00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 20-year-old woman has been experiencing recurrent painful mouth ulceration for several years....

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old woman has been experiencing recurrent painful mouth ulceration for several years. The ulcers typically heal in just over a week, and she remains symptom-free until the next recurrence. She denies any associated symptoms or rash, and her father had a similar history as a teenager. She doesn't smoke and denies excessive alcohol use or drug use. Although there is no dental or periodontal disease, she has three discrete, 4-mm-round ulcers with inflammatory haloes on the buccal mucosa.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Apthous ulcers

      Explanation:

      There are several types of oral ulcers that can occur. Recurrent aphthous ulcers are the most common, affecting up to 66% of people at some point in their life. These ulcers appear on movable oral tissue and can recur frequently. Treatment options include topical corticosteroids, antimicrobial mouthwash, and topical analgesics. Herpes simplex stomatitis is another type of oral ulcer that mostly affects children and is caused by the herpes simplex virus. Symptoms include fever, malaise, and painful intraoral vesicles that can lead to ulcers. Oral candidiasis, or thrush, presents as white patches on the oral mucosa and tongue that can be wiped off to reveal a raw, erythematous base. Oral hairy leukoplakia is a white patch on the side of the tongue with a hairy appearance that is caused by Epstein-Barr virus and usually occurs in immunocompromised individuals. Oral lichen planus presents as a symmetrical, white, lace-like pattern on the buccal mucosa, tongue, and gums, and may be accompanied by erosions and ulcers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 5-year-old boy presents with his first febrile convulsion.

    Which of the following is...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old boy presents with his first febrile convulsion.

      Which of the following is appropriate information for his parents?

      Your Answer: Most cases happen between 6 months and 3 years of age

      Explanation:

      Febrile Convulsions: A Common Occurrence in Young Children

      Febrile convulsions are a relatively common occurrence in young children, with a prevalence of 5% between the ages of 6 months and 5 years. Clinical experience has shown that most of these convulsions occur before the age of three. The convulsions are typically tonic-clonic in nature, and most children (75%) will only experience one seizure. A strong family history of febrile seizures is the most important factor in predicting whether a child will develop further seizures.

      Fortunately, epilepsy develops in only approximately 2% of children who experience febrile convulsions. After the first seizure, no treatment is required other than symptomatic care. It is important for parents and caregivers to be aware of the signs and symptoms of febrile convulsions and to seek medical attention if they occur. With proper management and care, most children will recover fully from febrile convulsions without any long-term effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old woman comes to your clinic after noticing that a mole on...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to your clinic after noticing that a mole on the side of her neck has recently grown. Upon examination, you observe an irregularly shaped lesion with variable pigmentation and a diameter of 7 mm.

      What would be the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently to dermatology

      Correct Answer: Reassess in two weeks

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral Needed for Suspicious Lesion

      This patient’s lesion is highly suspicious of a melanoma and requires immediate referral to a dermatologist. Any delay in monitoring in primary care could result in delayed treatment and potentially worse outcomes. The lesion’s recent increase in size, irregular pigmentation, and margin are all factors that raise suspicions. To aid in decision-making, the 7-point weighted checklist can be used, which includes major features such as change in size, irregular shape, and irregular color, as well as minor features like inflammation, oozing, change in sensation, and largest diameter 7 mm or more. Lesions scoring 3 or more points are considered suspicious and should be referred, even if the score is less than 3. If the lesion were low risk, it would be reasonable to monitor over an eight-week period using the 7-point checklist, photographs, and a marker scale and/or ruler. However, it is not appropriate to excise or biopsy suspicious pigmented lesions in primary care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 62-year old male presents with dysphagia. His symptoms were first noticed a...

    Correct

    • A 62-year old male presents with dysphagia. His symptoms were first noticed a few months ago and have steadily worsened.
      Initially he found difficulty swallowing solids but over recent weeks has also been having difficulty swallowing liquids. In addition to his swallowing problems he has lost over a stone in weight.
      On examination, he looks thin and slightly pale.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oesophageal cancer

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnosis for Dysphagia in a 60-Year-Old Patient

      There are several factors that may suggest a diagnosis of oesophageal cancer in a patient in their 60s who presents with dysphagia. The gradual difficulty in swallowing solids and then liquids is a common symptom as the cancer grows and obstructs the oesophagus. Weight loss and pallor are also frequently observed due to cachexia and anaemia.

      Achalasia, on the other hand, is a condition characterized by abnormal peristalsis and lack of lower oesophageal sphincter relaxation. It is most common in the third to fifth decades and presents with intermittent dysphagia, which is more pronounced for solids than liquids. Oesophageal cancer, however, tends to cause a more rapid and progressive dysphagia.

      Chagas’ disease, caused by Trypanosoma cruzi spread by reduviid bugs, is not commonly seen in the United Kingdom but can cause a clinical picture similar to achalasia when it affects the oesophagus. GORD can also result in oesophageal stricture and dysphagia, but this is usually due to chronic reflux, and the history is relatively short. Finally, a pharyngeal pouch typically presents with dysphagia, halitosis, a neck lump, and regurgitation of undigested food.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which trait is passed down in an autosomal dominant manner? ...

    Correct

    • Which trait is passed down in an autosomal dominant manner?

      Your Answer: Cystic fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Genetic Disorders

      Neurofibromatosis is an autosomal dominant disorder caused by a single gene. Beta thalassaemia, on the other hand, is recessively inherited. If an individual has one copy of the abnormal gene, it is called ‘thalassaemia minor’, while having two copies of the abnormal gene results in ‘thalassaemia major’. Prader-Willi syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that is characterised by insatiable appetite, hyperglycaemia, and short stature. Lastly, Down’s syndrome is also a chromosomal disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A randomised double-blind placebo controlled study of a cholesterol-lowering drug for the primary...

    Incorrect

    • A randomised double-blind placebo controlled study of a cholesterol-lowering drug for the primary prevention of coronary heart disease was conducted. It had a five-year follow up period.
      The results showed an absolute risk of myocardial infarction (MI), in the group receiving placebo, was 10 per cent. The relative risk reduction of those given the cholesterol lowering medication was 0.8.
      Approximately what number of patients will need to be treated with the drug for ten years to prevent one myocardial infarction?

      Your Answer: 15

      Correct Answer: 13

      Explanation:

      Understanding Number Needed to Treat (NNT)

      Number needed to treat (NNT) is a calculation used to determine how many patients need to be treated with a particular intervention to prevent one adverse outcome. To calculate NNT, you need to know the absolute risk of the adverse outcome in the control group, as well as the relative risk reduction achieved with the intervention.

      For example, if the absolute risk of myocardial infarction (MI) in a control group is 10%, and the relative risk reduction achieved with a cholesterol-lowering agent is 80%, then the NNT can be calculated as follows:

      – The absolute risk reduction (ARR) is 0.80 x 0.10 = 0.08
      – The NNT is 1/ARR = 1/0.08 = 12.5, which is rounded up to 13

      Alternatively, you can work with real numbers to understand the concept of NNT. For instance, if a group of 100 patients is treated with the cholesterol-lowering agent, there would be a reduction in MI events by 80% (of 10 patients) = 8 patients. The number of patients suffering an MI in the treatment group would therefore be 10 – 8 = 2 patients. This means that treating 100 patients with the new drug would result in eight fewer MIs, and the NNT would be 100/8 = 12.5 patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      52.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 47-year-old man has been diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer and CLO testing...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old man has been diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer and CLO testing during gastroscopy confirms the presence of Helicobacter pylori. What is the best course of action for eradicating Helicobacter pylori?

      Your Answer: Lansoprazole + amoxicillin + clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Helicobacter pylori: A Bacteria Associated with Gastrointestinal Problems

      Helicobacter pylori is a type of Gram-negative bacteria that is commonly associated with various gastrointestinal problems, particularly peptic ulcer disease. This bacterium has two primary mechanisms that allow it to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach. Firstly, it uses its flagella to move away from low pH areas and burrow into the mucous lining to reach the epithelial cells underneath. Secondly, it secretes urease, which converts urea to NH3, leading to an alkalinization of the acidic environment and increased bacterial survival.

      The pathogenesis mechanism of Helicobacter pylori involves the release of bacterial cytotoxins, such as the CagA toxin, which can disrupt the gastric mucosa. This bacterium is associated with several gastrointestinal problems, including peptic ulcer disease, gastric cancer, B cell lymphoma of MALT tissue, and atrophic gastritis. However, its role in gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is unclear, and there is currently no role for the eradication of Helicobacter pylori in GORD.

      The management of Helicobacter pylori infection involves a 7-day course of treatment with a proton pump inhibitor, amoxicillin, and either clarithromycin or metronidazole. For patients who are allergic to penicillin, a proton pump inhibitor, metronidazole, and clarithromycin are used instead.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You come across a 79-year-old woman who has a medical history of diabetes,...

    Correct

    • You come across a 79-year-old woman who has a medical history of diabetes, osteoarthritis, and hypertension. She experienced pain while bearing weight after twisting her leg while getting out of a car. The pain has reduced with simple analgesia. She also mentions a lump under her knee. During the examination, you notice a non-tender 4 cm lump just below the popliteal fossa that becomes tense when the leg is extended. The patient has full power throughout. What could be the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Baker's cyst

      Explanation:

      The usual individual with a Baker’s cyst is someone who has arthritis or gout and has experienced a minor knee injury. When the knee is extended, Foucher’s sign indicates an increase in tension in the Baker’s cyst. It is important to consider the possibility of a DVT, which can imitate a Baker’s cyst. Furthermore, a DVT may coexist with a Baker’s cyst, and an ultrasound should be performed with a low threshold.

      Knee Problems in Older Adults

      As people age, they become more susceptible to knee problems. Osteoarthritis of the knee is a common condition in older adults, especially those who are overweight. It is characterized by severe pain, intermittent swelling, crepitus, and limited movement. Infrapatellar bursitis, also known as Clergyman’s knee, is associated with kneeling, while prepatellar bursitis, or Housemaid’s knee, is associated with more upright kneeling.

      Anterior cruciate ligament injuries may occur due to twisting of the knee, often accompanied by a popping noise and rapid onset of knee effusion. A positive draw test is used to diagnose this condition. Posterior cruciate ligament injuries may be caused by anterior force applied to the proximal tibia, such as hitting the knee on the dashboard during a car accident.

      Collateral ligament injuries are characterized by tenderness over the affected ligament and knee effusion. Meniscal lesions may be caused by twisting of the knee and are often accompanied by locking and giving-way, as well as tenderness along the joint line. Understanding the key features of these common knee problems can help older adults seek appropriate medical attention and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 29-year-old woman visits her doctor to discuss her 2-year-old daughter, who has...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman visits her doctor to discuss her 2-year-old daughter, who has shown signs of developmental delay. She had delayed speech development, was a late walker, and is behind her peers in many areas.
      The mother has been taking regular medication for bipolar disorder for the past seven years, which she has been told may have caused her daughter's issues. Currently, her mental health is stable, and she has no other diagnosed health conditions.
      Which medication is the most likely culprit?

      Your Answer: Valproic acid

      Explanation:

      Teratogenic Risks of Common Medications During Pregnancy

      Valproic acid, commonly used as a mood stabilizer in bipolar disorder, is highly teratogenic with a 30-40% chance of neurodevelopmental problems and 10% risk of congenital malformations in newborns if taken during pregnancy. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, carries a risk of neonatal tremor and hypertonia if taken during the third trimester, but no known neurodevelopmental risks. Prochlorperazine, used for nausea and vomiting, may cause extrapyramidal side effects or withdrawal in newborns during the third trimester, but no neurodevelopmental issues are listed. Procyclidine, an anticholinergic medication, has no specific teratogenic warnings. Sertraline, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor for anxiety and depression, has a small risk of congenital heart defect but no neurodevelopmental issues. It is important for healthcare providers to consider these risks and provide appropriate counseling and monitoring for pregnant patients taking these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Sarah is a 44-year-old woman who presented to you last month with a...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 44-year-old woman who presented to you last month with a 6 week history of upper abdominal pain, heartburn and occasional reflux. Her medical history is unremarkable and you agreed on a plan for a 1 month trial of omeprazole 20 mg daily.

      Sarah returns for a follow-up appointment after completing a month of omeprazole. Her symptoms have only slightly improved and they are still bothering her.

      What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer for routine upper gastrointestinal endoscopy

      Correct Answer: Test for Helicobacter pylori infection in 2 weeks and treat if positive

      Explanation:

      If initial treatment for dyspepsia with either a PPI or ‘test and treat’ approach fails, the alternative strategy should be tried next. In Mark’s case, he has completed 1 month of a full-dose PPI and should now be tested for H. pylori infection. Referral for routine upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is not necessary at this stage.

      Management of Dyspepsia and Referral Criteria for Suspected Cancer

      Dyspepsia is a common condition that can be managed through a stepwise approach. The first step is to review medications that may be causing dyspepsia and provide lifestyle advice. If symptoms persist, a full-dose proton pump inhibitor or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried for one month. If symptoms still persist, the alternative approach should be attempted.

      For patients who meet referral criteria for suspected cancer, urgent referral for an endoscopy within two weeks is necessary. This includes patients with dysphagia, an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer, and patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. Non-urgent referral is recommended for patients with haematemesis and patients aged 55 years or older with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, weight loss, reflux, dyspepsia, or upper abdominal pain.

      Testing for H. pylori infection can be done through a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms have resolved following a ‘test and treat’ approach, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about her risk for familial...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about her risk for familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). Her father and older brother have been diagnosed with the condition, and she previously declined testing but is now reconsidering. Her mother's side of the family has no history of illness. What is the probability that she has FAP? Select ONE answer.

      Your Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Inheritance Probability of Autosomal-Dominant Traits

      Autosomal-dominant traits are genetic conditions that only require one affected gene to be inherited in order for the trait to be displayed. In the case of a patient whose father has Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP), a rare autosomal-dominant condition, there is a 50% chance that she has inherited the affected gene from her father. This is because her father has one affected gene and one unaffected gene, and there is an equal chance of either gene being passed down to his offspring.

      It is important to note that there is no 100% chance of being affected by an autosomal-dominant condition unless the parent is homozygous, meaning they carry two affected genes and no unaffected genes. This is unlikely in the case of FAP.

      On the other hand, a 25% chance of being affected is associated with autosomal-recessive conditions, but only if both parents are carriers of the affected gene. In the case of autosomal-dominant traits, there is always some risk of inheriting the condition if one parent is affected.

      To determine a more specific probability of inheritance, a Punnett square can be used to calculate the possible outcomes. In the case of FAP, the patient has a 50% chance of inheriting the affected gene from her father. Therefore, understanding the inheritance probability of autosomal-dominant traits is crucial in predicting the likelihood of passing on the condition to future generations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 50-year-old man with a history of hypertension, psoriasis, and bipolar disorder visits...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of hypertension, psoriasis, and bipolar disorder visits his doctor complaining of a thick scaly patch on his right knee that appeared after starting a new medication.

      Which of the following drugs is most likely responsible for exacerbating his rash?

      Your Answer: Methotrexate

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Lithium has been found to potentially worsen psoriasis symptoms.

      Psoriasis can be worsened by various factors, including trauma, alcohol consumption, and certain medications such as beta blockers, lithium, antimalarials (chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine), NSAIDs, ACE inhibitors, and infliximab. Additionally, the sudden withdrawal of systemic steroids can also exacerbate psoriasis symptoms. It is important to note that streptococcal infection can trigger guttate psoriasis, a type of psoriasis characterized by small, drop-like lesions on the skin. Therefore, individuals with psoriasis should be aware of these exacerbating factors and take steps to avoid or manage them as needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - You are evaluating a 23-year-old man who has been experiencing headaches. What is...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a 23-year-old man who has been experiencing headaches. What is the most characteristic feature of migraines?

      Your Answer: Phonophobia

      Explanation:

      Phonophobia is present in approximately 75% of patients.

      Migraine is a neurological condition that affects a significant portion of the population. The International Headache Society has established diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura, which includes at least five attacks lasting between 4-72 hours, with at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate or severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity. During the headache, there must be at least one of the following: nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. The headache cannot be attributed to another disorder. In children, attacks may be shorter-lasting, headache is more commonly bilateral, and gastrointestinal disturbance is more prominent.

      Migraine with aura, which is seen in around 25% of migraine patients, tends to be easier to diagnose with a typical aura being progressive in nature and may occur hours prior to the headache. Typical aura include a transient hemianopic disturbance or a spreading scintillating scotoma (‘jagged crescent’). Sensory symptoms may also occur. NICE criteria suggest that migraines may be unilateral or bilateral and give more detail about typical auras, which may occur with or without headache and are fully reversible, develop over at least 5 minutes, and last 5-60 minutes. Atypical aura symptoms, such as motor weakness, double vision, visual symptoms affecting only one eye, poor balance, and decreased level of consciousness, may prompt further investigation or referral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - You see a 13-year-old boy who has burns on his hands. Three months...

    Correct

    • You see a 13-year-old boy who has burns on his hands. Three months ago he had a fractured radius.

      You talk to him and he reveals that his father has been causing the injuries. You inform him that you will be referring him to child protection services, but he pleads with you not to. He comprehends the situation and the role of the child protection team, but he expresses his love for his family and doesn't want to be separated from them. You are familiar with his father and his grandfather, as they are all patients of yours.

      What course of action should you take?

      Your Answer: Refer her to the child protection team

      Explanation:

      Referring Child Abuse Cases: A Doctor’s Responsibility

      As a doctor, it is your responsibility to protect children and young people from abuse. In cases where there is ongoing risk of serious abuse, it is important to refer the child in a timely manner, even if it goes against their wishes. This is because the safety of the child should always be the top priority.

      According to the General Medical Council (UK), doctors have a duty to protect children and young people from harm. Referring cases of abuse is a crucial step in ensuring their safety. It is important to act quickly and make the necessary referrals to safeguard the child’s well-being. Even if the child expresses reluctance or resistance to the referral, it is important to prioritize their safety and take appropriate action. By doing so, doctors can fulfill their responsibility to protect vulnerable children and young people from harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 55-year-old woman presents with shortness of breath, haemoptysis, and pleuritic chest pain.

    Her...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman presents with shortness of breath, haemoptysis, and pleuritic chest pain.

      Her medical history includes a deep vein thrombosis affecting the right leg eight years ago. She is not on any current regular medication.

      On examination, her heart rate is 108 bpm, blood pressure is 104/68, respiratory rate is 24, oxygen saturations are 94% in room air and she is afebrile. She has no calf or leg swelling.

      You suspect she might have a pulmonary embolism and there is nothing to find to suggest an alternative cause.

      You calculate her two-level PE Wells score.

      What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer: Admit as an emergency

      Explanation:

      Calculating the Wells Score for Pulmonary Embolism

      To determine the likelihood of a patient having a pulmonary embolism (PE), healthcare professionals use the Wells score. This score is calculated based on several factors, including clinical examination consistent with deep vein thrombosis, pulse rate, immobilization or recent surgery, past medical history, haemoptysis, cancer, and the likelihood of an alternative diagnosis.

      If the two-level Wells score is more than 4 points, hospital admission should be arranged for an immediate computed tomography pulmonary angiogram. If the score is 4 or lower, a D-dimer blood test should be arranged. A negative result may indicate an alternative diagnosis, while a positive result should be managed the same way as a two-level Wells score of more than 4.

      It is important to note that HASBLED and CHADS2VASC scoring are used in the management of patients with atrial fibrillation, not pulmonary embolism. By using the Wells score, healthcare professionals can quickly and accurately determine the likelihood of a patient having a PE and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 50-year-old woman with Graves' disease presents for follow-up. She has recently been...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman with Graves' disease presents for follow-up. She has recently been diagnosed with thyroid eye disease and is being evaluated for radiotherapy. In the last few days, she has experienced redness and pain in her left eye. Upon examination, there is erythema and proptosis of the left eye. Her visual acuity is 6/9 in both eyes. What is the most probable complication she has developed?

      Your Answer: Exposure keratopathy

      Explanation:

      Thyroid eye disease is a condition that affects a significant proportion of patients with Graves’ disease. It is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response against an autoantigen, possibly the TSH receptor, which leads to inflammation behind the eyes. This inflammation causes the deposition of glycosaminoglycan and collagen in the muscles, resulting in symptoms such as exophthalmos, conjunctival oedema, optic disc swelling, and ophthalmoplegia. In severe cases, patients may be unable to close their eyelids, leading to sore, dry eyes and a risk of exposure keratopathy.

      Prevention of thyroid eye disease is important, and smoking is the most significant modifiable risk factor. Radioiodine treatment may also increase the risk of developing or worsening eye disease, but prednisolone may help reduce this risk. Management of established thyroid eye disease may involve topical lubricants to prevent corneal inflammation, steroids, radiotherapy, or surgery.

      Patients with established thyroid eye disease should be monitored closely for any signs of deterioration, such as unexplained changes in vision, corneal opacity, or disc swelling. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary in these cases to prevent further complications. Overall, thyroid eye disease is a complex condition that requires careful management and monitoring to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      54.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Many elderly patients with colorectal cancer present with advanced disease. Early diagnosis is...

    Incorrect

    • Many elderly patients with colorectal cancer present with advanced disease. Early diagnosis is essential.
      Select from the list the single elderly patient who satisfies the criteria for urgent referral (2-week rule).

      Your Answer: An 80-year-old edentulous woman who has intermittent constipation but no bleeding

      Correct Answer: A 65-year-old man who has had loose stools for 6 weeks but no rectal bleeding

      Explanation:

      Identifying Symptoms of Colorectal Cancer: Referral Recommendations and Differential Diagnosis

      Colorectal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), patients over 50 years old with unexplained rectal bleeding or over 60 years old with a change in bowel habit should be referred for an appointment within 2 weeks for suspected colorectal cancer. However, other conditions can also cause similar symptoms, and differential diagnosis is important to ensure appropriate management.

      Rectal Bleeding in a Multiparous Woman

      Rectal bleeding is a common symptom that can be caused by various conditions, including haemorrhoids. In a 40-year-old multiparous woman, routine referral would be appropriate if piles could not be identified.

      Change in Bowel Habit in a 60-Year-Old Man

      A change in bowel habit in a 60-year-old man is more likely to be caused by an acute infection, such as enterohaemorrhagic E. coli or Shigella. Investigations should be directed to finding the cause.

      Constipation in an 80-Year-Old Woman

      Constipation is a common symptom in the elderly, and dietary factors may play a role. In an 80-year-old woman with intermittent constipation and no teeth, the symptom is likely to be longstanding and not indicative of colorectal cancer.

      Anal Fissure in a 70-Year-Old Man

      Anal fissure is a possible cause of rectal bleeding in a 70-year-old man. Further investigation is needed to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other conditions.

      Identifying Symptoms of Colorectal Cancer: Referral Recommendations and Differential Diagnosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      36
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 14-year-old boy visits his General Practitioner, worried about his lack of normal...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old boy visits his General Practitioner, worried about his lack of normal development. He has not observed any growth of pubic or axillary hair or testicular growth.

      During the examination, the boy is found to have a short stature, a broad chest, a short, webbed neck, and no palpable testes.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Noonan syndrome

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis for this case is Noonan syndrome, a genetic disorder inherited in an autosomal-dominant manner and occurring in 1 in 1000 to 1 in 2500 children. It is characterized by multiple congenital abnormalities, including short stature, a high forehead, a webbed neck, a broad chest, and cryptorchidism. Bardet-Biedl syndrome (BBS) is an autosomal-recessive multisystemic genetic disorder that is not associated with the physical attributes seen in this case. Klinefelter syndrome is a chromosomal abnormality that causes delayed puberty and infertility, but it is not associated with the physical attributes seen in this case. Prader-Willi syndrome (PWS) is a genetic disorder characterized by developmental delay, obesity, hyperphagia, and cryptorchidism or hypogonadism, but it is not associated with the physical attributes seen in this case. Turner syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects phenotypic females and is characterized by short stature, a broad chest, widely spaced, hypoplastic or inverted nipples, a short, webbed neck, and short fourth and fifth metacarpals. While the physical attributes of Turner and Noonan syndrome are similar, Turner syndrome doesn’t fit with this case as the patient is phenotypically male.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A clinical trial is designed to investigate a new treatment for elderly patients...

    Correct

    • A clinical trial is designed to investigate a new treatment for elderly patients with acute myocardial infarction. Two groups of elderly patients are randomly assigned to either the current protocol for management or the new treatment protocol. The patients are unaware of their treatment group, but the treating clinician is aware of which group each patient belongs to. What is the best description of this experimental study?

      Your Answer: Single-blind

      Explanation:

      Types of Experimental Studies

      Experimental studies can take on different forms, each with its own purpose and methodology. One important aspect of experimental studies is blinding or masking, which aims to prevent bias from influencing the results. Double-blind studies involve neither the patient nor the person performing the intervention knowing which treatment the patient has been assigned to receive. Single-blind studies, on the other hand, involve either the patient or the clinician not knowing which treatment has been randomly allocated. In a placebo-controlled study, the control group takes an inert substance (a placebo) instead of receiving no treatment.

      It is important to note that case-control studies are not a type of experimental study, but rather a type of observational study. In a case-control study, a group of individuals with a specific disease or study parameter are matched to a group of controls, and the two groups are analyzed to see if any important differences exist relating to their past. Triple-blind studies are also possible, where the patients, clinicians, and statisticians do not know which treatment patients had. Understanding the different types of experimental studies can help researchers design studies that are appropriate for their research questions and goals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - You observe a 14-year-old girl with a painless, soft, and fluctuant swelling at...

    Correct

    • You observe a 14-year-old girl with a painless, soft, and fluctuant swelling at the back of her left knee. The swelling appeared spontaneously and is not causing any discomfort.

      What is a true statement about Baker's cysts?

      Your Answer: A child with a suspected Baker's cyst requires an USS to confirm the diagnosis

      Explanation:

      To confirm the diagnosis of a suspected Baker’s cyst in a child, an USS is necessary as per the NICE guidelines. Knee x-ray is not usually required as primary cysts are the most common in children and not caused by underlying disease. However, an x-ray may be necessary in adults to detect underlying knee pathology. Secondary cysts in children are rare and may be caused by juvenile idiopathic arthritis. Primary Baker’s cysts in children typically resolve on their own without any treatment.

      Baker’s cysts, also known as popliteal cysts, are not true cysts but rather a distension of the gastrocnemius-semimembranosus bursa. They can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary Baker’s cysts are not associated with any underlying pathology and are typically seen in children. On the other hand, secondary Baker’s cysts are caused by an underlying condition such as osteoarthritis and are typically seen in adults. These cysts present as swellings in the popliteal fossa behind the knee.

      In some cases, Baker’s cysts may rupture, resulting in symptoms similar to those of a deep vein thrombosis, such as pain, redness, and swelling in the calf. However, most ruptures are asymptomatic. In children, Baker’s cysts usually resolve on their own and do not require any treatment. In adults, the underlying cause of the cyst should be treated where appropriate. Overall, Baker’s cysts are a common condition that can be managed effectively with proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A frail 70-year-old woman has had some routine bloods checked after she complained...

    Incorrect

    • A frail 70-year-old woman has had some routine bloods checked after she complained of feeling tired all the time. The only finding of possible concern is a serum vitamin B12 level of 180 pmol/l (Normal range: 160-900 pmol/l). Her haemoglobin level is 131 g/l (Normal range: 115-155 g/l). She has no neurological symptoms and the clinical examination is normal.
      What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: No further action is required

      Correct Answer: Repeat the vitamin B12 test in 8 weeks

      Explanation:

      Managing Low Vitamin B12 Levels: Recommendations and Considerations

      When a patient presents with a vitamin B12 level at the lower end of the normal range, it is important to determine whether they are deficient or not. This can be complicated by the fact that people within the normal range can still experience symptoms of deficiency. In this case, the patient may have latent pernicious anaemia, dietary deficiency or food malabsorption, or be taking medications that affect gastric acid production.

      To determine the cause of the low B12 levels, the serum vitamin B12 test should be repeated after 4-8 weeks. If levels remain unchanged or have fallen further, blood should be taken for intrinsic factor antibodies and a short trial of empirical therapy (oral cyanocobalamin 50 micrograms daily for four weeks) should be given. If the antibody test is positive, lifelong therapy with hydroxocobalamin is recommended. If it is negative, a further vitamin B12 check is recommended after 3-4 months. If this is well within the reference range, food malabsorption as the cause is a strong possibility and long-term low dose cobalamin therapy should be considered.

      It is important to provide patients with strict instructions to seek immediate medical attention if symptoms of neuropathy develop. Additionally, failure of the B12 level to rise after oral treatment is an indication for lifelong treatment as for pernicious anaemia. Further investigations (plasma methylmalonic acid or holotranscobalamin) may help confirm biochemical deficiency.

      In summary, managing low vitamin B12 levels requires careful consideration of the possible causes and appropriate testing and treatment. Repeat testing, testing for intrinsic factor antibodies, and a trial of oral cyanocobalamin are all important steps in determining the best course of action for each individual patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - You are reviewing the recent results for a 23-year-old patient in your general...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing the recent results for a 23-year-old patient in your general practice. A vaginal swab has come back positive for Chlamydia trachomatis. The patient has a history of asthma and is allergic to penicillin. She is currently 12 weeks pregnant. You have contacted the genitourinary clinic for contact tracing and treatment for her partner. What is the most suitable prescription for her treatment?

      Your Answer: Doxycycline

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      In the case of treating Chlamydia during pregnancy, erythromycin would be the most appropriate option among the listed antibiotics. Amoxicillin, azithromycin, or erythromycin can be used to treat Chlamydia during pregnancy. However, since the patient is allergic to penicillin, amoxicillin is not suitable. Doxycycline, which is the first-line treatment for uncomplicated Chlamydia in non-pregnant individuals, is not recommended during pregnancy due to its teratogenic effects. Co-amoxiclav is also not appropriate for treating Chlamydia and is contraindicated in this patient due to their penicillin allergy.

      Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      29
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A father is worried that his 7-year-old daughter has a food allergy. She...

    Incorrect

    • A father is worried that his 7-year-old daughter has a food allergy. She has been experiencing occasional itchy rashes. He decided to eliminate all nuts from her diet and the rashes have disappeared. However, she recently had an episode of vomiting, so he also removed milk from her diet. He has been giving her antihistamines regularly. He is curious if she can undergo a blood test for allergies.

      What is the most suitable advice you can provide him?

      Your Answer: It cannot be used if a patient is taking antihistamines

      Correct Answer: It is indicated for a child who has a suspected allergic reaction after consuming peanuts

      Explanation:

      Understanding IgE Immunoassay Testing for Peanut Allergies

      IgE immunoassay testing is a diagnostic tool used to evaluate hypersensitivity to various allergens, including peanuts. This test is particularly useful for children who have a suspected allergic reaction after consuming peanuts. IgE produced by B cells in response to specific antigens binds to receptors on mast cells, triggering an immediate (type I) response that can lead to anaphylaxis, urticaria, bronchospasm, and other symptoms.

      Compared to skin-prick testing, IgE immunoassay testing is more sensitive and doesn’t carry the risk of anaphylaxis. However, it can give false-negative results in patients who have true IgE-mediated disease, as confirmed by skin testing or allergen challenge. Therefore, it should be used in conjunction with the patient’s clinical history and not for screening purposes.

      A positive IgE immunoassay test indicates past sensitization to an allergen, but it doesn’t necessarily mean that the patient has clinically relevant disease. Some patients may show positive results but no symptoms associated with that allergen. Therefore, the history is more important in making a diagnosis.

      It is important to note that IgE immunoassay testing cannot be used if a patient is taking antihistamines. However, it is a useful diagnostic tool for patients on long-term corticosteroids, although data are conflicting.

      In summary, IgE immunoassay testing is a valuable diagnostic tool for peanut allergies, but it should be used in conjunction with the patient’s clinical history and not for screening purposes. A positive test supports the diagnosis of peanut allergy, but the history is more important.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      37.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 35-year-old man works for a removal firm. While manoeuvring a package through...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man works for a removal firm. While manoeuvring a package through a difficult space on the previous day, he felt pain in his lower back. Now he has persistent pain that is worse on movement but no other symptoms. He walks awkwardly into the room. He is reasonably comfortable in bed if he takes ibuprofen.
      What is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer: Advise to keep active

      Explanation:

      Active Rehabilitation for Low Back Pain: Advice and Referral Guidelines

      Low back pain, also known as mechanical low back pain, is a common condition that cannot be attributed to any specific pathology. In the past, rest was recommended for back pain, but current guidelines recommend active rehabilitation. This involves keeping the patient active and providing pain relief to facilitate this. Most people experience a reduction in pain within a month and can return to work in that time. However, there is a high risk of recurrence.

      Bed rest should not be recommended except in exceptional cases and for no longer than 48 hours. Physiotherapy should be considered if pain or disability persists for more than two weeks or if there is a risk of a poor outcome. Referral to the Accident & Emergency Department is only appropriate if there are red flag symptoms and signs suggesting cauda equina syndrome or a spinal fracture. Urgent orthopaedic referral is only necessary if there are red flag symptoms and signs suggesting cauda equina syndrome, spinal fracture, cancer, or infection. Psychological factors are also important in the transition from acute to chronic low back pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      34.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - The parents of a 7-year-old child diagnosed with autism are concerned about the...

    Correct

    • The parents of a 7-year-old child diagnosed with autism are concerned about the potential impact on their child's overall health. They have heard that autism may be associated with various medical issues. Which of the following characteristics is not more prevalent in a child with autism than in the general population? Choose only ONE option.

      Your Answer: Coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      Common Co-Occurring Conditions in Children with Autism

      Children with autism often experience co-occurring conditions that can impact their overall health and well-being. While some parents have reported success with a gluten-free diet for their child’s autism symptoms, there is no solid evidence to support this approach. Additionally, children with autism may also have ADHD, epilepsy, and sensory impairments such as hearing or vision impairment. It’s important for parents and caregivers to be aware of these potential co-occurring conditions and work with healthcare professionals to address them appropriately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 58-year-old factory worker comes to see you for a fit note after...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old factory worker comes to see you for a fit note after a recent bout of pneumonia. His asthma has been poorly managed in the weeks leading up to his illness and he expresses concern about his ability to return to full-time work in the near future. He mentions that his finances are tight and that friends have suggested he apply for Employment Support Allowance (ESA). He also mentions that he is hesitant to attend any Department of Work and Pensions (DWP) assessments and asks if you could provide a letter of support. What advice would you give him regarding ESA?

      Your Answer: Fit notes are required until DWP makes a decision on their claim, if the patient remains unfit for work

      Correct Answer: If contacted by a healthcare professional from the Centre for Health and Disability Assessments (CHDA), you will need to seek consent from the patient before discussing further

      Explanation:

      Benefits System – A Guide for GPs

      ESA, or Employment and Support Allowance, is a financial support system for individuals who are unable to work due to illness or disability. It also provides personalized assistance for those who are able to work. Eligibility for ESA is determined through an assessment process, which can range from 3 months to 3 years. Claimants with severe conditions may not be called for reassessment. During the assessment phase, claimants are paid the same amount as Jobseeker’s Allowance. Medical evidence and completion of the ESA50 self-assessment form are required. If necessary, a Work Capability Assessment will be conducted by a healthcare professional. Fit notes are required until a decision is made. The ESA65B letter is used to inform claimants of the decision. GPs may be contacted for additional information, and may occasionally be asked to contribute to the ESA50 form. For individuals claiming solely due to cancer, only a portion of the ESA50 form needs to be completed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      41.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 16-year-old-girl comes to the clinic with complaints of not having started her...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old-girl comes to the clinic with complaints of not having started her periods yet. During the examination, it is observed that she has a high-arched palate, underdeveloped external genitalia, and no breast development. Her height is 151cm, which is at the 2nd centile for her age and gender.

      What condition is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Turner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Turner’s syndrome is the likely diagnosis for a patient with short stature and primary amenorrhoea. Hypothyroidism may also cause these symptoms, but the presence of a high-arched palate makes it less likely. While gonadal dysgenesis (46, XX) can cause primary amenorrhoea, it doesn’t typically present with the characteristic dysmorphic features seen in Turner’s syndrome.

      Understanding Turner’s Syndrome

      Turner’s syndrome is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is identified as 45,XO or 45,X.

      The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (present in 15% of cases), coarctation of the aorta (present in 5-10% of cases), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially in the feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is also more common in individuals with Turner’s syndrome, as well as an increased incidence of autoimmune diseases such as autoimmune thyroiditis and Crohn’s disease.

      In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and is characterized by various physical features and health conditions. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 50-year-old backpacker came to the clinic with a painful blister on an...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old backpacker came to the clinic with a painful blister on an inflamed base on the back of his right hand. He had recently taken some antibiotics while traveling in France for a sore throat, but could not recall the specific medication. Interestingly, he had experienced a similar issue at the same location a few years prior. The patient was in good health and did not have any mucosal lesions.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Drug induced pemphigus

      Correct Answer: Fixed drug eruption

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Bullous Skin Conditions Caused by Drugs

      When a patient presents with a solitary bulla after taking a drug, fixed drug eruption is the most likely diagnosis. The lesion is well-defined, round or oval, and may be accompanied by redness and swelling, sometimes with a blister. The affected area may turn purplish or brown. The rash usually appears within 30 minutes to 8 hours of taking the drug and recurs in the same site/s each time the drug is taken. Antibiotics like tetracyclines or sulphonamides are common culprits.

      Toxic epidermal necrolysis is a necrolytic bullous reaction to certain drugs, where less than 10% of the epidermis sloughs off in Stevens-Johnson syndrome, as compared to >30% in toxic epidermal necrolysis.

      Bullous erythema multiforme usually presents with multiple lesions, and mucosal involvement is expected in the other three conditions. Erythema multiforme is an acute eruption of dull red macules or urticarial plaques with a small papule, vesicle, or bulla in the middle. Lesions may enlarge and/or form classical target lesions. The rash starts at the periphery and may extend centrally. Infections, most commonly herpes simplex virus, are the main cause, and drugs are rarely the cause.

      Drug-induced pemphigus is an autoimmune bullous disease characterized by blisters and erosions of the skin and mucous membranes. The most common form associated with drug exposure is pemphigus foliaceous, where mucous membranes are not involved, and eroded crusted lesions are the norm.

      Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe, potentially fatal reaction to certain drugs, where less than 10% of the epidermis sloughs off, and there is mucosal involvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      34.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Mrs. Johnson, a 62-year-old woman, visits you to discuss cancer screening. She is...

    Correct

    • Mrs. Johnson, a 62-year-old woman, visits you to discuss cancer screening. She is concerned about the possibility of having a 'hidden' cancer after her friend was diagnosed with ovarian cancer at an advanced stage. Mrs. Johnson is up to date with her breast and cervical screening but did not send off her bowel cancer screening kit last year. She asks if she can have a blood test for ovarian cancer like her friend. Upon inquiry, she reports no weight loss, pelvic pain, bloating, urinary symptoms, or change in bowel habit. You perform an abdominal palpation and find no masses or ascites.

      What would be your next course of action?

      Your Answer: Advise the blood test is not suitable for screening for ovarian cancer in asymptomatic patients

      Explanation:

      Screening for ovarian cancer in asymptomatic women should not be done using Ca-125 due to its poor sensitivity and specificity. Even when used in symptomatic patients, there is a high false negative rate, so an ultrasound scan should be considered if symptoms persist. CEA is a tumour marker for colorectal cancer, but it is not recommended for screening and is only used to monitor disease activity. Ultrasound is also not advised for screening for ovarian cancer in asymptomatic patients. Private whole-body scans for the worried well are available, but they carry the risk of incidental findings, and CT scans have a significant radiation risk.

      Understanding Ovarian Cancer: Risk Factors, Symptoms, and Management

      Ovarian cancer is a type of cancer that affects women, with the peak age of incidence being 60 years. It is the fifth most common malignancy in females and carries a poor prognosis due to late diagnosis. Around 90% of ovarian cancers are epithelial in origin, with 70-80% of cases being due to serous carcinomas. Interestingly, recent studies suggest that the distal end of the fallopian tube is often the site of origin of many ‘ovarian’ cancers.

      There are several risk factors associated with ovarian cancer, including a family history of mutations of the BRCA1 or the BRCA2 gene, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity. Clinical features of ovarian cancer are notoriously vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms, early satiety, and diarrhea.

      To diagnose ovarian cancer, a CA125 test is usually done initially. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 should not be used for screening for ovarian cancer in asymptomatic women. Diagnosis is difficult and usually involves diagnostic laparotomy.

      Management of ovarian cancer usually involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. The prognosis for ovarian cancer is poor, with 80% of women having advanced disease at presentation and the all stage 5-year survival being 46%. It is traditionally taught that infertility treatment increases the risk of ovarian cancer, as it increases the number of ovulations. However, recent evidence suggests that there is not a significant link. The combined oral contraceptive pill reduces the risk (fewer ovulations) as does having many pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      92.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - You see a 6-year-old boy who you see for occasional bouts of abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 6-year-old boy who you see for occasional bouts of abdominal pain. His appetite is good, and he opens his bowels regularly. There are no other symptoms reported, and examination is unremarkable. A urine dipstick is positive for leucocytes but negative otherwise.

      What would be the next most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer: Send for MC&S and only treat if growth confirmed

      Correct Answer: No action necessary

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for UTI Diagnosis in Children

      According to NICE guidelines, children aged 3 years and above who test positive for leucocytes on a dipstick test but negative for nitrites should have a urine sample sent for MC&S. Antibiotic treatment should only be started if there is good clinical evidence of a UTI. Symptoms in verbal children may include frequency, dysuria, and changes in continence, while younger children may present with nonspecific symptoms such as fever, vomiting, and poor feeding.

      If the dipstick test shows only nitrite positivity, antibiotic treatment should be initiated, and a urine sample should be sent for culture. However, if the dipstick test shows both nitrite and leucocyte positivity, a UTI is confirmed, and a culture should be sent if there is a risk of serious illness or a history of previous UTIs. These guidelines aim to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment of UTIs in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      34
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - You are preparing to conduct a search for all your elderly patients who...

    Incorrect

    • You are preparing to conduct a search for all your elderly patients who need the yearly flu shot. Which of the following groups should not be included in the registry?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Asthmatics controlled with salbutamol only

      Explanation:

      If an asthmatic is at BTS stage 1 and only takes salbutamol, they do not require any vaccinations. However, if they are at BTS stages 2-4 and use a steroid inhaler, they should receive an annual influenza vaccination. For those with severe asthma who require regular or long-term use of prednisolone at BTS stage 5, they should receive both an annual influenza and pneumococcal vaccination.

      influenza vaccination is recommended in the UK between September and early November, as the influenza season typically starts in the middle of November. There are three types of influenza virus, with types A and B accounting for the majority of clinical disease. Prior to 2013, flu vaccination was only offered to the elderly and at-risk groups. However, a new NHS influenza vaccination programme for children was announced in 2013, with the children’s vaccine given intranasally and annually after the first dose at 2-3 years. It is important to note that the type of vaccine given to children and the one given to the elderly and at-risk groups is different, which explains the different contraindications.

      For adults and at-risk groups, current vaccines are trivalent and consist of two subtypes of influenza A and one subtype of influenza B. The Department of Health recommends annual influenza vaccination for all people older than 65 years and those older than 6 months with chronic respiratory, heart, kidney, liver, neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, or a body mass index >= 40 kg/m². Other at-risk individuals include health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled person whose welfare may be at risk if the carer becomes ill.

      The influenza vaccine is an inactivated vaccine that cannot cause influenza, but a minority of patients may develop fever and malaise that lasts 1-2 days. It should be stored between +2 and +8ºC and shielded from light, and contraindications include hypersensitivity to egg protein. In adults, the vaccination is around 75% effective, although this figure decreases in the elderly. It takes around 10-14 days after immunisation before antibody levels are at protective levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 5-year-old boy has a chest infection and needs antibiotics.

    Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy has a chest infection and needs antibiotics.

      Which of the following treatments would you advise?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tetracyclines

      Explanation:

      Best Antibiotic Choice for Children

      When it comes to choosing an antibiotic for children, it’s important to consider their age and potential side effects. In this circumstance, Amoxicillin would be the best choice due to its effectiveness and safety profile. Quinolones and tetracyclines should be avoided in childhood, while co-trimoxazole has limited indications and nitrofurantoin would not be effective. It’s crucial to consult with a healthcare professional before administering any medication to children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - Dr. Patel, a family physician, receives a Ted Baker wallet from a patient...

    Incorrect

    • Dr. Patel, a family physician, receives a Ted Baker wallet from a patient during the holiday season. The wallet is priced at £80 online. Dr. Patel had been extensively involved in the care of the patient who was suffering from osteoarthritis of the left shoulder. The patient required several joint injections and consultations to discuss oral analgesia. What should Dr. Patel do regarding the gift?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Call up the patient to thank them, accept the gift and not place the gift on the practice gift register

      Explanation:

      According to the NHS General Medical Services Contracts Regulations 2004, GPs are required to maintain a register of gifts worth £100 or more from patients or their relatives. The register should contain details such as the name and address of the patient, the nature and estimated value of the gift, and the name of the recipient. The register must be made available to NHS England upon request. However, if the GP believes that the gift is unrelated to the services provided or is unaware of the gift, it need not be included in the register.

      The GMC’s Good Medical Practice guidelines provide guidance on accepting gifts from patients. It states that doctors should not accept any gift or hospitality that may influence or appear to influence their treatment, prescription, referral, or commissioning of services for patients. Doctors should also not encourage patients to offer gifts that may benefit them directly or indirectly. However, gifts may be accepted if they do not affect the doctor’s professional judgment and if the patient or their relatives have not been pressured or influenced to offer the gift.

      In this scenario, it would not be appropriate to decline the gift as it may offend the patient who is expressing gratitude for their care. It would also be unfair to ask the patient to provide cash instead of the gift. Offering longer appointment times as an advantage to patients who provide gifts would be considered unethical and unfair to other patients.

      As a doctor, it is important to adhere to the guidelines set forth by the GMC. One such guideline states that doctors should not accept any gifts, inducements, or hospitality from patients, colleagues, or others that could potentially influence or be perceived to influence their treatment, prescription, referral, or commissioning of services for patients. It is crucial to maintain a professional and ethical relationship with patients, and accepting gifts can compromise this relationship. Therefore, doctors should always be mindful of the GMC’s guidance and avoid accepting any gifts that could potentially affect their judgment or decision-making.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 62-year-old retired Caucasian solicitor visits your clinic. He is overweight and leads...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old retired Caucasian solicitor visits your clinic. He is overweight and leads a sedentary lifestyle. He has been on medication for hypertension for the past five years and is currently taking 5 mg of ramipril. Additionally, he takes 20 mg of simvastatin to manage his hypercholesterolemia. Recently, he underwent a 75 g oral glucose tolerance test which revealed impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) with a two-hour plasma glucose concentration of 9.3 mmol/L (7.8-11.0 mmol/L). The patient is curious to know his risk of developing type 2 diabetes. What information do you provide him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 33% over 6 years

      Explanation:

      Risk of Progression from IGT to Type 2 Diabetes

      Individuals with impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) are at a significant risk of developing type 2 diabetes. Studies have shown that the absolute risk of progression from IGT to type 2 diabetes is high. The Hoorn study, which followed 1342 non-diabetic Caucasian subjects, found that 33.8% of individuals with IGT progressed to type 2 diabetes over six years. This risk increased to 64.5% if individuals had both IGT and impaired fasting glycaemia (IFG). Similarly, the Vaccaro study in Italy found a similar rate of progression for individuals with IGT.

      However, there is hope for those with IGT. Intensive lifestyle changes, such as dietary modifications, regular exercise, and weight loss, have been shown to reduce the rate of progression to type 2 diabetes. It is important for individuals with IGT to take action and make these lifestyle changes to prevent the development of type 2 diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - What is the food with the lowest glycaemic index (GI) rating among the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the food with the lowest glycaemic index (GI) rating among the following options?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Baked potato

      Explanation:

      Understanding Glycaemic Index and Diabetic Diets

      The glycaemic index (GI) measures the rate at which carbohydrates are absorbed in the body. Low GI foods have been shown to reduce appetite, aid in weight control, and lower cholesterol levels. However, feedback from the last MRCGP examination revealed a lack of knowledge regarding diabetic diets. It is important for healthcare professionals to have a basic understanding of dietary advice to provide their patients with proper guidance. Exam questions may focus on major food groups and principles rather than specific details. To prepare for such questions, it is recommended to read the BDA reference for a broad overview of the main principles, including glycaemic index. By doing so, healthcare professionals can provide general advice and answer any related questions that may arise during an exam.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A middle-aged businesswoman visits you to discuss her medication for rheumatoid arthritis. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged businesswoman visits you to discuss her medication for rheumatoid arthritis. Her condition is worsening and she now requires a walking aid to move around. She is concerned about the financial burden of her condition and asks if she is eligible for any government assistance, given that she has been a taxpayer for most of her life. She mentions that she still pays higher rate tax on her pensions and investments. Can you advise her on whether she qualifies for Personal Independence Payment (PIP)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Higher rate tax payers are not eligible for PIP

      Explanation:

      Understanding Personal Independence Payment (PIP)

      Personal Independence Payment (PIP) is a government benefit that provides financial assistance to individuals with long-term conditions or disabilities that are expected to last for at least 12 months. PIP is divided into two components: Daily Living and Mobility, each with standard and enhanced rates. Unlike other benefits, PIP is not income-related and is not affected by earnings, savings, or taxes. It is available to anyone, regardless of their employment status.

      To qualify for PIP, an individual must have required assistance with daily living or mobility activities for at least three months and be reasonably likely to need help for the next nine months. However, individuals can submit a claim for PIP during the first three months of needing assistance. It is important to note that PIP is based on how a person’s condition affects them, not the condition itself. This means that the severity of the condition is not the only factor considered when determining eligibility for PIP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 62-year-old man presents with sudden vision loss in his right eye and...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man presents with sudden vision loss in his right eye and a right-sided headache for the past 4 months. He also experiences jaw pain while eating. Upon fundoscopy, a swollen optic disc with flame-shaped haemorrhages is observed. Eye movements are painless. His ESR is found to be 100. What is the most probable cause of his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Giant-cell arteritis

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Ocular Vasculitis: A Brief Overview

      Ocular vasculitis is a group of disorders that affect the blood vessels in the eye. Here are some common causes of ocular vasculitis and their clinical features:

      Giant-cell arteritis: This large-vessel vasculitis mainly affects the temporal and ophthalmic arteries. It typically presents with headache, scalp tenderness, jaw pain, and visual disturbance. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is usually elevated, and skip lesions are common.

      Central retinal vein occlusion: This condition may occur in chronic simple glaucoma, arteriosclerosis, hypertension, and polycythaemia. The fundus appears like a ‘stormy sunset’ with red haemorrhagic areas and engorged veins.

      Diabetic retinopathy: This is the most common cause of blindness in adults between 30 and 65 years of age in developed countries. It is characterised by microaneurysms, retinal haemorrhages, exudates, cotton-wool spots, neovascularisation, and venous changes.

      Polyarteritis nodosa: This necrotising vasculitis affects multiple systems and has variable manifestations, although it most commonly affects the skin, joints, peripheral nerves, the gut, and the kidney. Ocular involvement is rare.

      Sjögren syndrome: This autoimmune disorder is characterised by dry mouth and dry eyes with variable lacrimal or salivary gland enlargement due to lymphocytic infiltration.

      Understanding the clinical features of these common causes of ocular vasculitis can aid in early diagnosis and prompt treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 29-year-old pregnant woman attended her booking appointment with the midwife last week....

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old pregnant woman attended her booking appointment with the midwife last week. She has no other medical conditions. This is her first pregnancy and she is 10-weeks pregnant.

      During the booking appointment, the midwife sent a mid-stream urine sample to screen for asymptomatic bacteriuria. The patient denied experiencing any urinary symptoms. The culture results showed that she is positive for Escherichia Coli, which is sensitive to nitrofurantoin and trimethoprim. A repeat sample confirmed the findings.

      Based on the current NICE CKS guidance, what is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treat with a 7 day course of nitrofurantoin

      Explanation:

      It is important to screen pregnant women for bacteriuria as untreated cases may lead to acute pyelonephritis. Therefore, taking no action based on urine results is inappropriate. Trimethoprim is not recommended in the first trimester due to its teratogenic risk, so nitrofurantoin is a better option. Local prescribing guidelines should always be followed. If group B streptococcal bacteriuria is detected, antenatal services must be informed as prophylactic intrapartum antibiotics will be necessary.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 30-year-old man has been diagnosed with Hodgkin's disease. He is being treated...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man has been diagnosed with Hodgkin's disease. He is being treated with radiotherapy and chemotherapy.
      What is the most important factor influencing this patient's prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Response to treatment

      Explanation:

      Hodgkin’s lymphoma can be cured in the majority of patients, especially those who respond well to treatment. A prompt and complete response to chemotherapy and/or radiotherapy is the most important factor in predicting a patient’s prognosis. Residual masses may not always indicate persisting disease, as fibrosis can persist after effective therapy. Patients who relapse after initial successful treatment can sometimes be treated with further chemotherapy, stem cell transplantation, and/or radiotherapy. The duration of initial remission is a factor in the success of retreatment. Bulky disease, a high ESR, male gender, and stage IV disease are associated with a poorer prognosis. Other adverse prognostic factors include age ≥ 45 years, low haemoglobin, low lymphocyte count, low albumin, high WCC, mixed-cellularity or lymphocyte-depleted histology, and B symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - You see an obese 40-year-old gentleman who was incidentally found to have fatty...

    Incorrect

    • You see an obese 40-year-old gentleman who was incidentally found to have fatty infiltration in his liver while being investigated for a slightly raised ALT. His other blood tests were unremarkable. He is known to have type 2 diabetes and is on metformin 500 mg OD. He doesn't drink alcohol. He is otherwise well in himself.

      What would be the next most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to hepatology

      Explanation:

      Management of Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease

      Patients with non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) should be assessed for the risk of advanced liver fibrosis using a non-invasive scoring system such as the Fibrosis (FIB)-4 Score, according to NICE guidelines. While obesity and metformin use may contribute to NAFLD, changes to glycaemic control should not be made without knowing the patient’s current status. Referral to hepatology is indicated if there is evidence of advanced liver disease or high risk of advanced liver fibrosis based on scoring. Hepatology can perform specialist investigations such as transient elastography and liver biopsy. Additional blood tests, including a liver screen, may be helpful, but an isolated repeat LFT would not be the next most important step in management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - You see a 14-year-old girl who has never previously attended medical care. Her...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 14-year-old girl who has never previously attended medical care. Her mother is concerned that she has short stature (below the 50th centile for height) and has not begun menstruating. She appears to have excess skin around her neck and has poor development of secondary sexual characteristics. There is a murmur suggestive of aortic stenosis. After referral, you are informed that her chromosome pattern is XO.
      Which of the following diagnoses best fits with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Genetic Disorders: Overview and Characteristics

      Genetic disorders are conditions caused by abnormalities in an individual’s DNA. These disorders can affect various aspects of a person’s health, including growth and development, organ function, and susceptibility to certain diseases. Here are some common genetic disorders and their characteristics:

      Turner Syndrome: This disorder occurs in females when one of the X chromosomes is missing. Symptoms include short stature, delayed development of secondary sexual characteristics, and absence of menses. Patients may also have dyspraxia, poor spatial awareness, or mild intellectual impairment. Associated cardiovascular defects may include aortic stenosis, bicuspid aortic valve, or coarctation of the aorta. Patients also have an increased risk of hypothyroidism.

      Noonan Syndrome: This disorder presents with a similar phenotype to Turner syndrome, but the X chromosome is not absent. It is inherited in an autosomal-dominant manner and affects both men and women.

      Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia: This disorder is due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency, which is needed for cortisol synthesis. Symptoms in girls may include ambiguous genitalia at birth, infertility, hirsutism, oligomenorrhoea, or amenorrhoea with polycystic ovaries and acne. Boys may appear normal but may experience salt-losing crisis early in life.

      Congenital Lymphoedema: This disorder, also known as Milroy’s disease, is inherited in an autosomal-dominant pattern. Lymphatic vessels are small or absent, leading to oedema in the feet at birth or soon after. Lymphoedema, mainly of the hands, feet, and neck, is present in about 70% of people with Turner syndrome.

      Androgen-Insensitivity Syndrome: This disorder affects XY males who are unresponsive to androgens. They are born looking externally like females with a short blind-ending vagina and no uterus. Testes are in the abdomen or inguinal canal. The condition is X-linked recessive, and complete androgen-insensitivity syndrome is often not diagnosed until puberty.

      In conclusion, genetic disorders can have a significant impact on an individual’s health and well-being. Early diagnosis and management can help improve outcomes and quality of life for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 67-year old man with hypertension visited his general practitioner after an ambulatory...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year old man with hypertension visited his general practitioner after an ambulatory blood pressure monitor showed a daytime average blood pressure of 155/98 mmHg. Despite taking optimal doses of ramipril and amlodipine with good adherence, which medication should be introduced to his treatment plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Indapamide

      Explanation:

      To improve the management of hypertension that is not well-controlled despite the use of an ACE inhibitor and a calcium channel blocker, it is recommended to include a thiazide-like diuretic.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - Which of the following antibiotics is most likely to cause pseudomembranous colitis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following antibiotics is most likely to cause pseudomembranous colitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cefaclor

      Explanation:

      C.difficile is strongly associated with cephalosporins, in addition to clindamycin.

      Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 32-year-old Caucasian woman with a history of type 1 diabetes presents for...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old Caucasian woman with a history of type 1 diabetes presents for review. She has just returned from a summer holiday in Spain and has noticed some patches on her limbs that do not appear to have tanned. Otherwise the skin in these patches appears normal.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitiligo

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vitiligo: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options

      Vitiligo is a skin condition that results in the loss of melanocyte function, leading to areas of depigmentation on the skin. It is believed to be an autoimmune disorder and is often associated with other autoimmune diseases. While it affects around 0.4% of the Caucasian population, it can be more distressing for those with darker skin tones. Symptoms include patches of skin that fail to tan, particularly during the summer months.

      Treatment options for vitiligo include using strong protection on affected areas and using potent topical corticosteroids for up to two months to stimulate repigmentation. However, these should not be used on the face or during pregnancy. Hospital referral may be necessary if more than 10% of the body is involved, and treatment may include topical calcineurin inhibitors or phototherapy.

      It is important to differentiate vitiligo from other skin conditions such as pityriasis versicolor, lichen sclerosus, psoriasis, and chloasma. Macules and patches are flat, while papules and plaques are raised. A lesion becomes a patch or a plaque when it is greater than 2 cm across.

      Overall, understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for vitiligo can help individuals manage this condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 50-year-old man has inquired with the nurse at the clinic about getting...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has inquired with the nurse at the clinic about getting vaccinated before his upcoming trip overseas. He has a medical history of asthma and has been on a 20 mg daily dose of prednisolone for the past 2 months, which was recently upped to 40 mg during a flare-up. Identify the one vaccine that would not be recommended for this individual.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Yellow fever

      Explanation:

      Understanding Yellow Fever Vaccination and Other Vaccines

      Yellow fever vaccination is a type of live vaccine that is made from the 17-d strain of the virus grown in hen’s eggs. However, it is not recommended for individuals with a history of impaired immune responsiveness or anaphylactic reaction to egg. Moreover, those who are currently undergoing corticosteroid therapy should not receive live vaccination. On the other hand, the other vaccines are not live vaccines. Hepatitis B and meningococcal vaccinations are surface antigen based, while the other two are toxoids and do not contain any active components. Understanding the differences between these vaccines is important in ensuring proper vaccination and protection against diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 43-year-old former beef farmer is currently being looked after in a care...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old former beef farmer is currently being looked after in a care home after a severe deterioration in his memory and ability to care for himself.

      You examine him and note that he has nystagmus, bilateral lateral rectus palsy, ataxia, a broad based gait and peripheral neuropathy with sensory loss in his feet. You understand that his father died at an early age, apparently from Alzheimer's disease.

      He is known to drink alcohol.

      Which one of the following is most likely to be the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wernicke's encephalopathy

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy and Korsakoff’s Syndrome

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that occurs in patients with thiamine deficiency, often associated with chronic alcohol abuse or other malnutrition states. It is characterized by haemorrhage into the mamillary bodies of the brain. If left untreated, it can progress to Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is a chronic stage of the same condition.

      Early stages of Wernicke’s encephalopathy can be reversible, especially the eye signs. However, if left untreated, it can lead to memory loss and other irreversible symptoms of Korsakoff’s syndrome. This highlights the importance of early thiamine replacement in patients admitted to the hospital with symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. By recognizing and treating Wernicke’s encephalopathy early, we can prevent the progression to Korsakoff’s syndrome and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - An 80-year-old man presents with worsening pain in his right hip, without any...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man presents with worsening pain in his right hip, without any apparent cause or injury. The pain has not responded to regular pain medication and is particularly severe at night. Upon clinical examination, no clear cause is found. An urgent plain x-ray is ordered, which reveals a probable metastatic bony lesion in the right pelvis. Which group of solid tumor cancers is most likely to spread to the bone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breast, thyroid, kidney, prostate and lung

      Explanation:

      Identifying the Primary Tumor in Patients with Bony Metastasis

      Patients who present with bony metastasis require careful examination and history taking to identify the site of the primary tumor. The most likely culprits should be considered, as haematological cancers such as myeloma and lymphoma can also cause bony metastases. It is important to note that identifying the primary tumor is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan for the patient. Therefore, healthcare professionals should be vigilant in their assessment and consider all possible causes of bony metastasis. Proper identification of the primary tumor can lead to better outcomes for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - You receive the result of a routine mid-stream urine test taken on a...

    Incorrect

    • You receive the result of a routine mid-stream urine test taken on a 84-year-old woman in a nursing home. The result shows a pure growth of Escherichia coli with full sensitivity but levels of white cells and red blood cells are within the normal range. You telephone the nursing home and are told that she is well in herself but that they routinely send urine specimens on all patients.
      Select the single most appropriate management option in this patient.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No action required

      Explanation:

      Asymptomatic Bacteriuria in Elderly and Pregnant Women

      Asymptomatic bacteriuria is a common condition in elderly and pregnant women. In healthy patients, a pure growth with normal white and red cells doesn’t require treatment unless an invasive urological procedure is planned. However, in pregnant women, it should be treated as it is associated with low birth weight and premature delivery. There is no evidence of long-term harm or benefit from medication in patients with a normal renal tract. It is important to be cautious in apparently asymptomatic men who may have chronic prostatitis.

      Public Health England advises against sending urine for culture in asymptomatic elderly individuals with positive dipsticks. Urine should only be sent for culture if there are two or more signs of infection, such as dysuria, fever > 38 °C, or new incontinence. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in the elderly should not be treated as it is very common, and treating it doesn’t reduce mortality or prevent symptomatic episodes. In fact, treating it can increase side effects and antibiotic resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 4-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her mother. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her mother. She is currently being treated for a cold but her mother is worried about her heart rate. What is the typical heart rate for a 4-year-old child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 90 - 140 bpm

      Explanation:

      Paediatric vital signs refer to the normal range of heart rate and respiratory rate for children of different ages. These vital signs are important indicators of a child’s overall health and can help healthcare professionals identify any potential issues. The table below outlines the age-appropriate ranges for heart rate and respiratory rate. Children under the age of one typically have a higher heart rate and respiratory rate, while older children have lower rates. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor these vital signs regularly to ensure that children are healthy and developing properly.

      Age Heart rate Respiratory rate
      < 1 110 - 160 30 - 40
      1 – 2 100 – 150 25 – 35
      2 – 5 90 – 140 25 – 30
      5 – 12 80 – 120 20 – 25
      > 12 60 – 100 15 – 20

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 72-year-old man presents to his General Practice Surgery, as he has developed...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to his General Practice Surgery, as he has developed difficulty swallowing. He has a long history of ‘heartburn’, which he manages with over-the-counter antacids. He is a smoker with a 50-pack-year history and drinks around 15 units of alcohol per week. He thinks he has lost 4 kg of weight in the last few months.
      Endoscopy reveals a lesion in the lower third of the oesophagus.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adenocarcinoma of the oesophagus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Oesophageal Cancer and Related Conditions

      Oesophageal cancer is a serious condition that can be caused by various factors. Adenocarcinoma of the oesophagus is the most common type in the UK and is associated with chronic gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and Barrett’s oesophagus. Squamous carcinoma, on the other hand, is more likely to occur in the upper two thirds of the oesophagus. Both types of cancer are often asymptomatic until late in the disease, making early detection difficult.

      Barrett’s oesophagus is a condition caused by chronic GORD that can increase the risk of developing adenocarcinomas in the distal third of the oesophagus. GORD, which is the reflux of stomach acid into the oesophagus, can cause burning chest pain after eating. However, it doesn’t explain dysphagia or the presence of a lesion seen on endoscopy.

      An oesophageal stricture, which is a narrowing of the oesophagus, can also cause dysphagia and may be associated with chronic GORD. However, if weight loss, smoking, and alcohol consumption are present, and a lesion is seen on endoscopy, oesophageal cancer is more likely.

      In summary, understanding the risk factors and symptoms of oesophageal cancer and related conditions can aid in early detection and treatment. Regular check-ups and screenings are recommended for those at higher risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A 70-year-old woman is discharged from hospital following an operation. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman is discharged from hospital following an operation. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) has been grown from a wound swab.
      Select from the list the most common cause of a hospital-acquired wound infection.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Insufficient hand disinfection

      Explanation:

      Preventing Nosocomial Infections in Hospitals: Identification, Control, and Measures

      Insufficient hand disinfection is the leading cause of wound infections acquired in hospitals. The primary objective of hospital infection control is to prevent nosocomial infections. To achieve this, clinical and epidemiological investigations must first identify hospital-acquired infections as either endemic or epidemic. Identifying and typing the isolates causing nosocomial infections can help recognize organisms that are epidemiologically linked. Invasive multiresistant organisms, such as MRSA, often require infection-control measures to prevent their spread, which can minimize the use of expensive and sometimes toxic antibiotics required for their prophylaxis and treatment.

      Epidemic outbreaks can be controlled by measures that interrupt the spread of infection, such as the use of gowns, gloves, and careful hand-washing by those attending patients. Transfer of colonized or infected patients to a single room or an isolation ward is a physical means of preventing spread. Patients infected with the same organism can be grouped together and attended to by a cohort of nurses not involved with uninfected patients. Identification of additional carriers and elimination of colonization may be necessary for some epidemic outbreaks. Although controlled trials demonstrating the efficacy of such measures have not been performed, many observational studies support their use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension has a 10-year cardiovascular disease...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension has a 10-year cardiovascular disease risk of 20%. It is decided to initiate treatment with atorvastatin 20 mg. Before starting the medication, liver function tests are conducted:

      Bilirubin 10 µmol/l (3 - 17 µmol/l)
      ALP 96 u/l (30 - 150 u/l)
      ALT 40 u/l (10 - 45 u/l)
      Gamma-GT 28 u/l (10 - 40 u/l)

      After three months, the LFTs are repeated:

      Bilirubin 12 µmol/l (3 - 17 µmol/l)
      ALP 107 u/l (30 - 150 u/l)
      ALT 104 u/l (10 - 45 u/l)
      Gamma-GT 76 u/l (10 - 40 u/l)

      What is the most appropriate action to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue treatment and repeat LFTs in 1 month

      Explanation:

      If serum transaminase levels remain consistently 3 times higher than the upper limit of the reference range, treatment with statins must be stopped.

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A 55-year-old man who gave up smoking ten years ago presents at surgery...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man who gave up smoking ten years ago presents at surgery with hoarseness.

      It has been present for four weeks and is not improving. He has no systemic illness to explain it and the only thing of note is that he is a heavy whisky drinker.

      You suspect he may have laryngeal cancer.

      Which of the following symptoms would augment that suspicion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Odynophagia

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of Laryngeal and Lung Cancer

      Laryngeal cancer can present with two main symptoms: dysphagia and odynophagia, which are difficulty and painful swallowing, respectively. On the other hand, lung cancer may cause bovine cough, a distinct coughing sound, and recurrent laryngeal palsy. Hoarseness is a common symptom of both types of cancer, but submandibular swelling may indicate other head and neck cancers. It is important to note that vomiting is not typically a symptom of these cancers, except in advanced stages. Early detection and treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in cancer patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A 31-year-old farmer's wife presents with fever and malaise, feeling generally 'washed-out' and...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old farmer's wife presents with fever and malaise, feeling generally 'washed-out' and off her food. She has recently been helping out with lambing on the farm. On examination she has generalised lymph node swelling and a palpable liver edge. Her white blood cell count is just below the normal range.
      What is the most likely diagnosis for this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brucellosis

      Explanation:

      Brucellosis: A Zoonotic Infection from Farm Animals

      Brucellosis is a zoonotic infection that occurs due to contact with farm animals such as sheep, goats, pigs, cattle, or dogs. It is most commonly seen in farmers, vets, or abattoir workers. Although rare in UK residents, it is prevalent worldwide and caused by Brucella melitensis and Brucella abortus. The infection can be acquired through inhalation, ingestion, or a break in the skin.

      The incubation period ranges from 1 week to 3 months, and the symptoms include fever (usually undulant), sweating, weight loss, myalgia, arthralgia, and mild depression. Hepatosplenomegaly may also be present, and the white cell count may be normal or low. Antibody testing confirms the diagnosis, and treatment involves a combination of doxycycline and rifampicin for at least 6 weeks. Shorter courses are associated with a high relapse rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - Which statement about childhood vaccination is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about childhood vaccination is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Children with stable neurological disorders should be immunised as per schedule

      Explanation:

      Important Information about Vaccinations

      Vaccinations are an essential part of maintaining good health and preventing the spread of diseases. The MMR vaccine, for example, should be given twice – once at around 1 year and then repeated as a Preschool booster – to improve immune response. On the other hand, live polio vaccination has been replaced by an injectable inactive polio vaccine.

      It is crucial to maintain the cold chain for vaccines, as they can be damaged by freezing. Additionally, while vaccinations can be given to pregnant women on occasion, live vaccines are contraindicated. It is also important to note that children with stable neurological conditions like spina bifida should be vaccinated as per schedule.

      Overall, vaccinations are a vital tool in protecting ourselves and our communities from the spread of diseases. By following the recommended vaccination schedule and guidelines, we can ensure that we are doing our part in promoting good health and preventing the spread of illnesses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 25-year-old woman has been experiencing painful and irregular vaginal bleeding for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman has been experiencing painful and irregular vaginal bleeding for the past 6 weeks. She has been taking the combined hormonal contraceptive pill for 8 months and has not missed any pills. She is not on any other medication or using any over-the-counter products. A pregnancy test she recently took came back negative. She denies experiencing dyspareunia, abnormal vaginal discharge, heavy bleeding, or postcoital bleeding.

      What is the most suitable course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer a speculum to assess the cervix, and take endocervical and high-vaginal swabs including a sexual health screen

      Explanation:

      Patients who experience a change in bleeding after being on the combined contraceptive pill for 3 months should undergo a speculum examination. It is common to experience problematic bleeding in the first 3 months after starting a new combined hormonal contraceptive pill, but if bleeding starts after 3 months or is accompanied by symptoms such as abdominal pain, dyspareunia, abnormal vaginal discharge, heavy bleeding, or postcoital bleeding, a per vaginal examination and speculum examination should be considered to identify any underlying causes. Although the irregular bleeding may not be serious, it is important to offer an examination as it has started 3 months after starting the combined hormonal contraceptive pill. There is no need to refer the patient to a gynaecology clinic at this stage before further investigation. If problematic bleeding persists, a higher dose of ethinylestradiol can be tried, up to a maximum of 35 micrograms. Changing the dose of progestogen doesn’t appear to improve cycle control, although it may be helpful on an individual basis. There is no reason to discontinue the combined hormonal contraceptive pill and switch to the progestogen-only pill.

      Pros and Cons of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      The combined oral contraceptive pill is a highly effective method of birth control with a failure rate of less than one per 100 woman years. It is a convenient option that doesn’t interfere with sexual activity and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. Additionally, it can make periods regular, lighter, and less painful, and may reduce the risk of ovarian, endometrial, and colorectal cancer. It may also protect against pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, and acne vulgaris.

      However, there are also some disadvantages to consider. One of the main drawbacks is that people may forget to take it, which can reduce its effectiveness. It also offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections, so additional precautions may be necessary. There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast and cervical cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease, especially in smokers. Temporary side effects such as headache, nausea, and breast tenderness may also be experienced.

      Despite some reports of weight gain, a Cochrane review did not find a causal relationship between the combined oral contraceptive pill and weight gain. Overall, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be a safe and effective option for birth control, but it is important to weigh the pros and cons and discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - You see a 40-year-old man who has presented with a three week history...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 40-year-old man who has presented with a three week history of right shoulder pain.
      He has recently been doing some home renovations and wonders if this has caused the problem as he has been quite busy with manual labor. He localizes the pain to the tip of the shoulder and says it radiates to the outer aspect of his upper arm. He reports that the pain is worse when he has to lift his arm above shoulder level and has noticed pain with brushing his teeth and putting on his shirt.
      On examination the joint is cool and stable. He is systemically well. You are able to demonstrate a painful arc. There is normal power with no neurovascular deficit in the arm.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate imaging to perform at this stage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No imaging

      Explanation:

      Imaging Modalities for Shoulder Injuries

      When a patient presents with rotator cuff tendinitis, a clinical diagnosis is the most appropriate approach. Imaging is not necessary at this point unless there are atypical symptoms or the initial management strategies are ineffective. However, if further imaging is needed, there are several modalities available for assessing shoulder injuries.

      Ultrasound (US) is the preferred investigation for assessing the rotator cuff and surrounding soft tissues. It can also guide injections and is reserved for cases that do not respond to first-line treatment and clinically guided injection. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is an alternative to US and is useful for assessing complex injuries and bony abnormalities after major trauma. It can also exclude rare conditions that are obscured by acromial arch and bone abnormalities when other investigations and treatments fail to establish a diagnosis.

      X-ray is used as a preoperative assessment and is indicated for persistent shoulder pain that is unresponsive to conservative management. It can exclude calcific tendinitis and diagnose conditions unrelated to the rotator cuff. However, it is important to evaluate the benefits of imaging to limit unnecessary requests that waste resources and may expose the patient to unnecessary radiation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - At what point in the NHS vaccination schedule would you provide routine immunisation...

    Incorrect

    • At what point in the NHS vaccination schedule would you provide routine immunisation for Hepatitis B?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: At 15 months of age

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Understanding Immunisation Schedules

      Immunisation schedules are crucial to understand, especially with recent changes to UK guidance in January 2020. One significant change relates to the timing of pneumococcal immunisation. Additionally, hepatitis B vaccination is routinely available as part of the NHS vaccination schedule. It is offered to all babies at 8, 12, and 16 weeks of age, as well as those at increased risk of hepatitis B or its complications.

      It is essential to memorise the latest schedule, as it may feature in your exam. We have included a reference to a summary guide below for your convenience. Understanding immunisation schedules is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure that patients receive the appropriate vaccinations at the correct time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - A 5-year-old girl has a history of constipation and is diagnosed with faecal...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl has a history of constipation and is diagnosed with faecal impaction. Despite receiving lactulose therapy, there has been no improvement. What is the best course of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Macrogol

      Explanation:

      The primary treatment for faecal impaction and loading is macrogols.

      Understanding Constipation in Children

      Constipation is a common problem in children, and its frequency varies with age. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis and management of constipation in children. A diagnosis of constipation is suggested by two or more symptoms, including infrequent bowel movements, hard stools, and symptoms associated with defecation. The vast majority of children have no identifiable cause, but other causes include dehydration, low-fiber diet, medications, anal fissure, over-enthusiastic potty training, hypothyroidism, Hirschsprung’s disease, hypercalcemia, and learning disabilities.

      After making a diagnosis of constipation, NICE suggests excluding secondary causes. If no red or amber flags are present, a diagnosis of idiopathic constipation can be made. Prior to starting treatment, the child needs to be assessed for fecal impaction. NICE guidelines recommend using polyethylene glycol 3350 + electrolytes as the first-line treatment for faecal impaction. Maintenance therapy is also recommended, with adjustments to the starting dose.

      It is important to note that dietary interventions alone should not be used as first-line treatment. Regular toileting and non-punitive behavioral interventions should also be considered. For infants not yet weaned, gentle abdominal massage and bicycling the infant’s legs can be helpful. For weaned infants, extra water, diluted fruit juice, and fruits can be offered, and lactulose can be added if necessary.

      In conclusion, constipation in children can be effectively managed with proper diagnosis and treatment. It is important to follow NICE guidelines and consider the individual needs of each child. Parents can also seek support from Health Visitors or Paediatric Continence Advisors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 60-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of sudden hearing loss in...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of sudden hearing loss in his right ear. He reports that this occurred over the course of a few hours yesterday and has not improved since. He denies any other symptoms and has no significant medical history or prior ear issues. Upon examination, there are no visible abnormalities in the ear canal or tympanic membrane. What is the recommended course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for an audiological assessment

      Explanation:

      Referral Guidelines for Sudden or Rapidly Worsening Hearing Loss in Adults

      Adults who experience sudden onset or rapidly worsening hearing loss in one or both ears, which cannot be explained by external or middle ear causes, require referral to an ENT or audiovestibular medicine service. The speed at which this referral needs to occur is outlined in NICE guidance. If the loss occurred suddenly within the past 30 days, immediate referral to be seen within 24 hours is necessary. For sudden hearing loss that occurred more than 30 days ago, urgent referral to be seen within 2 weeks is appropriate. Rapid hearing loss over a period of 4 to 90 days also requires urgent referral. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure prompt evaluation and appropriate management of hearing loss in adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - A 39-year-old man presents to the clinic with concerns about his ability to...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old man presents to the clinic with concerns about his ability to form relationships. He reports feeling depressed and struggling to connect with women. During his previous relationship, he sought treatment for erectile dysfunction at the clinic.
      Upon physical examination, the patient has small testes and limited secondary sexual hair. He appears thin and has disproportionately long arms and legs in relation to his body.
      What is true regarding his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He is at risk of osteoporosis

      Explanation:

      Klinefelter’s Syndrome and its Associated Risks

      Klinefelter’s Syndrome is a genetic condition that affects males, resulting in the lack of testosterone production. This deficiency increases the risk of osteoporosis, which can lead to fractures. Unfortunately, due to a lack of early diagnosis, some patients may present with osteoporotic fractures. In addition to osteoporosis, patients with Klinefelter’s Syndrome have an increased risk of testicular carcinoma, autoimmune disorders such as diabetes mellitus and SLE, and male breast cancer.

      The mainstay of treatment for Klinefelter’s Syndrome is androgen replacement therapy. For those who want to father offspring, modern techniques such as microsurgical testicular sperm extraction may be used. It is important for individuals with Klinefelter’s Syndrome to be aware of these associated risks and to seek appropriate medical care to manage their condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - Which beta blocker has been approved for treating heart failure? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which beta blocker has been approved for treating heart failure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acebutolol

      Explanation:

      Heart Failure Treatment Options

      According to the 2010 update by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), there are several medications that are indicated for the treatment of heart failure. These medications include bisoprolol, metoprolol succinate, carvedilol, and nebivolol. These drugs are commonly used to manage heart failure symptoms and improve overall heart function. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for each individual case of heart failure. With proper medication management, individuals with heart failure can experience improved quality of life and better outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner concerned that he may be...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner concerned that he may be at an increased risk of developing colon cancer. His father died at the age of 56 from a sigmoid colon adenocarcinoma. His brother, aged 61, has just undergone a colectomy for a caecal carcinoma.
      What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for one-off colonoscopy aged 55

      Explanation:

      Screening Recommendations for Patients with Family History of Colorectal Cancer

      Patients with a family history of colorectal cancer may be at an increased risk of developing the disease. The British Society of Gastroenterology and the Association of Coloproctology for Great Britain and Ireland have produced screening guidelines for patients with family history profiles that place them in a moderate-risk category.

      Colonoscopy is recommended for patients with a family history of two first-degree relatives with a mean age of less than 60 years with colorectal cancer, starting at the age of 55. Abdominal ultrasound examination doesn’t have a role in screening for or diagnosing colorectal cancer.

      Patients with an increased risk should not be advised that they have no increased risk. Instead, they should be screened appropriately. Faecal immunochemical tests (FIT) are used to detect blood in the stool and are used in the national bowel cancer screening programme. However, patients with a higher risk, given their family history, should be offered earlier screening with colonoscopy rather than waiting until they are eligible for the national screening programme. False positives and negatives are possible with FIT, making colonoscopy a more reliable screening option for high-risk patients.

      Therefore, it is important for patients with a family history of colorectal cancer to be aware of the screening recommendations and to discuss their individual risk and screening options with their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - A 66-year-old man is experiencing difficulty starting to urinate and frequently wakes up...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old man is experiencing difficulty starting to urinate and frequently wakes up at night to use the bathroom. His PSA level is normal and a prostatic biopsy did not show any signs of cancer. What is the quickest treatment option to relieve his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tamsulosin

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological Management of Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition in older men that can cause urinary symptoms. Alpha-blockers, such as tamsulosin, are the first-line pharmacological treatment as they relax the smooth muscle of the bladder neck and improve urinary flow rates. Improvement in symptoms can be seen within a few days of therapy. Finasteride, an inhibitor of 5-alpha-reductase, can also be used to reduce prostatic volume over a period of around 6 months. However, it doesn’t provide rapid relief of symptoms. Cyproterone acetate and goserelin are not used in the treatment of BPH, as they are indicated for advanced prostate cancer. Oxybutynin, an antimuscarinic drug, can worsen symptoms of BPH and is not recommended for this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - You assess a 32-year-old female patient who complains of recurrent tension-type headaches. She...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 32-year-old female patient who complains of recurrent tension-type headaches. She reports partial relief with paracetamol and ibuprofen but inquires about preventive measures. What is the best course of action to address her concerns?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for acupuncture

      Explanation:

      Tension-type headache is a type of primary headache that is characterized by a sensation of pressure or a tight band around the head. Unlike migraine, tension-type headache is typically bilateral and of lower intensity. It is not associated with aura, nausea/vomiting, or physical activity. Stress may be a contributing factor, and it can coexist with migraine. Chronic tension-type headache is defined as occurring on 15 or more days per month.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has produced guidelines for managing tension-type headache. For acute treatment, aspirin, paracetamol, or an NSAID are recommended as first-line options. For prophylaxis, NICE suggests up to 10 sessions of acupuncture over 5-8 weeks. Low-dose amitriptyline is commonly used in the UK for prophylaxis, but the 2012 NICE guidelines do not support this approach. The guidelines state that there is not enough evidence to recommend pharmacological prophylactic treatment for tension-type headache, and that pure tension-type headache requiring prophylaxis is rare. Assessment may uncover coexisting migraine symptomatology with a possible diagnosis of chronic migraine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with a diastolic murmur that is...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with a diastolic murmur that is most audible at the left sternal edge. The apex beat is also displaced outwards. What condition is commonly associated with these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Characteristics of Aortic Regurgitation

      Aortic regurgitation is a heart condition characterized by the backflow of blood from the aorta into the left ventricle during diastole. One of the key features of this condition is a blowing high pitched early diastolic murmur that can be heard immediately after A2. This murmur is loudest at the left third and fourth intercostal spaces.

      In addition to the murmur, aortic regurgitation can also cause displacement of the apex beat. This is due to the dilatation of the left ventricle, which occurs as a result of the increased volume of blood that flows back into the ventricle during diastole. Despite this dilatation, there is relatively little hypertrophy of the left ventricle.

      Overall, the combination of a high pitched early diastolic murmur and displacement of the apex beat can be strong indicators of aortic regurgitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - An 85-year-old man is seen in the hypertension clinic with a blood pressure...

    Incorrect

    • An 85-year-old man is seen in the hypertension clinic with a blood pressure reading of 144/86 mmHg, consistent with recent readings. His annual blood work shows:

      - Na+ 141 mmol/l
      - K+ 4.1 mmol/l
      - Urea 7.2 mmol/l
      - Creatinine 95 µmol/l
      - HbA1c 39 mmol/mol (5.7%)
      - Total cholesterol 4.3 mmol/l
      - HDL 1.0 mmol/l

      He is currently taking ramipril 10 mg od, indapamide MR 1.5 mg od, amlodipine 10 mg od, and simvastatin 20 mg on. As his healthcare provider, which change, if any, should you discuss with the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No changes to the medication are indicated

      Explanation:

      Given the patient’s age of over 80 years, a clinic reading of less than 150/90 mmHg is deemed acceptable, and thus, no modifications to his current antihypertensive medications are necessary.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - A 63-year-old Caucasian man with a history of hypertension and gout presented to...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old Caucasian man with a history of hypertension and gout presented to the clinic seeking advice on controlling his blood pressure. He has been experiencing high blood pressure readings at home for the past week, with an average reading of 150/95 mmHg. He is currently asymptomatic and denies any chest discomfort. He is a non-smoker and non-drinker. His current medications include amlodipine and allopurinol, which he has been tolerating well. He has no known drug allergies. His recent blood test results are as follows:

      - Sodium (Na+): 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - Potassium (K+): 4.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Bicarbonate: 28 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      - Urea: 6.7 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine: 110 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing his hypertension?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add an angiotensin receptor blocker

      Explanation:

      To improve poorly controlled hypertension in a patient already taking a calcium channel blocker, NICE recommends adding an angiotensin receptor blocker, an ACE inhibitor, or a thiazide-like diuretic as step 2 management. In this case, the correct answer is to add an angiotensin receptor blocker, as the patient’s home blood pressure readings have remained uncontrolled despite maximum dose of amlodipine. Increasing amlodipine to 20 mg once a day is not recommended, and thiazide-like diuretic should be used with caution due to the patient’s history of gout. Aldosterone antagonist and alpha-blocker are not appropriate at this stage of hypertensive management.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - A 32-year-old man presents for an insurance medical. He has no significant medical...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents for an insurance medical. He has no significant medical history. During the examination, his BMI is 23 kg/m2, blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and auscultation of the heart reveals a mid-systolic click and a late systolic murmur (which are more pronounced when he stands up).
      What is the most likely diagnosis based on these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mitral valve prolapse

      Explanation:

      Understanding Mitral Valve Prolapse: Symptoms, Causes, and Associated Conditions

      Mitral valve prolapse is a condition where the leaflets of the mitral valve bulge in systole, affecting around 2-3% of the population. It can occur as an isolated entity or with heritable disorders of connective tissue. While most people are asymptomatic, some may experience symptoms such as anxiety, panic attacks, palpitations, syncope, or presyncope. The condition is also a risk factor for mitral regurgitation and carries a small risk of cerebral emboli and sudden death. Diagnosis is made through auscultation, with a mid-to-late systolic click and a late systolic murmur heard at the apex. Other heart conditions, such as atrial septal defect, aortic stenosis, mitral regurgitation, and mitral stenosis, have distinct murmurs that aid in diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - A 67-year-old woman complains of a sensation of a shadow obstructing a portion...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman complains of a sensation of a shadow obstructing a portion of her left eye. She has been experiencing occasional headaches on the same side and reports discomfort in her jaw while eating.

      During the assessment, the fundoscopy and eye examination reveal no abnormalities. However, there is slight tenderness on the left side of her head.

      What condition is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Giant cell arteritis

      Explanation:

      If an elderly patient complains of a headache on one side accompanied by jaw claudication, it is important to consider the possibility of giant cell arteritis and conduct appropriate investigations. Symptoms of acute glaucoma include eye pain, halos in vision, nausea, and general discomfort. Amaurosis fugax is characterized by temporary vision loss without any pain. Episcleritis typically causes mild eye pain, redness, and watering.

      Temporal arteritis is a type of large vessel vasculitis that often occurs in patients over the age of 60 and is commonly associated with polymyalgia rheumatica. This condition is characterized by changes in the affected artery that skip certain sections while damaging others. Symptoms of temporal arteritis include headache, jaw claudication, and visual disturbances, with anterior ischemic optic neuropathy being the most common ocular complication. A tender, palpable temporal artery is also often present, and around 50% of patients may experience symptoms of PMR, such as muscle aches and morning stiffness.

      To diagnose temporal arteritis, doctors will typically look for elevated inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr or elevated CRP levels. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed to confirm the diagnosis, with skip lesions often being present. Treatment for temporal arteritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is typically used, while IV methylprednisolone is usually given if there is evolving visual loss. Patients with visual symptoms should be seen by an ophthalmologist on the same day, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin, although the evidence supporting the latter is weak.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - What factors in a patient's medical record could potentially elevate natriuretic peptide levels...

    Incorrect

    • What factors in a patient's medical record could potentially elevate natriuretic peptide levels (such as NT-proBNP) that are utilized to evaluate possible heart failure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

      Explanation:

      Natriuretic Peptide Levels in Heart Failure Assessment

      Natriuretic peptide levels, specifically NT-ProBNP levels, are utilized in the evaluation of heart failure to determine the likelihood of diagnosis and the urgency of any necessary referral. These levels can be influenced by various factors.

      Factors that can decrease natriuretic peptide levels include a body mass index over 35 kg/m2, diuretics, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers, beta blockers, and aldosterone antagonists. On the other hand, factors that can increase natriuretic peptide levels include age over 70, left ventricular hypertrophy, myocardial ischaemia, tachycardia, right ventricular overload, hypoxia, pulmonary hypertension, pulmonary embolism, chronic kidney disease with an eGFR less than 60 mL/min/1.73m2, sepsis, COPD, diabetes mellitus, and liver cirrhosis.

      It is important to consider these factors when interpreting natriuretic peptide levels in the assessment of heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - A 67-year-old man has been referred under the 2-week rule due to frank...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man has been referred under the 2-week rule due to frank haematuria. He underwent a flexible cystoscopy and biopsies, which revealed a small superficial bladder tumour. He is a non-smoker. What is the most suitable advice you can give this patient regarding his bladder tumour?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The majority of tumours involve only the urothelium and are non-invasive

      Explanation:

      Bladder Cancer: Facts and Figures

      Bladder cancer is a type of cancer that affects the bladder, a hollow organ in the pelvis that stores urine. Here are some important facts and figures about bladder cancer:

      – The majority of bladder tumours involve only the urothelium (the lining of the bladder) and are non-invasive.
      – Transitional-cell tumours account for 90% of bladder cancers in the UK. About 70% of patients have superficial disease at diagnosis.
      – The 5-year survival rate for bladder cancer is typically less than 50%. However, patients with superficial tumours have a 5-year survival rate of 80-90%, while those with muscle-invasive tumours have a rate as low as 30-60%.
      – Although smoking is a risk factor for bladder cancer, it is linked to only about 50% of cases, meaning that it is still common in non-smokers.
      – Most non-invasive bladder tumours are managed with transurethral resection of the bladder tumour (TURBT). Radical cystectomy (removal of the bladder) may be necessary for invasive tumours.
      – The most common symptom of bladder cancer is painless haematuria (blood in the urine). Voiding symptoms are more likely to occur in advanced disease.

      Bladder cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. If you experience any symptoms of bladder cancer, such as blood in the urine or changes in urination patterns, you should see a doctor right away.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - An 80-year-old woman is under palliative care for glioblastoma and is currently managing...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman is under palliative care for glioblastoma and is currently managing her pain with regular paracetamol. However, she has reported feeling nauseous. What would be the most suitable initial anti-emetic medication to prescribe for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cyclizine

      Explanation:

      Cyclizine is a recommended first-line anti-emetic for nausea and vomiting caused by intracranial or intra-vestibular issues, as well as for managing gastrointestinal obstruction in palliative care. Domperidone is effective for gastro-intestinal pain in palliative care, as it stimulates gastric muscle contraction by blocking dopamine inhibition. Metoclopramide is useful for acute migraine, chemotherapy or radiotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, but is unlikely to relieve nausea related to increased intracranial pressure. Ondansetron is indicated for preventing and treating chemotherapy-related nausea and vomiting. Dexamethasone is often the first choice steroid in palliative care, as it can treat multiple symptoms including nausea, anorexia, spinal cord compression, and liver capsule pain. If the patient’s nausea is due to raised intracranial pressure, cyclizine should be the first-line option, but dexamethasone may also be considered as an additional treatment.

      Nausea and Vomiting in Palliative Care: Mechanistic Approach to Prescribing

      Nausea and vomiting in palliative care can have multiple causes, but identifying the most prominent one is crucial in guiding the choice of anti-emetic therapy. Six broad syndromes have been identified, with gastric stasis and chemical disturbance being the most common. In general, pharmacological therapy is the first-line method for treating nausea and vomiting in palliative care. There are two approaches to choosing drug therapy: empirical and mechanistic. The mechanistic approach matches the choice of anti-emetic drug to the likely cause of the patient’s nausea and vomiting.

      For reduced gastric motility, pro-kinetic agents such as metoclopramide and domperidone are useful. However, metoclopramide should not be used when pro-kinesis may negatively affect the gastrointestinal tract. For chemically mediated nausea and vomiting, the chemical disturbance should be corrected first. Key treatment options include ondansetron, haloperidol, and levomepromazine. Cyclizine and levomepromazine are first-line for visceral/serosal causes, while anticholinergics such as hyoscine can be useful. For raised Intracranial pressure, cyclizine and dexamethasone are recommended. For vestibular causes, cyclizine is the first-line treatment, while atypical antipsychotics such as olanzapine or risperidone can be used in refractory cases. If anticipatory nausea is the clear cause, a short-acting benzodiazepine such as lorazepam can be useful.

      NICE CKS recommends that oral anti-emetics are preferable and should be used if possible. If the oral route is not possible, the parenteral route of administration is preferred. The intravenous route can be used if intravenous access is already established. By using a mechanistic approach to prescribing, healthcare professionals can tailor anti-emetic therapy to the specific cause of nausea and vomiting in palliative care patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - A 42-year-old man has suddenly developed a fever and is experiencing frequent urination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man has suddenly developed a fever and is experiencing frequent urination, painful urination, and discomfort in the pelvic area. Upon examination, his prostate is tender. A dipstick test of his urine shows the presence of white blood cells. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute bacterial prostatitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prostatitis: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Prostatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the prostate gland. There are different types of prostatitis, including acute bacterial prostatitis, chronic bacterial prostatitis, non-bacterial prostatitis, and asymptomatic inflammatory prostatitis. In this article, we will focus on the symptoms and differential diagnosis of acute bacterial prostatitis.

      Symptoms of Acute Bacterial Prostatitis
      Acute bacterial prostatitis is characterized by a sudden onset of feverish illness, irritative urinary voiding symptoms (dysuria, frequency, urgency), perineal or suprapubic pain, and a very tender prostate on rectal examination. A urine dipstick test showing white blood cells and a urine culture confirming urinary infection are also common. It is important to note that prostatic massage should not be done as it could lead to complications.

      Differential Diagnosis
      It is important to differentiate acute bacterial prostatitis from other conditions with similar symptoms. Chronic bacterial prostatitis is more common but symptoms must last for more than three months before this diagnosis can be made. Benign prostatic hyperplasia typically presents with progressive obstructive symptoms, while cystitis doesn’t involve tenderness of the prostate on examination. Non-bacterial prostatitis is associated with chronic pain around the prostate.

      Conclusion
      Acute bacterial prostatitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. It is important to consider the differential diagnosis and rule out other conditions with similar symptoms. If you suspect acute bacterial prostatitis, seek medical attention immediately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - You suspect a patient you have seen on a home visit who is...

    Incorrect

    • You suspect a patient you have seen on a home visit who is elderly and was previously treated with antibiotics has now developed Clostridium difficile (C. difficile) infection.

      Which of the following is most likely to have caused this infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics and C. difficile Infection

      Antibiotics are known to increase the risk of patients developing C. difficile infection. However, certain antibiotics are more frequently associated with this infection than others. These include clindamycin, cephalosporins, fluoroquinolones, and broad-spectrum penicillins.

      If a patient does develop C. difficile infection, there are treatments available. Metronidazole and vancomycin are commonly used to treat this infection. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the risks associated with antibiotics and to use them judiciously to prevent the development of C. difficile infection. By doing so, patients can receive the necessary treatment without experiencing unnecessary complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - A 23-year-old man visits your clinic with a concern about spots on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man visits your clinic with a concern about spots on his face, neck, and trunk that have been present for a few months. Despite using an over-the-counter facial wash, the spots have not improved. The patient is becoming increasingly self-conscious about them and seeks treatment. Upon examination, you observe comedones and inflamed lesions on his face, as well as nodules, pustules, and scarring. The patient is in good health, with normal vital signs.

      What is the most appropriate initial approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to dermatology

      Explanation:

      A patient with severe acne, including scarring, hyperpigmentation, and widespread pustules, should be referred to a dermatologist for specialized treatment. In this case, the patient has nodules, pustules, and scarring, indicating the need for consideration of oral isotretinoin. A trial of low-strength topical benzoyl peroxide would not be appropriate for severe and widespread acne, but may be suitable for mild to moderate cases. Same-day hospital admission is unnecessary for a patient with normal observations and no other health concerns. A review in 2 months is not appropriate for severe acne, which should be managed with topical therapies, oral antibiotics, or referral to a dermatologist. Topical antibiotics are also not recommended for severe and widespread acne, and a dermatology referral is necessary for this patient with lesions on the face, neck, and trunk.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - A 50-year-old woman is concerned about a darkly pigmented lesion on her right...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman is concerned about a darkly pigmented lesion on her right temple. The lesion is approximately 1 cm in size and she believes it has gradually increased in size over the past 2 years. The pigment appears mostly uniform, the lesion is flat, and the border is slightly irregular.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lentigo maligna

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lentigo Maligna: A Guide to Identifying and Differentiating from Other Skin Lesions

      Lentigo maligna is a type of malignant melanoma in situ that is commonly found on sun-damaged skin, particularly on the face and neck. It is characterized by a pigmented lesion that is growing and has a slightly irregular border, with a diameter of over 0.6 cm. Lentigo maligna grows slowly over a period of 5 to 20 years or longer, and can be recognized using the ABCDE rule: Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Colour variation, large Diameter, and Evolving.

      It is important to differentiate lentigo maligna from other skin lesions, such as melanocytic naevus, lentigo, seborrhoeic keratosis, and post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation. Melanocytic naevus is typically flesh-colored and protruding, while lentigo is benign and has lighter pigmentation. Seborrhoeic keratosis has a warty surface and can be dark-colored, leading to concern that it may be a malignant melanoma. Post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation can follow any inflammatory condition, but there is no history to suggest this in the case of lentigo maligna.

      It may be difficult to determine whether invasive change has occurred in lentigo maligna just from appearance, but suspicious changes include thickening of part of the lesion, more variation in color, ulceration or bleeding, or itching. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these changes occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - A 32-year-old woman of Afro-Caribbean origin is planning to conceive and is concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman of Afro-Caribbean origin is planning to conceive and is concerned about being a carrier for sickle cell disease. What is the most suitable test to determine her status? Select ONE choice only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemoglobin electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      Testing for Sickle Cell Trait and Disease during Pregnancy

      Sickle cell trait is a genetic condition where a person has one abnormal allele of the haemoglobin-beta gene but doesn’t show symptoms of sickle cell disease. Haemoglobin electrophoresis is used to differentiate individuals who are homozygous for HbS from those who are heterozygous. Chorionic villus sampling is used during pregnancy to determine if a fetus is affected by sickle cell disease. Chromosome karyotyping is used to test for chromosomal abnormalities such as Down syndrome. Routine full blood count typically gives no indication of carrier status. In high-risk areas, pregnant women are screened routinely using haemoglobin electrophoresis for the sickle cell trait. If they test positive, their partner will also be offered the test. In parts of the United Kingdom where sickle cell anaemia is uncommon, a screening questionnaire that focuses on family origin is used as an initial screening device to assess the risk of sickle cell disorders in pregnant women.

      Testing for Sickle Cell Trait and Disease during Pregnancy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - GPs are being asked more frequently to provide medical reports by their patients...

    Incorrect

    • GPs are being asked more frequently to provide medical reports by their patients or insurance companies. It is crucial to understand when patient consent is necessary before completing a report.

      For which of the following reports will patient consent be necessary?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Letter of support for absence from court

      Explanation:

      Understanding Medical Reports

      Medical reports are often requested from doctors by various entities such as government bodies, employers, insurance companies, and patients themselves. However, the need for patient consent varies depending on the type of report being requested. Legal reports that are necessary for patient care, such as child protection reports and mental capacity assessments, do not require patient consent. Similarly, reports that serve the public good, such as notifications of infectious diseases and adverse drug reactions, do not require patient consent either.

      On the other hand, reports that provide information on illness as an entitlement or excuse, as well as reports that declare patients fit for sports or occupation, or provide information for actuarial assessments, all require patient consent. It is important for patients to understand the purpose of the report being requested and whether or not their consent is required. By doing so, patients can make informed decisions about their medical information and ensure that their privacy is protected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Leadership And Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - A 30-year-old woman who is 7 weeks pregnant is taking 25 mg of...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman who is 7 weeks pregnant is taking 25 mg of sertraline daily for depression. She wants to know more about the potential risks to her baby. What is the accurate statement regarding the use of sertraline during pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The use of selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors (SSRIs) in the first trimester is associated with an increased risk of congenital malformations, especially cardiovascular malformations

      Explanation:

      Taking SSRIs during the first trimester of pregnancy has been linked to a higher likelihood of congenital malformations, particularly those affecting the heart. However, it is not recommended for women to suddenly stop taking antidepressants during pregnancy. The potential risks and benefits should be carefully weighed, and if a decision is made to discontinue the medication, it should be done gradually. It is advisable to avoid St. John’s wort during pregnancy if possible. Additionally, using an SSRI in later pregnancy (after 20 weeks) may increase the risk of persistent pulmonary hypertension and withdrawal symptoms in newborns.

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of over 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, and the questionnaire includes a question about self-harm. The sensitivity and specificity of this screening tool are over 90%.

      ‘Baby-blues’ are seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occur 3-7 days following birth. This condition is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features of postnatal depression are similar to depression seen in other circumstances.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth. The features of this condition include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). Reassurance and support are important for all these conditions, but admission to hospital is usually required for puerperal psychosis, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial, and certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. While these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant. However, fluoxetine is best avoided due to its long half-life. There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - You are evaluating a geriatric patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. What is...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a geriatric patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. What is the recommended vaccination protocol for this population?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Annual influenza + one-off pneumococcal

      Explanation:

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.

      Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.

      If the patient doesn’t have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.

      NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.

      Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE doesn’t recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - A 32-year-old woman is being evaluated in surgery. She has asthma that is...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman is being evaluated in surgery. She has asthma that is hard to manage and is presently on a tapering regimen of steroids. Her respiratory specialist has requested that you consider measures to protect her bones. Upon reviewing her medical history, it is discovered that she has undergone 11 rounds of oral prednisolone in the past year, some of which have lasted for more than a week. What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange a DEXA scan

      Explanation:

      To protect the bones of patients who are taking corticosteroids, those who are under 65 years old should undergo a DEXA scan before any treatment is initiated. For those who are 65 years old or older, it is recommended to begin taking alendronate as a preventative measure.

      Managing Osteoporosis Risk in Patients on Corticosteroids

      Osteoporosis is a significant risk for patients taking corticosteroids, which are commonly used in clinical practice. To manage this risk appropriately, the 2002 Royal College of Physicians (RCP) guidelines provide a concise guide to prevention and treatment. According to these guidelines, the risk of osteoporosis increases significantly once a patient takes the equivalent of prednisolone 7.5mg a day for three or more months. Therefore, it is crucial to manage patients in an anticipatory manner, starting bone protection immediately if it is likely that the patient will need to take steroids for at least three months.

      The RCP guidelines divide patients into two groups based on age and fragility fracture history. Patients over the age of 65 years or those who have previously had a fragility fracture should be offered bone protection. For patients under the age of 65 years, a bone density scan should be offered, and further management depends on the T score. If the T score is greater than 0, patients can be reassured. If the T score is between 0 and -1.5, a repeat bone density scan should be done in 1-3 years. If the T score is less than -1.5, bone protection should be offered.

      The first-line treatment for corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis is alendronate. Patients should also be replete in calcium and vitamin D. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively manage the risk of osteoporosis in patients taking corticosteroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - A 75-year-old man had herpes zoster of his T5 dermatome three weeks ago,...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man had herpes zoster of his T5 dermatome three weeks ago, and is now troubled by post herpetic neuralgia. He also had an inferior myocardial infarction eight weeks ago.

      His primary symptom at the moment is post herpetic neuralgia. Which of the following drugs would be contra-indicated in this man?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Contra-indication of Amitriptyline in Recent Myocardial Infarction

      Explanation: Patients who have recently experienced a myocardial infarction should avoid taking Amitriptyline as a treatment. This medication is not recommended for individuals who have suffered a heart attack in the past. Therefore, it is important to consult with a healthcare professional before taking any medication, especially if you have a history of heart disease. It is crucial to follow the doctor’s advice and avoid any medication that may cause harm to your health. Remember, prevention is always better than cure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - A woman who is 16 weeks pregnant presents as she came into contact...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who is 16 weeks pregnant presents as she came into contact with a child who has Chickenpox around 4 days ago. She is unsure if she had the condition herself as a child. Blood tests show the following:

      Varicella IgM Negative
      Varicella IgG Negative

      What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Varicella zoster immunoglobulin

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox Exposure in Pregnancy: Risks and Management

      Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus and can pose risks to both the mother and fetus during pregnancy. The mother is at a five times greater risk of pneumonitis, while the fetus is at risk of developing fetal varicella syndrome (FVS) if the mother is exposed to Chickenpox before 20 weeks gestation. FVS can result in skin scarring, eye defects, limb hypoplasia, microcephaly, and learning disabilities. There is also a risk of shingles in infancy and severe neonatal varicella if the mother develops a rash between 5 days before and 2 days after birth.

      To manage Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy, post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) may be necessary. If the pregnant woman is not immune to varicella, VZIG or antivirals may be given within 10 days of exposure. Waiting until days 7-14 is recommended to reduce the risk of developing clinical varicella. However, the decision on choice of PEP for women exposed from 20 weeks of pregnancy should take into account patient and health professional preference as well as the ability to offer and provide PEP in a timely manner.

      If a pregnant woman develops Chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought. Oral aciclovir may be given if the pregnant woman is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash. However, caution should be exercised if the woman is < 20 weeks. Overall, managing Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy requires careful consideration of the risks and benefits to both the mother and fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - A 32-year-old woman who has never undergone a cervical smear test complains of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who has never undergone a cervical smear test complains of post-coital bleeding. What is not considered a known risk factor for cervical cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Obesity

      Explanation:

      Endometrial cancer is associated with obesity, while cervical cancer is not.

      Understanding Cervical Cancer and its Risk Factors

      Cervical cancer is a type of cancer that affects the cervix, which is the lower part of the uterus. It is most commonly diagnosed in women under the age of 45, with the highest incidence rates occurring in those aged 25-29. The cancer can be divided into two types: squamous cell cancer and adenocarcinoma. Symptoms of cervical cancer may include abnormal vaginal bleeding, such as postcoital, intermenstrual, or postmenopausal bleeding, as well as vaginal discharge.

      The most significant risk factor for cervical cancer is infection with the human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly serotypes 16, 18, and 33. Other risk factors include smoking, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), early first intercourse, many sexual partners, high parity, and lower socioeconomic status. The mechanism by which HPV causes cervical cancer involves the production of oncogenes E6 and E7 by HPV 16 and 18, respectively. E6 inhibits the p53 tumour suppressor gene, while E7 inhibits the RB suppressor gene.

      While the strength of the association between combined oral contraceptive pill use and cervical cancer is sometimes debated, a large study published in the Lancet in 2007 confirmed the link. It is important for women to undergo routine cervical cancer screening to detect any abnormalities early on and to discuss any potential risk factors with their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - A national screening programme exists in the UK for abdominal aortic aneurysms.
    Select the...

    Incorrect

    • A national screening programme exists in the UK for abdominal aortic aneurysms.
      Select the single correct statement regarding this process.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Screening all men at 65 is estimated to reduce the rate of premature death from ruptured aortic aneurysm by 50%

      Explanation:

      National Screening Programme for Aortic Aneurysm in Men at 65

      The National Screening Programme aims to reduce the rate of premature death from ruptured aortic aneurysm by 50% by screening all men in their 65th year. The prevalence of significant aneurysm in this age group is 4%. Screening will be done through ultrasound, and those without significant aneurysms will be discharged. For those with aneurysms greater than 5.5 cm in diameter, surgery will be offered to 0.5% of men. Those with small aneurysms will enter a follow-up programme. However, the mortality from elective surgery is 5-7%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - A 42-year-old man has difficulty swallowing and speaking that worsens after physical activity....

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man has difficulty swallowing and speaking that worsens after physical activity. The physician suspects he may have myasthenia gravis.
      What is the most likely target of the autoimmune antibodies that cause this disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acetylcholine receptors

      Explanation:

      Understanding Myasthenia Gravis: Targets and Associations

      Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that affects the neuromuscular junction of skeletal muscles, leading to muscle weakness that worsens with exercise and improves with rest. In up to 90% of generalized cases, antibodies form against acetylcholine receptors (anti-AChR). However, other muscle antigens may also be targeted.

      One such antigen is low-density lipoprotein receptor-related protein 4 (anti-LRP4), which is found in subsets of myasthenia gravis patients. Another target is muscle-specific receptor tyrosine kinase (anti-MuSK), which is detected in about half of generalized myasthenia gravis patients who are seronegative for anti-AChR antibodies. These patients may not respond to anticholinesterase drugs but do respond to steroid immunosuppression.

      An association has also been observed between myasthenia gravis and human leukocyte antigen (HLA), although it is not the most likely target. Additionally, one-half of thymoma patients develop myasthenia gravis, while 15% of myasthenia gravis patients have thymomas. Non-AChR muscle autoantibodies reacting with striated muscle titin and RyR antigens are found in up to 95% of myasthenia gravis patients with a thymoma and in 50% of late-onset myasthenia gravis patients (onset at age of 50 years or later). These antibodies are usually associated with more severe myasthenia gravis.

      Understanding the various targets and associations of myasthenia gravis can aid in diagnosis and treatment of this autoimmune disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - A breastfeeding mother brings in her three-month-old infant who has been experiencing some...

    Incorrect

    • A breastfeeding mother brings in her three-month-old infant who has been experiencing some burning pain in both nipples during feeds and for up to an hour after. She also reports some itching and sensitivity in her nipples. The baby is growing well and there are no other concerns. During examination, the mother's breasts and nipples appear normal, but the infant has white patches on their tongue. What is the recommended initial treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Miconazole cream for the mother and nystatin suspension for the baby

      Explanation:

      When treating nipple candidiasis during breastfeeding, it is recommended to use miconazole cream for the mother and nystatin suspension for the baby. This is likely to be nipple thrush, and it’s important to treat both mother and baby simultaneously to prevent re-infection, even if the baby shows no signs of infection. It’s worth noting that while miconazole gel can also be used for babies over 4 months, it’s not licensed for those under 4 months due to concerns about choking on the gel. Parents should be carefully informed about the risks and how to administer it safely if it’s prescribed.

      Breastfeeding Problems and Management

      Breastfeeding can come with its own set of challenges, but most of them can be managed with proper care and attention. Some common issues include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These problems can be addressed by seeking advice on positioning, breast massage, and using appropriate creams and suspensions.

      Mastitis is a more serious condition that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is important to seek treatment if symptoms persist or worsen, including systemic illness, nipple fissures, or infection. The first-line antibiotic is flucloxacillin, and breastfeeding or expressing should continue during treatment. If left untreated, mastitis can lead to a breast abscess, which requires incision and drainage.

      Breast engorgement is another common issue that can cause pain and discomfort. It usually occurs in the first few days after birth and can affect both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement, and complications can be avoided by addressing the issue promptly.

      Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common but still significant problem that can cause pain and blanching of the nipple. Treatment options include minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, avoiding caffeine and smoking, and considering oral nifedipine.

      Concerns about poor infant weight gain can also arise, prompting consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight until weight gain is satisfactory is also recommended. With proper management and support, most breastfeeding problems can be overcome, allowing for a successful and rewarding breastfeeding experience.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - A 50-year-old woman who is a non-smoker complains of rib pain. A bone...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman who is a non-smoker complains of rib pain. A bone scan reveals multiple lesions highly indicative of metastases. Physical examination is unremarkable except for unilateral axillary lymphadenopathy. An excision biopsy of an affected lymph node confirms the presence of adenocarcinoma. What investigation should be given priority to identify the primary site of the lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mammography

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Cancer of Unknown Primary Site

      Cancers of unknown primary site make up a small percentage of all cancers and can present in various locations such as bones, lymph nodes, lungs, and liver. If the presentation is in the axillary lymph node, an occult breast primary may be the cause, and mammography should be the first investigation. If the mammogram is negative, other tests can identify alternative occult sites. Identifying the primary site is crucial for guiding treatment and determining prognosis, even in metastatic disease. However, some investigations may not be appropriate for certain presentations. Cancer antigen-125 (CA-125) is not a diagnostic tool for ovarian cancer, and colonoscopy and gastroscopy are unlikely to be useful for identifying the primary site in cases of metastases to the liver, lung, and peritoneum. Instead, Virchow’s nodes in the left supraclavicular area may be sentinel lymph nodes for abdominal cancer, particularly gastric cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - A 16-year-old girl presents to her health care provider with concerns about missed...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl presents to her health care provider with concerns about missed periods and a positive pregnancy test. She has been sexually active with her 17-year-old boyfriend for the past six months, using condoms as protection. The patient expresses a desire for a termination but doesn't want to involve her parents in any way. Despite counseling on the risks of abortion and the importance of involving parents, she remains firm in her decision to seek an abortion without parental involvement. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contact her parents and inform them of the situation

      Explanation:

      Gillick Competency and Abortion: Understanding the Guidelines

      Under the Gillick case, a child who is deemed competent and has a full understanding of the implications of her actions can be offered advice and treatment without parental consent. This means that if a patient requests an abortion, it can be offered with appropriate counselling and support. However, if a healthcare practitioner has conscientious objections to participating in an abortion, they must provide an alternative practitioner who will support the patient.

      It is important to note that every effort should be made to persuade the patient to inform her parents. The Gillick competency and Fraser guidelines are in place to ensure that young people are able to make informed decisions about their healthcare, but it is still important to involve parents or guardians where possible. By understanding these guidelines, healthcare practitioners can provide the best possible care for their patients while also respecting their rights and beliefs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - As part of a community health initiative, you are tasked with developing a...

    Incorrect

    • As part of a community health initiative, you are tasked with developing a program to enhance the well-being of infants in the area. What is the leading cause of mortality among infants aged over one month but under 12 months?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sudden infant death syndrome

      Explanation:

      Accidents become the leading cause of death in children after they turn one year old.

      Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is the leading cause of death in infants during their first year of life, with the highest incidence occurring at three months of age. There are several major risk factors associated with SIDS, including placing the baby to sleep on their stomach, parental smoking, prematurity, bed sharing, and hyperthermia or head covering. These risk factors are additive, meaning that the more risk factors present, the higher the likelihood of SIDS. Other risk factors include male sex, multiple births, lower social classes, and maternal drug use. SIDS incidence also tends to increase during the winter months. However, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of SIDS, such as breastfeeding, room sharing (but not bed sharing), and the use of pacifiers. In the event of a SIDS case, it is important to screen siblings for potential sepsis and inborn errors of metabolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - A 42-year-old man presents to his GP with his sister. She is worried...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents to his GP with his sister. She is worried about his well-being as he lives alone and has been isolating himself for some time. He rarely goes out and has no interests other than using his computer. He is generally distant when his family visits and speaks very little. He has not been in a relationship for many years. He appears disheveled and avoids making eye contact during the appointment. His sister is concerned that he may have Schizophrenia as their father exhibited similar behavior before his diagnosis.

      The patient denies experiencing any visual or auditory hallucinations and doesn't express any delusional beliefs.

      What is the most probable diagnosis for this individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schizoid personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The absence of delusion or hallucination symptoms rules out schizophrenia, schizotypal personality disorder, and delusional beliefs. Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by a greater concern for being accepted and social status anxiety. Schizoid personality disorder, on the other hand, exhibits negative symptoms of schizophrenia, making it the most probable diagnosis.

      Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - A 58-year-old male with stable angina complains of muscle aches and pains. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old male with stable angina complains of muscle aches and pains. He has been on simvastatin 40 mg daily, atenolol 50 mg daily, and aspirin 75 mg daily for two years. He was recently hospitalized for acute coronary syndrome and additional therapies were added. His CPK concentration is 820 IU/L (50-200). What is the most probable cause of his statin-related myopathy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Omega-3 fatty acids

      Explanation:

      Statin-Associated Myopathy and Drug Interactions

      Statin-associated myopathy is a potential side effect that affects up to 5% of individuals taking statins. This condition can be exacerbated by the co-prescription of certain drugs, including calcium channel blockers, macrolide antibiotics, fibrates, amiodarone, and grapefruit juice. Even patients who tolerate statins well may experience myopathy or rhabdomyolysis when these agents are added to their treatment regimen.

      It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential drug interactions and to monitor patients closely for signs of myopathy. Additionally, NICE guidance on Myocardial infarction: secondary prevention (NG185) advises against the use of omega-3 capsules to prevent another MI. By staying informed and following evidence-based guidelines, healthcare providers can help ensure the safety and well-being of their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - A 70-year-old man visits a neurovascular clinic for a check-up. He had a...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man visits a neurovascular clinic for a check-up. He had a stroke caused by a blood clot 3 weeks ago but has been recovering well. However, the patient had to discontinue taking clopidogrel 75 mg due to severe abdominal discomfort and diarrhea after switching from aspirin 300 mg daily. Since then, the symptoms have subsided.

      What would be the best medication(s) to recommend for preventing another stroke in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin 75 mg plus modified release dipyridamole

      Explanation:

      When clopidogrel cannot be used, the recommended treatment for secondary stroke prevention is a combination of aspirin 75 mg and modified-release dipyridamole. Studies have shown that this combination is more effective than taking aspirin or modified-release dipyridamole alone. Ticagrelor is not currently recommended by NICE for this purpose, and prasugrel is contraindicated due to the risk of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants like warfarin are generally not used for secondary stroke prevention, with antiplatelets being the preferred treatment.

      The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The guidelines provide recommendations for the management of acute stroke, including maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage, and usually not until 14 days have passed from the onset of an ischaemic stroke. If the cholesterol is > 3.5 mmol/l, patients should be commenced on a statin.

      Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if it is administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. There are absolute and relative contraindications to thrombolysis, including previous intracranial haemorrhage, intracranial neoplasm, and active bleeding. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends considering thrombectomy together with intravenous thrombolysis for people last known to be well up to 24 hours previously.

      Secondary prevention recommendations from NICE include the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Clopidogrel is recommended ahead of combination use of aspirin plus modified-release dipyridamole in people who have had an ischaemic stroke. Aspirin plus MR dipyridamole is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if clopidogrel is contraindicated or not tolerated. MR dipyridamole alone is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if aspirin or clopidogrel are contraindicated or not tolerated. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - You are examining a 48-year-old female patient with breast cancer that is positive...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining a 48-year-old female patient with breast cancer that is positive for oestrogen receptors. The patient has been prescribed a daily dose of 20 mg of tamoxifen. What is the most frequent adverse effect of tamoxifen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Headache

      Explanation:

      Tamoxifen Side Effects According to BNF

      The British National Formulary (BNF) is often used to set questions for the AKT, and it lists the frequency of side effects for medications. Tamoxifen, for example, has common or very common side effects such as headaches, while all the other options are rare or very rare. Patients taking tamoxifen should be informed about the increased risk of thromboembolism and advised to watch for symptoms of DVT and PE. Additionally, patients should be warned about the increased risk of endometrial cancer and instructed to report any relevant symptoms. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these potential side effects and counsel patients accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - A 26-year-old woman presents with an eight month history of amenorrhoea. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents with an eight month history of amenorrhoea. She is not on any prescribed medication but uses over the counter acne treatments. Her body mass index is 31 kg/m2, she has a small amount of hair growth on her chin, abdominal and pelvic examinations are normal.

      She is investigated and her blood results show:
      LH 11.8 U/L (0.5-14.5)
      FSH 4.2 U/L (1-11)
      Testosterone 3.5 nmol/L (0.8-3.1)
      Prolactin 580 mU/L (90-520)
      Fasting glucose 6.4 mmol/L (<6.0)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)

      Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition characterized by abnormal hormonal cycling and enlargement of the ovaries with the development of multiple ovarian cysts. Diagnosis requires exclusion of other causes of polycystic ovaries and the presence of at least two of the following: oligo/anovulation, clinical and/or biochemical hyperandrogenism, or polycystic ovaries on ultrasound scanning.

      Patients with PCOS can be asymptomatic but often present with a combination of features such as menstrual disturbance, infertility, obesity, male pattern hair loss, hirsutism, and acne. A patient with amenorrhoea, obesity, and clinical evidence of hyperandrogenism with acne and hirsutism is likely to have PCOS. Blood tests can add weight to the diagnosis, with luteinizing hormone (LH) typically on the high side and values above 10 IU/L seen in about 50% of anovulatory patients.

      Hyperandrogenism with an elevated testosterone level is a frequent finding, although caution should be taken to exclude other causes. Mild prolactinaemia can be present in up to 30% of patients. Insulin resistance and impaired glucose tolerance are associated with PCOS and a well-known complication. The patient should have further evaluation in reference to her elevated fasting glucose. Overall, understanding PCOS and its diagnostic criteria is crucial for proper diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - You see a 66-year-old gentleman with a past history of rheumatoid arthritis for...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 66-year-old gentleman with a past history of rheumatoid arthritis for which he is receiving treatment with a disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD).

      He has progressively developed marked shortness of breath and a dry cough. You send him for an urgent chest x ray which is reported as showing interstitial infiltrates bilaterally in keeping with pulmonary fibrosis.

      Which of the following drugs is most likely a cause for his respiratory symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      DMARDs and Pulmonary Fibrosis

      Many GP practices have a shared care relationship with rheumatologists to monitor and prescribe DMARDs for patients with rheumatoid arthritis. GPs involved in this care need to be knowledgeable about DMARD monitoring protocols and potential adverse effects. One such effect is pulmonary fibrosis, which can be caused by several DMARDs, including methotrexate, cyclophosphamide, sulphasalazine, and gold. Methotrexate is particularly well-known for causing lung fibrosis and interstitial pneumonitis, as well as blood dyscrasias and hepatic toxicity. Patients on methotrexate should be advised to seek medical attention if they experience dyspnoea, cough, or fever. It is important for GPs to be aware of these potential side-effects and to monitor patients accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - What is the correct statement regarding HIV infection? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement regarding HIV infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antenatal screening in England has shown that 1 in 200 pregnant women in some inner-city areas are infected with HIV

      Explanation:

      HIV and IV Drug Use: A Deadly Combination

      Routine screening during pregnancy has revealed HIV prevalence rates ranging from 1 in 500 to 1 in 200 in certain areas of London, while parts of Edinburgh and Glasgow have estimated rates as high as 1 in 20 in areas with high IV drug abuse. At-risk groups in the UK now include an increasing number of heterosexual men. In sub-Saharan Africa and Latin America, heterosexuals account for the majority of cases, while HIV rates in the armies of the Democratic Republic of Congo and Angola are at least 50%.

      Unfortunately, people who inject drugs face a higher risk of death, not just from HIV-related causes but also from drug overdose. However, early use of antiretroviral therapy has increased survival duration to near-normal and reduced the risk of developing AIDS. In fact, in the first five years of treatment, the death rate is the same as that of the general population, except for IV drug users, who have higher death rates.

      In summary, HIV and IV drug use are a deadly combination, but with proper treatment and care, the risk of death can be significantly reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - A 23-year-old male patient complains of experiencing tinnitus in his left ear for...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old male patient complains of experiencing tinnitus in his left ear for the past two weeks. He describes the sound as a buzz but denies any other accompanying ear symptoms. Upon examination, Otoscopy, Rinne, and Weber tests are all normal. What is the recommended course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral to ENT

      Explanation:

      An urgent referral to ENT is necessary for a patient experiencing unilateral tinnitus, even if their examination appears normal. This is because it could be a sign of an acoustic neuroma and requires further investigation.

      While an audiogram could provide additional information, it would not alter the management plan for a GP, which would still involve an urgent referral.

      CBT, reassurance, and white noise may be appropriate for chronic bilateral tinnitus, but not for this patient with unilateral tinnitus.

      Tinnitus is a condition where a person perceives sounds in their ears or head that do not come from an external source. It affects approximately 1 in 10 people at some point in their lives and can be distressing for patients. While it is sometimes considered a minor symptom, it can also be a sign of a serious underlying condition. The causes of tinnitus can vary, with some patients having no identifiable underlying cause. Other causes may include Meniere’s disease, otosclerosis, conductive deafness, positive family history, sudden onset sensorineural hearing loss, acoustic neuroma, hearing loss, drugs, and impacted earwax.

      To assess tinnitus, an audiologist may perform an audiological assessment to detect any underlying hearing loss. Imaging may also be necessary, with non-pulsatile tinnitus generally not requiring imaging unless it is unilateral or there are other neurological or ontological signs. Pulsatile tinnitus, on the other hand, often requires imaging as there may be an underlying vascular cause. Management of tinnitus may involve investigating and treating any underlying cause, using amplification devices if associated with hearing loss, and psychological therapy such as cognitive behavioural therapy or joining tinnitus support groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - A 72-year-old male came to his doctor complaining of loose stool during the...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old male came to his doctor complaining of loose stool during the night for the past 2 months. He has a medical history of uncontrolled diabetes, chronic kidney disease, retinopathy, osteoarthritis, and coeliac disease. He denied experiencing abdominal pain, bloating, weight loss, or vomiting. Upon examination, his abdomen appeared normal, and his vital signs were stable. His blood glucose level was 18.7mmol/L.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autonomic neuropathy

      Explanation:

      Autonomic neuropathy is a possible cause of night time diarrhoea in diabetics with poor control of their condition. Other potential diagnoses, such as irritable bowel syndrome, microscopic colitis, Crohn’s disease, and chronic constipation, should be considered and ruled out before making a definitive diagnosis. However, given the patient’s age and medical history, autonomic neuropathy is a likely explanation for her symptoms.

      Diabetes can cause peripheral neuropathy, which typically results in sensory loss rather than motor loss. This can lead to a glove and stocking distribution of symptoms, with the lower legs being affected first. Painful diabetic neuropathy is a common issue that can be managed with medications such as amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If these drugs do not work, tramadol may be used as a rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain. Topical capsaicin may also be used for localized neuropathic pain. Pain management clinics may be helpful for patients with resistant problems.

      Gastrointestinal autonomic neuropathy is another complication of diabetes that can cause symptoms such as gastroparesis, erratic blood glucose control, bloating, and vomiting. This can be managed with medications such as metoclopramide, domperidone, or erythromycin, which are prokinetic agents. Chronic diarrhea is another common issue that often occurs at night. Gastroesophageal reflux disease is also a complication of diabetes that is caused by decreased lower esophageal sphincter pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (1/1) 100%
Children And Young People (3/3) 100%
Dermatology (0/3) 0%
Gastroenterology (3/5) 60%
Genomic Medicine (2/2) 100%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal Health (3/3) 100%
Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability (2/2) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory Health (1/1) 100%
Eyes And Vision (1/1) 100%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (0/1) 0%
Allergy And Immunology (0/1) 0%
Consulting In General Practice (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology And Breast (1/1) 100%
Kidney And Urology (0/1) 0%
Passmed