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Question 1
Correct
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Tom is a 45-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis who works as a sales representative for a company, he earns 500 pounds a week. He has been off sick from work due to a flare in his arthritis and asks you for advice on Statutory Sick Pay. Which of the following regarding 'Statutory Sick Pay' (SSP) is true?
Your Answer: The claimant must be off sick for 4 days in a row to be eligible for SSP
Explanation:To be eligible for SSP, the claimant must have been off sick for a minimum of 4 consecutive days.
Understanding the UK Benefits System
The UK benefits system can be complex and overwhelming, but it is important to have a basic understanding of the available benefits. One major change to the system is the introduction of Universal Credit, which replaces several benefits including Child Tax Credit, Housing Benefit, and Income Support. All claims for Universal Credit must be made online and it is paid monthly or twice a month for some individuals in Scotland.
Other benefits include Income Support for those on a low income and working less than 16 hours per week, and Job Seekers Allowance for those capable of working and actively seeking employment. Personal Independence Payment (PIP) is a tax-free benefit for adults aged 16-64 who need help with personal care or have walking difficulties due to physical or mental disabilities. Statutory Sick Pay is available for employees unable to work due to illness for up to 28 weeks.
Retirement pension can be claimed from 60 years for women and 65 years for men, and is taxable even if the claimant is still working. Bereavement Support Payment has replaced Bereavement payment and Bereavement allowance, and is a lump sum followed by 18 monthly payments. It is dependent on national insurance contributions and must be claimed within 3 months of the partner’s death to receive the full amount.
It is important to note that the State Pension age is gradually increasing for both men and women, with proposals to increase it to 68 in the future. Whilst GPs are not expected to be experts on claimable benefits, having a rough understanding can be helpful in supporting patients who may be struggling financially.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male with type 2 diabetes is seen at annual review.
His glycaemic control is suboptimal on diet alone and his most recent HbA1c is 63 mmol/mol (20-46).
You elect to treat him with metformin 500 mg bd.
As per NICE NG28 guidance on the management of diabetes, what would be the most suitable interval to re-evaluate his HbA1c after each treatment intensification?Your Answer: Three to six months
Correct Answer: Annually
Explanation:Understanding HbA1c as a Tool for Glycaemic Control
The glycated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is a measure of the glycosylation of the haemoglobin molecule by glucose. This measurement is widely used in clinical practice to assess glycaemic control, as there is a strong correlation between the glycosylation of HbA1c and average plasma glucose concentrations. Additionally, studies have shown that HbA1c has prognostic significance in both microvascular and macrovascular risk.
The lifespan of a red blood cell is approximately 120 days, and HbA1c reflects average blood glucose levels during the half-life of the red cell, which is about 60 days. According to NICE guidelines, HbA1c should be re-checked at 3/6 monthly intervals with each treatment intensification. Understanding HbA1c as a tool for glycaemic control is crucial for managing diabetes effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with a left hemiparesis. What sign would indicate that he is more likely to have an ischaemic stroke rather than a haemorrhagic stroke?
Your Answer: Seizure accompanying the neurological deficit
Correct Answer: Carotid bruit
Explanation:Distinguishing Ischaemic from Haemorrhagic Stroke: The Role of Symptoms and Neuroimaging
Symptoms alone are not enough to differentiate between ischaemic and haemorrhagic stroke. Neuroimaging is necessary for a definitive diagnosis. However, a meta-analysis has shown that the presence of certain incorrect options can increase the likelihood of haemorrhagic stroke. Coma is also more commonly associated with haemorrhagic stroke. Conversely, the probability of haemorrhage is decreased by the presence of cervical bruit and prior transient ischaemic attack. Therefore, a combination of symptoms and neuroimaging is crucial in accurately distinguishing between ischaemic and haemorrhagic stroke.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 32-year-old patient presents to you seeking pre-pregnancy advice and inquiring about folic acid intake. The patient has a medical history of insulin-treated type 1 diabetes. What recommendations would you make regarding the duration and dosage of folic acid supplementation?
Your Answer: 5 mg daily, to be taken before conception and until week 12 of pregnancy
Explanation:Most women are advised to take 400 mcg of folic acid daily from before conception until week 12 of pregnancy. However, there are exceptions to this rule. Women who are at a higher risk of neural tube defects, such as those with a history of bearing children with NTDs, or women with diabetes or taking anticonvulsants, should take a higher dose of 5 mg daily from before conception until week 12 of pregnancy.
Another group of women who require a higher dose of folic acid are those with sickle cell disease. They need to take 5 mg of folic acid daily throughout pregnancy, and even when not pregnant, they’ll usually be taking folic acid 5mg every 1 to 7 days, depending on the severity of their disease. It’s important for women to consult with their healthcare provider to determine the appropriate dose of folic acid for their individual needs during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 5
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman complains of gradual onset lateral hip discomfort on the right side for the past two weeks. She denies any history of trauma and is able to bear weight without any difficulty. The discomfort is most severe at night and sometimes wakes her up when she is lying on her right side. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Greater trochanteric pain syndrome
Explanation:Trochanteric bursitis is characterized by pain in the lateral hip/thigh area, accompanied by tenderness specifically over the greater trochanter. This condition, also known as greater trochanteric pain syndrome, typically presents as a localized issue and doesn’t affect the patient’s overall health.
Iliotibial band syndrome, on the other hand, primarily affects the knee and is unlikely to cause nighttime symptoms. Additionally, it is not common in patients of this age group.
Meralgia paresthetica is caused by compression of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve and typically results in numbness or tingling sensations, rather than pain.
Osteoarthritis is not typically associated with pain upon direct pressure over the greater trochanter.
Understanding Greater Trochanteric Pain Syndrome
Greater trochanteric pain syndrome, also known as trochanteric bursitis, is a condition that results from the repetitive movement of the fibroelastic iliotibial band. This condition is more prevalent in women aged between 50 and 70 years. The primary symptom of this condition is pain on the lateral side of the hip and thigh. Additionally, tenderness can be felt when the greater trochanter is palpated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You assess a 31-year-old patient who has been experiencing difficulty in conceiving despite regular intercourse for 9 months. The patient is in good health and has no history of sexually transmitted infections. Menstrual periods have always been irregular, with months between menses. The patient's BMI is 20 kg/m² and physical examination is unremarkable.
Semen analysis shows normal results. The patient's blood test results are as follows:
Reference Range (female)
Day 21 progesterone (nmol/L) 16 >30
LH (mUI/mL) 22 3.3-100
FSH (mUI/mL) 8 <30
Total testosterone (nmol/L) 3.6 <2.7
Prolactin (mIU/L) 325 <700
SHBG (nmol/L) 20 19-145
What is the most appropriate initial step to enhance the couple's chances of conceiving?Your Answer: No intervention, advise regular intercourse and return at 12 months
Correct Answer: Clomifene
Explanation:Couples, including those with fertility issues, have a 15-20% chance of conceiving naturally within a year through regular unprotected sexual intercourse. However, this patient’s PCOS condition, which causes ovulation insufficiency, may prolong the process. Hence, a referral is necessary for assistance, and treatment with clomifene to stimulate ovulation would be suitable.
Managing Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome
Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. Its management is complex due to the unclear cause of the condition. However, it is known that PCOS is associated with high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia, and there is some overlap with the metabolic syndrome. General management includes weight reduction if appropriate and the use of combined oral contraceptives (COC) to regulate the menstrual cycle and induce a monthly bleed.
Hirsutism and acne are common symptoms of PCOS, and a COC pill may be used to manage them. Third-generation COCs with fewer androgenic effects or co-cyprindiol with an anti-androgen action are possible options. If these do not work, topical eflornithine may be tried, or spironolactone, flutamide, and finasteride may be used under specialist supervision.
Infertility is another issue that women with PCOS may face. Weight reduction is recommended if appropriate, and the management of infertility should be supervised by a specialist. There is an ongoing debate about whether metformin, clomifene, or a combination should be used to stimulate ovulation. A 2007 trial published in the New England Journal of Medicine suggested that clomifene was the most effective treatment. However, there is a potential risk of multiple pregnancies with anti-oestrogen therapies such as clomifene. The RCOG published an opinion paper in 2008 and concluded that on current evidence, metformin is not a first-line treatment of choice in the management of PCOS. Metformin is also used, either combined with clomifene or alone, particularly in patients who are obese. Gonadotrophins may also be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 10-month old baby is brought in for a developmental review by his parents. He is able to sit without support, crawl, and pull himself up to stand. He shows a preference for using his left hand for most activities. He has a weak pincer grip and can point at objects.
However, he is unable to walk without support, even with one hand. He has not yet said mama or dada but does understand the word no. He also doesn't respond to his own name.
Which of these findings is the most concerning?Your Answer: Inability to respond to his name
Correct Answer: Left-handedness
Explanation:Having a hand preference before the age of 12 months is not normal and could be a sign of cerebral palsy. The child’s left-handedness is not a concern, but their early hand preference is. By 12 months, children should be able to walk with support from one parent and respond to their name. They should only be able to walk independently between 13-15 months. While 9-month old babies can typically say mama and dada, it is too early to worry about this in the child’s case.
Common Developmental Problems and Their Causes
Developmental problems can manifest in various ways, including referral points, fine motor skill problems, gross motor problems, and speech and language problems. Referral points may include a lack of smiling at 10 weeks, inability to sit unsupported at 12 months, and inability to walk at 18 months. Fine motor skill problems may be indicated by abnormal hand preference before 12 months, which could be a sign of cerebral palsy. Gross motor problems are often caused by a variant of normal, cerebral palsy, or neuromuscular disorders like Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Speech and language problems should always be checked for hearing issues, but other causes may include environmental deprivation and general developmental delay. It is important to identify and address these developmental problems early on to ensure the best possible outcomes for the child’s future.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 8
Incorrect
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What childhood condition can be a result of adenovirus infection?
Your Answer: Kawasaki disease
Correct Answer: Acute bronchiolitis
Explanation:Childhood Illnesses Caused by Adenovirus
Adenovirus is a common cause of childhood illnesses, including upper respiratory tract infections, otitis media, acute bronchiolitis, obliterative bronchiolitis, pneumonia, diarrhea, meningitis, encephalitis, hepatitis, urinary tract infections, and nonspecific febrile illnesses. It is important to note that adenovirus is not the cause of glandular fever, Kawasaki disease, roseola infantum, or scarlet fever. Glandular fever is caused by Epstein-Barr virus, the exact cause of Kawasaki disease is unknown, roseola infantum is caused by human herpesvirus 6, and scarlet fever is due to Streptococcus pyogenes infection. It is important for parents and caregivers to be aware of the symptoms of these illnesses and seek medical attention if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 9
Correct
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A 35-year-old immigrant from India presents with fever, night sweats, backache, weight loss, chronic cough, and hemoptysis. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Tuberculosis
Explanation:Tuberculosis in the UK: Risk Factors and Diagnosis
Tuberculosis (TB) remains a significant public health concern in the UK, with 8587 cases reported in 2010. Pulmonary TB is the most common form, accounting for 60% of cases. Certain groups are at higher risk, including those who have had close contact with a TB patient, ethnic minorities, homeless individuals, alcoholics and drug abusers, HIV-positive and immunocompromised patients, elderly individuals, young children, and those with other underlying health conditions. TB can be difficult to diagnose, as primary infection is often asymptomatic and secondary infection can present with nonspecific symptoms. A high level of suspicion is necessary to identify TB in at-risk patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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You assess a 23-year-old woman who has been newly diagnosed with ulcerative colitis on the left side. The gastroenterologists prescribed high-dose oral mesalazine five days ago, but there has been no improvement in her bowel movements, which consist of passing 3-4 loose stools per day with small amounts of blood. She is still in good health, and her abdominal examination is normal. What is the recommended duration of the initial mesalazine treatment before determining its effectiveness?
Your Answer: 2 weeks
Correct Answer: 4 weeks
Explanation:Patients with mild-moderate flares of ulcerative colitis are usually evaluated for treatment response over a period of 4 weeks.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 65-year-old male is being evaluated for hypertension associated with type 2 diabetes.
Currently, he is taking aspirin 75 mg daily, amlodipine 10 mg daily, and atorvastatin 20 mg daily. However, his blood pressure remains consistently around 160/92 mmHg.
What antihypertensive medication would you recommend adding to improve this patient's hypertension?Your Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Hypertension Management in Type 2 Diabetes
This patient with type 2 diabetes has poorly controlled hypertension, but is currently tolerating his medication well. The recommended antihypertensive for diabetes is an ACE inhibitor, which can be combined with a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine. Beta-blockers should be avoided for routine hypertension treatment in diabetic patients. Methyldopa is used for hypertension during pregnancy, while moxonidine is used when other medications have failed. If blood pressure control is still inadequate, a thiazide diuretic can be added to the current regimen of ramipril and amlodipine. Proper management of hypertension is crucial in diabetic patients to prevent complications and improve overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease and psoriasis presents with a significant worsening of his plaque psoriasis on his elbows and knees over the past two weeks. His medications have been recently altered at the cardiology clinic. Which medication is most likely to have exacerbated his psoriasis?
Your Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate
Correct Answer: Atenolol
Explanation:Plaque psoriasis is known to worsen with the use of beta-blockers.
Psoriasis can be worsened by various factors, including trauma, alcohol consumption, and certain medications such as beta blockers, lithium, antimalarials (chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine), NSAIDs, ACE inhibitors, and infliximab. Additionally, the sudden withdrawal of systemic steroids can also exacerbate psoriasis symptoms. It is important to note that streptococcal infection can trigger guttate psoriasis, a type of psoriasis characterized by small, drop-like lesions on the skin. Therefore, individuals with psoriasis should be aware of these exacerbating factors and take steps to avoid or manage them as needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits her GP due to sudden appearance of lesions on her arms. She was convinced by her mother to attend the appointment as she was not interested in seeking medical attention. The patient is unable to provide a clear history of the lesions' progression. Her medical history includes mild asthma, depression, and generalised anxiety disorder.
Upon examination, the patient has well-defined, linear skin lesions on both arms. The lesions do not appear to be dry or scaly but seem to be excoriated. There are no apparent signs of infection.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Trichotillomania
Correct Answer: Dermatitis artefacta
Explanation:The sudden appearance of linear, well-defined skin lesions with a lack of concern or emotional response, known as ‘la belle indifference’, strongly suggests dermatitis artefacta or factitious dermatitis. This rare condition involves self-inflicted skin damage, and patients often deny their involvement. Treatment requires a collaborative approach between dermatologists and psychiatrists, with a focus on building a positive relationship with the patient. Other conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis, lichen planus, and neurotic excoriations have different clinical presentations and are not consistent with the scenario described.
Understanding Dermatitis Artefacta
Dermatitis artefacta is a rare condition that affects individuals of any age, but is more common in females. It is characterised by self-inflicted skin lesions that patients typically deny are self-induced. The condition is strongly associated with personality disorder, dissociative disorders, and eating disorders, with a prevalence of up to 33% in patients with bulimia or anorexia.
Patients with dermatitis artefacta present with well-demarcated linear or geometric lesions that appear suddenly and do not evolve over time. The lesions may be caused by scratching with fingernails or other objects, burning skin with cigarettes, or chemical exposure. Commonly affected areas include the face and dorsum of the hands. Despite the severity of the skin lesions, patients may display a nonchalant attitude, known as la belle indifference.
Diagnosis of dermatitis artefacta is based on clinical history and exclusion of other dermatological conditions. Biopsy of skin lesions is not routine but may be helpful to exclude other conditions. Psychiatric assessment may be necessary. Differential diagnosis includes other dermatological conditions and factitious disorders such as Munchausen syndrome and malingering.
Management of dermatitis artefacta involves a multidisciplinary approach with dermatologists, psychologists, and psychiatrists. Direct confrontation is unhelpful and may discourage patients from seeking medical help. Treatment includes providing occlusive dressing, topical antibiotics, and bland emollients. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors and cognitive behavioural therapy may be helpful, although evidence is limited.
In summary, dermatitis artefacta is a rare condition that requires a multidisciplinary approach for management. Understanding the clinical features, risk factors, and differential diagnosis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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John is a 50-year-old man who visits his doctor with a rash around his left eye. The rash is causing him a lot of pain. Upon examination, he has a vesicular rash on one side of his face that extends to his nose. His eye appears normal, and his vision is not affected. The doctor suspects that he may have shingles.
What should be the next course of action in John's treatment?Your Answer: Treat with oral aciclovir
Correct Answer: Refer to eye casualty
Explanation:Hutchinson’s sign is a strong indicator of ocular involvement in shingles, characterized by vesicles extending to the tip of the nose. Treatment for shingles includes oral aciclovir within 72 hours of rash onset, but steroids and antibiotics are not recommended. Hospitalization is necessary if there are serious complications, visual symptoms, unexplained red eye, severe or widespread rash, or if the patient is severely immunocompromised. While topical aciclovir is available over the counter for oral herpes, NICE guidelines do not recommend routine prescription due to limited evidence of its effectiveness.
Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications
Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It is a type of shingles that affects around 10% of cases. The main symptom of HZO is a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the eye itself. Hutchinson’s sign, a rash on the tip or side of the nose, is a strong risk factor for ocular involvement.
The management of HZO involves oral antiviral treatment for 7-10 days, ideally started within 72 hours of symptom onset. Intravenous antivirals may be given for severe infection or if the patient is immunocompromised. Topical antiviral treatment is not recommended for HZO, but topical corticosteroids may be used to treat any secondary inflammation of the eye. Ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review.
Complications of HZO include conjunctivitis, keratitis, episcleritis, anterior uveitis, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman undergoes antenatal haemoglobinopathy screening and is found to have sickle cell trait. The father of the child agrees to further screening and is found to have the HbAS genotype. What is the probability of their offspring having sickle cell disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 25%
Explanation:Understanding Autosomal Recessive Inheritance
Autosomal recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern where a disorder is only expressed when an individual inherits two copies of a mutated gene, one from each parent. This means that only homozygotes, individuals with two copies of the mutated gene, are affected. Both males and females are equally likely to be affected, and the disorder may not manifest in every generation, as it can skip a generation.
When two heterozygote parents, carriers of the mutated gene, have children, there is a 25% chance of having an affected (homozygote) child, a 50% chance of having a carrier (heterozygote) child, and a 25% chance of having an unaffected child. On the other hand, if one parent is homozygote for the gene and the other is unaffected, all the children will be carriers.
Autosomal recessive disorders are often metabolic in nature and are generally more life-threatening compared to autosomal dominant conditions. It is important to understand the inheritance pattern of genetic disorders to provide appropriate genetic counseling and medical management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the General Practice Surgery with multiple skin lesions that she has noticed over the past few weeks. She is a single mother and works as a waitress, and has a long history of smoking and poor engagement with health and social services.
On examination, she is overweight with a body mass index (BMI) of 30 kg/m2 (normal range: 20-25 kg/m2), with obvious cigarette burns on her arms. She has multiple small (ranging from 2-12 mm in diameter), flat, purple bruise-like lesions across her chest, back and arms.
What causative agent is associated with the most likely underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Human herpesvirus-8 (HHV-8)
Explanation:The patient in this case has Kaposi’s sarcoma, a common tumor found in individuals with HIV infection. The tumor presents as dark purple/brown intradermal lesions that resemble bruises and can appear anywhere on the skin or oropharynx. Since HIV often goes undiagnosed, it is important to consider this diagnosis in patients with risk factors. This patient has a history of IV drug use and poor engagement with services, making it possible that they have never been tested for HIV. The patient is underweight with a low BMI, which could be a sign of HIV infection. Kaposi’s sarcoma is caused by the human herpesvirus-8 (HHV-8), also known as Kaposi’s Sarcoma-associated herpesvirus (KSHV).
Shingles, caused by the varicella-zoster virus, is not related to Kaposi’s sarcoma. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is a herpesvirus that can cause serious infections in immunocompromised individuals, but it is not associated with Kaposi’s sarcoma. Human papillomavirus (HPV) is linked to cervical cancer and is not a herpesvirus. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) causes oral and genital herpes, but it is not responsible for Kaposi’s sarcoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man comes in for a check-up. He is of Afro-Caribbean heritage and has been on a daily dose of amlodipine 10 mg. Upon reviewing his blood pressure readings, it has been found that he has an average of 154/93 mmHg over the past 2 months. Today, his blood pressure is at 161/96 mmHg. The patient is eager to bring his blood pressure under control. What is the most effective treatment to initiate in this scenario?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add angiotensin receptor blocker
Explanation:If a black African or African-Caribbean patient with hypertension is already taking a calcium channel blocker and requires a second medication, it is recommended to add an angiotensin receptor blocker instead of an ACE inhibitor. This is because studies have shown that this class of medication is more effective in patients of this heritage. In this case, the patient would benefit from the addition of candesartan to lower their blood pressure. An alpha-blocker is not necessary at this stage, and a beta-blocker is not recommended as it is better suited for heart failure and post-myocardial infarction. Increasing the dose of amlodipine is also unlikely to be helpful as the patient is already on the maximum dose.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female is worried about the unsightly appearance of her toenails. She has noticed a whitish discoloration that extends up the nail bed in several toes on both feet. After confirming a dermatophyte infection, she has been diligently cutting her nails and applying topical amorolifine, but with no improvement. What is the best course of treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical terbinafine
Explanation:Treatment for Fungal Nail Infection
If an adult has a confirmed fungal nail infection and self-care measures or topical treatment are not successful or appropriate, treatment with an oral antifungal agent should be offered. The first-line recommendation is Terbinafine because it is effective against both dermatophytes and Candida species. On the other hand, the ‘-azoles’ such as fluconazole do not have as much efficacy against dermatophytes. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent the spread of infection and improve the appearance of the affected nail.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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What are the current antenatal screening tests recommended for Down's syndrome in the UK for pregnant women?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nuchal translucency + B-HCG + pregnancy associated plasma protein A
Explanation:NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The quadruple test should be offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results of both tests return either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ result. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she will be offered a second screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA from placental cells in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities, with private companies offering screening from 10 weeks gestation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which patient among these needs diagnostic evaluation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 15-year-old girl with primary amenorrhea who has normal secondary sexual characteristics
Explanation:Puberty and Menarche
Puberty typically starts around the age of 10, with menarche occurring between 11 and 15 years old. If there are no signs of secondary sexual characteristic development by the age of 14, it may be necessary to investigate. However, if other secondary sexual characteristics are developing normally, it is reasonable to wait until the age of 16 before considering further investigation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner, reporting changes in her skin over the past year. She has noticed several pale patches on her fingers and wrists of both hands, as well as similar areas on her abdomen.
She had a history of mild acne in her teenage years, treated with topical creams and antibiotics.
Upon examination, there are well-defined, white lesions on the dorsum of both hands over the fingers and on the palmar surface of both wrists. The borders are smooth. The lesions are flat and non-itchy.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitiligo
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Symmetrical Acquired Depigmentation
Symmetrical acquired depigmentation is a common skin condition that can be caused by various factors. In this case, the history and examination findings suggest vitiligo as the most likely diagnosis. Vitiligo is an autoimmune disorder that results in the destruction of melanocytes in the skin, leading to smooth, well-demarcated, milky white lesions with no scale. It can occur alone or alongside other autoimmune disorders.
Other possible differentials include lichen sclerosus, which is a chronic skin disorder that affects the genital and perianal areas, but is usually seen in women over the age of 50 and doesn’t affect the hands. Pityriasis alba, characterised by flaky pink patches and hypopigmentation on the skin, is generally asymptomatic and often found on the cheeks and upper arms, but is unlikely in this patient as there is no history of flaky pink patches and hypopigmentation. Tinea versicolor, a common yeast infection of the skin, appears as flaky discoloured patches on the chest and back, but there are no lesions on the trunk seen in this patient and no indication that the lesions are flaky.
Lastly, steroid-induced skin depigmentation is unlikely in this patient as the steroid use was historical and ceased 13 years ago, and only involved mildly potent steroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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An 81-year-old widow presents to you with complaints of recurrent pains throughout her body every morning, which often leave her bedridden for a few hours. Upon examination, there are no abnormalities found, and there is no evidence of arthritis. Blood tests, including a full blood count, renal profile, liver function tests, ESR, and bone profile, have all been unremarkable. She reports having trouble sleeping since her husband passed away 2 years ago. What would be the most suitable treatment option for her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Physical symptoms are a common manifestation of depression, especially in older patients who may not directly express their mood difficulties. Therefore, it is important to investigate a patient’s mood when they present with unexplained symptoms. Although regular paracetamol may have a placebo effect, it cannot address the underlying issue. Antipsychotics like haloperidol are not suitable in this scenario. Gabapentin is unlikely to be effective unless the patient has neuropathic pain. While zopiclone may improve sleep, it is not a long-term solution and cannot address the root cause of the problem.
Understanding Depression in Older Adults
Depression is a common mental health condition that affects people of all ages, including older adults. However, older patients are less likely to report feelings of depressed mood, which can make it difficult for healthcare professionals to identify and manage the condition. Instead, older adults may present with physical complaints, such as hypochondriasis, agitation, and insomnia.
To manage depression in older adults, healthcare professionals typically prescribe selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) as a first-line treatment. This is because the adverse side-effect profile of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) can be more problematic in older adults. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the unique challenges associated with managing depression in older adults and to work closely with patients to develop an individualized treatment plan that addresses their specific needs and concerns. By doing so, healthcare professionals can help older adults manage their depression and improve their overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old male comes to your clinic expressing feelings of depression due to his belief that his wife is being unfaithful. They recently celebrated their 27th wedding anniversary and have always been devoted to each other. He is also the sole caregiver for his bedridden wife. Given this background, you question the likelihood of his accusations being accurate.
What is the medical term for delusional jealousy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Othello syndrome
Explanation:Othello syndrome is a condition characterized by delusional jealousy, where the individual believes that their partner is being unfaithful. This can be a standalone delusion or a symptom of an underlying mental health condition such as schizophrenia or a personality disorder.
Patients with Othello syndrome may become fixated on finding evidence of their partner’s infidelity, but even when no evidence is found, they remain convinced of their partner’s unfaithfulness. In extreme cases, this can lead to violent behavior.
Understanding Othello’s Syndrome
Othello’s syndrome is a condition characterized by extreme jealousy and suspicion that one’s partner is being unfaithful, even in the absence of any concrete evidence. This type of pathological jealousy can lead to socially unacceptable behavior, such as stalking, accusations, and even violence. People with Othello’s syndrome may become obsessed with their partner’s every move, constantly checking their phone, email, and social media accounts for signs of infidelity. They may also isolate themselves from friends and family, becoming increasingly paranoid and controlling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with a complaint of discomfort in his right eye following the use of a rotary saw to cut bricks. Despite washing the eye, he still experiences discomfort. He reports no changes in his vision. Upon examination, there are no foreign objects on the cornea or under the lower lid. Fluorescein staining reveals linear abrasions on the cornea. What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose only ONE option.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subtarsal foreign body
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Eye Pain and a History of Building Work
Subtarsal foreign body: A possible cause of eye pain in patients with a history of drilling or hammering. The foreign body is usually found on the inner surface of the upper lid and can cause corneal abrasions. Eversion of both lids is recommended during eye examination. Treatment involves removal of the foreign body and use of antibiotic ointment.
Acute bacterial conjunctivitis: Presents with red conjunctivae, purulent discharge, burning, and irritation. Onset of symptoms is not associated with the use of a rotary saw.
Allergic conjunctivitis: Causes itching and watering of the eyes, and is more likely to affect both eyes.
Arc eye (photokeratitis): Caused by exposure to ultraviolet radiation, such as welding or snow. Symptoms may include redness, swelling, headache, watering of the eyes, and pain. Onset of symptoms may be delayed by several hours after exposure.
Scleritis: Affects the sclera and causes blurred vision, aching pain, and photophobia. Associated with diseases such as granulomatosis with polyangiitis or rheumatoid arthritis, which are not indicated in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents one week after giving birth to a healthy baby boy. For the last two days, she has been feeling irritable, tearful, and anxious and she has been struggling to get to sleep. She has no medical or psychiatric history. Her husband and mother are at home with her.
Which is the single most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Organise a review in the perinatal psychiatry clinic
Explanation:Baby Blues vs Postnatal Depression
Mood disturbance in the first ten days after labour is a common and usually self-limiting condition known as ‘baby blues’. While it may not require medical intervention, health visitors can offer practical support and advice to new mothers. However, if the condition persists beyond the first ten days and becomes more severe, a diagnosis of postnatal depression may be considered. In such cases, an antidepressant or psychological therapy may be suitable. Perinatal psychiatry services are generally reserved for more severe mental conditions, and there are no features in this case that suggest a psychiatric emergency. It is important to differentiate between baby blues and postnatal depression, and an awareness of the latter is required under two areas of the RCGP curriculum (3.06 and 3.10).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man with no previous medical history of note attends for a new patient check. His blood pressure is noted to be 152/100 mmHg so you arrange blood tests. The results include an eGFR of 55.
Select the single correct diagnosis that can be made in this case.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: None of the above
Explanation:Diagnosis of CKD and Hypertension: NICE Guidelines
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD) and hypertension. To diagnose CKD, more than one estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) reading below 60 is required over a period of three months. Similarly, hypertension should not be diagnosed based on a single blood pressure reading, but rather through ambulatory or home blood pressure monitoring. Acute kidney injury is characterized by a significant increase in serum creatinine or oliguria, and eGFR is not a reliable indicator for its diagnosis. NICE also recommends using eGFRcystatinC to confirm or rule out CKD in individuals with an eGFR of 45-59 ml/min/1.73 m2, sustained for at least 90 days, and no proteinuria or other markers of kidney disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman with no significant medical history presents for her 12-week prenatal check-up. She reports being a moderate smoker and her carbon monoxide level is measured at 15 ppm. What is the most effective intervention that can be suggested for pregnant women in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy
Explanation:Before providing nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), it is recommended to conduct cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) or motivational interviewing with pregnant women who smoke. Additionally, it is important to screen all pregnant women for smoking using a carbon monoxide monitor.
Smoking cessation is the process of quitting smoking. In 2008, NICE released guidance on how to manage smoking cessation. The guidance recommends that patients should be offered nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline or bupropion, and that clinicians should not favour one medication over another. These medications should be prescribed as part of a commitment to stop smoking on or before a particular date, and the prescription should only last until 2 weeks after the target stop date. If unsuccessful, a repeat prescription should not be offered within 6 months unless special circumstances have intervened. NRT can cause adverse effects such as nausea and vomiting, headaches, and flu-like symptoms. NICE recommends offering a combination of nicotine patches and another form of NRT to people who show a high level of dependence on nicotine or who have found single forms of NRT inadequate in the past.
Varenicline is a nicotinic receptor partial agonist that should be started 1 week before the patient’s target date to stop. The recommended course of treatment is 12 weeks, but patients should be monitored regularly and treatment only continued if not smoking. Varenicline has been shown in studies to be more effective than bupropion, but it should be used with caution in patients with a history of depression or self-harm. Nausea is the most common adverse effect, and varenicline is contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding.
Bupropion is a norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor, and nicotinic antagonist that should be started 1 to 2 weeks before the patient’s target date to stop. There is a small risk of seizures, and bupropion is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Having an eating disorder is a relative contraindication.
In 2010, NICE recommended that all pregnant women should be tested for smoking using carbon monoxide detectors. All women who smoke, or have stopped smoking within the last 2 weeks, or those with a CO reading of 7 ppm or above should be referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services. The first-line interventions in pregnancy should be cognitive behaviour therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support from NHS Stop Smoking Services. The evidence for the use of NRT in pregnancy is mixed, but it is often used if the above measures fail. There is no evidence that it affects the child’s birthweight. Pregnant women
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with ongoing sleep issues due to tension in his relationship with his girlfriend. He expresses concerns that she may be spending time with her ex-boyfriend who works in the same office as her. He has had similar experiences in past relationships and feels as though he will never find the perfect partner, leading to mood swings and feelings of loneliness. He also admits to self-harming but denies any suicidal thoughts. Following a risk assessment, he is referred to psychiatry and diagnosed with borderline personality disorder.
What is the most appropriate treatment for this 28-year-old man with borderline personality disorder?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dialectical behaviour therapy (DBT)
Explanation:Dialectical behaviour therapy (DBT) is an effective treatment for borderline personality disorder, as it is specifically designed to help individuals who experience intense emotions. Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is not a targeted therapy for personality disorder patients and is more beneficial for those with depression or anxiety-related conditions. Exposure and response prevention therapy (ERP) is a treatment option for patients with obsessive-compulsive disorder, while eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing therapy (EMDR) is a treatment option for patients with post-traumatic stress disorder.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements about joint replacement surgery is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Following a hip replacement patients should avoid crossing their legs
Explanation:Joint Replacement for Osteoarthritis
Joint replacement, also known as arthroplasty, is the most effective treatment for osteoarthritis patients who experience significant pain. Around 25% of patients are now younger than 60 years old, and despite the common belief that obesity is a barrier to joint replacement, there is only a slight increase in short-term complications. There is no difference in long-term joint replacement survival.
For hips, the most common type of operation is a cemented hip replacement, where a metal femoral component is cemented into the femoral shaft, accompanied by a cemented acetabular polyethylene cup. However, uncemented hip replacements are becoming increasingly popular, particularly in younger and more active patients, despite being more expensive than conventional cemented hip replacements. Hip resurfacing is also sometimes used, where a metal cap is attached over the femoral head, often in younger patients, and has the advantage of preserving the femoral neck, which may be useful if conventional arthroplasty is needed later in life.
postoperative recovery involves both physiotherapy and a course of home-exercises, and walking sticks or crutches are usually used for up to 6 weeks after hip or knee replacement surgery. Patients who have had a hip replacement operation should receive basic advice to minimize the risk of dislocation, such as avoiding flexing the hip more than 90 degrees, avoiding low chairs, not crossing their legs, and sleeping on their back for the first 6 weeks.
Complications of joint replacement surgery include wound and joint infection, thromboembolism, and dislocation. NICE recommends that patients receive low-molecular weight heparin for 4 weeks following a hip replacement to prevent thromboembolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old with Down's syndrome presents to your clinic for a routine check-up. His parents have noticed that he has been having difficulty hearing for the past few weeks. Upon otoscopy, you observe indrawn tympanic membranes with fluid levels and loss of light reflexes in both ears. There are no signs of inflammation, and examinations of the nose and throat are normal.
What would be the most suitable course of action for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to ENT
Explanation:Children who have glue ear and also have Down’s syndrome or cleft palate should be referred to an ENT specialist. While most children with otitis media with effusion (OME) can be observed for 6-12 weeks, those with Down’s syndrome or cleft palate are less likely to recover on their own. It is important to follow up with all patients with OME, even if they do not meet the criteria for referral to ENT.
Antibiotics, antihistamines, and corticosteroids should not be prescribed for OME as there is no evidence to support their use. If the patient did not have Down’s syndrome, it would be appropriate to recheck their ears after 6-12 weeks and refer to ENT if the OME had not resolved. During this observation period, normal activities including swimming (except for diving) should be encouraged.
Understanding Glue Ear
Glue ear, also known as serous otitis media, is a common condition among children, with most experiencing at least one episode during their childhood. It is characterized by the accumulation of fluid in the middle ear, leading to hearing loss, speech and language delay, and behavioral or balance problems. The risk factors for glue ear include male sex, siblings with the condition, bottle feeding, day care attendance, and parental smoking. It is more prevalent during the winter and spring seasons.
The condition typically peaks at two years of age and is the most common cause of conductive hearing loss and elective surgery in childhood. Treatment options include grommet insertion, which allows air to pass through into the middle ear, and adenoidectomy. However, grommets usually stop functioning after about ten months. It is important to understand the symptoms and risk factors of glue ear to seek appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 31
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man complains to the palliative care team of increasing fatigue and breathlessness over the past four weeks. He is under their care and has ceased any active treatment; his preferred care plan is for symptom-related treatment only. He is living independently at home and has been reasonably well over the last six months.
On examination, he is pale, with a pulse of 96 bpm at rest. He becomes breathless after undressing for the examination. There is a palpable spleen.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal values
Haemoglobin (Hb) 66 g/l 130–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 1.2 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 34 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Neutrophils 0.5 × 109/l 2.0–7.5 × 109/l
Lymphocytes 0.6 × 109/l 1.0–4.5 × 109/l
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary myelofibrosis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Pancytopenia and Splenomegaly
A patient presents with pallor, tiredness, and breathlessness, along with pancytopenia and splenomegaly. The most likely cause is a myelodysplastic disorder, specifically primary myelofibrosis, which results in scarring of the bone marrow and loss of bone marrow function. This disorder has a median survival of around five and a half years and can cause progressive symptoms. The splenomegaly is due to extramedullary haemopoiesis.
Other potential causes, such as bowel cancer, prostate cancer, and metastatic oesophageal carcinoma, are less likely due to the absence of relevant symptoms or metastasis to the bone. Chemotherapy-related bone marrow suppression is also unlikely as the patient is not receiving any active treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 9-month-old baby boy has a recurrent itchy eruption affecting his trunk and soles. Examination shows a diffuse itchy dermatitis on the trunk and pink-red papules on both soles. An older cousin is reported to have a similar itchy rash and he has been playing with him.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Scabies
Explanation:Dermatological Conditions in Infants and Children: A Comparison
Scabies, Palmoplantar Pustulosis, Atopic Eczema, Tinea Pedis, and Viral Warts are some of the common dermatological conditions that affect infants and children. While they may share some similarities in symptoms, each condition has its unique characteristics that distinguish it from the others.
Scabies is a highly contagious skin condition caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei mite. It is characterized by a widespread, eczematous eruption primarily on the trunk, with the scalp and neck also being affected. In infants, papules and pustules on the palms and soles are common, representing a hypersensitivity reaction to the mite.
Palmoplantar Pustulosis, on the other hand, is a chronic pustular condition that affects the palms and soles. It presents as crops of sterile pustules that later turn brown, occurring on one or both hands and/or feet. Thickened, scaly, red skin that easily becomes fissured is also a characteristic feature. Smoking is strongly associated with this condition.
Atopic Eczema is a chronic, itchy dermatitis that commonly presents with an itchy rash on the face in babies. It may become widespread or confined to the flexures. Papules on the soles are not a feature, and a history of contact with a similarly affected relative would not fit this diagnosis.
Tinea Pedis, also known as athlete’s foot, is a fungal infection that affects the feet. It is uncommon in infants and doesn’t usually cause dermatitis on the trunk.
Finally, Viral Warts are skin lesions associated with the human papillomavirus (HPV). They are not characteristically itchy and would not cause the widespread dermatitis described in this case.
In conclusion, while these dermatological conditions may share some similarities, a careful examination of the symptoms and history can help distinguish one from the other. It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect your child has any of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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You run a pediatric clinic in an area which has a high South Asian Muslim population. Currently you operate clinic hours from 9 am-5 pm from Monday to Friday, with an extra clinic on a Saturday morning. The clinic manager comes to see you with a proposal to stop the clinic on a Thursday afternoon to allow for staff training.
Which one of the following is true with respect to your obligations before changing the clinic hours?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: You should meet informally to consider possible impact on ethnic and religious groups of your change
Explanation:Importance of Considering Equality and Diversity in Policy Changes
By law, it is mandatory to consider equality and diversity issues before implementing any changes in practice policy. For instance, if consulting time is removed from Thursday afternoons and reallocated to Fridays, it could significantly disadvantage Muslim patients who observe Friday as a holy day. Therefore, the NHS guide to equality and diversity recommends conducting a formal impact assessment of the change to ensure that it doesn’t discriminate against any group.
While the fifth option may seem like a reasonable first step, it doesn’t fully meet the obligations of ensuring equality and diversity. It is crucial to take into account the needs and preferences of all patients, regardless of their race, religion, gender, or any other characteristic. By doing so, healthcare providers can ensure that their policies and practices are inclusive and accessible to everyone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman is discharged home after undergoing a loop ileostomy following an anterior resection of a rectal carcinoma. She has recovered well over the last week. She is not taking anticoagulants and is being careful to drink at least one litre of extra water a day.
What is the most likely early complication she may experience following this procedure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Irritant dermatitis
Explanation:Complications of Ileostomy: Understanding the Risks
Ileostomy is a surgical procedure that involves creating an opening in the abdomen to allow waste to pass out of the body. While the procedure can be life-changing for patients with certain medical conditions, it is not without its risks. Here are some of the potential complications of ileostomy:
Irritant Dermatitis: The skin around the stoma can become irritated and inflamed, either due to contact with stoma equipment or leakage of feces. Hypoallergenic products and corticosteroid lotions can help manage this condition.
Parastomal Hernia: This occurs when a bulge or protrusion develops around the stoma site. While conservative management is often possible, surgery may be necessary in some cases.
Dehydration: High output from the ileostomy can lead to dehydration, making it important for patients to maintain a good fluid intake.
Pernicious Anemia: As vitamin B12 is absorbed in the terminal ileum, patients may develop pernicious anemia over time. Supplements can help manage this condition.
Severe Stomal Hemorrhage: While some bleeding is common after bag changes, severe bleeding is more likely in patients taking antiplatelet drugs.
Understanding these potential complications can help patients and healthcare providers monitor for early signs and manage them effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl has had frequent upper respiratory tract infections and also frequently complains of earache.
Select from the list the single feature that would most suggest a diagnosis of otitis media with effusion (OME) rather than acute otitis media.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Presence of bubbles and a fluid level behind the eardrum
Explanation:Understanding Otitis Media with Effusion (Glue Ear)
Otitis media with effusion, commonly known as glue ear, is a condition characterized by inflammation of the middle ear and the accumulation of fluid in the middle-ear cleft. This condition is prevalent in young children, with most experiencing at least one episode during early childhood. Although most episodes are brief, symptoms such as earache and hearing loss can occur. Hearing loss can be significant, especially if it persists for more than a month and affects both ears. However, not all cases of glue ear present with hearing loss.
It is important to note that a normal-looking eardrum doesn’t necessarily exclude the possibility of OME. Otoscopic features of OME may include opacification of the drum, loss of the light reflex, indrawn or retracted drum, decreased mobility of the drum, bubbles or fluid level behind the drum, yellow or amber color change to the drum, and fullness or bulging of the drum. It is worth noting that acute otitis media may also present with earache and hearing loss, and the eardrum may appear redder and bulge.
In conclusion, understanding the symptoms and signs of OME is crucial in diagnosing and managing this condition. If you suspect that you or your child may have glue ear, seek medical attention promptly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 36
Incorrect
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When assessing the respiratory system of a middle-aged patient, you observe some alterations in the skin. The skin on the back of the neck and axillae is hyperkeratotic and hyperpigmented. What underlying condition do you think is causing these changes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type 2 diabetes
Explanation:Acanthosis nigricans is a condition where certain areas of the skin, such as the neck, armpits, and skin folds, become thickened and darkened with a velvety texture. Skin tags may also be present. While it can occur on its own in individuals with darker skin tones, it is often a sign of insulin resistance and related conditions like type 2 diabetes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, Cushing’s syndrome, or hypothyroidism. Certain medications like corticosteroids, insulin, and hormone medications can also cause acanthosis nigricans. If it develops quickly and in unusual areas like the mouth, it may indicate an internal malignancy, particularly gastric cancer.
Acanthosis nigricans is a condition characterized by the presence of brown, velvety plaques that are symmetrical and commonly found on the neck, axilla, and groin. This condition can be caused by various factors such as type 2 diabetes mellitus, gastrointestinal cancer, obesity, polycystic ovarian syndrome, acromegaly, Cushing’s disease, hypothyroidism, familial factors, Prader-Willi syndrome, and certain drugs like the combined oral contraceptive pill and nicotinic acid.
The pathophysiology of acanthosis nigricans involves insulin resistance, which leads to hyperinsulinemia. This, in turn, stimulates the proliferation of keratinocytes and dermal fibroblasts through interaction with insulin-like growth factor receptor-1 (IGFR1). This process results in the formation of the characteristic brown, velvety plaques seen in acanthosis nigricans. Understanding the underlying mechanisms of this condition is crucial in its diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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You encounter a 49-year-old man who has just been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes by your GP colleague. The patient has been prescribed gliclazide and has experienced one instance of mild hypoglycaemia since commencing this medication. The patient inquires about driving his vehicle. What guidance should be given?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Must contact DVLA if has two episodes of severe hypoglycaemia in 12 months
Explanation:If a Group 1 driver with diabetes is taking oral medication that may cause hypoglycemia, they do not need to inform the DVLA as long as they are being regularly monitored and have not experienced more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance from another person within the last year. However, Group 2 drivers must notify the DVLA and adhere to stricter guidelines. If they have had even one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance from another person within the last year, they will not be permitted to drive. Both groups must inform the DVLA if they experience any impairment in their ability to detect hypoglycemia.
DVLA Regulations for Drivers with Diabetes Mellitus
The DVLA has recently changed its regulations for drivers with diabetes who use insulin. Previously, these individuals were not allowed to hold an HGV license. However, as of October 2011, the following standards must be met for all drivers using hypoglycemic inducing drugs, including sulfonylureas: no severe hypoglycemic events in the past 12 months, full hypoglycemic awareness, regular blood glucose monitoring at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving, an understanding of the risks of hypoglycemia, and no other complications of diabetes.
For those on insulin who wish to apply for an HGV license, they must complete a VDIAB1I form. Group 1 drivers on insulin can still drive a car as long as they have hypoglycemic awareness, no more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance within the past 12 months, and no relevant visual impairment. Drivers on tablets or exenatide do not need to notify the DVLA, but if the tablets may induce hypoglycemia, there must not have been more than one episode requiring assistance within the past 12 months. Those who are diet-controlled alone do not need to inform the DVLA.
To demonstrate adequate control, the Honorary Medical Advisory Panel on Diabetes Mellitus recommends that applicants use blood glucose meters with a memory function to measure and record blood glucose levels for at least three months prior to submitting their application. These regulations aim to ensure the safety of all drivers on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman has terminal breast cancer. She has liver metastases but her pain is well controlled.
Her main symptom, however, is anxiety. She feels nervous all the time and has a tremor. She says she feels tense about almost anything. She has read that beta blockers can help people like her and asks whether they would be worthwhile.
What symptoms are beta blockers most likely to alleviate in a 55-year-old woman with terminal breast cancer and anxiety?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Psychological tension
Explanation:Beta-blockers and Anxiety Symptoms
Beta-blockers are effective in managing the autonomic symptoms of anxiety, such as tremors and palpitations. However, they are not likely to alleviate the psychological symptoms of anxiety. While beta-blockers may help with physical symptoms, other approaches may be necessary to address the emotional and cognitive aspects of anxiety. Therefore, it is important to consider a comprehensive treatment plan that includes therapy, medication, and lifestyle changes to manage anxiety effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old female comes to the clinic with a nodule in her neck that she has noticed for the past month.
Upon examination, a non-tender, 3.5 cm nodule is found on the right side of her neck, deep to the lower half of the right sternocleidomastoid. The nodule moves upwards on swallowing, and no other masses are palpable in the neck.
What is the nature of this mass?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lymph node
Explanation:Thyroid Nodule: Causes and Investigation
A thyroid nodule is suspected in this patient due to the movement observed during swallowing. The possible causes of a thyroid nodule include colloid cyst, adenoma, and carcinoma. To investigate this lesion, the most appropriate method would be fine needle aspiration. This procedure involves using a thin needle to extract a small sample of cells from the nodule for examination under a microscope. It is a safe and effective way to determine if the nodule is benign or malignant. Early detection and treatment of thyroid nodules can prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 40
Incorrect
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You have a male patient aged 45 who has recently had a myocardial infarction.
He attends for follow up and says he was told in hospital that he has familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH). He says several relatives in previous generations died young of heart problems. He has three children and wants to know what are the risks of their being affected.
FH is inherited as an autosomal dominant, so what is the risk of each of his children being affected?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Familial Hypercholesterolemia Inheritance
Familial Hypercholesterolemia (FH) is an inherited condition that affects the body’s ability to remove cholesterol from the blood. It is caused by a mutation in the LDL receptor gene, which is responsible for removing low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol from the bloodstream. Autosomal dominant inheritance means that if one parent has FH, there is a 50% chance that each child will inherit the gene and be affected.
Most people with FH inherit the gene from only one parent, making them heterozygous. This means that they have one normal copy of the LDL receptor gene and one mutated copy. However, in rare cases, individuals can inherit the gene from both parents, making them homozygous. In these cases, symptoms of FH can appear in childhood and can be more severe.
Overall, understanding the inheritance pattern of FH is important for individuals and families affected by this condition. It can help with early diagnosis and treatment, as well as genetic counseling for future generations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old Nigerian boy is brought in by his parents. They have recently joined the practice and were seen last week by a colleague for the first time.
The boy has been experiencing recurrent bouts of abdominal pain. On examination the child is mildly jaundiced and has a palpable spleen.
You review his past medical history and the parents tell you that he has also suffered with painful swellings affecting his fingers and toes.
The recent blood tests show:
Hb 64 g/L (130-180)
WBC 8.4 ×109/L (4-11)
MCV 108 fL (80-96)
Platelets 380 ×109/L (150-400)
Bilirubin 74 -
What investigation will confirm the underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Iron studies
Explanation:Understanding Sickle Cell Disease
Sickle cell disease is a genetic condition that affects the shape of red blood cells, causing them to become sickle-shaped and less flexible. This can lead to a range of symptoms, including moderate anaemia due to chronic haemolysis, jaundice, and splenomegaly in younger children. Vaso-occlusive episodes can affect all organs, causing pain and swelling in the hands and feet, abdominal pain, bone pain, and even pulmonary and cerebral infarction.
To confirm a diagnosis of sickle cell disease, doctors will typically perform a hemoglobin electrophoresis test. Other tests, such as anti-TTG antibodies for coeliac disease or bone marrow biopsy and immunophenotyping for leukaemic processes, may be used to rule out other conditions.
It’s important for individuals with sickle cell disease to receive ongoing medical care and management to prevent complications and improve quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman has self-diagnosed an early pregnancy by self-testing. She immediately tells her General Practitioner (GP) she wants a termination of pregnancy. The GP has religious beliefs that lead to a moral objection to abortion.
What should the GP do in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Explain that their beliefs prevent them, personally, from facilitating onward care for this specific issue
Explanation:Navigating Personal Beliefs in Medical Practice: Handling Conflicts with Duty of Care in Termination of Pregnancy
As healthcare professionals, doctors are bound by their duty of care to provide appropriate medical treatment to their patients. However, personal beliefs can sometimes come into conflict with this duty, particularly in cases of termination of pregnancy. The General Medical Council’s Good Medical Practice (2013) allows doctors to practice medicine in accordance with their beliefs, as long as they do not treat patients unfairly, deny them access to appropriate medical treatment or services, or cause them distress.
If a doctor’s personal beliefs prevent them from facilitating onward care for a patient seeking termination of pregnancy, there are several options available. The doctor can gently explain their conscientious objection to the procedure, but must not delay appropriate treatment or cause the patient distress. They can decline to continue with the consultation, but must still fully assess the patient’s needs and signpost them to another clinician for review if necessary. Alternatively, they can complete the consultation and refer the patient for termination of pregnancy, ensuring that the patient is treated fairly and respectfully and signposted to another clinician who can help.
Regardless of the chosen course of action, the doctor must not express disapproval of the patient’s choice or imply judgment of their lifestyle, choices, or beliefs. It is important to navigate personal beliefs in medical practice with sensitivity and respect for the patient’s autonomy and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man presents with abdominal discomfort, loss of appetite, and weight loss. He reports feeling fatigued and experiencing itching on his back. A recent abdominal x-ray showed no abnormalities. What would be considered the gold standard for managing his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent ultrasound scan
Explanation:Urgent CT Scan for Pancreatic Cancer in Elderly Patients with Red Flag Symptoms
An urgent direct access CT scan is recommended within two weeks for individuals aged 60 and above who have experienced weight loss and any of the following symptoms: diarrhoea, back pain, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, constipation, or new-onset diabetes. CT scan is preferred over ultrasound, unless CT is not available. Endoscopy is not necessary as the symptoms do not suggest stomach or oesophageal cancer, which would present with more dysphagia and dyspepsia.
While a gastroenterology opinion may be necessary, it should not be requested routinely as the patient’s symptoms are considered red flags and require a more urgent approach. Although the patient is currently medically stable, an immediate referral to the medical assessment unit is not warranted. This approach ensures timely and appropriate management for elderly patients with potential pancreatic cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man presents with general malaise. He has recently been prescribed carbimazole for hyperthyroidism. What is the most crucial blood test to conduct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Full blood count
Explanation:Exclusion of agranulocytosis is necessary when using carbimazole.
Carbimazole is a medication used to treat thyrotoxicosis, a condition where the thyroid gland produces too much thyroid hormone. It is usually given in high doses for six weeks until the patient’s thyroid hormone levels become normal, after which the dosage is reduced. The drug works by blocking thyroid peroxidase, an enzyme that is responsible for coupling and iodinating the tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin, which ultimately leads to a reduction in thyroid hormone production. In contrast, propylthiouracil has a dual mechanism of action, inhibiting both thyroid peroxidase and 5′-deiodinase, which reduces the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3.
However, carbimazole is not without its adverse effects. One of the most serious side effects is agranulocytosis, a condition where the body’s white blood cell count drops significantly, making the patient more susceptible to infections. Additionally, carbimazole can cross the placenta and affect the developing fetus, although it may be used in low doses during pregnancy under close medical supervision. Overall, carbimazole is an effective medication for managing thyrotoxicosis, but its potential side effects should be carefully monitored.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old female presents with a four month history of having problems sleeping at night.
She has been woken on numerous occasions by her legs which are irritable and feel that they are being tugged. She needs to keep moving them. This urge lasts variable periods and she finds little relief from rubbing the legs. No abnormalities are noted on examination of her legs.
What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ropinirole
Explanation:Restless Legs Syndrome: Symptoms and Treatment Options
Restless Legs Syndrome (RLS) is a condition characterized by an uncomfortable sensation in the legs and a strong urge to move them. The exact cause of RLS is unknown, and there are no specific tests for diagnosis. However, the International Restless Legs Syndrome Study Group has established four basic criteria for diagnosing RLS, including a desire to move the limbs, symptoms that worsen during rest and improve with activity, motor restlessness, and nocturnal worsening of symptoms.
Treatment for RLS depends on the severity of the condition. Ropinirole is the most appropriate treatment option for this patient, as it is the only agent among the options listed that is licensed for treating RLS. Pramipexole and rotigotine are also licensed for moderate to severe cases of RLS. If you are experiencing symptoms of RLS, it is important to speak with your healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for your individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner with sudden onset of mild right hemiparesis affecting the body. He also shows signs of sensory loss on the right-hand side. There is evidence of Horner syndrome and sensory loss on the face on the left-hand side.
What is the most probable structure that is affected?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Brainstem
Explanation:Lesion Localization: Identifying the Affected Brain Structure
When trying to identify the affected brain structure in a patient with neurological symptoms, it is important to consider the specific signs and symptoms present. In the case of a patient with ipsilateral facial numbness, diplopia, nystagmus, cerebellar ataxia, Horner syndrome, and ninth and tenth nerve lesions, along with contralateral spinothalamic sensory loss and mild hemiparesis, a lesion in the brainstem is likely. This is often caused by thromboembolic disease affecting the vertebral or posterior inferior cerebellar artery.
It is important to rule out other potential brain structures that could be causing the symptoms. A frontal lobe lesion would account for the hemiplegia and sensory loss, but not the Horner syndrome or cranial nerve involvement. A temporal lobe lesion would most likely present with speech and language difficulties, which are not present in this patient. An occipital lobe lesion would result in a homonymous hemianopia, which is not seen in this case. Parietal lobe lesions cause contralateral weakness and sensory loss of the body, but would not result in the Horner syndrome or fifth nerve palsy symptoms.
Overall, careful consideration of the specific signs and symptoms can help identify the affected brain structure and guide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl has recently arrived from Lithuania and registered with your practice. Lithuania is a country with an incidence of more than 40 per 100000 of tuberculosis. Mantoux testing has been carried out to screen for latent tuberculosis. It is unclear if she has ever had BCG immunisation and there are no scars suggestive of this. After 3 days the diameter of induration is 10 mm.
Select from the list the single most correct management option.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Interferon γ (IGT) blood test
Explanation:Detecting latent tuberculosis is crucial in controlling the disease, as up to 15% of adults with latent tuberculosis may develop active disease, and the risk may be even higher in children. In immunocompromised individuals, such as those who are HIV positive, the chance of developing active disease within 5 years of latent infection is up to 50%. The Mantoux test is a method of detecting previous exposure to the tuberculosis organism or BCG vaccination by causing a cell-mediated immune reaction. The interpretation of the test depends on factors such as BCG vaccination history, immune status, and concurrent viral infection. While a negative test in HIV-positive patients doesn’t exclude tuberculosis, a positive test at certain thresholds can indicate the need for treatment of latent tuberculosis. Indeterminate results may require further evaluation by a specialist. The use of IGT as a surrogate marker of infection can be useful in evaluating latent tuberculosis in BCG-vaccinated individuals, but it cannot distinguish between latent infection and active disease. NICE recommends different testing strategies based on age and risk factors, but the benefits of IGT over the Mantoux test in determining the need for treatment of latent tuberculosis are not certain. In children under 5 years, a positive test requires referral to a specialist to exclude active disease and consideration of treatment of latent tuberculosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of hand and wrist pain, morning stiffness, and swelling in her hands. Upon examination, you observe swelling in several small joints of her hands. Her blood test reveals elevated anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) levels but normal rheumatoid factor (RF) levels. You decide to refer her to a rheumatologist.
What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Request x-rays of her hands and feet
Explanation:The patient is suspected to have rheumatoid arthritis and therefore, NICE recommends performing x-rays of the hands and feet. Urgent referral to rheumatology within 3 days is necessary as the small joints of the patient’s hands are affected. Immunology is not the appropriate referral destination for this case. Methotrexate therapy, if required, will not be initiated in primary care. The patient may be advised to try paracetamol or a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug while investigations are carried out. Steroids should not be prescribed in primary care as they can mask clinical features and delay the diagnosis. Physiotherapy is an important aspect of management after confirmation of diagnosis and initial medical management in secondary care. However, it is not the next most appropriate management for this patient at this stage.
Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition that requires initial investigations to determine the presence of antibodies. One such antibody is rheumatoid factor (RF), which is usually an IgM antibody that reacts with the patient’s own IgG. The Rose-Waaler test or latex agglutination test can detect RF, with the former being more specific. RF is positive in 70-80% of patients with rheumatoid arthritis, and high levels are associated with severe progressive disease. However, it is not a marker of disease activity. Other conditions that may have a positive RF include Felty’s syndrome, Sjogren’s syndrome, infective endocarditis, SLE, systemic sclerosis, and the general population. Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody is another antibody that may be detectable up to 10 years before the development of rheumatoid arthritis. It has a sensitivity similar to RF but a much higher specificity of 90-95%. NICE recommends testing for anti-CCP antibodies in patients with suspected rheumatoid arthritis who are RF negative. Additionally, x-rays of the hands and feet are recommended for all patients with suspected rheumatoid arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old former paratrooper has joined your practice. He lost his leg during a tour of duty in Afghanistan when he was shelled by opposing forces and witnessed the death of two of his colleagues.
In recent months, he has been experiencing flashbacks, and his wife has noticed that he has become emotionally distant and insensitive towards her. He has also been struggling with sleep and concentration, and has been prone to sudden outbursts of anger.
You suspect that he may be suffering from PTSD and have recommended that he seek psychiatric help. Although he has declined counseling, he is interested in learning more about medication options, having seen the positive effects of sertraline on his wife's depression a few years ago.
According to NICE guidelines, which antidepressant is recommended as a second-line treatment for PTSD after psychological therapy has been refused or proven ineffective?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diazepam
Explanation:NICE’s Guidance on Drug Treatments for PTSD in Adults
According to the latest guidance from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated in 2018, drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, should not be offered to prevent PTSD in adults. However, for those with a diagnosis of PTSD who prefer drug treatment, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, may be considered and should be reviewed regularly.
In addition, antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD who have disabling symptoms and behaviors, such as severe hyperarousal or psychotic symptoms, and have not responded to other drug or psychological treatments. It is important to note that antipsychotic treatment should be started and reviewed regularly by a specialist.
Overall, NICE’s guidance emphasizes the importance of individualized treatment plans for adults with PTSD, taking into account their preferences and response to previous treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man collapses in the General Practice waiting room. His breathing is shallow with a respiratory rate of six breaths per minute. His oxygen saturations are unrecordable. Blood sugar is normal. His pupils are both constricted.
Which of the following drugs should be administered immediately?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Naloxone
Explanation:Antidotes for Poisoning: Understanding Their Uses
When a patient presents with symptoms of poisoning, it is important to identify the specific toxin involved in order to administer the appropriate antidote. Here are some common antidotes and their uses:
Naloxone: This opiate antagonist is used to treat acute opiate toxicity. It rapidly reverses respiratory depression, loss of consciousness, and constricted pupils. Patients may become aggressive upon awakening, and repeated doses may be necessary.
Fomepizole: This antidote is used in confirmed cases of ethylene glycol poisoning as an alternative to ethanol. Symptoms include nausea, vomiting, altered consciousness, and seizures.
Acetylcysteine: This is the antidote for paracetamol poisoning. It should be administered in a hospital after a full clinical assessment has been carried out. Symptoms may not appear until days later, and can include hepatic encephalopathy.
Flumazenil: This antidote is used for benzodiazepine overdose. It should only be administered by experienced specialists in a hospital setting, as it can precipitate seizures.
Glucagon: This antidote can be used to treat hypoglycaemia and beta-blocker overdose. However, if a patient’s blood sugar is normal, hypoglycaemia is not the cause of their collapse.
By understanding the uses of these antidotes, healthcare professionals can quickly and effectively treat cases of poisoning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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