeking advice on managing her menopausal...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old lady presents to your clinic seeking advice on managing her menopausal symptoms. She reports her last period occurred 12 months ago and is experiencing bothersome hot flashes and vaginal dryness. She has no significant medical or surgical history and is interested in trying hormone replacement therapy (HRT) after a thorough discussion of the risks and benefits.
      After counseling, there are no contraindications to hormonal treatment, and she is eager to start a suitable regimen.
      What is the most appropriate HRT prescription for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continuous combined HRT

      Explanation:

      Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) Options for Women

      Women who have had a hysterectomy can use unopposed oestrogens, but those with a uterus must use regimens with both oestrogen and progestogen to avoid the risk of endometrial hyperplasia and potential malignant transformation. Postmenopausal women can use combined continuous regimens, while those still having periods can use cyclical HRT. Urogenital symptoms can be treated with topical oestrogens or non-hormonal vaginal moisturisers. Low dose combined pills may be an option for under 50s, but careful patient selection is necessary due to contraindications and cautions. It is important to discuss the risks and benefits of each option with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 28 - A 72-year-old woman comes in asking for 'her sleeping pills'. Upon reviewing her...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman comes in asking for 'her sleeping pills'. Upon reviewing her records, you find out that she has been taking 40 mg of Temazepam for 20 years. After some questioning, she expresses a desire to discontinue use. How should this situation be handled?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Convert to an equivalent dose of diazepam and then reduce slowly

      Explanation:

      The Risks of Hypnotic Dependence

      Hypnotic dependence remains a significant concern, as benzodiazepines and Z-class drugs have the potential to cause dependence without proven efficacy in treating chronic insomnia. Withdrawal from these drugs can lead to rebound insomnia and even seizures with high doses of benzodiazepines. Additionally, hypnotics have a street value and can be diverted for non-medical use. To mitigate these risks, it is recommended that prescriptions for hypnotics be limited to one week. If a doctor wishes to withdraw a patient from a hypnotic, they should first convert the dosage to an equivalent dose of diazepam, which has a longer half-life, allowing for a slower withdrawal process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for a routine review. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for a routine review. He denies alcohol excess and has a body mass index of 36 kg/m2. He is also noted to be a diet-controlled type II diabetic and smokes 10 cigarettes per day.
      Investigations Results Normal value
      Cholesterol 7.7 mmol/l <5 mmol/l
      Fasting triglyceride 2.5 mmol/l <1.7 mmol/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 150 IU/l <40 IU/l
      Which of the following is the single most likely explanation regarding the significance of his raised liver enzyme?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Probably has non alcoholic steatohepatitis, which can include fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Liver Function Test Results in a Patient with Metabolic Risk Factors

      Liver function tests are an important tool for assessing liver health. In a patient with metabolic risk factors such as obesity, dyslipidaemia, and abnormal glucose tolerance, elevated liver transaminases may indicate non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH), a condition that can lead to fibrosis and eventually cirrhosis if left untreated. Weight loss and control of comorbidities are the mainstay of management for NASH. While autoimmune hepatitis is a rarer possibility, it may be considered if the patient has a history of other autoimmune disorders and a normal body mass index and lipid profile. Regardless of the specific diagnosis, abnormal liver function test results in a patient with metabolic risk factors require further investigation and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 30 - A 50-year-old man presents having recently noticed a lump in his right groin...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents having recently noticed a lump in his right groin which disappears when he is recumbent. It is accompanied by some discomfort. He has a chronic cough due to smoking and has had an appendicectomy previously. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inguinal hernia

      Explanation:

      Inguinal hernia is the most probable reason for a lump in the right groin of a patient in this age group. This type of hernia occurs when a part of the intestine protrudes through the external inguinal ring. It may go unnoticed for a while, cause discomfort or pain, and resolve when lying flat. Femoral hernias are more common in females, while an epigastric hernia or an incisional hernia following appendicectomy would be unlikely in this anatomical site.

      This patient’s persistent cough due to smoking puts him at a higher risk of developing hernias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 31 - In a study of 26,000 males, 1,500 subjects were found to have either...

    Incorrect

    • In a study of 26,000 males, 1,500 subjects were found to have either overt or subclinical hypothyroidism.

      The risk of demonstrating either overt or subclinical hypothyroidism was therefore 5.77%.

      What is the most appropriate term to describe the 1,500 cases of hypothyroidism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prevalence

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prevalence and Incidence

      Prevalence and incidence are two important concepts in epidemiology that help us understand the occurrence of a disorder in a population. Prevalence refers to the rate of a disorder in a specified population at a specified time. This means that it tells us how many people in a population have the disorder at a given point in time. On the other hand, incidence refers to the number of new cases of a disorder developing over a specific time. This means that it tells us how many new cases of the disorder have developed in a population over a certain period of time. Understanding these two concepts is crucial for healthcare professionals and researchers to identify the burden of a disorder in a population and to develop effective prevention and treatment strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 32 - Samantha is a 28-year-old woman who recently gave birth to a baby girl...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 28-year-old woman who recently gave birth to a baby girl and wants to discuss contraception options. She used to take the combined pill but prefers not to use any form of contraception if possible. She is not currently breastfeeding. What is the duration after childbirth when she no longer needs contraception?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Up to 21 days

      Explanation:

      Nancy can be advised that she doesn’t need contraception for up to 21 days after giving birth. According to the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare Guideline on Postnatal Sexual and Reproductive Health, contraceptive protection is not necessary before Day 21 postpartum. However, if Nancy wants to avoid pregnancy after Day 21, she should use a contraceptive method as ovulation may occur as early as Day 28 in non-breastfeeding women. Breastfeeding women who want to prevent pregnancy should also use a contraceptive method, although any method will be more effective due to reduced fertility. Fully breastfeeding women may rely on the lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) alone until breastfeeding decreases or other LAM criteria are no longer met.

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The Progestogen-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first 2 days after day 21. A small amount of progestogen enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the Combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than 6 weeks postpartum. If breastfeeding is between 6 weeks to 6 months postpartum, it is UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk postpartum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first 7 days.

      The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after 4 weeks. Meanwhile, the Lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than 6 months postpartum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 33 - A 21-year-old woman decides to opt for an implantable contraceptive. What distinguishes Nexplanon...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman decides to opt for an implantable contraceptive. What distinguishes Nexplanon from Implanon as its primary benefit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: New design makes the insertion of implants that are too deep less likely

      Explanation:

      Implanon and Nexplanon are both subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is an updated version of Implanon with a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It doesn’t contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a history of thromboembolism or migraines. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraception is required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1-5 of the menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a different method or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment. Contraindications include ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, meaning it represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 34 - A 49-year-old woman is seen in the clinic after a recent visit to...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman is seen in the clinic after a recent visit to the psychiatrist who recommended an increase in her lithium dose for better symptom control. Her renal function is stable and you prescribe the recommended higher dose of lithium. When should her levels be rechecked?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In 1 week

      Explanation:

      Lithium levels should be monitored weekly after a change in dose until they become stable. This means that after an increase in lithium dose, the levels should be checked again after one week, and then weekly until they stabilize. The ideal time to check lithium levels is 12 hours after the dose is taken. Waiting for a month after a dose adjustment is too long, while checking after three days is too soon. Once the levels become stable, they can be checked every three months for the first year. After a year, low-risk patients can have their lithium testing reduced to every six months, according to the BNF. However, NICE guidance recommends that three-monthly testing should continue indefinitely. Additionally, patients on lithium should have their thyroid function tests monitored every six months.

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate or cAMP formation.

      Common adverse effects of lithium include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, and nephrotoxicity. It may also cause thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, and hyperparathyroidism.

      Monitoring of patients on lithium therapy is crucial to prevent toxicity. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until concentrations are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every 3 months. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 35 - A 58-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of lethargy, weight gain, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of lethargy, weight gain, and cold intolerance. She had abnormal thyroid function tests 1 year ago. On examination, there are no significant findings. Repeat thyroid function tests are ordered.

      1 year ago: Result Reference Range
      Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 5.9mU/L (0.5-5.5)
      Free thyroxine (FT4) 14.2pmol/L (9.0 - 18)

      Now:
      TSH 6.1mU/L (0.5-5.5)
      FT4 17.1pmol/L (9.0 - 18)

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer a 6-month trial of levothyroxine

      Explanation:

      For patients under 65 years of age with symptoms consistent with hypothyroidism, a 6-month trial of thyroxine should be offered for subclinical hypothyroidism.

      Understanding Subclinical Hypothyroidism

      Subclinical hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is elevated, but the levels of T3 and T4 are normal, and there are no obvious symptoms. However, there is a risk of the condition progressing to overt hypothyroidism, especially in men and those with thyroid autoantibodies.

      The management of subclinical hypothyroidism depends on the TSH levels and the presence of symptoms. According to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, patients with a TSH level greater than 10mU/L and normal free thyroxine levels should be considered for levothyroxine treatment. For those with a TSH level between 5.5-10mU/L and normal free thyroxine levels, a 6-month trial of levothyroxine may be offered if the patient is under 65 years old and experiencing symptoms. However, for older patients, a ‘watch and wait’ strategy is often used, and asymptomatic patients should have their thyroid function monitored every 6 months.

      In summary, subclinical hypothyroidism is a condition that requires careful monitoring and management to prevent it from progressing to overt hypothyroidism. The decision to treat or not depends on the patient’s age, symptoms, and TSH levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 36 - A 64-year-old man visits his primary care physician for a blood pressure check-up....

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old man visits his primary care physician for a blood pressure check-up. He has a medical history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and ischemic heart disease.

      The patient is currently taking the following medications:
      - Ramipril 10 mg once daily
      - Amlodipine 10 mg once daily
      - Bendroflumethiazide 2.5mg once daily
      - Atorvastatin 80 mg once daily
      - Aspirin 75 mg once daily

      The most recent change to his blood pressure medication was the addition of bendroflumethiazide 6 months ago, which has reduced his average home systolic readings by approximately 15 mmHg. The average of home blood pressure monitoring over the past two weeks is now 160/82 mmHg.

      A blood test is conducted, and the results show:
      - K+ 4.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)

      After ruling out secondary causes of hypertension, what is the next course of action in managing his blood pressure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add atenolol 25 mg orally once daily

      Explanation:

      The patient has poorly controlled hypertension despite taking an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and a standard-dose thiazide diuretic. As their potassium levels are above 4.5mmol/l, it is recommended to add an alpha- or beta-blocker to their medication regimen. According to the 2019 NICE guidelines, this stage is considered treatment resistance hypertension, and the GP should also assess for adherence to medication and postural drop. If blood pressure remains high, referral to a specialist or adding a fourth drug may be necessary. Bendroflumethiazide should not be stopped as it has been effective in lowering blood pressure. Atenolol is a suitable beta-blocker to start with, and a reasonable starting dose is 25 mg, which can be adjusted based on the patient’s response. Spironolactone should only be considered if potassium levels are below 4.5mmol/l.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 37 - You see a 50-year-old gentleman with known bronchiectasis. Over the past 3 days,...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 50-year-old gentleman with known bronchiectasis. Over the past 3 days, his cough has become increasingly productive and the sputum has become more thick and green than usual. He is slightly more short of breath than usual.

      On examination, he is apyrexial, has a respiratory rate of 20, coarse crackles in both lung bases and doesn't appear cyanosed. He has no drug allergies.

      What would be the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sputum culture then amoxicillin 500mg TDS for 5-7 days

      Explanation:

      Treating Infective Exacerbation of Bronchiectasis

      When managing a suspected infective exacerbation of bronchiectasis, it is crucial to obtain a sputum culture before initiating antibiotics. However, treatment should not be delayed until the culture results are available. It is also recommended to administer a more extended course of antibiotics than what is typically prescribed for a lower respiratory tract infection.

      NICE provides specific guidance on the selection and duration of antibiotics based on the identified organism. Additionally, hospital admission should be considered if there are indications of a more severe illness, such as cyanosis, confusion, respiratory rate exceeding 25 breaths per minute, significant breathlessness, or a temperature of 38°C or higher.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 38 - A 62-year-old woman presents with a history of anorexia, weight loss, and abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman presents with a history of anorexia, weight loss, and abdominal discomfort for the past five weeks. On examination, she appears pale and cachectic with no significant abdominal findings. However, there is palpable adenopathy in the left supraclavicular fossa.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carcinoma of the stomach

      Explanation:

      Metastatic Lymph Nodes in the Neck: Causes and Symptoms

      Metastatic lymph nodes in the neck, particularly at the root of the neck, are often indicative of cancer in the abdomen, specifically gastric or pancreatic tumors. These types of cancers can remain asymptomatic while spreading to the lymph nodes, making early detection difficult. Virchow’s node is a term used to describe an enlarged left supraclavicular node, which can also be caused by lymphoma, breast cancer, or arm infection. On the other hand, an enlarged right supraclavicular lymph node is typically associated with thoracic malignancies such as lung and esophageal cancer, as well as Hodgkin’s lymphoma. It’s important to note that none of the other options are malignant disorders. If you notice any unusual swelling or lumps in your neck, it’s important to seek medical attention promptly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 39 - Liam is a 50-year-old man who visits his GP complaining of fatigue and...

    Incorrect

    • Liam is a 50-year-old man who visits his GP complaining of fatigue and low mood. Upon further inquiry, he reveals experiencing muscle stiffness, particularly in his shoulders, which can last up to an hour upon waking. During examination, Liam exhibits 5/5 power in all muscle groups, but movement is painful when he abducts and elevates his shoulders. There is no apparent joint swelling, and there are no other neurological issues. Despite the pain, Liam has a good range of motion. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes, for which he takes metformin.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica

      Explanation:

      The usual progression of rheumatoid arthritis involves experiencing pain first, followed by stiffness. However, in this particular case, the patient is experiencing both pain and stiffness simultaneously. The condition commonly causes swelling, stiffness, and pain in the small joints of the hands and feet.

      Understanding Polymyalgia Rheumatica

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a condition commonly seen in older individuals that is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arteritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it doesn’t appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects individuals over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, with symptoms appearing in less than a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats. Weakness is not considered a symptom of PMR.

      To diagnose PMR, doctors look for elevated inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are typically normal. Treatment for PMR involves the use of prednisolone, with a typical dose of 15mg/od. Patients usually respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for PMR can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 40 - You are evaluating a 67-year-old patient during his chronic kidney disease follow-up. He...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 67-year-old patient during his chronic kidney disease follow-up. He has been undergoing haemodialysis for the past 6 years. What is the leading cause of mortality for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ischaemic heart disease

      Explanation:

      Causes of Chronic Kidney Disease

      Chronic kidney disease is a condition that affects the kidneys and can lead to kidney failure if left untreated. There are several common causes of chronic kidney disease, including diabetic nephropathy, chronic glomerulonephritis, chronic pyelonephritis, hypertension, and adult polycystic kidney disease. Diabetic nephropathy is a complication of diabetes that affects the kidneys, while chronic glomerulonephritis is a condition that causes inflammation in the kidneys. Chronic pyelonephritis is a type of kidney infection that can lead to scarring and damage to the kidneys. Hypertension, or high blood pressure, can also cause damage to the kidneys over time. Finally, adult polycystic kidney disease is an inherited condition that causes cysts to form in the kidneys, leading to kidney damage and eventually kidney failure. It is important to identify the underlying cause of chronic kidney disease in order to properly manage and treat the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 41 - A 36-year-old female presents with galactorrhoea.

    She has a long history of schizophrenia and...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old female presents with galactorrhoea.

      She has a long history of schizophrenia and depression for which she takes a variety of medications including risperidone and fluoxetine. On further questioning she also describes amenorrhoea over the last four months.

      Examination reveals a small amount of galactorrhoea to expression from both breasts but no other specific abnormalities.

      Investigations reveal the following:

      Prolactin 1020 mU/L (50-550)

      17 beta-Oestradiol 110 pmol/L (130-550)

      LH 4.5 mU/L (3-10)

      FSH 5.2 mU/L (3-15)

      T4 14.1 pmol/L (10-22)

      TSH 0.65 mU/L (0.4-5)

      What is the most likely cause for her galactorrhoea?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Likely Cause of Galactorrhoea in a Woman

      Explanation: This woman is experiencing galactorrhoea, and her prolactin concentration is elevated while her oestradiol concentration is low. However, her LH and FSH levels are normal, ruling out pregnancy. The most likely cause of her hyperprolactinaemia is drug-induced, specifically due to the antipsychotic effects of risperidone. High doses of risperidone have been known to cause significant increases in prolactin levels. While clozapine and quetiapine can also cause slight elevations, switching to a different medication may be beneficial for this woman.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 42 - Which of the following characteristics is the least indicative of otosclerosis diagnosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following characteristics is the least indicative of otosclerosis diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Onset after the age of 50 years

      Explanation:

      Understanding Otosclerosis: A Progressive Conductive Deafness

      Otosclerosis is a medical condition that occurs when normal bone is replaced by vascular spongy bone. This condition leads to a progressive conductive deafness due to the fixation of the stapes at the oval window. It is an autosomal dominant condition that typically affects young adults, with onset usually occurring between the ages of 20-40 years.

      The main features of otosclerosis include conductive deafness, tinnitus, a normal tympanic membrane, and a positive family history. In some cases, patients may also experience a flamingo tinge, which is caused by hyperemia and affects around 10% of patients.

      Management of otosclerosis typically involves the use of a hearing aid or stapedectomy. A hearing aid can help to improve hearing, while a stapedectomy involves the surgical removal of the stapes bone and replacement with a prosthesis.

      Overall, understanding otosclerosis is important for individuals who may be at risk of developing this condition. Early diagnosis and management can help to improve hearing and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 43 - In a sample of 1000 individuals, the diastolic blood pressure (DBP) measurements follow...

    Incorrect

    • In a sample of 1000 individuals, the diastolic blood pressure (DBP) measurements follow a normal distribution with a mean of 74 mmHg and a standard deviation of 6 mmHg. How many subjects are expected to have a DBP between 68 mmHg and 80 mmHg?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 680

      Explanation:

      Understanding Normal Distribution and Diastolic Blood Pressure (DBP)

      Normal distribution is a statistical concept that helps us understand the distribution of data in a population. In the case of diastolic blood pressure (DBP), normal distribution can help us determine the range of DBP values that are most common in a population.

      68% of the data in a normally distributed curve falls within one standard deviation of the mean. For DBP, this means that 68% of patients will have a DBP that falls within 6 mmHg of the mean. This translates to approximately 680 out of 1000 patients.

      32% of the data falls outside one standard deviation of the mean. For DBP, this means that 32% of patients will have a DBP that falls either below 68 mmHg or above 82 mmHg.

      When we consider two standard deviations from the mean, 95% of the data falls within this range. For DBP, this means that approximately 950 out of 1000 patients will have a DBP that falls between 62 mmHg and 86 mmHg.

      Understanding normal distribution and its application to DBP can help healthcare professionals better interpret and analyze patient data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 44 - A middle-aged woman with mild depression presents for a follow-up appointment. She seeks...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged woman with mild depression presents for a follow-up appointment. She seeks guidance on whether taking an antidepressant would be helpful. According to the latest NICE recommendations, which of the following factors would support the use of an antidepressant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: If her depression complicates a chronic health problem e.g. Compliance with COPD medication

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Depression

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines for managing depression in 2022. The new guidelines classify depression severity as less severe and more severe based on a PHQ-9 score of <16 and ≥16, respectively. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and least resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient's preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), group behavioral activation (BA), individual CBT, individual BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT), selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy (STPP). For more severe depression, a shared decision should be made between the patient and healthcare provider. Treatment options for more severe depression include a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant, individual CBT, individual BA, antidepressant medication (SSRI, SNRI, or another antidepressant if indicated based on previous clinical and treatment history), individual problem-solving, counseling, STPP, IPT, guided self-help, and group exercise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 45 - How should strong opioids be used for cancer pain management in primary care?...

    Incorrect

    • How should strong opioids be used for cancer pain management in primary care?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxycodone has a more predictable systemic bioavailability than morphine

      Explanation:

      Opioid Prescription Guidelines

      About 10-30% of patients cannot use morphine due to side effects or poor analgesic response. However, oxycodone is not shown to have fewer unwanted effects than morphine. On the other hand, hydromorphone is seven times more potent than morphine on a mg for mg basis. Fentanyl should only be used second line, and when a daily requirement is established.

      To ensure safe and appropriate opioid prescription, it is important to remember the STOPP criteria. Prescription is potentially inappropriate if a strong, oral or transdermal opioid (i.e. morphine, oxycodone, fentanyl, buprenorphine, diamorphine, methadone, tramadol, pethidine, pentazocine) is prescribed as first-line therapy for mild pain (WHO analgesic ladder not observed). Additionally, regular use without concomitant laxative can lead to severe constipation. Lastly, prescribing a long-acting (modified-release) opioid without a short-acting (immediate-release) opioid for breakthrough pain can result in the persistence of severe pain.

      It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the safe and effective use of opioids in pain management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
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  • Question 46 - A 45-year-old man presents with a 3-day history of a progressively diminishing urinary...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents with a 3-day history of a progressively diminishing urinary stream, dysuria and urinary frequency. He denies any possibility of a sexually transmitted disease. He feels quite unwell. On examination, he has temperature of 38.7°C and digital rectal examination (DRE) reveals a very tender and slightly enlarged prostate.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute prostatitis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Dysuria and a Tender Prostate on DRE in Men

      When a man presents with dysuria and a tender prostate on digital rectal examination (DRE), several conditions may be considered. Acute prostatitis is a likely diagnosis, especially if the patient also has lower urinary tract symptoms and fever. The cause is often a urinary tract infection, with Escherichia coli being the most common culprit. In sexually active men under 35, Neisseria gonorrhoeae should also be considered.

      Prostate cancer is less likely to present with acute symptoms and is more commonly associated with a gradual onset of symptoms or urinary retention. Cystitis is rare in men and would not explain the tender prostate on examination. Urethritis may cause dysuria and urinary frequency but is not typically associated with a tender prostate on DRE. Prostatic abscess should be suspected if symptoms worsen despite treatment for acute bacterial prostatitis or if a fluctuant mass is palpable in the prostate gland.

      In summary, when a man presents with dysuria and a tender prostate on DRE, acute prostatitis is the most likely diagnosis, but other conditions should also be considered based on the patient’s history and clinical presentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 47 - A 5-year-old girl attends surgery with a febrile illness. Her mother tells you...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl attends surgery with a febrile illness. Her mother tells you that she has been unwell for almost 24 hours and has been complaining of right-sided ear pain. The child is usually healthy with no significant past medical history.

      On examination you find a temperature of 38.5°C and the right eardrum is red and bulging. The rest of the clinical examination is unremarkable.

      What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advice on symptomatic treatment should be given with a delayed antibiotic script (antibiotic to be collected at parents' discretion after 72 hours if the child has not improved) as back up

      Explanation:

      Middle Ear Infection Caused by Upper Respiratory Tract Infection

      The bacteria responsible for an upper respiratory tract infection (URTI) can travel up the eustachian tubes and cause an infection in the middle ear. This can lead to the tympanic membrane becoming retracted, making the handle and short process of the malleus more prominent. As pressure builds up in the middle ear, the eardrum may become distended and bulge outwards, accompanied by severe otalgia, systemic toxicity, fever, and tachycardia.

      If the tympanic membrane perforates, severe pain followed by a sudden improvement is likely to occur. The raised pressure within the middle ear is the main cause of the severe pain, often accompanied by systemic symptoms. Once the tympanic membrane ruptures, the pressures will equalize, and the pain will decrease dramatically. For more information on acute otitis media, visit the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries website.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 48 - A 7-year-old girl still wets the bed most nights. She is dry by...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl still wets the bed most nights. She is dry by day. Her development has been normal and she is otherwise well. She has never had a urinary infection. There are no behavioural problems or family issues.
      What is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Enuresis alarm

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Enuresis: From Simple Measures to Medications

      Enuresis, or bedwetting, is a common problem among children. While most children outgrow it, some may need treatment. The first step is to try simple measures such as restricting fluid intake and encouraging regular toilet use. If bedwetting persists, an enuresis alarm may be considered as first-line treatment. Desmopressin, a medication that reduces urine production, can be used for rapid control or in combination with an alarm. However, it should be used second line after an alarm has been tried. Desmopressin with an anticholinergic medication like oxybutynin is another option, but specialist assessment is recommended. Imipramine, a tricyclic antidepressant, may be considered as a last resort after all other treatments have failed and with caution due to potential side effects. Overall, treatment options for enuresis should be tailored to the individual child and their specific needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 49 - Mrs. Smith is a 58-year-old patient who recently had her annual review with...

    Incorrect

    • Mrs. Smith is a 58-year-old patient who recently had her annual review with the practice nurse for her type 2 diabetes. During the review, the nurse found that her blood pressure was elevated. Mrs. Smith has since borrowed a friend's BP monitor and has recorded her readings on a spreadsheet, which she has brought to show you. She has already calculated the average BP, which is 142/91 mmHg. Mrs. Smith has been researching on the internet and is interested in starting medication to reduce her cardiovascular risk, especially since she already has diabetes.

      According to NICE, what antihypertensive medication is recommended for Mrs. Smith?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor or angiotensin II receptor blocker

      Explanation:

      For a newly diagnosed patient with hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, the recommended first-line medication is an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor or angiotensin II receptor blocker, regardless of age. Alpha-blockers or beta-blockers are usually considered as a 4th-line option. Calcium channel blockers were previously recommended for patients aged 55 or over, but the updated NICE guidelines prioritize ACE inhibitors or ARBs. It is not appropriate to monitor the patient annually without commencing treatment, as they have confirmed stage 1 hypertension and a risk factor for cardiovascular disease.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 50 - A 56-year-old man resides in a care home and has a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man resides in a care home and has a history of a learning disability, gastro-oesophageal reflux, and hip osteoarthritis. His carers suspect that he is experiencing pain due to his osteoarthritis, but paracetamol is not providing relief. They request that you prescribe an alternative pain management solution. What is the most appropriate approach to managing pain in an individual with a learning disability? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Behavioural changes frequently indicate pain

      Explanation:

      Managing Pain in Individuals with Learning Disabilities

      Individuals with learning disabilities may have difficulty communicating their pain, making it important to consider pain as a potential cause of behavioural changes. While some may have communication or learning problems, the majority can still communicate their pain. Caregivers and family members are valuable sources of information in recognizing changes in behaviour. Treatment of pain should not differ from those without learning disabilities, and the WHO analgesic ladder should be used with normal doses. Contrary to popular belief, individuals with learning disabilities have the same pain threshold as the general population. While straightforward questions may not always be appropriate, most individuals with learning disabilities can still communicate their pain effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Eyes And Vision (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Health (1/1) 100%
People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer (0/1) 0%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Kidney And Urology (0/1) 0%
Children And Young People (0/1) 0%
Passmed