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Question 1
Correct
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As a junior doctor in the Emergency Department, you encounter a 40-year-old woman who has been brought in by the police under a section 135. The police had to obtain a warrant as part of the process. The patient is currently agitated and speaking incoherently about religious phrases. She has a documented history of severe depression.
What powers does section 135 grant to the police in this situation?Your Answer: To bring a person with suspected mental health issues in from their property
Explanation:If the police believe that someone requires a mental health assessment or treatment, they can request a section 135 to remove the individual from their property. The procedure involves an Approved Mental Health Practitioner (AMHP) presenting evidence at a Magistrate’s Court to obtain a warrant. This warrant permits the Police, an AMHP, and a registered medical practitioner to enter the premises and conduct an assessment or take the person to a safe location for evaluation.
Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse voluntary admission. This process excludes patients who are under the influence of drugs or alcohol. There are several sections under the Mental Health Act that allow for different types of admission and treatment.
Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP and two doctors, both of whom must have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 4 is used as an emergency 72-hour assessment order when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.
Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in hospital for 72 hours, while section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.
Section 17a allows for Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order) and can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.
Section 135 allows for a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety. Section 136 allows for someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to be taken by the police to a Place of Safety. This section can only be used for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 2
Correct
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A 28-year-old female presents to the GP office with a complaint of unusual vaginal discharge. The discharge is described as frothy and green-yellow in color. She is sexually active and does not use any form of birth control. Her most recent sexual encounter was with a new partner two weeks ago. During speculum examination, a strawberry cervix is observed. She is in good health and not taking any medications. A pregnancy test came back negative. What is the recommended course of action for the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Oral metronidazole
Explanation:The recommended treatment for the patient’s likely diagnosis of trichomoniasis is oral metronidazole, either as a 7-day course of 200mg or a one-time dose of 2g. Intramuscular ceftriaxone, benzathine benzylpenicillin, and oral doxycycline are not indicated for the treatment of trichomoniasis. Oral azithromycin is also not effective for this condition.
Understanding Trichomonas vaginalis and its Comparison to Bacterial Vaginosis
Trichomonas vaginalis is a type of protozoan parasite that is highly motile and flagellated. It is known to cause trichomoniasis, which is a sexually transmitted infection. The infection is characterized by symptoms such as offensive, yellow/green, frothy vaginal discharge, vulvovaginitis, and strawberry cervix. The pH level is usually above 4.5, and in men, it may cause urethritis.
To diagnose trichomoniasis, a wet mount microscopy is conducted to observe the motile trophozoites. The treatment for trichomoniasis involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, although a one-off dose of 2g metronidazole may also be used.
When compared to bacterial vaginosis, trichomoniasis has distinct differences. Bacterial vaginosis is caused by an overgrowth of bacteria in the vagina, while trichomoniasis is caused by a protozoan parasite. The symptoms of bacterial vaginosis include a thin, grayish-white vaginal discharge with a fishy odor, and a pH level above 4.5. Unlike trichomoniasis, bacterial vaginosis is not considered a sexually transmitted infection.
In conclusion, understanding the differences between trichomoniasis and bacterial vaginosis is crucial in diagnosing and treating these conditions effectively. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent complications and improve overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 3
Incorrect
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You are assessing a 50-year-old man who has been diagnosed with Barrett's oesophagus following difficult to control symptoms. Biopsies did not reveal any dysplasia. What is the most strongly linked risk factor modification for the development of Barrett's oesophagus?
Your Answer: Smoking
Correct Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease
Explanation:Barrett’s oesophagus is most strongly associated with the presence of GORD as a risk factor.
Understanding Barrett’s Oesophagus
Barrett’s oesophagus is a condition where the lower oesophageal mucosa is replaced by columnar epithelium, increasing the risk of oesophageal adenocarcinoma by 50-100 fold. It is typically identified during an endoscopy for upper gastrointestinal symptoms such as dyspepsia. The length of the affected segment correlates strongly with the chances of identifying metaplasia, with the overall prevalence estimated to be around 1 in 20. Risk factors include gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), male gender, smoking, and central obesity. Interestingly, alcohol does not seem to be an independent risk factor for Barrett’s. Management includes high-dose proton pump inhibitors and endoscopic surveillance with biopsies every 3-5 years for patients with metaplasia. If dysplasia of any grade is identified, endoscopic intervention such as radiofrequency ablation or endoscopic mucosal resection is offered.
Barrett’s oesophagus is a condition where the lower oesophageal mucosa is replaced by columnar epithelium, increasing the risk of oesophageal adenocarcinoma. It is typically identified during an endoscopy for upper gastrointestinal symptoms such as dyspepsia. The length of the affected segment correlates strongly with the chances of identifying metaplasia, with the overall prevalence estimated to be around 1 in 20. Risk factors include GORD, male gender, smoking, and central obesity. Interestingly, alcohol does not seem to be an independent risk factor for Barrett’s. Management includes high-dose proton pump inhibitors and endoscopic surveillance with biopsies every 3-5 years for patients with metaplasia. If dysplasia of any grade is identified, endoscopic intervention such as radiofrequency ablation or endoscopic mucosal resection is offered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 4
Correct
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At the 4-month check, you observe bilateral hydroceles in a male infant. The swelling is limited to the scrotum and the testis can be felt in the scrotal sac. The infant is otherwise healthy and thriving. The mother expresses concern about the potential impact of the swelling on her son's fertility.
What is the best course of action for managing this situation?Your Answer: Reassure mum that hydroceles are common in infants and often self resolve
Explanation:It is common for newborn males to have communicating hydroceles, which usually resolve on their own. This is due to the processus vaginalis remaining open. Parents should be reassured that the hydroceles typically disappear within a few months. However, if the hydrocele persists beyond one year, it is recommended to refer the child to a urologist for possible repair. Ultrasound is not necessary to confirm the diagnosis. It is important to note that hydroceles do not impact fertility, but undescended testes can affect fertility if not treated.
Common Scrotal Problems and Their Features
Epididymal cysts, hydroceles, and varicoceles are the most common scrotal problems seen in primary care. Epididymal cysts are usually found posterior to the testicle and are separate from the body of the testicle. They may be associated with conditions such as polycystic kidney disease, cystic fibrosis, and von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. Diagnosis is confirmed by ultrasound, and management is usually supportive, although surgical removal or sclerotherapy may be attempted for larger or symptomatic cysts.
Hydroceles, on the other hand, describe the accumulation of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. They may be communicating or non-communicating, and may develop secondary to conditions such as epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors. Hydroceles are usually soft, non-tender swellings of the hemi-scrotum that transilluminate with a pen torch. Diagnosis may be clinical, but ultrasound is required if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated. Management depends on the severity of the presentation, with infantile hydroceles generally repaired if they do not resolve spontaneously by the age of 1-2 years.
Varicoceles, on the other hand, are abnormal enlargements of the testicular veins that are usually asymptomatic but may be associated with subfertility. They are much more common on the left side and are classically described as a bag of worms. Diagnosis is confirmed by ultrasound with Doppler studies, and management is usually conservative, although surgery may be required if the patient is troubled by pain. There is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery to treat infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 26-year-old woman in her first pregnancy visits her GP at 12 weeks gestation complaining of dysuria. Apart from this, she is healthy and her pregnancy has been uneventful so far. Upon urine dip, leucocytes, nitrates, blood, and protein are detected. What is the most suitable course of treatment?
Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin
Explanation:Although UTI in pregnancy may not show any symptoms, it still needs to be treated promptly to prevent the development of pyelonephritis. The common medications used to treat UTIs are nitrofurantoin and trimethoprim. Nitrofurantoin can be used during pregnancy, but it should be avoided at term as it can cause neonatal haemolysis. Trimethoprim should be avoided in the first trimester of pregnancy. Penicillins and cephalosporins are safe to use during pregnancy, but sulfonamides (such as sulfasalazine) and quinolones (such as ciprofloxacin) should be avoided.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. The management of UTIs depends on various factors such as the patient’s age, gender, and pregnancy status. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed if available. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. However, if the patient is aged over 65 years or has visible or non-visible haematuria, a urine culture should be sent. Pregnant women with UTIs should be treated with nitrofurantoin, amoxicillin, or cefalexin for seven days. Trimethoprim should be avoided during pregnancy as it is teratogenic in the first trimester. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated to prevent progression to acute pyelonephritis. Men with UTIs should be offered a seven-day course of trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin unless prostatitis is suspected. A urine culture should be sent before antibiotics are started. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given. Acute pyelonephritis requires hospital admission and treatment with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone for 10-14 days. Referral to urology is not routinely required for men who have had one uncomplicated lower UTI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 31-year-old primigravida woman presents to the emergency department after a fall. She is currently 36 weeks pregnant and experienced convulsions for approximately 1 minute following the fall. The patient has a medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus and has been experiencing headaches and swollen feet for the past 48 hours. Upon assessment, her heart rate is 87 bpm and blood pressure is 179/115 mmHg. What is the next best course of action for her management?
Your Answer: Intravenous magnesium sulphate
Explanation:The recommended first-line treatment for eclampsia is intravenous magnesium sulphate. In this case, the woman has been diagnosed with eclampsia due to her tonic-clonic seizure and her symptoms of pre-eclampsia for the past two days. The initial management should focus on preventing further seizures and providing neuroprotection to the fetus, followed by considering delivery. It is important to monitor both the mother and fetus for signs of hypermagnesaemia, such as hyperreflexia and respiratory depression, and to continuously monitor their cardiotocography. Emergency caesarean section is not the most appropriate initial management as the woman needs to be stabilized first, given her high risk of having further seizures. Intravenous anti-hypertensives should also be administered after magnesium sulphate to lower her blood pressure. Intravenous furosemide and monitoring cardiotocography are not recommended as furosemide does not lower blood pressure in eclampsia. Intramuscular steroids are not necessary in this case as the woman is 35 weeks pregnant, and fetal lungs should be fully developed by now. Steroids are also not the most important management at this stage, even if the woman was earlier in her pregnancy.
Understanding Eclampsia and its Treatment
Eclampsia is a condition that occurs when seizures develop in association with pre-eclampsia, a pregnancy-induced hypertension that is characterized by proteinuria and occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. To prevent seizures in patients with severe pre-eclampsia and treat seizures once they develop, magnesium sulphate is commonly used. However, it is important to note that this medication should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. In cases of eclampsia, an IV bolus of 4g over 5-10 minutes should be given, followed by an infusion of 1g/hour. During treatment, it is crucial to monitor urine output, reflexes, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturations. Respiratory depression can occur, and calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment for magnesium sulphate-induced respiratory depression. Treatment should continue for 24 hours after the last seizure or delivery, as around 40% of seizures occur post-partum. Additionally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid the potentially serious consequences of fluid overload.
In summary, understanding the development of eclampsia and its treatment is crucial in managing this potentially life-threatening condition. Magnesium sulphate is the primary medication used to prevent and treat seizures, but it should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. Monitoring vital signs and urine output is essential during treatment, and calcium gluconate should be readily available in case of respiratory depression. Finally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid complications associated with fluid overload.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man of Indian descent presents for a hypertension follow-up. He presents a log of blood pressure readings he has taken at home, consistently showing values above 150/90 mmHg. He is currently taking amlodipine and atorvastatin, with optimal dosing for the past year. What would be the best course of action at this point?
Your Answer: Stop amlodipine and trial ramipril with indapamide instead
Correct Answer: Add indapamide
Explanation:The appropriate next step in the treatment of poorly controlled hypertension in a patient already taking a calcium channel blocker is to add a thiazide-like diuretic such as indapamide. This is in accordance with the NICE treatment algorithm, which recommends adding an ACE inhibitor, angiotensin-receptor-blocker, or thiazide-like diuretic in such cases. Adding a thiazide diuretic like bendroflumethiazide would be incorrect. Continuing blood pressure monitoring and reviewing in one month would not be appropriate, as the patient’s hypertension needs to be escalated. Similarly, stopping amlodipine and trialling ramipril with indapamide instead, or stopping amlodipine and trialling ramipril alone, would also be incorrect. The recommended approach is to add an ACE inhibitor or thiazide-like diuretic in combination with the calcium channel blocker.
NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.
The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.
NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.
New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 8
Correct
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A 67-year-old man with COPD comes to the emergency department complaining of right-sided chest pain and shortness of breath that has been present for the past 4 days. A chest x-ray reveals a 2cm right-sided apical pneumothorax, which the on-call emergency physician promptly aspirates. The man has a smooth recovery but is curious about how he can avoid any future recurrences.
What recommendations should be given to the patient?Your Answer: Avoid deep sea diving for life
Explanation:The patient should be advised to avoid deep-sea diving for life due to the risk of pneumothorax. However, they can fly one week after having a chest x-ray showing complete resolution of the pneumothorax. There is no increased risk of catamenial pneumothoraces. Pleurodesis is not necessary for a single pneumothorax, whether primary or secondary.
Management of Pneumothorax: BTS Guidelines
Pneumothorax is a condition where air accumulates in the pleural space, causing the lung to collapse. The British Thoracic Society (BTS) has published updated guidelines for the management of spontaneous pneumothorax, which can be primary or secondary. Primary pneumothorax occurs without any underlying lung disease, while secondary pneumothorax is associated with lung disease.
The BTS guidelines recommend that patients with a rim of air less than 2cm and no shortness of breath may be discharged, while those with a larger rim of air or shortness of breath should undergo aspiration or chest drain insertion. For secondary pneumothorax, patients over 50 years old with a rim of air greater than 2cm or shortness of breath should undergo chest drain insertion. Aspiration may be attempted for those with a rim of air between 1-2cm, but chest drain insertion is necessary if aspiration fails.
For iatrogenic pneumothorax, observation is usually sufficient, but chest drain insertion may be necessary in some cases. Ventilated patients and those with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) may require chest drain insertion. If a patient has persistent or recurrent pneumothorax, video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS) may be necessary.
Patients should be advised to avoid smoking to reduce the risk of further episodes. Fitness to fly is an absolute contraindication, but patients may travel 1 week after successful drainage if there is no residual air. Scuba diving should be permanently avoided unless the patient has undergone bilateral surgical pleurectomy and has normal lung function and chest CT scan postoperatively.
Overall, the BTS guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to the management of pneumothorax, taking into account the type of pneumothorax, patient characteristics, and potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 9
Correct
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A 52-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner (GP) with symptoms of a urinary tract infection. There is a history of multiple attendances and a previous neurology referral for migraine. She admits to taking multiple painkillers for her headaches. Blood pressure is 160/90 mmHg. Urinalysis reveals haematuria, and the GP commences her on a 2-week course of nitrofurantoin. She returns, still complaining of symptoms, at which point the presence of a normochromic normocytic anaemia is noted, along with a serum creatinine level of 230 μmol/l (reference range 44–97 μmol/l).
What diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?Your Answer: Analgesic nephropathy
Explanation:Possible Diagnosis for a Patient with Excessive Analgesic Consumption
Excessive consumption of analgesic medications such as aspirin and paracetamol can lead to kidney injury, a condition known as analgesic nephropathy. This is caused by decreased blood flow to the kidney, rapid consumption of antioxidants, and subsequent oxidative damage to the kidney, resulting in renal papillary necrosis and chronic interstitial nephritis. The kidney injury may lead to progressive chronic kidney disease, abnormal urinalysis results, hypertension, and normochromic normocytic anaemia.
Other possible diagnoses for renal damage include reflux nephropathy, acute nephritis, renal failure secondary to sepsis, and hypertensive renal disease. Reflux nephropathy is characterized by renal damage due to the backflow of urine from the bladder towards the kidneys, while acute nephritis is caused by infections or drug-associated hypersensitivity. Renal failure secondary to sepsis is associated with systemic inflammatory response syndrome, and hypertensive renal disease is defined by the coexistence of renal arterial vascular disease and hypertension.
In the given clinical scenario, the most likely diagnosis is analgesic nephropathy due to the patient’s history of excessive analgesic consumption. However, other diagnoses cannot be ruled out without further evaluation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 5-year-old boy presents to the Paediatric Emergency Department with a fever and a rash. He has been feeling sick for 5 days with persistent high temperatures. During the examination, he displays cracked lips, a bright red tongue, a widespread erythematous maculopapular rash, and peeling of the skin on his hands and feet. Additionally, he has bilateral conjunctivitis. What is the necessary investigation to screen for a potential complication, given the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Echocardiogram
Explanation:Kawasaki disease can lead to coronary artery aneurysms, which can be detected through an echocardiogram. To diagnose Kawasaki disease, the patient must have a fever for more than 5 days and at least 4 of the following symptoms: bilateral conjunctivitis, cervical lymphadenopathy, polymorphic rash, cracked lips/strawberry tongue, and oedema/desquamation of the hands/feet. This patient has a rash, conjunctivitis, mucosal involvement, and desquamation of the hands and feet, indicating Kawasaki disease. While cardiac magnetic resonance angiography is a non-invasive alternative to coronary angiography, it is not first-line due to its cost and limited availability. A chest x-ray may be considered to check for cardiomegaly, but it is not necessary as echocardiography can diagnose pericarditis or myocarditis without radiation. Coronary angiography is invasive and carries risks, so it is not first-line unless large coronary artery aneurysms are seen on echocardiography. A lumbar puncture is not necessary at this stage unless the patient displays symptoms of meningitis.
Understanding Kawasaki Disease
Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.
Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.
Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 11
Correct
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A 50-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department via ambulance after experiencing a sudden onset of facial droop and speech impairment. Upon examination, she is conscious but displays both expressive and receptive aphasia. The patient's GP summary record indicates that she is only taking tamoxifen. Based on this information, what is the most probable medical condition in her past medical history?
Your Answer: Oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer
Explanation:Pre-menopausal women with oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer are managed using Tamoxifen.
Tamoxifen is ineffective in treating oestrogen receptor-negative breast cancer or ovarian cancer.
However, Tamoxifen may increase the risk of endometrial cancer.
Colorectal cancer is not treated with Tamoxifen.Anti-oestrogen drugs are used in the management of oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer. Selective oEstrogen Receptor Modulators (SERM) such as Tamoxifen act as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist. However, Tamoxifen can cause adverse effects such as menstrual disturbance, hot flushes, venous thromboembolism, and endometrial cancer. On the other hand, aromatase inhibitors like Anastrozole and Letrozole reduce peripheral oestrogen synthesis, which is important in postmenopausal women. Anastrozole is used for ER +ve breast cancer in this group. However, aromatase inhibitors can cause adverse effects such as osteoporosis, hot flushes, arthralgia, myalgia, and insomnia. NICE recommends a DEXA scan when initiating a patient on aromatase inhibitors for breast cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 28-year-old female complains of an itchy vulva and painful intercourse. She reports experiencing a green, malodorous vaginal discharge for the last 14 days. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Trichomonas vaginalis
Explanation:Understanding Trichomonas vaginalis and its Comparison to Bacterial Vaginosis
Trichomonas vaginalis is a type of protozoan parasite that is highly motile and flagellated. It is known to cause trichomoniasis, which is a sexually transmitted infection. The infection is characterized by symptoms such as offensive, yellow/green, frothy vaginal discharge, vulvovaginitis, and strawberry cervix. The pH level is usually above 4.5, and in men, it may cause urethritis.
To diagnose trichomoniasis, a wet mount microscopy is conducted to observe the motile trophozoites. The treatment for trichomoniasis involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, although a one-off dose of 2g metronidazole may also be used.
When compared to bacterial vaginosis, trichomoniasis has distinct differences. Bacterial vaginosis is caused by an overgrowth of bacteria in the vagina, while trichomoniasis is caused by a protozoan parasite. The symptoms of bacterial vaginosis include a thin, grayish-white vaginal discharge with a fishy odor, and a pH level above 4.5. Unlike trichomoniasis, bacterial vaginosis is not considered a sexually transmitted infection.
In conclusion, understanding the differences between trichomoniasis and bacterial vaginosis is crucial in diagnosing and treating these conditions effectively. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent complications and improve overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 13
Correct
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A 58-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) experiences an exacerbation of breathlessness and a productive cough with green sputum.
What is the most appropriate treatment option for him?Your Answer: Doxycycline and prednisolone
Explanation:Treatment Options for COPD Exacerbations: Antibiotics and Corticosteroids
COPD exacerbations are characterized by a sudden worsening of symptoms beyond the patient’s usual stable state. These symptoms include increased breathlessness, cough, sputum production, and changes in sputum color. To treat exacerbations, a combination of antibiotics and corticosteroids is often used.
Oral corticosteroids, such as prednisolone, should be prescribed for five days to patients experiencing a significant increase in breathlessness that interferes with daily activities. Antibiotics are recommended for exacerbations associated with purulent sputum, with first-line agents including amoxicillin, doxycycline, and clarithromycin.
It is important to follow local microbiologist guidance when initiating empirical antibiotic treatment. Flucloxacillin and clindamycin are not useful in treating COPD exacerbations and are recommended for other conditions such as skin infections and bacterial vaginosis, respectively. Nitrofurantoin and trimethoprim are used for urinary tract infections and may be considered as first or second-line agents depending on antibiotic resistance and previous sensitivity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 14
Correct
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A 42 year old undergoes a thyroidectomy and is informed about the potential impact on her parathyroid glands. What is a possible sign of parathyroid damage after the surgery?
Your Answer: Tingling around the hands, feet or mouth, and unusual muscle movements
Explanation:Symptoms and Complications of Thyroidectomy
Thyroidectomy is a common surgical procedure that involves the removal of the thyroid gland. However, it can lead to various complications, including hypoparathyroidism and hyperparathyroidism. Here are some symptoms to watch out for:
Acute hypocalcaemia, characterized by tingling around the hands, feet, or mouth, and unusual muscle movements, is a common complication of hypoparathyroidism post-thyroidectomy. Intravenous calcium may be necessary to correct the hypocalcaemia.
Headache, sweating, and tachycardia are classic symptoms of phaeochromocytoma, which can occur in patients at risk of hypoparathyroidism post-thyroidectomy.
Dry, thick skin, coarse hair, and brittle nails are signs of hypothyroidism, not hypoparathyroidism.
Feeling thirsty and passing a lot of urine are signs of hypercalcaemia, which may be caused by hyperparathyroidism. Hypoparathyroidism post-thyroidectomy is a common complication that can lead to hypercalcaemia.
Hyperactivity and mood swings are more indicative of hyperthyroidism, but patients at risk of hypoparathyroidism post-thyroidectomy should still be monitored for these symptoms.
In summary, patients who undergo thyroidectomy should be aware of the potential complications and symptoms that may arise. Regular monitoring and prompt medical attention can help manage these issues effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old football player comes to the GP clinic complaining of a loss of motor function in his left leg. He denies any specific injuries and has an important game next week that he's been anxious about. He enters the room using crutches. During the examination, it is found that he has 0/5 power in his left knee, ankle, and toes. The rest of the neurological and musculoskeletal examination is unremarkable. Blood tests and a lumbar MRI come back normal, making an organic cause for his symptoms unlikely. He is eager to know the reason behind his condition so that he can resume his training.
What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?Your Answer: Somatisation disorder
Correct Answer: Conversion disorder
Explanation:It is probable that the patient is experiencing conversion disorder, which is often triggered by stress and involves the loss of motor or sensory function. The potential grand final rugby game may have been the stressor in this case.
Somatisation disorder is unlikely as it requires the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, whereas this patient has only one acute onset symptom. Dissociative disorder is also improbable as there are no evident psychiatric symptoms such as amnesia, stupor, or fugue. The patient remembers clearly that he has a football game and has not sustained any recent injuries.
However, factitious disorder cannot be ruled out entirely. It is possible that the patient is feigning the symptom to avoid playing the game, but further investigation is necessary. The patient claims to be eager to return to playing, which does not support the notion of factitious disorder.
Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms
There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.
Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.
Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 16
Correct
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A 9-year-old boy with asthma is brought into the GP surgery with a cough and shortness of breath. Examination reveals a respiratory rate of 34 breaths/min, apyrexial, wheeze throughout his chest and a peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) of half his predicted value.
Which of the following treatments is the best option?
Your Answer: Inpatient management with nebuliser salbutamol and oral steroids
Explanation:Managing Acute Asthma Exacerbations in Children: Treatment Options and Guidelines
When a child experiences an acute asthma exacerbation, prompt and appropriate management is crucial to prevent further complications. Here are some treatment options and guidelines to consider:
Inpatient Management with Nebuliser Salbutamol and Oral Steroids
For severe asthma exacerbations, hospital transfer is necessary. Inpatient management should include nebulised bronchodilators in combination with early oral steroids. A 3-day steroid course is usually sufficient.Manage as Outpatient with Inhaled Salbutamol via Spacer
Mild to moderate acute asthma can be managed with salbutamol via a spacer. Oral steroids should be considered in all children with an acute exacerbation of asthma. However, all children with features of severe or life-threatening asthma should be transferred to a hospital.Outpatient Management with Antibiotics
Antibiotics would be inappropriate for acute asthma exacerbations unless there are clues in the history to suggest a bacterial infection as the cause of exacerbation.Continue Current Medications with No Changes
In severe acute asthma, urgent treatment with nebulisers and transfer to a hospital is necessary.IV Salbutamol
IV salbutamol is second line and considered only if the symptoms have responded poorly to nebulised therapy.British Thoracic Society (BTS)/Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN) guidance suggests that all children with features of severe or life-threatening asthma should be transferred to a hospital. The severity of acute asthma in children over 5 can be determined using the BTS severity scoring.
By following these guidelines and treatment options, healthcare professionals can effectively manage acute asthma exacerbations in children and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 17
Correct
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A 28-year-old pregnant woman presents at 34 weeks gestation with a blood pressure reading of 175/105 mmHg and 3+ proteinuria. She is started on magnesium sulphate and labetalol. The patient reports decreased foetal movements. Upon examination, a cardiotocogram reveals late decelerations and a foetal heart rate of 90 beats/minute. What is the next course of action in managing this situation?
Your Answer: Emergency caesarian section
Explanation:Pre-eclampsia can be diagnosed based on the presence of high levels of protein in the urine and hypertension. To prevent the development of eclampsia, magnesium sulphate is administered, while labetalol is used to manage high blood pressure. If a cardiotocography (CTG) shows late decelerations and foetal bradycardia, this is a concerning sign and may necessitate an emergency caesarean section. Induction would not be recommended if the CTG is abnormal.
Cardiotocography (CTG) is a medical procedure that measures pressure changes in the uterus using either internal or external pressure transducers. It is used to monitor the fetal heart rate, which normally ranges between 100-160 beats per minute. There are several features that can be observed during a CTG, including baseline bradycardia (heart rate below 100 beats per minute), which can be caused by increased fetal vagal tone or maternal beta-blocker use. Baseline tachycardia (heart rate above 160 beats per minute) can be caused by maternal pyrexia, chorioamnionitis, hypoxia, or prematurity. Loss of baseline variability (less than 5 beats per minute) can be caused by prematurity or hypoxia. Early deceleration, which is a decrease in heart rate that starts with the onset of a contraction and returns to normal after the contraction, is usually harmless and indicates head compression. Late deceleration, on the other hand, is a decrease in heart rate that lags behind the onset of a contraction and does not return to normal until after 30 seconds following the end of the contraction. This can indicate fetal distress, such as asphyxia or placental insufficiency. Variable decelerations, which are independent of contractions, may indicate cord compression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 18
Correct
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A 7-year-old boy comes to his General Practitioner with his mother, having just woken up from a nap and experienced twitching of the left side of his mouth. He complains of a ‘buzzing’ sensation in his lips. His speech is unclear and he drooled from the left side of his mouth. His symptoms resolved within two minutes and he remained conscious throughout the episode.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Benign rolandic epilepsy (BRE)
Explanation:Types of Epilepsy: Characteristics and Differences
Epilepsy is a neurological disorder characterized by recurrent seizures. There are different types of epilepsy, each with its own set of clinical features and diagnostic criteria. Here are some of the most common types of epilepsy and their distinguishing characteristics:
Benign Rolandic Epilepsy (BRE)
BRE, also known as childhood epilepsy with centrotemporal spikes, is characterized by seizures that often occur during sleep or just before waking. Children may experience paraesthesia of their lips, tongue, or the inside of their mouth, which can interfere with speech and cause drooling. Twitching of one side of the mouth or face often develops, followed by twitching in the limbs on the same side. Seizures typically last less than two minutes, and the child remains conscious.Absence Seizures
Absence seizures are a form of generalized epilepsy that impairs consciousness. Children are most commonly affected, and the seizures usually last only a few seconds but may occur many times a day. During the absence, the child stops activity and stares blankly, not responding to questions. There may be lip-smacking or facial tics. An EEG will reveal a characteristic spike-and-wave activity.Temporal Lobe Epilepsy (TLE)
TLE is characterized by partial and/or focal seizures that may be simple or complex, with some loss of awareness. The clinical features of TLE reflect the function of the temporal lobe, primarily speech, taste, smell, and memory. Presentations may include déjà vu, gastrointestinal disturbance, amnesia during an attack, olfactory or gustatory hallucinations, and abnormal sensations crawling up the body. Repetitive vocalizations, automatism, and lip-smacking may be seen.Juvenile Myoclonic Epilepsy (JME)
JME describes generalized epilepsy that impairs consciousness. JME usually presents in later childhood, with a peak onset at 10–16 years. The defining seizure is myoclonic and usually occurs in the first hour after waking. These seizures occur as sudden jerks, which commonly involve the arms and/or trunk. However, any muscle may be affected. The patient is generally conscious while myoclonic jerks are occurring. Generalized tonic-clonic seizures often accompany myoclonic seizures in JME, which may lead to reduced consciousness.Infantile Spasms
Infantile spasms develop in the first year of life, with peak -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 19
Correct
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What is the initial indication of puberty in young girls?
Your Answer: Breast development
Explanation:Puberty: Normal Changes in Males and Females
Puberty is a natural process that marks the transition from childhood to adulthood. In males, the first sign of puberty is testicular growth, which typically occurs around the age of 12. A testicular volume greater than 4 ml indicates the onset of puberty. The maximum height spurt for males occurs at the age of 14.
For females, the first sign of puberty is breast development, which typically occurs around the age of 11.5. The height spurt for females reaches its maximum early in puberty, at the age of 12, before menarche. Menarche, the onset of menstruation, typically occurs at the age of 13.
Following menarche, there is only a small increase of about 4% in height. It is important to note that normal changes in puberty may include gynaecomastia in boys, asymmetrical breast growth in girls, and diffuse enlargement of the thyroid gland. These changes are a natural part of the process and should not cause alarm. Understanding the normal changes that occur during puberty can help individuals navigate this important stage of development with confidence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 20
Correct
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A 7-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with a fever, cough, coryza and conjunctivitis. He has a rash that looks like tight clusters of small red spots. He also has some grey-white spots inside his mouth. Prior to the last five days, he is normally a fit and well child who does not take any regular medications. He has not had any vaccinations. His temperature is 38 °C and his other observations are within normal limits.
What would be the next most appropriate step in this patient’s management?
Your Answer: Discharge home with advice regarding supportive care
Explanation:Supportive Care for Children with Measles: Discharge Advice
Measles is a highly contagious viral illness that can be prevented through vaccination. If a child is diagnosed with measles, they will present with symptoms such as fever, cough, and a rash. The period of contagiousness is estimated to be from five days before the appearance of the rash to four days afterwards. There is no specific treatment for uncomplicated measles, but supportive care can be provided to manage symptoms.
Discharge advice for parents of a child with measles should include information on potential complications and when to seek medical attention. It is important to monitor the child’s symptoms and provide antipyretics and fluids as needed. If a secondary bacterial infection arises, antibiotics may be required. Immunoglobulins are not given as a treatment for acute measles, but vaccination is recommended as a preventative measure. Aspirin should not be given to children with measles due to the risk of Reye syndrome. Paracetamol and ibuprofen can be given for symptomatic relief. With proper supportive care, most children with measles will recover without complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 21
Correct
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A 20-year-old woman presents to your clinic seeking emergency contraception after forgetting to take 2 doses of her regular contraceptive pill. She reports engaging in sexual activity approximately 48 hours ago. Her medical history includes eczema and severe asthma. Although she missed her pill, she is hesitant to switch to a different form of contraception as she typically has no issues with her current pill but simply forgot to bring it with her while staying at her boyfriend's for the weekend. What is the most suitable emergency contraception option to suggest to her?
Your Answer: Levonorgestrel
Explanation:Levonorgestrel is the correct choice, as the patient has expressed reluctance to try a different form of contraception. It is important to prioritize pregnancy prevention while also discussing the benefits of long-acting reversible contraception and allowing the patient time to consider it. While ulipristal and levonorgestrel are both oral options, ulipristal should be used cautiously in patients with severe asthma. As the patient is still within the 72-hour window for levonorgestrel use and has missed two doses of her oral contraceptive pill, levonorgestrel is the preferred option.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 22
Correct
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A 58-year-old woman develops a red and hot right shin. She is afebrile and otherwise well. She has no known allergies. Her Wells' score is -2.
Which of the following would be the best option?
Select the SINGLE best option from the list below. Select ONE option only.Your Answer: Oral flucloxacillin
Explanation:Treatment Options for Cellulitis and the Use of Doppler Ultrasound for DVT Diagnosis
Cellulitis is a common bacterial skin infection that can be treated with oral flucloxacillin, according to UK antimicrobial guidelines. Hospital admission for cellulitis treatment is only necessary for febrile and ill patients or those with comorbidities. Oral co-amoxiclav is recommended for facial cellulitis, but not for cellulitis in other locations. Oral vancomycin is used for Clostridium difficile infection, not cellulitis.
A Doppler ultrasound scan can be useful in diagnosing deep venous thrombosis (DVT), but it is unlikely to be necessary for a patient with cellulitis who is otherwise well and has a low Wells’ score. The Wells’ score is a tool used to assess the likelihood of DVT based on clinical features.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 35-year-old man presents with a swollen, erythematous finger and right axillary tenderness, 24 hours after being bitten by his pet dog.
Which of the following is the best treatment?Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Explanation:Antibiotics for Dog Bite Infections: Recommended and Not Recommended Options
Dog bites can lead to infections caused by various micro-organisms, including anaerobic mouth flora and bacteria. Co-amoxiclav, a combination of amoxicillin and clavulanic acid, is the recommended antibiotic for dog bite-related infections, as it is effective against the most likely organisms. Fluconazole, an antifungal agent, is not indicated for such infections, as fungal micro-organisms in dogs usually cause only superficial skin rashes. Metronidazole, although effective against anaerobic bacteria, is not recommended for dog bite-related infections, except for patients allergic to penicillin. Aciclovir is not used for dog bite-related infections, as it is restricted to treating varicella-zoster and herpes zoster. Flucloxacillin, although recommended for skin infections, is not active against anaerobic bacteria and is not recommended for dog bite-related infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 24
Correct
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A 68-year-old diabetic man presents with a stiff and painful left shoulder that limits all movements. He is left-handed and can no longer participate in his favorite hobbies due to the discomfort. Adhesive capsulitis is suspected. What factors are linked to this condition?
Your Answer: History of diabetes mellitus
Explanation:Adhesive capsulitis is a condition that may occur in diabetic patients, as well as those with a history of myocardial infarction, lung disease, or neck disease. It is more common in females aged 40-60 years, and typically affects the non-dominant hand. Prolonged immobilization or disuse of the arm due to pain from another cause may also lead to adhesive capsulitis. There is no known correlation with activity.
Understanding Adhesive Capsulitis (Frozen Shoulder)
Adhesive capsulitis, commonly known as frozen shoulder, is a prevalent cause of shoulder pain that primarily affects middle-aged women. The exact cause of this condition is not yet fully understood. However, studies have shown that up to 20% of diabetics may experience an episode of frozen shoulder. Symptoms typically develop over several days, with external rotation being more affected than internal rotation or abduction. Both active and passive movement are affected, and patients usually experience a painful freezing phase, an adhesive phase, and a recovery phase. In some cases, the condition may affect both shoulders, which occurs in up to 20% of patients. The episode typically lasts between 6 months and 2 years.
Diagnosis of adhesive capsulitis is usually clinical, although imaging may be necessary for atypical or persistent symptoms. Unfortunately, no single intervention has been proven to improve the outcome in the long-term. However, there are several treatment options available, including nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), physiotherapy, oral corticosteroids, and intra-articular corticosteroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 25
Correct
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A 45-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of various neurological symptoms that have persisted for the past few weeks. The doctor suspects that he may be experiencing idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH).
What is the primary symptom associated with IIH?Your Answer: Headache
Explanation:Understanding the Clinical Features of Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension (IIH)
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH) is a condition that presents with non-specific complaints, making it difficult to diagnose. However, there are several clinical features that can help identify the condition. The most common symptom is a severe daily headache, often described as pulsatile, that may be associated with nausea and vomiting. Other symptoms include pulse-synchronous tinnitus, transient visual obscurations, visual loss, neck and back pain, diplopia, and photophobia. IIH can occur in any age group but is most commonly seen in women of childbearing age. Horizontal diplopia occurs in about 33% of patients with IIH, while hearing loss is a rare presentation. Tinnitus is described by two-thirds of patients, with pulse-synchronous tinnitus being a relatively specific symptom for elevated intracranial pressure. By understanding these clinical features, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and manage IIH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 17-year-old female patient presents with concerns about her acne and its impact on her self-esteem. She has been experiencing acne for a few years and is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill, which has provided some relief. After a thorough discussion, you decide to initiate treatment with topical isotretinoin. What other side effect, in addition to its teratogenic effects, should you inform her about?
Your Answer: Erythema
Explanation:The initial approach to treating acne involves the use of a topical retinoid (such as tretinoin, isotretinoin, or adapalene) or benzoyl peroxide, particularly if there are papules and pustules present. Patients should be informed of the potential side effects of topical retinoids, which may include burning, redness, and dryness of the skin, as well as eye irritation and swelling. However, topical retinoids are not associated with aggravating acne, causing headaches or nausea, or leading to yellowing of the skin.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that typically affects adolescents, with the face, neck, and upper trunk being the most commonly affected areas. It is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, leading to the formation of comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the presence and extent of inflammatory lesions, papules, and pustules.
The management of acne vulgaris typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy such as topical retinoids or benzoyl peroxide. If this is not effective, topical combination therapy may be used, which includes a topical antibiotic, benzoyl peroxide, and topical retinoid. Oral antibiotics such as tetracyclines may also be prescribed, but they should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and children under 12 years of age. Erythromycin may be used in pregnancy, while minocycline is now considered less appropriate due to the possibility of irreversible pigmentation. Oral antibiotics should be used for a maximum of three months and always co-prescribed with a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance.
Combined oral contraceptives (COCP) are an alternative to oral antibiotics in women, and Dianette (co-cyrindiol) may be used as it has anti-androgen properties. However, it has an increased risk of venous thromboembolism compared to other COCPs, so it should generally be used second-line and for only three months. Oral isotretinoin is a potent medication that should only be used under specialist supervision, and it is contraindicated in pregnancy. Finally, there is no evidence to support dietary modification in the management of acne vulgaris.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 56-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis complains of bloody diarrhoea, accompanied by fever and abdominal pain for the past week. She is on methotrexate for her rheumatoid arthritis, which is usually well-controlled. Upon testing her stool sample, Campylobacter jejuni is detected. What is the best course of action for treatment?
Your Answer: Fluids + clarithromycin
Explanation:Campylobacter: The Most Common Bacterial Cause of Intestinal Disease in the UK
Campylobacter is a Gram-negative bacillus that is responsible for causing infectious intestinal disease in the UK. The bacteria is primarily spread through the faecal-oral route and has an incubation period of 1-6 days. Symptoms of Campylobacter infection include a prodrome of headache and malaise, diarrhoea (often bloody), and abdominal pain that may mimic appendicitis.
In most cases, Campylobacter infection is self-limiting and does not require treatment. However, the British National Formulary (BNF) recommends treatment with antibiotics if the patient is immunocompromised or if symptoms are severe (high fever, bloody diarrhoea, or more than eight stools per day) and have lasted for more than one week. The first-line antibiotic for Campylobacter infection is clarithromycin, although ciprofloxacin is an alternative. It is important to note that strains with decreased sensitivity to ciprofloxacin are frequently isolated.
Complications of Campylobacter infection may include Guillain-Barre syndrome, reactive arthritis, septicaemia, endocarditis, and arthritis. It is important to seek medical attention if symptoms are severe or persist for an extended period of time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 28
Correct
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A child is admitted with wheeze and an urticarial rash, which began 10 minutes after ingestion of amoxicillin for a chest infection.
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is this?Your Answer: Type 1
Explanation:Types of Hypersensitivity Reactions and Their Mechanisms
Hypersensitivity reactions are exaggerated immune responses that can cause tissue damage and disease. There are five types of hypersensitivity reactions, each with a different mechanism and clinical presentation.
Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by immunoglobulin E (IgE) and mast cell degranulation, leading to the release of histamine and other mediators. This type of reaction is responsible for allergies and anaphylaxis and is treated with antihistamines, epinephrine, and steroids.
Type 2 hypersensitivity reactions are antibody-mediated and involve the interaction of antibodies with antigens on target cells. Examples include haemolytic anaemia of the newborn and Goodpasture Syndrome.
Type 3 hypersensitivity reactions are immune complex-mediated and occur when immune complexes are deposited in tissues, leading to inflammation. Examples include rheumatoid arthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus.
Type 4 hypersensitivity reactions are delayed and involve the activation of sensitised T-helper cells, leading to the accumulation of macrophages and cytotoxic T-cells. Examples include chronic transplant rejection and contact dermatitis.
Type 5 hypersensitivity reactions are receptor-mediated or autoimmune and occur when antibodies bind to cell surface receptors. Examples include Grave’s disease and myasthenia gravis.
Understanding the mechanisms of hypersensitivity reactions is important for diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 29
Correct
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A 47-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of shortness of breath and a non-productive cough. During the examination, the doctor notes dullness to percussion on the right upper lobe. The patient has a history of tuberculosis, which was treated previously, and also has Crohn's disease for which she takes regular prednisolone. An X-ray reveals a target-shaped lesion in the right upper lobe with air crescent sign present. There is no significant family history. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Aspergilloma
Explanation:An aspergilloma is a fungal mass that can develop in pre-formed body cavities, often as a result of previous tuberculosis. Other conditions that can lead to aspergilloma include sarcoidosis, bronchiectasis, and ankylosing spondylitis. In this case, the patient’s history of tuberculosis and use of immunosuppressive medications like corticosteroids increase their risk for developing aspergilloma. Mild haemoptysis may occur, indicating that the mass has eroded into a nearby blood vessel. The air crescent sign on chest x-ray is a characteristic finding of aspergilloma, where a crescent of air surrounds a radiopaque mass in a lung cavity.
Bronchiectasis is not the correct answer, as it would present with additional symptoms such as a chronic cough with productive sputum and widespread crackles on examination. It also would not explain the x-ray findings.
Histiocytosis is also incorrect, as it is a rare condition that primarily affects children and causes systemic symptoms such as bone pain, skin rash, and polyuria.
Reactivation of tuberculosis is not the correct option, as it would present with systemic symptoms such as weight loss, anorexia, or night sweats, and would not explain the x-ray findings. We would expect to see fibro-nodular opacities in the upper lobes in TB.
An aspergilloma is a fungal ball that forms in an existing lung cavity, often caused by conditions such as tuberculosis, lung cancer, or cystic fibrosis. While it may not cause any symptoms, it can lead to coughing and severe haemoptysis (coughing up blood). Diagnosis can be made through a chest x-ray, which will show a rounded opacity with a possible crescent sign, as well as high levels of Aspergillus precipitins. In some cases, a CT scan may also be necessary to confirm the presence of the aspergilloma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 30
Correct
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A 38-year-old teacher presents with ongoing fatigue. During a routine blood test, abnormal liver function tests are detected, prompting a hepatitis screen. The results are as follows:
Negative for Anti-HAV IgG
Negative for HBsAg
Positive for Anti-HBs
Negative for Anti-HBc
Positive for Anti-HCV
What is the most likely interpretation of these results?Your Answer: Hepatitis C infection with previous hepatitis B vaccination
Explanation:To determine if a patient still has the hepatitis C virus, a HCV PCR test is necessary as only a small percentage of patients naturally clear the infection. Unfortunately, there is currently no vaccine available for hepatitis C.
When interpreting hepatitis B serology, the presence of surface antigen (HBsAg) typically indicates acute disease and triggers the production of anti-HBs. If HBsAg is present for more than six months, it suggests chronic disease and is infectious. Anti-HBs indicates immunity from either exposure or vaccination, while anti-HBc suggests previous or current infection. The appearance of IgM anti-HBc during acute or recent hepatitis B infection lasts for about six months. HbeAg is a marker of infectivity as it results from the breakdown of core antigen from infected liver cells.
Understanding Hepatitis C: Transmission, Complications, and Management
Hepatitis C is a viral infection that is expected to become a significant public health concern in the UK in the coming years. It is estimated that around 200,000 people in the country are chronically infected with the virus, with intravenous drug users and those who received blood transfusions prior to 1991 being at higher risk. The virus is an RNA flavivirus with an incubation period of 6-9 weeks.
Transmission of the virus can occur through needle stick injuries, vertical transmission from mother to child (especially if coexistent with HIV), and sexual intercourse (although the risk is low). There is currently no vaccine for hepatitis C. Symptoms of acute infection include a transient rise in serum aminotransferases, jaundice, fatigue, and arthralgia.
Around 15-45% of patients will clear the virus after an acute infection, while the majority (55-85%) will develop chronic hepatitis C. This can lead to complications such as rheumatological problems, cirrhosis, hepatocellular cancer, and cryoglobulinemia. Treatment for chronic infection depends on the viral genotype and aims for sustained virological response (SVR), defined as undetectable serum HCV RNA six months after the end of therapy. Interferon-based treatments are no longer recommended, with protease inhibitors such as daclatasvir and sofosbuvir or sofosbuvir and simeprevir being used instead. However, these treatments can have side effects such as haemolytic anaemia, cough, flu-like symptoms, depression, and fatigue.
In conclusion, understanding the transmission, complications, and management of hepatitis C is crucial in addressing this growing public health concern.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 31
Correct
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A patient in her 40s comes in with concerns about her family history of cancer. Which type of cancer is the least likely to be passed down through genetics?
Your Answer: Gastric cancer
Explanation:Familial adenomatous polyposis is responsible for the majority of cases of colon cancer, while HNPCC is responsible for a smaller percentage. Women with HNPCC have a significantly higher risk of developing endometrial cancer, approximately 5 times higher than the general population.
Cancer is a prevalent disease in the UK, with breast cancer being the most common type. Lung, colorectal, prostate, and bladder cancers also rank high on the list of common cancers. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, melanoma, stomach, oesophagus, and pancreas cancers complete the top ten. However, when it comes to cancer-related deaths, lung cancer takes the lead, followed by colorectal, breast, prostate, and pancreatic cancers. Oesophagus, stomach, bladder, non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, and ovarian cancers also contribute to cancer-related deaths in the UK. It is important to note that non-melanoma skin cancer is not included in these statistics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old male patient visits the GP clinic with a history of hip and back pain that has been getting worse over the past 3 years. The patient reports that the hip pain is more severe when bearing weight and improves with rest. During the examination, you observe frontal bossing and leg bowing.
What is the initial treatment option that should be considered for this patient's condition?Your Answer: Vitamin D replacement
Correct Answer: Alendronate
Explanation:Bisphosphonates are the primary treatment for Paget’s disease of the bone.
Replacing vitamin D is not an effective treatment for Paget’s disease.
Radiotherapy is used to treat osteosarcoma, not Paget’s disease.
Cinacalcet is used to treat hypercalcemia caused by hyperparathyroidism, not Paget’s disease.Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone
Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities. Predisposing factors include increasing age, male sex, northern latitude, and family history.
Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. The stereotypical presentation is an older male with bone pain and an isolated raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP). Classical, untreated features include bowing of the tibia and bossing of the skull. Diagnosis is made through blood tests, which show raised ALP, and x-rays, which reveal osteolysis in early disease and mixed lytic/sclerotic lesions later.
Treatment is indicated for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fracture, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, either oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are the preferred treatment. Calcitonin is less commonly used now. Complications of Paget’s disease include deafness, bone sarcoma (1% if affected for > 10 years), fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.
Overall, understanding Paget’s disease of the bone is important for early diagnosis and management of symptoms and complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with dizziness and headache. On examination, her blood pressure is found to be 190/120 mmHg. She said that she had been diagnosed with hypertension on two previous occasions but discontinued drugs both times. She is a computer analyst and drinks 3–5 units of alcohol every day. Blood tests reveal:
Investigation Result Normal Value
Potassium (K+) 3.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Corrected calcium (Ca2+) 3.03 mmol/l 2.20-2.60 mmol/l
Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Albumin 38 g/l 35–55 g/l
Magnesium (Mg2+) 0.60 mmol/l 0.75–1.00 mmol/l
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Phaeochromocytoma
Correct Answer: Sipple syndrome or MEN 2a
Explanation:Possible Causes of Hypertension, Hypercalcemia, and Low Magnesium in a Patient
One possible diagnosis for a patient with severe hypertension, hypercalcemia, and low magnesium is MEN 2a, also known as Sipple syndrome. This is because these symptoms can be explained by the presence of a phaeochromocytoma and hyperparathyroidism, which are both associated with MEN 2a.
Conn syndrome, which is characterized by asymptomatic hypertension and hypokalemia, is not the most likely diagnosis in this case since the patient is normokalemic and has high calcium levels. Phaeochromocytoma could explain the hypertension, but not the hypercalcemia and low magnesium.
MEN 1, also known as Wermer syndrome, is associated with hyperparathyroidism, pancreatic endocrine tumors, and pituitary tumors, but rarely with phaeochromocytoma. Wagenmann-Froboese syndrome, or MEN 2b, is associated with medullary thyroid carcinoma and phaeochromocytoma, but hyperparathyroidism is rarely present.
Therefore, based on the patient’s symptoms, MEN 2a or Sipple syndrome is the most likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 34
Correct
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A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic with a maculopapular rash and mouth ulcers. He had a painless penile ulcer two months ago. What is the most probable causative organism for his symptoms?
Your Answer: Treponema pallidum
Explanation:The symptoms exhibited by this individual suggest the presence of secondary syphilis.
Understanding Syphilis: Symptoms and Stages
Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. The infection progresses through three stages: primary, secondary, and tertiary. The incubation period can range from 9 to 90 days.
During the primary stage, a painless ulcer called a chancre appears at the site of sexual contact. Local lymph nodes may also become swollen, but this symptom may not be visible in women if the lesion is on the cervix.
The secondary stage occurs 6 to 10 weeks after the primary infection and is characterized by systemic symptoms such as fevers and lymphadenopathy. A rash may appear on the trunk, palms, and soles, along with buccal ulcers and painless warty lesions on the genitalia.
In the tertiary stage, granulomatous lesions called gummas may develop on the skin and bones, and there may be an ascending aortic aneurysm. Other symptoms include general paralysis of the insane, tabes dorsalis, and Argyll-Robertson pupil.
Congenital syphilis can also occur if a pregnant woman is infected. Symptoms include blunted upper incisor teeth, linear scars at the angle of the mouth, keratitis, saber shins, saddle nose, and deafness.
Understanding the symptoms and stages of syphilis is important for early detection and treatment. It is a treatable infection, but if left untreated, it can lead to serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 35
Correct
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A 65-year-old man is being discharged after undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention for an acute coronary syndrome. He has no significant medical history prior to this event. What type of lipid modification therapy should have been initiated during his hospitalization?
Your Answer: Atorvastatin 80mg on
Explanation:Atorvastatin 80 mg should be taken by patients who have already been diagnosed with CVD.
The 2014 NICE guidelines recommend using the QRISK2 tool to identify patients over 40 years old who are at high risk of CVD, with a 10-year risk of 10% or greater. A full lipid profile should be checked before starting a statin, and atorvastatin 20mg should be offered first-line. Lifestyle modifications include a cardioprotective diet, physical activity, weight management, limiting alcohol intake, and smoking cessation. Follow-up should occur at 3 months, with consideration of increasing the dose of atorvastatin up to 80 mg if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 36
Correct
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A 25-year-old hiker comes to you with complaints of fever, joint pain, and a red rash after being bitten by a tick during a recent hike. Upon examination, you find that his neurological and cardiovascular functions are normal. You suspect that he may have contracted Lyme disease and have ordered serology for Borrelia burgdorferi. What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this condition?
Your Answer: 14 day course of doxycycline
Explanation:The recommended initial treatment for early Lyme disease is a 14-21 day regimen of oral doxycycline. For non-disseminated Lyme disease, the first line treatment is a 14-day course of oral doxycycline, making option 2 the correct answer. Amoxicillin may be used if doxycycline is contraindicated, such as during pregnancy. Ceftriaxone is reserved for disseminated disease. Treatment should be initiated based on clinical suspicion, as serology may take several weeks to become positive.
Understanding Lyme Disease
Lyme disease is a bacterial infection caused by Borrelia burgdorferi and is transmitted through tick bites. The early symptoms of Lyme disease include erythema migrans, a characteristic bulls-eye rash that appears at the site of the tick bite. This rash is painless, slowly increases in size, and can be more than 5 cm in diameter. Other early symptoms include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.
If erythema migrans is present, Lyme disease can be diagnosed clinically, and antibiotics should be started immediately. The first-line test for Lyme disease is an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. If the ELISA is negative but Lyme disease is still suspected, it should be repeated 4-6 weeks later. If Lyme disease is suspected in patients who have had symptoms for 12 weeks or more, an immunoblot test should be done.
Tick bites can cause significant anxiety, but routine antibiotic treatment is not recommended by NICE. If the tick is still present, it should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers, and the area should be washed. In cases of suspected or confirmed Lyme disease, doxycycline is the preferred treatment for early disease, while ceftriaxone is used for disseminated disease. A Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur after initiating therapy, which can cause fever, rash, and tachycardia.
In summary, Lyme disease is a bacterial infection transmitted through tick bites. Early symptoms include erythema migrans, headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain. Diagnosis is made through clinical presentation and ELISA testing, and treatment involves antibiotics. Tick bites do not require routine antibiotic treatment, and ticks should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and benign prostatic hyperplasia presents to dermatology with multiple lesions on his shin. Upon examination, symmetrical, tender, erythematous nodules are observed. The lesions are healing without scarring. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum
Correct Answer: Erythema nodosum
Explanation:The relevant diagnosis for this question relies solely on the description of the lesions, as the patient’s medical history is not a factor. Specifically, the tender shin lesions are indicative of erythema nodosum.
Understanding Shin Lesions: Differential Diagnosis and Characteristic Features
Shin lesions can be caused by a variety of conditions, and it is important to differentiate between them in order to provide appropriate treatment. The four most common conditions that can cause shin lesions are erythema nodosum, pretibial myxoedema, pyoderma gangrenosum, and necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum.
Erythema nodosum is characterized by symmetrical, tender, erythematous nodules that heal without scarring. It is often caused by streptococcal infections, sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, or certain medications such as penicillins, sulphonamides, or oral contraceptive pills.
Pretibial myxoedema, on the other hand, is seen in Graves’ disease and is characterized by symmetrical, erythematous lesions that give the skin a shiny, orange peel appearance.
Pyoderma gangrenosum initially presents as a small red papule, which later develops into deep, red, necrotic ulcers with a violaceous border. It is idiopathic in 50% of cases, but may also be seen in inflammatory bowel disease, connective tissue disorders, and myeloproliferative disorders.
Finally, necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is characterized by shiny, painless areas of yellow/red skin typically found on the shin of diabetics. It is often associated with telangiectasia.
In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis and characteristic features of shin lesions can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 38
Correct
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A 58-year-old man has been experiencing recurrent epigastric pain for several years. His symptoms improved with a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) but returned after discontinuing the medication. He tested positive for Helicobacter pylori, but his symptoms returned after receiving eradication therapy. He now has unexplained iron deficiency anemia. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer: Refer for endoscopy under the 2-week wait pathway
Explanation:Management of a Patient with ‘Red Flag’ Symptoms: Urgent Referral for Endoscopy
When managing a patient aged over 55 years with ‘red flag’ symptoms such as gastrointestinal bleeding, anorexia, weight loss, dysphagia, or the presence of an epigastric mass, it is crucial to refer them for an urgent endoscopy to exclude serious pathology such as malignancy. In such cases, it would be inappropriate to manage the patient with medication alone, even if a previous trial of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) provided effective symptom relief. While dietary and lifestyle advice could be provided, it would not be an appropriate management strategy as a single intervention. Additionally, retesting for H. pylori would not be necessary as adequate triple therapy for H. pylori eradication has reported high cure rates. The priority in managing such patients is to refer them for urgent endoscopy to ensure timely diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 39
Correct
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A 55-year-old man has an HbA1c of 54 mmol/mol after 3 months of lifestyle changes, following a previous reading of HbA1c of 52 mmol/mol. You suggest that he should begin taking metformin standard release in addition to lifestyle interventions. He has normal renal function and no other medical issues. You inform him of the possibility of gastrointestinal discomfort.
What is the typical duration before considering increasing the dosage to alleviate these symptoms for this patient?Your Answer: 7 days
Explanation:It is recommended to increase the dose of metformin gradually, with a minimum of one week between each increase.
Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. It belongs to a class of drugs called biguanides and works by activating the AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK), which increases insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis. Additionally, it may decrease the absorption of carbohydrates in the gastrointestinal tract. Unlike other diabetes medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin does not cause hypoglycemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. It is also used to treat polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease.
While metformin is generally well-tolerated, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea, anorexia, and diarrhea are common and can be intolerable for some patients. Reduced absorption of vitamin B12 is also a potential side effect, although it rarely causes clinical problems. In rare cases, metformin can cause lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. However, it is important to note that lactic acidosis is now recognized as a rare side effect of metformin.
There are several contraindications to using metformin, including chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and alcohol abuse. Additionally, metformin should be discontinued before and after procedures involving iodine-containing x-ray contrast media to reduce the risk of contrast nephropathy.
When starting metformin, it is important to titrate the dose slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side effects. If patients experience intolerable side effects, modified-release metformin may be considered as an alternative.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 40
Correct
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Which of the following types of rash is commonly observed in the initial stages of Lyme disease?
Your Answer: Erythema chronicum migrans
Explanation:Understanding Lyme Disease
Lyme disease is a bacterial infection caused by Borrelia burgdorferi and is transmitted through tick bites. The early symptoms of Lyme disease include erythema migrans, a characteristic bulls-eye rash that appears at the site of the tick bite. This rash is painless, slowly increases in size, and can be more than 5 cm in diameter. Other early symptoms include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.
If erythema migrans is present, Lyme disease can be diagnosed clinically, and antibiotics should be started immediately. The first-line test for Lyme disease is an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. If the ELISA is negative but Lyme disease is still suspected, it should be repeated 4-6 weeks later. If Lyme disease is suspected in patients who have had symptoms for 12 weeks or more, an immunoblot test should be done.
Tick bites can cause significant anxiety, but routine antibiotic treatment is not recommended by NICE. If the tick is still present, it should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers, and the area should be washed. In cases of suspected or confirmed Lyme disease, doxycycline is the preferred treatment for early disease, while ceftriaxone is used for disseminated disease. A Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur after initiating therapy, which can cause fever, rash, and tachycardia.
In summary, Lyme disease is a bacterial infection transmitted through tick bites. Early symptoms include erythema migrans, headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain. Diagnosis is made through clinical presentation and ELISA testing, and treatment involves antibiotics. Tick bites do not require routine antibiotic treatment, and ticks should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 41
Correct
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A 42-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of ear pain. He had visited the emergency department 3 days ago but was only given advice. He has been experiencing ear pain for 5 days now.
During the examination, his temperature is 38.5ºC and his right ear drum is red and bulging. What is the appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer: Start amoxicillin
Explanation:To improve treatment of tonsillitis and otitis media without relying on antibiotics, medical guidelines suggest waiting 2-3 days before considering treatment if symptoms do not improve. This approach is especially important when a patient has a fever, indicating systemic involvement. Therefore, recommending regular paracetamol is not appropriate in this case. While erythromycin can be a useful alternative for patients with a penicillin allergy, it should not be the first choice for those who can take penicillin. Penicillin V is the preferred antibiotic for tonsillitis, as amoxicillin can cause a rash in cases of glandular fever. However, it is not typically used for otitis media. For otitis media, amoxicillin is the recommended first-line medication at a dosage of 500mg TDS for 7 days. Co-amoxiclav is only used as a second-line option if amoxicillin is ineffective, and is not recommended as a first-line treatment according to current medical guidelines. These recommendations are based on NICE Guidelines and Clinical Knowledge Summaries.
Acute Otitis Media: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Acute otitis media is a common condition in young children, with around 50% experiencing three or more episodes by the age of 3 years. While viral upper respiratory tract infections often precede otitis media, bacterial infections, particularly Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Moraxella catarrhalis, are the primary cause. Viral infections disrupt the normal nasopharyngeal microbiome, allowing bacteria to infect the middle ear through the Eustachian tube.
Symptoms of acute otitis media include ear pain, fever, hearing loss, and recent viral upper respiratory tract infection symptoms. Otoscopy may reveal a bulging tympanic membrane, opacification or erythema of the tympanic membrane, perforation with purulent otorrhoea, or decreased mobility when using a pneumatic otoscope. Diagnosis is typically based on the acute onset of symptoms, otalgia or ear tugging, the presence of a middle ear effusion, bulging of the tympanic membrane, otorrhoea, decreased mobility on pneumatic otoscopy, or inflammation of the tympanic membrane.
Acute otitis media is generally self-limiting and does not require antibiotic treatment. However, antibiotics should be prescribed if symptoms last more than four days or do not improve, if the patient is systemically unwell but not requiring admission, if the patient is immunocompromised or at high risk of complications, if the patient is younger than 2 years with bilateral otitis media, or if there is otitis media with perforation and/or discharge in the canal. Amoxicillin is the first-line antibiotic, but erythromycin or clarithromycin should be given to patients with penicillin allergy.
Common sequelae of acute otitis media include perforation of the tympanic membrane, unresolved acute otitis media with perforation leading to chronic suppurative otitis media, hearing loss, and labyrinthitis. Complications may include mastoiditis, meningitis, brain abscess, and facial nerve paralysis. Parents should seek medical help if symptoms worsen or do not improve after three days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 42
Correct
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A 12-year-old Nigerian girl is brought to the GP clinic by her mother. She has been experiencing headaches, fatigue, and body aches for the past week. She has also been complaining of a sore throat and difficulty swallowing. This morning, her mother noticed swollen glands on both sides of her neck. The mother asks if her daughter can still attend school.
What would be your advice to the mother?Your Answer: She should be kept off school for 5 days from the onset of swollen glands
Explanation:If a child develops swollen glands due to mumps, they should stay away from school for 5 days starting from the day the swelling began. As the child’s swollen glands started one day ago, they should not attend school for the next 5 days. Waiting for a month is not necessary, but the child should not return to school until the 5-day exclusion period is over, even if the swelling has not completely resolved. The option suggesting waiting until all swellings have resolved before returning to school is incorrect.
The Health Protection Agency has provided guidance on when children should be excluded from school due to infectious conditions. Some conditions, such as conjunctivitis, fifth disease, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, head lice, threadworms, and hand, foot and mouth, do not require exclusion. Scarlet fever requires exclusion for 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, while whooping cough requires exclusion for 2 days after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are taken. Measles requires exclusion for 4 days from onset of rash, rubella for 5 days from onset of rash, and chickenpox until all lesions are crusted over. Mumps requires exclusion for 5 days from onset of swollen glands, while diarrhoea and vomiting require exclusion until symptoms have settled for 48 hours. Impetigo requires exclusion until lesions are crusted and healed, or for 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment, and scabies requires exclusion until treated. Influenza requires exclusion until the child has recovered. The official advice regarding school exclusion for chickenpox has varied, but the most recent guidance suggests that all lesions should be crusted over before children return to school.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 43
Correct
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A 25-year-old student is brought to the clinic by his companions as he appears confused. They mention that he has been experiencing headaches for the past few weeks. During the examination, he has a low-grade fever and his mucosa is unusually pink. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Carbon monoxide poisoning
Explanation:Typical symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning include confusion and pink mucosae, with a low-grade fever being present in only a small number of cases.
Understanding Carbon Monoxide Poisoning
Carbon monoxide poisoning occurs when carbon monoxide, a toxic gas, is inhaled and binds to haemoglobin and myoglobin in the body, resulting in tissue hypoxia. This leads to a left-shift of the oxygen dissociation curve, causing a decrease in oxygen saturation of haemoglobin. In the UK, there are approximately 50 deaths per year from accidental carbon monoxide poisoning.
Symptoms of carbon monoxide toxicity include headache, nausea and vomiting, vertigo, confusion, and subjective weakness. Severe toxicity can result in pink skin and mucosae, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, and even death.
To diagnose carbon monoxide poisoning, pulse oximetry may not be reliable due to similarities between oxyhaemoglobin and carboxyhaemoglobin. Therefore, a venous or arterial blood gas should be taken to measure carboxyhaemoglobin levels. Non-smokers typically have levels below 3%, while smokers have levels below 10%. Symptomatic patients have levels between 10-30%, and severe toxicity is indicated by levels above 30%. An ECG may also be useful to check for cardiac ischaemia.
In the emergency department, patients with suspected carbon monoxide poisoning should receive 100% high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask. This decreases the half-life of carboxyhemoglobin and should be administered as soon as possible, with treatment continuing for a minimum of six hours. Target oxygen saturations are 100%, and treatment is generally continued until all symptoms have resolved. For more severe cases, hyperbaric oxygen therapy may be considered, as it has been shown to have better long-term outcomes than standard oxygen therapy. Indications for hyperbaric oxygen therapy include loss of consciousness, neurological signs other than headache, myocardial ischaemia or arrhythmia, and pregnancy.
Overall, understanding the pathophysiology, symptoms, and management of carbon monoxide poisoning is crucial in preventing and treating this potentially deadly condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 44
Correct
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A 42-year-old female complains of a burning sensation on the anterolateral aspect of her right thigh. The doctor suspects meralgia paraesthetica. Which nerve is the most probable cause of this condition?
Your Answer: Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
Explanation:A possible cause of burning pain in the thigh is compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve, which can lead to a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. Meralgia paraesthetica, a condition characterized by burning pain in the thigh, may result from compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh.
Understanding Meralgia Paraesthetica
Meralgia paraesthetica is a condition characterized by paraesthesia or anaesthesia in the distribution of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (LFCN). It is caused by entrapment of the LFCN, which can be due to various factors such as trauma, iatrogenic causes, or neuroma. Although not rare, it is often underdiagnosed.
The LFCN is a sensory nerve that originates from the L2/3 segments and runs beneath the iliac fascia before exiting through the lateral aspect of the inguinal ligament. Compression of the nerve can occur anywhere along its course, but it is most commonly affected as it curves around the anterior superior iliac spine. Meralgia paraesthetica is more common in men than women and is often seen in those aged between 30 and 40.
Patients with meralgia paraesthetica typically experience burning, tingling, coldness, or shooting pain, as well as numbness and deep muscle ache in the upper lateral aspect of the thigh. Symptoms are usually aggravated by standing and relieved by sitting. The condition can be mild and resolve spontaneously or severely restrict the patient for many years.
Diagnosis of meralgia paraesthetica can be made based on the pelvic compression test, which is highly sensitive. Injection of the nerve with local anaesthetic can also confirm the diagnosis and provide relief. Ultrasound is effective both for diagnosis and guiding injection therapy. Nerve conduction studies may also be useful. Overall, understanding meralgia paraesthetica is important for prompt diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 45
Correct
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A mother brings her 8-year-old daughter to her General Practitioner, who is acutely unwell and has a high temperature, runny nose and inflamed eyes. The mother explains that her daughter has not had her vaccinations as she is worried about the long-term effects of the measles, mumps and rubella (MMR) jab.
Which of the following best reflects the current understanding of measles infection?Your Answer: It is more dangerous in overcrowded households
Explanation:Measles: Symptoms, Complications, and Prevention
Measles is a highly contagious viral infection that can lead to serious respiratory complications such as pneumonia, bronchiolitis, and bronchiectasis. While it does not cause recurrent pneumothoraces, severe infection from prolonged exposure to infected siblings in overcrowded households can be fatal.
Koplik’s spots, small red spots with bluish-white centers, are a characteristic late sign of measles infection that may appear on the mucous membranes of the mouth 1-2 days before the rash appears.
Contrary to popular belief, lifelong immunity is often established after natural infection with measles. This is also the mechanism by which the MMR vaccine prevents measles infection in later life.
Measles can also lead to corneal ulceration, especially in cases of vitamin A deficiency. High-dose oral vitamin A supplementation is recommended for all children with measles in developing countries to prevent this complication.
Overall, prevention through vaccination is the best way to avoid the serious complications of measles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 46
Correct
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Nosocomial wound infections are often caused by various factors. However, which of the following is the most frequent cause of such infections?
Your Answer: Inadequate hand disinfection
Explanation:Preventing Hospital-Acquired Wound Infections: Common Causes and Solutions
Hospital-acquired wound infections are a serious concern for patients and healthcare providers alike. While all wounds are contaminated by microbes, proper hygiene and disinfection can greatly reduce the risk of infection. However, there are several common causes of hospital-acquired wound infections that must be addressed to prevent their occurrence.
The most frequent cause of nosocomial wound infection is inadequate hand disinfection. Hands are a major source of transmission for hospital infections, and compliance with handwashing protocols can be suboptimal for a variety of reasons. These include lack of accessible equipment, insufficient knowledge of staff about risks and procedures, and too long a duration recommended for washing.
Inadequate instrument disinfection is another common cause of hospital-acquired wound infections. Different levels of disinfection are recommended for patient equipment depending on the type of care, with surgical instruments presenting a critical level of risk. Sterilisation or high-level disinfection is necessary to minimise the risk of infection.
While strict schedules for cleaning and disinfection of rooms are in place in hospitals, inadequate room disinfection is still a concern. However, this is not the main cause of surgical wound infection.
The use of wrong disinfectants during skin disinfection can also contribute to hospital-acquired wound infections. Specific hand disinfectants are used for skin disinfection, including alcoholic rubs and emollient gels.
Finally, too frequent skin disinfection can lead to the destruction of the normal skin flora, which can increase the risk of infection. Disinfecting agents must be chosen with care to avoid sensitisation or irritation of the skin.
In conclusion, preventing hospital-acquired wound infections requires a multifaceted approach that addresses the common causes of infection. Proper hand hygiene, instrument disinfection, and skin disinfection are all essential components of a comprehensive infection prevention program.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old woman presents with non-specific abdominal discomfort that has been bothering her for the past 2 months. She also reports experiencing loose stools up to three times a day for the past month, despite previously having solid stools once daily. She denies any weight loss or blood in her stool. Upon examination, her abdomen is soft and nontender, and she has normal urine dip results. Blood tests, including a CA-125 and coeliac screen, and a faecal calprotectin test all come back within the normal range. Although you suspect irritable bowel syndrome, the patient is worried about the possibility of colorectal cancer. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Offer reassurance
Correct Answer: Faecal immunochemical test (FIT)
Explanation:If a patient shows new symptoms of possible colorectal cancer but does not meet the 2-week criteria, it is recommended to undergo the FIT test. In the case of a patient experiencing unexplained abdominal pain and a change in bowel habit, a FIT test is the most appropriate next step, according to NICE guidance, especially considering the patient’s age and the absence of rectal bleeding. It is not advisable to simply suggest diet changes or reassure the patient without conducting the necessary tests, as her symptoms require complete investigation. Repeating a faecal calprotectin level is unlikely to be helpful and may only delay the patient from receiving the appropriate support.
Referral Guidelines for Colorectal Cancer
Colorectal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. In 2015, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their referral guidelines for patients suspected of having colorectal cancer. According to these guidelines, patients who are 40 years or older with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain, 50 years or older with unexplained rectal bleeding, or 60 years or older with iron deficiency anemia or change in bowel habit should be referred urgently to colorectal services for investigation. Additionally, patients who test positive for occult blood in their feces should also be referred urgently.
An urgent referral should also be considered for patients who have a rectal or abdominal mass, unexplained anal mass or anal ulceration, or are under 50 years old with rectal bleeding and any of the following unexplained symptoms/findings: abdominal pain, change in bowel habit, weight loss, or iron deficiency anemia.
The NHS offers a national screening program for colorectal cancer, which involves sending eligible patients aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of fecal occult blood test that uses antibodies to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.
The FIT test is also recommended for patients with new symptoms who do not meet the 2-week criteria listed above. For example, patients who are 50 years or older with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, under 60 years old with changes in their bowel habit or iron deficiency anemia, or 60 years or older who have anemia even in the absence of iron deficiency. Early detection and treatment of colorectal cancer can significantly improve patient outcomes, making it important to follow these referral guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 48
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman was urgently referred for investigation (2-week wait) via the cancer referral pathway by her General Practitioner after presenting with a 2-month history of weight loss and fatigue. Blood tests reveal a carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) level of 300 μg/l (Normal range: 2.5–5.0 μg/l).
Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Colorectal cancer
Explanation:Overview of Common Cancers and Tumor Markers
Colorectal Cancer, Hepatocellular Cancer, Lung Cancer, Prostate Cancer, and Testicular Cancer are some of the most common types of cancer. Each type presents with different symptoms and may require different diagnostic tests. Tumor markers, such as carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) for colorectal cancer, alpha-fetoprotein for hepatocellular and testicular cancer, and bombesin for lung cancer, can be used to screen high-risk groups, assess prognosis, detect recurrence, and monitor treatment. Digital rectal examination (DRE) is often used in conjunction with prostate-specific antigen (PSA) as a screening test for prostate cancer. Early detection and treatment can improve outcomes for patients with cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 49
Correct
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You receive a letter from an endocrinology consultant following a referral that you made for a 25 year old gentleman who has been newly diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. The consultant requests that you start the patient on carbimazole 15mg daily with a repeat thyroid function test (TFT) in 4 weeks. What is the most crucial advice to give the patient?
Your Answer: Attend for urgent medical review if develops any symptoms of infection e.g. sore throat or fever
Explanation:Understanding Carbimazole and Its Mechanism of Action
Carbimazole is a medication used to manage thyrotoxicosis, a condition characterized by an overactive thyroid gland. It is typically administered in high doses for six weeks until the patient becomes euthyroid, or has a normal thyroid function. The drug works by blocking thyroid peroxidase, an enzyme responsible for coupling and iodinating the tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin, which ultimately reduces thyroid hormone production.
In contrast to propylthiouracil, another medication used to treat thyrotoxicosis, carbimazole only has a central mechanism of action. Propylthiouracil, on the other hand, also has a peripheral action by inhibiting 5′-deiodinase, an enzyme that reduces peripheral conversion of T4 to T3.
While carbimazole can be effective in managing thyrotoxicosis, it is not without its adverse effects. One of the most serious side effects is agranulocytosis, a condition characterized by a severe reduction in white blood cells. Additionally, carbimazole can cross the placenta, but may be used in low doses during pregnancy.
Overall, carbimazole is a medication that can be effective in managing thyrotoxicosis, but it is important to be aware of its mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Patients should always consult with their healthcare provider before starting any new medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 50
Correct
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A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to your clinic with worsening eczema. He reports that she has developed itchy blisters all over her body, including her face, torso, arms, and legs. Additionally, she is not behaving normally, eating and drinking less than usual, and not engaging with her favorite toys. She also has a fever of 39ºC. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Refer urgently to hospital
Explanation:Immediate hospitalization and administration of IV antivirals are necessary for the treatment of eczema herpeticum, a severe condition. The child in question is exhibiting symptoms such as painful blisters, fever, and swollen lymph nodes, which require urgent medical attention. Any delay in seeking medical help could worsen the condition. Therefore, all other options are incorrect and should be avoided.
Understanding Eczema Herpeticum
Eczema herpeticum is a serious skin infection caused by herpes simplex virus 1 or 2. It is commonly observed in children with atopic eczema and is characterized by a rapidly progressing painful rash. The infection can be life-threatening, which is why it is important to seek medical attention immediately.
During examination, doctors typically observe monomorphic punched-out erosions, which are circular, depressed, and ulcerated lesions that are usually 1-3 mm in diameter. Due to the severity of the infection, children with eczema herpeticum should be admitted to the hospital for intravenous aciclovir treatment. It is important to understand the symptoms and seek medical attention promptly to prevent any complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 51
Correct
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A 25-year-old student presents to his General Practitioner with a 10-day history of fever and sore throat. He recently completed a course of amoxicillin despite developing a rash a few days into the course. On examination, he is febrile and his tonsils are inflamed but no exudate is present; there are petechial spots on his palate and he has a widespread maculopapular rash, cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Infectious mononucleosis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of a Patient with Sore Throat and Fever
Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a common cause of sore throat and fever in adolescents. It is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus and presents with symptoms such as sore throat, fever, and lethargy. The duration of symptoms is longer than other causes of acute sore throat, and examination findings may include lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. Palatal petechiae is a distinguishing feature between glandular fever and streptococcal tonsillitis. A maculopapular rash may also be present, but it is important to note that amoxicillin can cause a rash in patients with glandular fever. Stevens-Johnson syndrome, bacterial tonsillitis, candidiasis, and mumps are other possible differential diagnoses. However, Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe mucocutaneous reaction to medications or infections, bacterial tonsillitis presents with enlarged, inflamed tonsils with exudate and cervical lymphadenopathy, candidiasis presents with white coating of buccal membranes, throat, or tongue, and mumps presents with bilateral parotid gland enlargement. Therefore, based on the patient’s history and examination findings, infectious mononucleosis is the most likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old female comes in for a check-up. She is currently 16 weeks pregnant and has already had her booking visit with the midwives. So far, there have been no complications related to her pregnancy. The tests conducted showed that she has a blood group of A and is Rhesus negative. What is the best course of action for managing her rhesus status?
Your Answer: No action required unless antenatal vaginal blood loss
Correct Answer: Give first dose of anti-D at 28 weeks
Explanation:NICE guidelines recommend 10 antenatal visits for first pregnancies and 7 for subsequent pregnancies if uncomplicated. The purpose of each visit is outlined, including booking visits, scans, screening for Down’s syndrome, routine care for blood pressure and urine, and discussions about labour and birth plans. Rhesus negative women are offered anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks. The guidelines also recommend discussing options for prolonged pregnancy at 41 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman with COPD has been recommended an inhaled corticosteroid. What is the primary advantage of using inhaled corticosteroids for treating COPD patients?
Your Answer: Reduced severity of exacerbations
Correct Answer: Reduced frequency of exacerbations
Explanation:Inhaled corticosteroids are used to decrease the frequency of exacerbations in patients with COPD.
NICE guidelines recommend smoking cessation advice, annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccinations, and pulmonary rehabilitation for COPD patients. Bronchodilator therapy is first-line treatment, with the addition of LABA and LAMA for patients without asthmatic features and LABA, ICS, and LAMA for those with asthmatic features. Theophylline is recommended after trials of bronchodilators or for patients who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients. Mucolytics should be considered for patients with a chronic productive cough. Loop diuretics and long-term oxygen therapy may be used for cor pulmonale. Smoking cessation and long-term oxygen therapy may improve survival in stable COPD patients. Lung volume reduction surgery may be considered in selected patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 54
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about her migraine prophylaxis medication and its potential effects on her unborn child. She reports that her migraines used to occur 1-2 times per week, but since starting the medication, they have decreased to 1-2 times per month. Which medication commonly used for migraine prophylaxis is associated with congenital abnormalities, specifically cleft lip and palate?
Your Answer: Topiramate
Explanation:If a person experiences more than 2 migraine attacks a month, they should be offered migraine prophylaxis. Propranolol and topiramate are both options for this, but propranolol is preferred for women of child-bearing age due to the risk of cleft lip/cleft palate in infants if topiramate is used during the first trimester of pregnancy. The combined oral contraceptive pill is not typically prescribed for migraines, and if a patient using it becomes pregnant, it will not harm the fetus. Triptan medications like sumatriptan and zolmitriptan are used for acute migraine treatment and should be taken as soon as a migraine starts. They may also be used for menstrual migraine prophylaxis, but should be avoided during pregnancy due to limited safety data.
Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, acute treatment for migraines involves a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective, non-oral preparations of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be considered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.
Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity for some people. For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be recommended as a type of mini-prophylaxis.
Specialists may consider other treatment options, such as candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, like erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects like weight gain and drowsiness. It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering various treatment options, migraines can be effectively managed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 55
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant visits the early pregnancy unit drop-in clinic complaining of dysuria and increased urinary frequency for the past 2 days. The results of her urine dipstick test are as follows: Leucocytes +++, Nitrites +, Protein -, pH 5.0, Blood +, Ketones -, Glucose -. What is the recommended treatment for her condition?
Your Answer: 7-day course of nitrofurantoin
Explanation:The recommended first-line treatment for lower UTI in pregnant women who are not at term is a 7-day course of nitrofurantoin. However, nitrofurantoin should be avoided in women who are close to term due to the risk of neonatal haemolysis. It is important to promptly and appropriately treat UTI in pregnancy as it is associated with pre-term delivery and low-birthweight. Amoxicillin and cefalexin are second-line options, but local guidelines may vary. It is important to note that a 3-day course of nitrofurantoin is not recommended according to NICE guidelines.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. The management of UTIs depends on various factors such as the patient’s age, gender, and pregnancy status. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed if available. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. However, if the patient is aged over 65 years or has visible or non-visible haematuria, a urine culture should be sent. Pregnant women with UTIs should be treated with nitrofurantoin, amoxicillin, or cefalexin for seven days. Trimethoprim should be avoided during pregnancy as it is teratogenic in the first trimester. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated to prevent progression to acute pyelonephritis. Men with UTIs should be offered a seven-day course of trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin unless prostatitis is suspected. A urine culture should be sent before antibiotics are started. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given. Acute pyelonephritis requires hospital admission and treatment with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone for 10-14 days. Referral to urology is not routinely required for men who have had one uncomplicated lower UTI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 56
Correct
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Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that affects the lining of the uterus. What is true about this type of cancer?
Your Answer: The tumour is confined to myometrial invasion in stage 1 of the FIGO staging system.
Explanation:Understanding Endometrial Cancer: Causes, Stages, and Treatment Options
Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that affects the lining of the uterus. It is the most common female genital cancer in the developing world, and an estimated 3% of women in developed countries will be diagnosed with this malignancy at some point in their lifetime. Here are some key points to understand about endometrial cancer:
Causes:
– It is more common among women using progestogen-containing oral contraceptives.
– Non-hormonal uterine devices have also been found to be strongly protective.
– There are two pathogenic types of endometrial cancer, one of which is associated with obesity, hyperlipidaemia, signs of hyperoestrogenism, and other disease states.Stages:
– The FIGO staging system is used to determine the stage of endometrial cancer.
– Staging is the most important prognostic factor.
– The earlier endometrial cancer is diagnosed, the higher the rate of survival at 5 years.Treatment:
– Standard management of endometrial cancer at diagnosis involves surgery, followed by chemotherapy with or without radiation therapy.
– It is most effectively treated by a combination of radiotherapy and hormone-based chemotherapy.
– The prognosis varies depending on the stage and type of endometrial cancer.Overall, understanding the causes, stages, and treatment options for endometrial cancer is important for early detection and effective management of this malignancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 57
Correct
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A 25-year-old female student attends the blood transfusion service wishing to donate blood. She is currently well, has never had a serious illness and weighs 60 kg. About three months ago she spent the summer doing voluntary work in Nigeria. She also had her ears pierced three years ago and had a tattoo put on her left arm one year ago. She is not acceptable as a donor.
Which of the following is the reason for her rejection to donate blood in the UK?Your Answer: Recent travel to an endemic area
Explanation:Blood Donation Eligibility Criteria: Factors to Consider
When it comes to donating blood, there are several factors to consider to ensure the safety of both the donor and the recipient. Here are some examples:
Recent travel to an endemic area: If a person has recently traveled to a country with a high risk of infectious diseases, they may have to wait a certain period before donating blood. For instance, if someone has returned from Nigeria, they must wait at least six months before donating blood in the UK.
Underweight: A person must weigh at least 50 kg to donate blood. If they weigh less than that, they may not have enough blood volume to spare.
Body piercing: If someone has had a body piercing within the last 12 months, they should inform the staff before donating blood. They may have to wait for at least four months before donating.
Tattoo: Similarly, if someone has had a tattoo within the last 12 months, they should inform the staff before donating blood. They may have to wait for at least four months before donating.
Age: To donate blood, a person must be between 17 and 66 years old (or 70 if they have donated blood before). If they are over 70, they can still donate if they have donated blood in the last two years.
By considering these factors, blood donation centers can ensure that the blood they collect is safe and suitable for transfusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 58
Correct
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During your assessment of a 55-year-old patient admitted to the medical ward, you observe a rash on her legs. The rash has a lace-like pattern in a purple color and does not disappear when touched. It is located on the lower legs. The patient has a medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus and reports experiencing this rash on and off in the past, often triggered by cold weather. What is the most probable diagnosis for this rash?
Your Answer: Livedo reticularis
Explanation:Understanding Livedo Reticularis
Livedo reticularis is a skin condition characterized by a purplish, non-blanching, reticulated rash. This occurs when the capillaries become obstructed, leading to swollen venules. The most common cause of this condition is idiopathic, meaning that the cause is unknown. However, it can also be caused by various underlying medical conditions such as polyarteritis nodosa, systemic lupus erythematosus, cryoglobulinaemia, antiphospholipid syndrome, Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome, and homocystinuria.
It is important to note that livedo reticularis is not a disease in itself, but rather a symptom of an underlying condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 59
Correct
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A 25-year-old man presents with sudden onset of pain in his right elbow and left Achilles tendon. He reports dysuria, conjunctivitis, and fever, and recently returned from a trip to the Far East where he had unprotected sex. He has also developed macules and pustules on his hands. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Reactive arthritis is a type of arthritis that occurs after an infection, typically dysentery or a sexually transmitted disease. It affects 1-2% of patients who have had these infections, with Salmonella, Shigella, and Yersinia causing diarrheal illness that can lead to reactive arthritis, and Chlamydia trichomonas and Ureaplasma urealyticum causing STDs. Those who are HLA-B27-positive are at a higher risk of developing reactive arthritis. Symptoms include acute, asymmetrical lower limb arthritis, enthesitis causing plantar fasciitis or Achilles tendinosis, and back pain from sacroiliitis and spondylosis. Other symptoms may include acute anterior uveitis, circinate balanitis, keratoderma blenorrhagia, nail dystrophy, mouth ulcers, and bilateral conjunctivitis. The classic triad of conjunctivitis, urethritis, and arthritis may also be present. In this scenario, the patient’s symptoms and history of unprotected sexual intercourse suggest reactive arthritis as the correct diagnosis. Other potential diagnoses, such as UTI, HIV, psoriatic arthritis, and syphilitic arthritis, can be ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms and history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 60
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a history of recurrent episodes of dizziness characterized by a sensation of the entire room spinning around her. She reports feeling nauseous during these episodes but denies any hearing disturbance or tinnitus. The dizziness is not exacerbated by head movement and lasts for approximately 4-5 hours, with complete resolution in between episodes. She recalls having a viral illness the week prior to the onset of her symptoms. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Vestibular neuronitis
Explanation:Patients with vestibular neuronitis experience recurrent episodes of vertigo lasting for hours to days, often accompanied by nausea. Unlike other causes of vertigo, there is no hearing loss, tinnitus, or neurological symptoms. Meniere’s disease, on the other hand, presents with vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitus. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo is characterized by brief episodes of vertigo triggered by head movement, while acoustic neuromas typically present with hearing loss, tinnitus, and facial nerve palsy. Vertebrobasilar insufficiency, which occurs in elderly patients, is associated with neck pain and symptoms triggered by head movement.
Understanding Vestibular Neuronitis
Vestibular neuronitis is a type of vertigo that typically occurs after a viral infection. It is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo that can last for hours or days, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Horizontal nystagmus, or involuntary eye movements, is a common symptom, but there is usually no hearing loss or tinnitus.
It is important to distinguish vestibular neuronitis from other conditions that can cause similar symptoms, such as viral labyrinthitis or posterior circulation stroke. The HiNTs exam can be used to differentiate between vestibular neuronitis and stroke.
Treatment for vestibular neuronitis may involve medications such as prochlorperazine or antihistamines to alleviate symptoms. However, vestibular rehabilitation exercises are often the preferred treatment for patients with chronic symptoms. These exercises can help to retrain the brain and improve balance and coordination. With proper management, most people with vestibular neuronitis can recover fully and resume their normal activities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 61
Correct
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Which of the following is most commonly associated with the syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion?
Your Answer: Small cell lung cancer
Explanation:SIADH is a frequent endocrine complication associated with small cell lung cancer.
SIADH is a condition where the body retains too much water, leading to low sodium levels in the blood. This can be caused by a variety of factors, including malignancies such as small cell lung cancer, neurological conditions like stroke or meningitis, infections such as tuberculosis or pneumonia, and certain drugs like sulfonylureas and SSRIs. Other causes may include positive end-expiratory pressure and porphyrias. Treatment for SIADH involves slowly correcting the sodium levels to avoid complications like central pontine myelinolysis. This can be done through fluid restriction, the use of demeclocycline to reduce responsiveness to ADH, or the use of ADH receptor antagonists. It is important to note that certain drugs, such as glimepiride and glipizide, have been reported to cause SIADH according to the BNF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 62
Correct
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A 67-year-old male with a history of multiple myeloma presents with confusion. Blood tests are taken and the following results are obtained:
Adjusted calcium 3.1 mmol/l
What would be the best initial approach to manage this situation?Your Answer: Admit for IV normal saline
Explanation:The primary treatment for hypercalcaemia is IV fluid therapy.
Managing Hypercalcaemia
Hypercalcaemia is a condition where there is an excess of calcium in the blood. The initial management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline, typically 3-4 litres per day. This helps to flush out the excess calcium from the body. Once rehydration is achieved, bisphosphonates may be used to further lower the calcium levels. These drugs take 2-3 days to work, with maximal effect being seen at 7 days.
Calcitonin is another option for managing hypercalcaemia. It works quicker than bisphosphonates but is less commonly used due to its short duration of action. Steroids may be used in sarcoidosis, a condition that can cause hypercalcaemia.
Loop diuretics such as furosemide may also be used in hypercalcaemia, particularly in patients who cannot tolerate aggressive fluid rehydration. However, they should be used with caution as they may worsen electrolyte derangement and volume depletion.
In summary, the management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline followed by the use of bisphosphonates or other medications depending on the underlying cause of the condition. It is important to monitor electrolyte levels and adjust treatment accordingly to prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 63
Correct
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A 65-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of progressive slurred speech over the past few months. He is embarrassed because he frequently gives presentations for work and some people have joked that he sounds drunk. Upon examination, there is no droop or drooling in his head and face, but he struggles to articulate certain phrases and has difficulty swallowing. His tongue also appears to fasciculate when he sticks it out. In addition, there is mild weakness and hypotonia in his limbs, but his knees and ankles have slight hyperreflexia. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Motor neurone disease
Explanation:The presence of fasciculations, along with upper and lower motor neurone signs, strongly suggests motor neuron disease as the underlying condition. The patient’s difficulty with speech and swallowing may be due to bulbar palsy, which is commonly associated with this disease. A stroke, which typically presents with sudden onset of symptoms, is unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s progressive symptoms over weeks or months. While a cerebellar tumour may cause slurred speech, it would typically be accompanied by other symptoms such as ataxia, vertigo, and difficulty with basic movements. Multiple sclerosis is an uncommon diagnosis in late-middle-aged men and is an upper motor neurone disease, whereas this patient has a combination of upper and lower motor neurone signs. There is no evidence of tremor or bradykinesia in this case.
Understanding Motor Neuron Disease: Signs and Diagnosis
Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition that affects both upper and lower motor neurons. It is a rare condition that usually presents after the age of 40 and can manifest in different patterns such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy, and bulbar palsy. The diagnosis of motor neuron disease is based on clinical features, including the presence of fasciculations, the absence of sensory signs, and the combination of upper and lower motor neuron signs. Wasting of the small hand muscles and tibialis anterior is also common.
Other features that can help diagnose motor neuron disease include the absence of external ocular muscle involvement, the absence of cerebellar signs, and preserved abdominal reflexes. Sphincter dysfunction, if present, is usually a late feature. While vague sensory symptoms may occur early in the disease, sensory signs are typically absent.
Nerve conduction studies can help exclude a neuropathy, while electromyography shows a reduced number of action potentials with increased amplitude. MRI is usually performed to exclude other conditions such as cervical cord compression and myelopathy. Understanding the signs and diagnosis of motor neuron disease is crucial for early detection and management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old girl with Down syndrome is brought to see her General Practitioner by her father who has concerns about her motor development which are echoed by her daycare provider. There are no concerns about her speech and she is usually well apart from a few episodes of constipation in the past for which she has received laxatives. Neurological examination is normal. Abdominal examination reveals mild distension and tenderness in the left upper quadrant.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Glue ear
Explanation:Common Causes of Hearing Loss in Children
Hearing loss in children can be caused by various factors. Two common causes are glue ear and otosclerosis. Glue ear, also known as otitis media with effusion, is the accumulation of fluid in the middle ear without acute inflammation. It can lead to conductive hearing loss, recurrent ear infections, speech delay, and behavioral problems. Children with Down syndrome and cleft palate are at higher risk of developing glue ear. On the other hand, otosclerosis is the abnormal growth of bone in the middle ear, resulting in gradual hearing loss in early adulthood.
It is important to note that speech delay alone may not indicate autistic spectrum disorder. Children with this disorder typically exhibit issues with social interactions, non-verbal communication, and restrictive behaviors. In contrast, selective mutism is an anxiety disorder that causes a child to be unable to speak in certain situations. Impacted ear wax can also cause hearing loss or speech delay, but it can be diagnosed through ear examination.
In summary, a child with recurrent earache and retracted tympanic membranes is more likely to have glue ear, especially if they have Down syndrome or cleft palate. It is important to monitor their development closely, especially if they also have a learning disability.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 65
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant comes in with symptoms of 'cystitis'. She reports experiencing dysuria, suprapubic pains, and frequency for the past two days. She denies any vaginal bleeding. Upon urine dipstick testing, leucocytes and nitrites are present. Her temperature is 37.6ºC. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral nitrofurantoin
Explanation:This expectant woman displays indications that align with a urinary tract infection. According to the BNF, trimethoprim should not be used during the initial trimester as it can hinder folate. Ciprofloxacin is not recommended for use during pregnancy. Since the patient is clearly experiencing a UTI and has a fever, prompt treatment is necessary instead of waiting for the MSU.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. The management of UTIs depends on various factors such as the patient’s age, gender, and pregnancy status. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed if available. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. However, if the patient is aged over 65 years or has visible or non-visible haematuria, a urine culture should be sent. Pregnant women with UTIs should be treated with nitrofurantoin, amoxicillin, or cefalexin for seven days. Trimethoprim should be avoided during pregnancy as it is teratogenic in the first trimester. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated to prevent progression to acute pyelonephritis. Men with UTIs should be offered a seven-day course of trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin unless prostatitis is suspected. A urine culture should be sent before antibiotics are started. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given. Acute pyelonephritis requires hospital admission and treatment with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone for 10-14 days. Referral to urology is not routinely required for men who have had one uncomplicated lower UTI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) with a lump on his eyelid that he has noticed for two days. The GP diagnoses it as a chalazion. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Apply heat and massage daily
Explanation:Managing Chalazion: Options and Recommendations
Chalazion, also known as meibomian cyst, is a painless inflammatory lesion of the eyelid that contains meibomian secretions. While it is a self-limiting condition, it may become infected and require medical attention. Here are some management options and recommendations for chalazion:
Apply Heat and Massage Daily: The best way to manage chalazion is to apply heat and massage daily to release the oil. This treatment option is effective and usually improves the condition without the need for antibiotics.
Refer to Ophthalmology Urgently: While GPs can manage chalazion, referrals to ophthalmology should be made if the lesion does not improve with treatment or if the GP feels the lesion might be suspicious.
Surgical Incision: If medical management has been unsuccessful, chalazions can be removed surgically by incision and curettage.
Topical Antibiotics: There is no indication for the use of antibiotics in the treatment of chalazion.
Watch and Wait: While chalazions can sometimes resolve with time without treatment, they usually require medical attention. As such, watch and wait is not an appropriate management option.
In summary, applying heat and massage daily is the best way to manage chalazion. Referrals to ophthalmology should be made if necessary, and surgical incision may be required if medical management is unsuccessful. Topical antibiotics are not recommended, and watch and wait is not an appropriate management option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman develops a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) during the second trimester of pregnancy.
Which of the following treatments is she likely to be managed with?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low-molecular-weight heparin (eg. Clexane®)
Explanation:Anticoagulant Therapy for Deep Vein Thrombosis in Pregnancy
Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious condition that can occur during pregnancy. Any woman with symptoms or signs suggestive of DVT should undergo objective testing and receive treatment with low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) immediately until the diagnosis is excluded. LMWH should be given in doses titrated against the woman’s weight and can be administered once daily or in two divided doses. It does not cross the placenta and has a lower risk of bleeding and heparin-induced osteoporosis compared to unfractionated heparin (UH). Fondaparinux, argatroban, or r-hirudin may be considered for pregnant women who cannot tolerate heparin.
Aspirin is not recommended for thromboprophylaxis in obstetric patients, except for pregnant women with a known history of antiphospholipid syndrome. Intravenous UH is the preferred initial treatment for massive pulmonary embolism with cardiovascular compromise during pregnancy and the puerperium. Warfarin should not be used for antenatal DVT treatment due to its adverse effects on the fetus. Postnatal therapy can be with LMWH or oral anticoagulants, but regular blood tests are needed to monitor warfarin.
Compression duplex ultrasonography should be performed when there is clinical suspicion of DVT. D-dimer testing should not be used in the investigation of acute DVT in pregnancy. Before anticoagulant therapy is started, blood tests should be taken for a full blood count, coagulation screen, urea and electrolytes, and liver function tests. Thrombophilia screening before therapy is not recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old woman complains of unsteadiness when walking. On examination, she has pyramidal weakness of her left lower limb, and reduced pinprick sensation of her right leg and right side of her trunk up to the level of the umbilicus. Joint position sense is impaired at her left great toe but is normal elsewhere. She has a definite left extensor plantar response, and the right plantar response is equivocal.
Which of the following is the most likely site of the lesion?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate site of the lesion from the list below. Select ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left mid-thoracic cord
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest Brown-Séquard syndrome, which is caused by a hemisection of the spinal cord. This results in ipsilateral pyramidal weakness and loss of joint position/vibration sense, along with contralateral loss of pain/temperature sensation. The patient’s lesion is located in the left mid-thoracic cord. A lesion in the left lumbosacral plexus would only affect the left lower limb. A cervical cord lesion would affect the upper limbs. A central lesion would produce bilateral symmetrical defects, which is not the case here. A right mid-thoracic cord lesion would produce similar symptoms, but on the right side instead. Other spinal cord syndromes include complete cord transection, anterior cord syndrome, subacute combined degeneration of the cord, syringomyelia, and cauda equina syndrome. Each of these has a distinct set of symptoms and affected areas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of experiencing electric shock-like pains on the right side of her face for the past two months. She reports having 10-20 episodes per day, each lasting for 30-60 seconds. She recently had a dental check-up, which was normal. Upon neurological examination, no abnormalities were found. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carbamazepine
Explanation:Carbamazepine is the first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia.
Understanding Trigeminal Neuralgia
Trigeminal neuralgia is a type of pain syndrome that is characterized by severe pain on one side of the face. While most cases are idiopathic, some may be caused by compression of the trigeminal roots due to tumors or vascular problems. According to the International Headache Society, trigeminal neuralgia is defined as a disorder that causes brief electric shock-like pains that are limited to one or more divisions of the trigeminal nerve. The pain is often triggered by light touch, such as washing, shaving, or brushing teeth, and can occur spontaneously. Certain areas of the face, such as the nasolabial fold or chin, may be more susceptible to pain. The pain may also remit for varying periods.
Red flag symptoms and signs that suggest a serious underlying cause include sensory changes, ear problems, a history of skin or oral lesions that could spread perineurally, pain only in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, optic neuritis, a family history of multiple sclerosis, and onset before the age of 40.
The first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia is carbamazepine. If there is a failure to respond to treatment or atypical features are present, such as onset before the age of 50, referral to neurology is recommended. Understanding the symptoms and management of trigeminal neuralgia is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 70
Incorrect
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An 85-year-old man complains of increasing back pain and overall weakness. An X-ray of his back reveals multiple vertebral collapses and lytic lesions.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma
Explanation:Understanding Multiple Myeloma: A Malignant Disease of Plasma Cells
Multiple myeloma is a malignant disease of plasma cells that commonly affects adults aged over 60 years. It is characterized by the production of paraproteinaemia in the blood, which can affect multiple organs including the blood, bone, kidneys, and immune system. The most common symptoms of multiple myeloma include unexplained bone pain, hypercalcaemia, weight loss, hyperviscosity symptoms, spinal cord compression, and fever.
On the other hand, osteoporosis is a condition characterized by low bone mass and deterioration of the structure of the bone tissue, resulting in bone fragility and susceptibility to fracture. Multiple vertebral collapses and lytic lesions are more sinister in nature and are commonly associated with multiple myeloma.
Osteosarcoma, bone metastases, and chronic myeloblastic leukaemia (CML) are not related to multiple myeloma. Osteosarcoma is characterized by cortical destruction and the presence of a soft-tissue mass, while bone metastases usually lead to destruction of the cortex on plain radiographs. Symptoms of CML include fatigue, night sweats, weight loss, abdominal fullness, and left upper quadrant pain.
In summary, understanding the symptoms and characteristics of multiple myeloma is crucial in diagnosing and treating this malignant disease of plasma cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of a pulsating headache and tenderness on palpation of the same area. He complains of pain in his jaw while eating.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start oral steroids
Explanation:Management of Suspected Giant-Cell Arteritis
Giant-cell arteritis (GCA) is a medical emergency that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent irreversible loss of vision. The following are the appropriate steps in managing a patient with suspected GCA:
Prompt Management of Suspected Giant-Cell Arteritis
1. Start oral steroids immediately: Delaying treatment can lead to vision loss. Steroids should be initiated even before the diagnosis is confirmed by temporal artery biopsy.
2. Admit and start on methotrexate if necessary: Patients on steroids are at high risk of side effects. Methotrexate or tocilizumab can be used in those who have steroid toxicity, along with tapering doses of steroids.
3. Arrange an urgent temporal artery biopsy: This is the gold-standard investigation for GCA. However, treatment should not be delayed till after the biopsy.
4. Do not refer to a rheumatologist on an outpatient basis: A rheumatologist will eventually be involved in the management of GCA, but immediate treatment is necessary.
5. Do not arrange an MRI scan of the brain: This is not indicated in the usual evaluation of GCA. It is used in specific cases of extracranial GCA or when there is strong clinical suspicion but a negative temporal artery biopsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman comes to the Endocrine Clinic with a history of hyperthyroidism. Her blood tests confirm that she is currently experiencing thyrotoxicosis. She is hoping to conceive and wants to discuss her treatment options.
What is the most suitable treatment for her condition in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thyroidectomy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Hyperthyroidism in Women Planning a Pregnancy
When it comes to treating hyperthyroidism in women who are planning a pregnancy, there are several options to consider. Definitive treatment, such as thyroidectomy, is the preferred option as it eliminates the risk of thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy and the need for medication that could harm the fetus. However, following thyroidectomy, the patient will need thyroxine replacement and should wait until she is euthyroid before trying to conceive.
Propylthiouracil and thyroxine are not recommended for use during pregnancy due to the risk of fetal goitre or hypothyroidism. Carbimazole is teratogenic and should not be started in women planning a pregnancy. Propylthiouracil can be used in low doses if there is no other suitable alternative.
Radioactive iodine is highly effective but is contraindicated in women planning a pregnancy within six months. This option can be considered if the patient is willing to continue contraception until six months after treatment. Ultimately, the best course of action will depend on the individual patient’s needs and preferences, and should be discussed with a healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) visits her General Practitioner complaining of a 3-day history of a red, swollen and hot left ankle. Her temperature is 38.8 °C. She is experiencing difficulty in walking and her range of ankle movement is severely restricted.
What is the most appropriate initial course of action in primary care?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit to hospital immediately
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis and Treatment of a Swollen, Hot, and Painful Joint in a Febrile Patient
When a patient presents with an acutely swollen, hot, and painful joint accompanied by fever, it is crucial to consider the possibility of septic arthritis or osteomyelitis. Both conditions require urgent medical attention, including prolonged courses of intravenous antibiotics and potential surgical intervention. Aspiration of the joint fluid for Gram staining and culture is necessary before starting empirical antibiotics. However, antibiotic treatment should not be delayed while awaiting results.
Intra-articular steroid injections are not appropriate for this patient, as they may worsen the condition significantly. Similarly, an IM injection of methylprednisolone could potentially have a significant effect on the immune system, leading to overwhelming sepsis. Oral colchicine is used to treat acute gout, which does not typically present with fever. In contrast, RA is a risk factor for developing septic arthritis, and immunosuppressive medications used to treat RA can also increase the risk.
Although oral flucloxacillin is indicated for the treatment of cellulitis, the history and examination findings in this case are more suggestive of septic arthritis. Intravenous antibiotics with or without surgical intervention are necessary for the treatment of septic arthritis. Therefore, it is crucial to differentiate between these conditions and provide appropriate treatment promptly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents with right-sided hemianopia and is currently undergoing investigations for a possible stroke. The stroke specialist has clinically diagnosed him with a POCI, indicating a posterior circulation infarct. Which specific area of the brain is affected by this type of stroke?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The vertebrobasilar arteries
Explanation:A POCI (posterior circulation infarct) typically affects the vertebrobasilar arteries. In contrast, a TACI involves the middle and anterior cerebral arteries, a PACI affects the smaller arteries of anterior circulation, and a LACI involves the perforating arteries around the internal capsule, thalamus, and basal ganglia.
Stroke can be classified based on the initial symptoms using the Oxford Stroke Classification, also known as the Bamford Classification. The criteria assessed include unilateral hemiparesis and/or hemisensory loss of the face, arm, and leg, homonymous hemianopia, and higher cognitive dysfunction such as dysphasia.
Total anterior circulation infarcts (TACI) involve the middle and anterior cerebral arteries and present with all three criteria mentioned above. Partial anterior circulation infarcts (PACI) involve smaller arteries of the anterior circulation and present with two of the criteria. Lacunar infarcts (LACI) involve perforating arteries around the internal capsule, thalamus, and basal ganglia and present with one of three symptoms: unilateral weakness (and/or sensory deficit) of face and arm, arm and leg, or all three; pure sensory stroke; or ataxic hemiparesis.
Posterior circulation infarcts (POCI) involve vertebrobasilar arteries and present with one of three symptoms: cerebellar or brainstem syndromes, loss of consciousness, or isolated homonymous hemianopia. Other recognized patterns of stroke include lateral medullary syndrome (posterior inferior cerebellar artery), also known as Wallenberg’s syndrome, which presents with ipsilateral ataxia, nystagmus, dysphagia, facial numbness, cranial nerve palsy (e.g., Horner’s), and contralateral limb sensory loss. Weber’s syndrome presents with ipsilateral III palsy and contralateral weakness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents with a sudden onset of vision loss in his left eye upon waking up this morning. He reports no pain in his eye. His medical history includes diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Upon fundoscopic examination, the right eye appears normal, but the left eye shows multiple retinal haemorrhages. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Central retinal vein occlusion
Explanation:The sudden painless loss of vision and severe retinal haemorrhages observed on fundoscopy in this patient are indicative of central retinal vein occlusion. Amaurosis fugax, which is caused by atheroembolism from the carotid arteries, results in temporary vision loss that resolves within a few minutes. In contrast, this patient’s vision loss is persistent. While central retinal artery occlusion also causes acute painless vision loss, it is characterized by a loss of relative afferent pupillary defect, a cherry-red macula, and a white/pale retina on fundoscopy. Hypertensive retinopathy may cause flame-shaped haemorrhages and cotton wool spots on the retina, but it does not result in sudden vision loss.
Understanding Central Retinal Vein Occlusion
Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) is a possible cause of sudden, painless loss of vision. It is more common in older individuals and those with hypertension, cardiovascular disease, glaucoma, or polycythemia. The condition is characterized by a sudden reduction or loss of visual acuity, usually affecting only one eye. Fundoscopy reveals widespread hyperemia and severe retinal hemorrhages, which are often described as a stormy sunset.
Branch retinal vein occlusion (BRVO) is a similar condition that affects a smaller area of the fundus. It occurs when a vein in the distal retinal venous system is blocked, usually at arteriovenous crossings.
Most patients with CRVO are managed conservatively, but treatment may be necessary in some cases. For instance, intravitreal anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) agents may be used to manage macular edema, while laser photocoagulation may be necessary to treat retinal neovascularization.
Overall, understanding the risk factors, features, and management options for CRVO is essential for prompt diagnosis and appropriate treatment. Proper management can help prevent further vision loss and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man comes in for follow-up. He was diagnosed with an anal fissure approximately 8 weeks ago and has attempted dietary changes, laxatives, and topical anesthetics with minimal improvement. What would be the most suitable course of action to take next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical glyceryl trinitrate
Explanation:Topical glyceryl trinitrate is used to treat chronic anal fissure.
Understanding Anal Fissures: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Anal fissures are tears in the lining of the distal anal canal that can be either acute or chronic. Acute fissures last for less than six weeks, while chronic fissures persist for more than six weeks. The most common risk factors for anal fissures include constipation, inflammatory bowel disease, and sexually transmitted infections such as HIV, syphilis, and herpes.
Symptoms of anal fissures include painful, bright red rectal bleeding, with around 90% of fissures occurring on the posterior midline. If fissures are found in other locations, underlying causes such as Crohn’s disease should be considered.
Management of acute anal fissures involves softening stool, dietary advice, bulk-forming laxatives, lubricants, topical anaesthetics, and analgesia. For chronic anal fissures, the same techniques should be continued, and topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) is the first-line treatment. If GTN is not effective after eight weeks, surgery (sphincterotomy) or botulinum toxin may be considered, and referral to secondary care is recommended.
In summary, anal fissures can be a painful and uncomfortable condition, but with proper management, they can be effectively treated. It is important to identify and address underlying risk factors to prevent the development of chronic fissures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 77
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman visits the GP clinic to receive the results of her recent blood tests. She has been experiencing fatigue, bloating, and flatulence. The blood test results are as follows:
- Hb: 110 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160 g/L)
- Platelets: 201 * 10^9/L (normal range: 150-400 * 10^9/L)
- WBC: 10.2 * 10^9/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 10^9/L)
- Ferritin: 25 ug/L (normal range: 15-200 ug/L)
- Deaminated gliadin IgG: 14 U/mL (normal range: <7 U/mL)
- Tissue transglutaminase IgA: 21 U/mL (normal range: <7 U/mL)
What additional tests or criteria would be necessary to make a definitive diagnosis of her condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Endoscopic intestinal biopsy without dietary modification
Explanation:In order to diagnose coeliac disease, endoscopic intestinal biopsy is considered the most reliable method and should be performed on all patients who show signs of the condition based on serology. A young patient with non-specific symptoms that suggest coeliac disease has been found to have mild anaemia and elevated coeliac serology. While these results are suggestive, they are not conclusive, and putting the patient on a gluten-free diet without further testing could be detrimental to their quality of life. Therefore, an intestinal biopsy without dietary modification is necessary to confirm the diagnosis. If the patient excludes gluten prior to the biopsy, the results may not be significant, so it is important to continue or reintroduce gluten for at least 6 weeks before the procedure. The expected results of a biopsy for coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, increased intraepithelial lymphocytes, and lymphocyte infiltration in the lamina propria. It is incorrect to assume that the patient does not require further testing, as the antibody results are not conclusive. Repeating antibody tests without dietary modification or advising the patient to exclude gluten and repeat the tests are also unnecessary. However, repeating antibody tests after a confirmed diagnosis may be useful in assessing patient adherence to a gluten-free diet. The patient should be referred to a gastroenterologist for an intestinal biopsy to confirm the diagnosis.
Investigating Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is a condition caused by sensitivity to gluten, which can lead to villous atrophy and malabsorption. It is often associated with other conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis of coeliac disease is made through a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy. The gold standard for diagnosis is the biopsy, which should be performed in all patients with suspected coeliac disease to confirm or exclude the diagnosis. The biopsy traditionally takes place in the duodenum, but jejunal biopsies are also sometimes performed. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, an increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes, and lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes. Serology tests for coeliac disease include tissue transglutaminase antibodies and endomyseal antibodies, while anti-gliadin antibodies are not recommended. Patients who are already on a gluten-free diet should reintroduce gluten for at least six weeks prior to testing. Rectal gluten challenge is not widely used. A gluten-free diet can reverse villous atrophy and immunology in patients with coeliac disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man with a known diagnosis of ulcerative colitis visits his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of a 4-day history of a feeling of rectal fullness, tenesmus, diarrhoea with small, frequent stools and mucus, and rectal bleeding. He denies systemic symptoms. He is not sexually active. Physical examination is unremarkable. The GP thinks a diagnosis of inflammatory exacerbation of proctitis is likely and contacts the local Inflammatory Bowel Disease (IBM) specialist nurse for advice.
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate treatment from the list below.
Select ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Per-rectal administration of aminosalicylate
Explanation:Treatment Options for Proctitis: Aminosalicylates, Topical Corticosteroids, and More
Proctitis, an inflammation of the rectal mucosa, can be caused by various factors such as radiation, infections, autoimmune diseases, and trauma. Symptoms include rectal bleeding, pain, and diarrhea. To manage proctitis, aminosalicylates in the form of enemas or suppositories are often used as first-line therapy to reduce inflammation and relieve symptoms. Topical corticosteroids are less effective but can be used in patients who cannot tolerate aminosalicylates. Oral prednisolone is a second-line therapy for ulcerative colitis. Ibuprofen is not recommended, and codeine phosphate and loperamide may aggravate symptoms. Treatment depends on the underlying cause and severity of proctitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner who has been on peritoneal dialysis for ten years due to end-stage renal failure. He complains of chronic back and shoulder pain and is subsequently diagnosed with renal amyloidosis secondary to long-term dialysis. This is thought to be the explanation for the pain in his shoulder.
What would be the next most appropriate step in this patient’s management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Steroid injection to shoulder joint
Explanation:Managing Shoulder Pain in Renal Amyloidosis Patients
Renal amyloidosis can cause acute pain in the shoulder joint due to scapulohumeral arthritis and infiltration of the rotator cuff by amyloid proteins. While a steroid injection can provide temporary relief, it is not a definitive management option. Switching dialysis types will not improve the condition, and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are not recommended for patients with compromised renal function. Surgical fixation of the affected joint may provide temporary relief, but it will not halt the progression of the disease. The most effective long-term solution is kidney transplantation, which lowers the blood concentration of the protein and eliminates symptoms of arthritis. However, in cases of acute pain, the priority is to manage the pain while working towards transplantation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 80
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents with multiple, ring-shaped, papular rashes on his legs. He has recently noticed a red, raised intra-oral lesion.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lichen planus
Explanation:Skin Conditions: Lichen Planus, Erythema Multiforme, Psoriasis, Ringworm, and Tinea Versicolor
Lichen Planus: A skin condition that affects cutaneous and mucosal surfaces, characterised by flat-topped plaques and papules with a purple hue and white striae. It can be treated with topical steroids and immunomodulators.
Erythema Multiforme: A skin condition characterised by targetoid lesions with a central depression, usually starting on the acral extensor surfaces and progressing to involve the trunk and back. It can be caused by medications, infections, or underlying conditions.
Psoriasis: An autoimmune chronic skin condition presenting with erythematous plaques and greyscale on the extensor surfaces of extremities. It is not associated with intra-oral mucosal lesions.
Ringworm: A fungal skin infection characterised by erythematous, scaly patches on the skin surface of the trunk, back, and extremities. It can lead to the formation of pustules or vesicles.
Tinea Versicolor: A fungal skin infection characterised by pale or dark, copper-coloured patches on the arms, neck, and trunk. It does not involve mucosal surfaces.
Understanding Different Skin Conditions
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old patient comes back to the clinic after being on ramipril for 2 weeks for grade 3 hypertension. She reports a persistent cough that is causing sleep disturbance. What is the best course of action for managing this issue?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop ramipril and switch to losartan
Explanation:Angiotensin II receptor blockers may be considered for hypertension patients who experience cough as a side effect of ACE inhibitors. This is especially relevant for elderly patients, as ACE inhibitors or angiotensin II receptor blockers are the preferred initial treatment options for hypertension.
Angiotensin II receptor blockers are a type of medication that is commonly used when patients cannot tolerate ACE inhibitors due to the development of a cough. Examples of these blockers include candesartan, losartan, and irbesartan. However, caution should be exercised when using them in patients with renovascular disease. Side-effects may include hypotension and hyperkalaemia.
The mechanism of action for angiotensin II receptor blockers is to block the effects of angiotensin II at the AT1 receptor. These blockers have been shown to reduce the progression of renal disease in patients with diabetic nephropathy. Additionally, there is evidence to suggest that losartan can reduce the mortality rates associated with CVA and IHD in hypertensive patients.
Overall, angiotensin II receptor blockers are a viable alternative to ACE inhibitors for patients who cannot tolerate the latter. They have a proven track record of reducing the progression of renal disease and improving mortality rates in hypertensive patients. However, as with any medication, caution should be exercised when using them in patients with certain medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor worried that she may have been in contact with a child who has chickenpox. She is currently 20 weeks pregnant and unsure if she has ever had chickenpox before. Upon examination, no rash is present. Her blood test results show that she is Varicella Zoster IgG negative. What is the best course of action to take next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG)
Explanation:If a pregnant woman is exposed to chickenpox before 20 weeks and has a negative IgG test, it indicates that she is not immune to the virus or has not been previously exposed to it. In such cases, it is recommended to administer varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) as soon as possible, which can be effective up to 10 days after exposure. It is not necessary to inform public health as chickenpox is not a notifiable disease.
If a pregnant woman develops a chickenpox rash, VZIG has no therapeutic benefit and should not be used. However, antiviral agents like aciclovir can be given within 24 hours of the rash onset. It is important to note that antiviral agents are recommended for post-exposure prophylaxis for immunosuppressed individuals.
Women who are not immune to varicella-zoster can receive the vaccine before pregnancy or after delivery, but it should not be administered during pregnancy. Therefore, option D cannot be correct in any situation.
Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral aciclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 83
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding endometrial cancer is false?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Has a poor prognosis
Explanation:The prognosis for endometrial cancer is generally favorable.
Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.
When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. Progestogen therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 84
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman with permanent atrial fibrillation is taking warfarin. She has experienced two unprovoked tonic-clonic seizures witnessed by her husband. CT scan of the brain reveals diffuse ischaemic changes in the white matter. The specialist recommends starting her on an anti-epileptic medication.
What would be the most suitable anti-epileptic drug to prescribe for this patient who is also on warfarin therapy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lamotrigine
Explanation:Considerations for Anti-Epileptic Drugs and Warfarin Interaction
When prescribing anti-epileptic drugs to patients taking warfarin, it is important to consider potential drug interactions. Lamotrigine is a safe option as it has no effect on liver enzymes and does not interact significantly with warfarin. However, other anti-epileptic drugs such as phenytoin, carbamazepine, primidone, and phenobarbital can affect warfarin metabolism and effectiveness. Phenytoin and warfarin have a complex interaction that may initially increase the anticoagulant effect of warfarin, then decrease it with continued phenytoin use. Warfarin also increases the level of phenytoin. Carbamazepine is a P450 enzyme inducer, which decreases the level and effect of warfarin. Phenobarbital and primidone are also enzyme inducers that decrease warfarin effectiveness. Sodium valproate, on the other hand, is a liver enzyme inhibitor. Therefore, when considering anti-epileptic drugs for patients taking warfarin, it is important to weigh the potential drug interactions and choose the appropriate medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of urinary hesitancy, urgency and terminal dribbling that have been bothering him for the past 4 months. During a digital rectal examination, the doctor finds an enlarged, soft prostate with a smooth surface that is not tender. The patient's PSA reading is within the normal range. What is the most suitable treatment option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: α-blocker
Explanation:Treatment Options for Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy (BPH)
Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) is a condition characterized by the proliferation of the cellular elements of the prostate, which can lead to chronic bladder outlet obstruction and a range of urinary symptoms. Treatment options for BPH depend on the severity of the symptoms and the size of the prostate.
The first-line drug of choice for men with moderate-to-severe lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTSs) is an α-blocker, such as alfuzosin, doxazosin, tamsulosin or terazosin. For men with larger prostates or higher prostate-specific antigen (PSA) levels, 5α-reductase inhibitors (e.g. finasteride) may also be offered. However, it is important to note that it may take up to 6 months for the patient to see an effect from this medication.
If storage symptoms persist after treatment with an α-blocker alone, anticholinergics such as oxybutynin may be added to the treatment plan. Surgery should only be considered for men with severe voiding symptoms that have not responded to drug therapy. First-line surgical options include transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), monopolar transurethral vaporisation of the prostate (TUVP), or holmium laser enucleation of the prostate (HoLEP). Open prostatectomy should be reserved for men with very large prostates.
It is important to seek medical attention if conservative management options have failed or are not appropriate, as untreated BPH can lead to serious complications such as urinary retention, renal insufficiency, recurrent urinary tract infections, gross haematuria, and bladder calculi.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old multiparous woman undergoes an 11-week gestation dating scan revealing a live fetus with several abnormalities such as choroid plexus cysts, clenched hands, rocker bottom feet, and a small placenta. What is the probable abnormality?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Edwards syndrome (Trisomy 18)
Explanation:A newborn has micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping fingers, which are indicative of Edwards Syndrome. This condition, also known as Trisomy 18, is the second most common trisomy after Down Syndrome. Unfortunately, the outcome for infants with Edwards Syndrome is poor, with many dying in-utero and few surviving beyond one week. There are several ultrasound markers that suggest Edwards Syndrome, including cardiac malformations, choroid plexus cysts, neural tube defects, abnormal hand and feet position, exomphalos, growth restriction, single umbilical artery, polyhydramnios, and small placenta. While these markers are not specific to Edwards Syndrome, they increase the likelihood of diagnosis when present together. To confirm the diagnosis, karyotype analysis of placental or amniotic fluid should be performed with patient consent. Infections such as rubella, cytomegalovirus, and varicella zoster should also be considered in the differential diagnosis of multiple fetal abnormalities, and maternal viral serology may be helpful in diagnosis.
Childhood syndromes are a group of medical conditions that affect children and are characterized by a set of common features. Patau syndrome, also known as trisomy 13, is a syndrome that is characterized by microcephaly, small eyes, cleft lip/palate, polydactyly, and scalp lesions. Edward’s syndrome, also known as trisomy 18, is characterized by micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers. Fragile X syndrome is characterized by learning difficulties, macrocephaly, long face, large ears, and macro-orchidism. Noonan syndrome is characterized by a webbed neck, pectus excavatum, short stature, and pulmonary stenosis. Pierre-Robin syndrome is characterized by micrognathia, posterior displacement of the tongue, and cleft palate. Prader-Willi syndrome is characterized by hypotonia, hypogonadism, and obesity. William’s syndrome is characterized by short stature, learning difficulties, friendly, extrovert personality, and transient neonatal hypercalcaemia. Cri du chat syndrome, also known as chromosome 5p deletion syndrome, is characterized by a characteristic cry, feeding difficulties and poor weight gain, learning difficulties, microcephaly and micrognathism, and hypertelorism. It is important to note that Treacher-Collins syndrome is similar to Pierre-Robin syndrome, but it is autosomal dominant and usually has a family history of similar problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 87
Incorrect
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Each one of the following is a recognised complication of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Achalasia
Explanation:Managing Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux Disease
Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is a condition where gastric contents cause symptoms of oesophagitis. If GORD has not been investigated with endoscopy, it should be treated according to dyspepsia guidelines. However, if oesophagitis is confirmed through endoscopy, a full dose proton pump inhibitor (PPI) should be given for 1-2 months. If there is a positive response, low dose treatment may be given as required. If there is no response, double-dose PPI should be given for 1 month.
On the other hand, if endoscopy shows negative reflux disease, a full dose PPI should be given for 1 month. If there is a positive response, low dose treatment may be given on an as-required basis with a limited number of repeat prescriptions. If there is no response, H2RA or prokinetic should be given for one month.
Complications of GORD include oesophagitis, ulcers, anaemia, benign strictures, Barrett’s oesophagus, and oesophageal carcinoma. Therefore, it is important to manage GORD effectively to prevent these complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 88
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is reviewed on the Oncology Ward. He has metastatic lung cancer and a potassium (K+) level of 6.1 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5–5.0 mmol/l). The lab report indicates that there was a delay in processing this sample. His last K+ level recorded two days ago was 4.2 mmol/l. An electrocardiogram (ECG), urine output and observations all provide normal results.
What is the most appropriate initial step in this patient’s management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Repeat sample immediately
Explanation:Management of Suspected Hyperkalaemia
Hyperkalaemia is a serious medical condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. In cases where hyperkalaemia is suspected, it is important to verify whether the elevated potassium levels are due to true hyperkalaemia or an erroneous result. This can be caused by a delay in sample processing, venepuncture technique, or haemolysis of the blood sample.
If hyperkalaemia is confirmed, treatment should be initiated without delay. Calcium gluconate or calcium chloride may be given to protect the myocardium in cases of severe hyperkalaemia. Insulin and dextrose are usually given to drive potassium into the cells.
However, before prescribing any medications, it is crucial to repeat the sample immediately to confirm the diagnosis of true hyperkalaemia. Delaying treatment may lead to fatal arrhythmia. Therefore, it is essential to manage suspected hyperkalaemia with urgency and accuracy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old young woman is enjoying a meal at a Chinese restaurant to celebrate her birthday. Despite having a nut allergy, the restaurant has taken precautions to ensure her safety. However, while trying a friend's chicken dish, she unknowingly ingested peanuts and experiences a severe allergic reaction, including difficulty breathing and facial swelling. Thankfully, her friend has an EpiPen® and administers it before calling for an ambulance. Although her symptoms improve, she remains unwell and struggling to breathe. Her friend remembers that a second EpiPen® can be used if necessary. When is it appropriate to administer the second dose of adrenaline?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5 minutes
Explanation:Adrenaline can be administered every 5 minutes in the management of anaphylaxis. It is recommended that individuals with a history of anaphylaxis carry two auto-injectors with them in case a second dose is needed.
Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically occur suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Common signs include swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, respiratory wheeze, dyspnea, hypotension, and tachycardia. In addition, around 80-90% of patients experience skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus, erythematous rash, or urticaria.
The management of anaphylaxis requires prompt and decisive action, as it is a medical emergency. The Resuscitation Council guidelines recommend intramuscular adrenaline as the most important drug for treating anaphylaxis. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, ranging from 100-150 micrograms for infants under 6 months to 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary, and the best site for injection is the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. In cases of refractory anaphylaxis, IV fluids and expert help should be sought.
Following stabilisation, patients may be given non-sedating oral antihistamines to manage persisting skin symptoms. It is important to refer all patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis to a specialist allergy clinic and provide them with an adrenaline injector as an interim measure before the specialist assessment. Patients should also be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors and trained on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and complete resolution of symptoms, while those who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have a history of biphasic reaction should be observed for at least 12 hours following symptom resolution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 90
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She reports having 'IBS' and experiencing occasional episodes of abdominal pain, bloating, and loose stools for the past two years. However, her symptoms have worsened significantly over the past two weeks. She is now having 3-4 watery, grey, 'frothy' stools per day, along with increased abdominal bloating, cramps, and flatulence. She also feels that she has lost weight based on the fit of her clothes. The following blood tests are ordered:
Hb 10.9 g/dl
Platelets 199 * 109/l
WBC 7.2 * 109/l
Ferritin 15 ng/ml
Vitamin B12 225 ng/l
Folate 2.1 nmol/l
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coeliac disease
Explanation:The key indicators in this case are the presence of anaemia and low levels of ferritin and folate, which are all typical of coeliac disease. The description of the diarrhoea also matches the usual symptoms, although some patients may have stools that are visibly fatty.
While irritable bowel syndrome is a common condition, it is unlikely to be the cause in this case due to the abnormal blood test results. Low levels of ferritin and folate would not typically be associated with IBS or gastroenteritis. Even if the patient had menorrhagia, this would not explain the low folate levels, although it could account for the anaemia and low ferritin.
Coeliac disease is much more common than Crohn’s disease, with a prevalence that is around 100 times higher. In an exam scenario, there would typically be more clues pointing towards a diagnosis of Crohn’s disease, such as the presence of mouth ulcers.
Understanding Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.
To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, sudden weight loss, and autoimmune thyroid disease. Other conditions associated with coeliac disease include irritable bowel syndrome, dermatitis herpetiformis, and type 1 diabetes. First-degree relatives of patients with coeliac disease should also be screened.
Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, lactose intolerance, and enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine. In rare cases, coeliac disease may lead to esophageal cancer or other malignancies.
Overall, understanding coeliac disease is crucial for early diagnosis and management of the condition. Screening for coeliac disease in patients with relevant symptoms and conditions can help prevent complications and improve quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man is being investigated for unexplained weight loss. He reports experiencing abdominal pain, dyspepsia, and nausea. He has a history of pernicious anaemia. What is the probable diagnosis based on these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stomach cancer
Explanation:Dyspepsia, abdominal pain, nausea, and anorexia are among the early signs of stomach cancer. This type of cancer is uncommon and is more likely to occur in individuals over the age of 50, particularly those with pernicious anemia. Pancreatic cancer is linked to the onset of diabetes. Bone pain is a typical symptom of myeloma. Recurrent infections, bleeding, and bruising are common symptoms of acute leukemia.
Management of Dyspepsia and Referral for Possible Cancer
Dyspepsia is a common symptom that can be caused by various factors, including medication and lifestyle choices. However, it can also be a sign of underlying conditions such as stomach or oesophageal cancer. The 2015 NICE guidelines provide updated advice on when urgent referral for endoscopy is necessary. Patients with dysphagia or an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer should be referred urgently. Patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia should also be referred urgently. Non-urgent referrals include patients with haematemesis or those with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with other symptoms.
For patients with undiagnosed dyspepsia, a step-wise approach is recommended. First, medications should be reviewed for possible causes. Lifestyle advice should also be given. If symptoms persist, a trial of full-dose proton pump inhibitor for one month or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried. If symptoms persist after either approach, the alternative should be attempted. Testing for H. pylori infection can be done using a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms resolve following test and treat, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 92
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl presents to the GP with concerns regarding menstruation, as she has not yet started her periods. She has no past medical history.
On examination, there is little to no axillary or pubic hair, and she has a tall stature. Bilateral lower pelvic masses are noted. Her BMI is 19 kg/m².
Investigations are performed:
Hb 130 g/L (115 - 160)
Platelets 200 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 5.7 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
FSH 9 IU/L (1 - 12)
LH 7 IU/L (1 - 9)
Testosterone 100 ng/dL (15-70)
Estradiol 30 pg/mL (30 - 400)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Androgen insensitivity syndrome
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for this patient is androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS). This is because she has not started menstruating by the age of 15, has little to no axillary or pubic hair, and elevated testosterone levels. These symptoms are all indicative of AIS, which is a genetic condition where individuals with male chromosomes (46XY) have a female appearance due to their body’s resistance to testosterone. The lower pelvic masses seen on examination are likely to be undescended testes.
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) is an unlikely diagnosis as it typically causes excess male-pattern hair growth, including axillary and pubic hair, which is not seen in this patient. Additionally, CAH would not explain the presence of the lower pelvic masses.
Functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea is also unlikely as this condition is typically associated with low body weight, which is not the case for this patient. Furthermore, her FSH and LH levels are within the normal range, indicating that there is no hypothalamic dysfunction.
Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is an unlikely diagnosis as it typically causes irregular periods rather than a complete absence of menstruation. Additionally, patients with PCOS often have excessive hair growth, which is not seen in this patient. PCOS would also not explain the presence of the lower pelvic masses.
Understanding Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome
Androgen insensitivity syndrome is a genetic condition that affects individuals with an XY genotype, causing them to develop a female phenotype due to their body’s resistance to testosterone. This condition was previously known as testicular feminization syndrome. The main features of this condition include primary amenorrhea, little or no pubic and axillary hair, undescended testes leading to groin swellings, and breast development due to the conversion of testosterone to estrogen.
Diagnosis of androgen insensitivity syndrome can be made through a buccal smear or chromosomal analysis, which reveals a 46XY genotype. After puberty, testosterone levels in affected individuals are typically in the high-normal to slightly elevated range for postpubertal boys.
Management of androgen insensitivity syndrome involves counseling and raising the child as female. Bilateral orchidectomy is recommended to reduce the risk of testicular cancer due to undescended testes. Additionally, estrogen therapy may be used to promote the development of secondary sexual characteristics.
In summary, androgen insensitivity syndrome is a genetic condition that affects the development of individuals with an XY genotype, causing them to develop a female phenotype. Early diagnosis and management can help affected individuals lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 93
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman has blood tests done by her primary care physician during a routine check-up. The results show a decline in her renal function. Upon further examination, she reports experiencing ankle swelling and increased fatigue. The renal team suspects she may have amyloidosis. What diagnostic test could be used to confirm this diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal biopsy
Explanation:Diagnostic Methods for Renal Amyloidosis
Renal amyloidosis is a condition that can be challenging to diagnose. It is caused by the accumulation of proteinaceous material in tissues, which can be identified through a biopsy. Congo-red staining extracellular fibrillar material is a characteristic feature of amyloid protein in the kidney. While a urine dip may show proteinuria, a renal biopsy is necessary for a definitive diagnosis as proteinuria can be caused by other conditions. A bone marrow biopsy can confirm amyloidosis if there is suspicion of bone marrow infiltration. CT scans of the abdomen may reveal abnormalities in the kidneys or lymph nodes, but a renal biopsy is still required for a definitive diagnosis. As amyloidosis can affect other organs, a lung biopsy may not be the most targeted approach for diagnosing renal amyloidosis. Overall, a renal biopsy is the most reliable method for diagnosing renal amyloidosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman, who has a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus, visits your GP clinic complaining of sudden vision loss in her right eye. During direct ophthalmoscopy, you observe no discernible features of the retina or disc. However, you do notice redness in the vitreous. What is the probable reason for this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Proliferative diabetic retinopathy
Explanation:Vitreous hemorrhage caused by proliferative retinopathy is more frequently observed in individuals with T1DM compared to T2DM. This is due to the presence of retinal neovascularization, which results in fragile blood vessels that are susceptible to bleeding. Conversely, vitreous hemorrhage is not typically associated with background, pre-proliferative diabetic retinopathy, or diabetic maculopathy as these conditions do not involve retinal neovascularization.
Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy
Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.
Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.
Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for non-proliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents with symptoms of depression, difficulty sleeping, and a strong desire for sugary foods during the winter months. He reports that his symptoms are more severe in the winter than in the summer. He has no history of other mental health issues or physical problems. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Seasonal affective disorder (SAD)
Explanation:Differentiating Seasonal Affective Disorder from Other Depressive Disorders
Seasonal affective disorder (SAD) is a type of depression that occurs in a regular temporal pattern, typically beginning in autumn or winter and ending in spring or summer. Unlike classic major depression, SAD is characterized by symptoms of hyperphagia, hypersomnia, and weight gain. The cause of SAD is believed to be a malfunction of the light-sensitive hormone melatonin during winter. Treatment involves phototherapy, which exposes individuals to bright light for several hours a day.
Reactive depression, on the other hand, is a subtype of major depression that occurs as a result of an external event, such as a relationship breakdown or bereavement. There is no indication of a stressful life event in the presented vignette.
Bipolar affective disorder is characterized by distinct episodes of depression and mania, which is not evident in the vignette. Dysthymia is a persistent depression of mood that does not fully meet the criteria for a diagnosis of major depression and does not have a definite seasonal variation like SAD.
Finally, double depression occurs when one or more episodes of major depression occur on a background of dysthymia. It is important to differentiate SAD from other depressive disorders to provide appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with central crushing chest pain. Upon arrival, an ECG reveals ST-elevation in leads II, III and aVF. The patient has a history of hypertension and is currently taking ramipril, aspirin and simvastatin. What is the most effective course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirin + clopidogrel + IV heparin + immediate percutaneous coronary intervention
Explanation:Immediate percutaneous coronary intervention with aspirin, clopidogrel, and IV heparin is recommended.
Myocardial infarction, specifically ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), can be managed using evidence-based approaches. Patients without contraindications should be given aspirin and a P2Y12-receptor antagonist, with ticagrelor being preferred over clopidogrel due to improved outcomes despite slightly higher bleeding rates. Unfractionated heparin is typically given to patients undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), but low-molecular weight heparin can also be used. Oxygen therapy should not be routinely administered, but supplemental oxygen can be given to patients with oxygen saturation levels below 94% or those with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure.
Primary PCI is the preferred treatment for STEMI, but it may not be available in all centers. Thrombolysis can be performed in patients without access to primary PCI, with tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) offering clear mortality benefits over streptokinase. Tenecteplase is easier to administer and has non-inferior efficacy to alteplase with a similar adverse effect profile. An ECG should be performed 90 minutes following thrombolysis to assess whether there has been a greater than 50% resolution in the ST elevation. If there has not been adequate resolution, rescue PCI is superior to repeat thrombolysis. For patients successfully treated with thrombolysis, PCI has been shown to be beneficial, but the optimal timing is still being investigated.
For patients with diabetes mellitus, NICE recommends using a dose-adjusted insulin infusion with regular monitoring of blood glucose levels to keep glucose below 11.0 mmol/l. Intensive insulin therapy regimes are not recommended routinely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy visits his General Practitioner a week after experiencing an upper-respiratory tract infection. He reports developing erythema around his left eye and pain on eye movement since waking up this morning.
Upon examination of his left eye, the boy displays proptosis, restricted eye movements, reduced visual acuity, and a relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD). However, his right eye appears normal.
What is the most probable diagnosis?
Choose the SINGLE most likely diagnosis from the options below.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Orbital cellulitis
Explanation:Eye Infections and Inflammations: Symptoms and Differences
Eye infections and inflammations can cause a range of symptoms, but it is important to differentiate between them to ensure appropriate treatment. Here are some common eye conditions and their distinguishing features:
Orbital Cellulitis: This is a serious condition that can cause erythema (redness) around the eye, pain on eye movements, restricted eye movements, proptosis (bulging of the eye), reduced visual acuity, and a relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD). It is usually caused by the spread of infection from sinuses or trauma to the orbit. Treatment involves antibiotics and surgery if there is an orbital collection.
Conjunctivitis: This is a common condition that can accompany upper respiratory tract infections. It causes redness and discharge from the eye, but does not usually cause proptosis, restricted eye movements, or a RAPD.
Anterior Uveitis: This is an inflammation of the iris and ciliary body that causes a painful red eye, photophobia, increased lacrimation, and blurred vision. It does not usually cause erythema or proptosis.
Preseptal Cellulitis: This is a less serious condition that causes swelling and erythema of the eyelid, but does not cause proptosis, visual changes, or a RAPD. It is often confused with orbital cellulitis, but can be differentiated by the absence of these symptoms.
Blepharitis: This is an inflammation of the eyelid that causes swelling, erythema, and flakiness or scaliness of the eyelids. It does not usually cause proptosis or visual changes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 98
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man presented to the Emergency Department with a 1-day history of blurring of vision and headache. He does not complain of any pain when touching the scalp or any pain when eating and chewing food.
Past medical history includes hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, which is well controlled with metformin.
On further history taking, he tells you that he has a family history of brain cancer and he is afraid that this could be relevant to his symptoms.
On examination, his visual acuity is 6/18 in both eyes. On dilated fundoscopy, you could see some arterioles narrower than others. You also see venules being compressed by arterioles. There are also some dot-and-blot and flame-shaped haemorrhages, as well as some cotton-wool spots. There is no optic disc swelling.
His vital observations are as follows:
Heart rate 80 bpm
Blood pressure 221/119 mmHg
Oxygen saturation 98% on room air
Respiratory rate 14 per minute
Temperature 37 °C
According to the Keith-Wagener-Barker classification of hypertensive retinopathy, what grade of hypertensive retinopathy is this?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Grade 3
Explanation:Stages of Diabetic Retinopathy
Diabetic retinopathy is a condition that affects the eyes of people with diabetes. It is important to detect and treat it early to prevent vision loss. There are different stages of diabetic retinopathy, each with its own set of features.
Grade 1 is characterized by arteriolar narrowing. Grade 2 includes features of grade 1 and arteriovenous nipping. Grade 3 includes features of grade 2 and microaneurysms, dot-and-blot haemorrhages, flame-shaped haemorrhages, cotton-wool spots, and hard exudates. Grade 4 includes features of grade 3 and optic disc swelling.
It is important to have regular eye exams if you have diabetes to detect any signs of diabetic retinopathy early. With proper management and treatment, vision loss can be prevented or delayed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 99
Incorrect
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Which of the following outcomes confirms a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Symptomatic patient with random glucose 12.0 mmol/L on one occasion
Explanation:To diagnose diabetes mellitus, fasting blood glucose levels should be above 7.0 or random blood glucose levels should be above 11.1. If the patient is asymptomatic, two readings are required for confirmation.
Type 2 diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. The diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is experiencing symptoms or not. If the patient is symptomatic, a fasting glucose level of 7.0 mmol/l or higher or a random glucose level of 11.1 mmol/l or higher (or after a 75g oral glucose tolerance test) indicates diabetes. If the patient is asymptomatic, the same criteria apply but must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.
In 2011, the World Health Organization released supplementary guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosing diabetes. A HbA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or higher is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. However, a HbA1c value of less than 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) does not exclude diabetes and may not be as sensitive as fasting samples for detecting diabetes. For patients without symptoms, the test must be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. It is important to note that increased red cell turnover can cause misleading HbA1c results.
There are certain conditions where HbA1c cannot be used for diagnosis, such as haemoglobinopathies, haemolytic anaemia, untreated iron deficiency anaemia, suspected gestational diabetes, children, HIV, chronic kidney disease, and people taking medication that may cause hyperglycaemia (such as corticosteroids).
Impaired fasting glucose (IFG) is defined as a fasting glucose level of 6.1 mmol/l or higher but less than 7.0 mmol/l. Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) is defined as a fasting plasma glucose level less than 7.0 mmol/l and an OGTT 2-hour value of 7.8 mmol/l or higher but less than 11.1 mmol/l. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes. A result below 11.1 mmol/l but above 7.8 mmol/l indicates that the person does not have diabetes but does have IGT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 100
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old obese man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents at the clinic for a review. He is currently asymptomatic but his recent annual blood tests have shown slightly abnormal liver function tests. The results are as follows:
- Bilirubin: 20 µmol/L (3 - 17)
- ALP: 104 u/L (30 - 100)
- ALT: 53 u/L (3 - 40)
- γGT: 58 u/L (8 - 60)
- Albumin: 38 g/L (35 - 50)
A liver ultrasound was conducted and reported fatty changes. All other standard liver screen bloods, including viral serology, are normal. The patient's alcoholic intake is within recommended limits. What is the most appropriate next test to perform?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Enhanced liver fibrosis blood test
Explanation:For patients with non-alcoholic fatty liver disease who exhibit characteristics such as obesity and type 2 diabetes mellitus, it is recommended to conduct an enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) test to aid in the diagnosis of liver fibrosis. According to NICE guidelines, if NAFLD is discovered incidentally, an ELF blood test should be conducted to evaluate for the presence of more advanced liver disease.
Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It encompasses a range of conditions, from simple steatosis (fat accumulation in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. Insulin resistance is believed to be the primary mechanism leading to steatosis, making NAFLD a hepatic manifestation of metabolic syndrome. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a type of liver damage similar to alcoholic hepatitis but occurs in the absence of alcohol abuse. It affects around 3-4% of the general population and may be responsible for some cases of cryptogenic cirrhosis.
NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels are common features. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score, in combination with a FibroScan, may be used to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.
The mainstay of NAFLD treatment is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. Research is ongoing into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, NICE guidelines recommend the management of incidental NAFLD findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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