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  • Question 1 - A 47-year-old woman with a history of multiple sclerosis visits her GP after...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman with a history of multiple sclerosis visits her GP after her partner noticed a recent change in her eye appearance. Upon examination, the GP observes ptosis on the right side and a small right pupil. Fundoscopy reveals no abnormalities. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Optic neuritis

      Correct Answer: Horner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Horner’s syndrome is a condition characterized by several features, including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), a sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The cause of Horner’s syndrome can be determined by examining additional symptoms. For example, congenital Horner’s syndrome may be identified by a difference in iris color (heterochromia), while anhidrosis may be present in central or preganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can also be helpful in confirming the diagnosis and identifying the location of the lesion. Central lesions may be caused by conditions such as stroke or multiple sclerosis, while post-ganglionic lesions may be due to factors like carotid artery dissection or cluster headaches. It is important to note that the appearance of enophthalmos in Horner’s syndrome is actually due to a narrow palpebral aperture rather than true enophthalmos.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 2 - Which of the following features is least commonly associated with rickets? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following features is least commonly associated with rickets?

      Your Answer: Genu varum

      Correct Answer: Reduced serum alkaline phosphatase

      Explanation:

      Understanding Rickets

      Rickets is a condition that occurs when bones in developing and growing bodies are inadequately mineralized, resulting in soft and easily deformed bones. This condition is usually caused by a deficiency in vitamin D. In adults, a similar condition is called osteomalacia.

      There are several factors that can predispose individuals to rickets, including a dietary deficiency of calcium, prolonged breastfeeding, unsupplemented cow’s milk formula, and a lack of sunlight.

      Symptoms of rickets include aching bones and joints, lower limb abnormalities such as bow legs or knock knees, swelling at the costochondral junction (known as a rickety rosary), kyphoscoliosis, craniotabes (soft skull bones in early life), and Harrison’s sulcus.

      To diagnose rickets, doctors may check for low vitamin D levels, reduced serum calcium, and raised alkaline phosphatase. Treatment typically involves oral vitamin D supplementation.

      Overall, understanding rickets and its causes can help individuals take steps to prevent this condition and ensure proper bone development and growth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old man visits the General Practitioner (GP) as a temporary resident and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man visits the General Practitioner (GP) as a temporary resident and asks for opiate analgesics to manage a sickle-cell crisis. Which of the following choices would be the LEAST suspicious that he is a drug abuser?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staying for a month with his parents

      Explanation:

      Identifying Drug-Seeking Behavior in Patients: Signs to Look Out For

      When dealing with patients, it’s important to be able to identify drug-seeking behavior. One sign to look out for is when a patient claims to be a temporary resident in the area. This is a common tactic used by drug seekers who are just passing through. However, if the patient’s parents are also your patients and they are a stable couple, this can be reassuring.

      Other signs to watch for include strange smells such as cannabis, cocaine, or heroin, as well as the smell of acetone or glue on the breath. Additionally, needle tracks or difficult intravenous access may also be present. By being aware of these signs, healthcare professionals can better identify and address drug-seeking behavior in their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 4 - A father brings in his 10 month old daughter who has been experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings in his 10 month old daughter who has been experiencing a persistent nappy rash despite his best efforts to care for her skin. The baby seems uncomfortable but is otherwise healthy. Upon examination, the nappy area shows patches of red, oozing skin with a few scattered pustules. The baby doesn't have a fever.

      What could be the reason for this skin reaction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bacterial infection

      Explanation:

      Nappy rash is a common condition that affects infants who wear nappies. It is most prevalent between the ages of 9 and 12 months, but can also affect older children and adults who are incontinent.

      The rash typically appears as red patches and bumps in the nappy area, with the skin folds being spared. Infants may appear uncomfortable and distressed. It is important to look out for signs of secondary infection, especially if the rash persists despite initial treatment. Secondary bacterial infections can cause marked redness, exudate, pustules, papules or blisters. If a bacterial infection is suspected or confirmed, NICE recommends a seven-day course of flucloxacillin (or clarithromycin if the patient is allergic to penicillin).

      Understanding Napkin Rashes and How to Manage Them

      Napkin rashes, also known as nappy rashes, are common skin irritations that affect babies and young children. The most common cause of napkin rash is irritant dermatitis, which is caused by the irritant effect of urinary ammonia and faeces. This type of rash typically spares the creases. Other causes of napkin rash include candida dermatitis, seborrhoeic dermatitis, psoriasis, and atopic eczema.

      To manage napkin rash, it is recommended to use disposable nappies instead of towel nappies and to expose the napkin area to air when possible. Applying a barrier cream, such as Zinc and castor oil, can also help. In severe cases, a mild steroid cream like 1% hydrocortisone may be necessary. If the rash is suspected to be candidal nappy rash, a topical imidazole should be used instead of a barrier cream until the candida has settled.

      It is important to note that napkin rash can be uncomfortable for babies and young children, so it is essential to manage it promptly. By following these general management points, parents and caregivers can help prevent and manage napkin rashes effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 5 - As an orthopaedic SHO in a paediatric orthopaedic outpatient clinic, Rina often receives...

    Incorrect

    • As an orthopaedic SHO in a paediatric orthopaedic outpatient clinic, Rina often receives GP referrals regarding limb development in children. What is a common normal variant in a child's limb development that can be managed with expectant care and referred back to the GP?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flat feet aged 2 years old

      Explanation:

      Many referrals for orthopaedic outpatient care from general practitioners are actually normal variants. The defining characteristics of normal variants are that they are always symmetrical, painless, and improve with age.

      Genu varum, or bow legs, is a normal variant from birth until about 2 years of age. Referral should be considered if genu varum is asymmetrical or persists beyond 3 years of age. Severe cases may be indicative of vitamin D deficiency. Genu valgus, or knock knees, is a normal variant between 3-6 years of age. Again, referral should be considered if the valgus is severe or persists, and vitamin D deficiency may be a factor. Flat feet are a normal variant until age 3, and most cases resolve by age 8 as the foot arch develops. Arches should appear when the infant stands on their tip toes, and the foot should be flexible and painless. Painful rigid flat feet should always be referred and may suggest tarsal coalition.

      In-toeing has three main causes: metatarsus adductus (a congenital foot deformity), internal tibial torsion (feet internally rotated), and femoral anteversion (feet and knees internally rotated). The vast majority of cases resolve by around 8 years of age.

      Paediatric Orthopaedics: Common Conditions and Treatments

      Developmental dysplasia of the hip is a condition that is usually diagnosed in infancy through screening tests. It may be bilateral, and when it is unilateral, there may be leg length inequality. As the disease progresses, the child may limp and experience early onset arthritis. This condition is more common in extended breech babies. Treatment options include splints and harnesses or traction, and in later years, osteotomy and hip realignment procedures may be needed. In cases of arthritis, a joint replacement may be necessary, but it is best to defer this if possible as it will likely require revision. Initially, there may be no obvious changes on plain films, and ultrasound gives the best resolution until three months of age. On plain films, Shenton’s line should form a smooth arc.

      Perthes Disease is characterized by hip pain, which may be referred to the knee, and usually occurs between the ages of 5 and 12. Bilateral disease occurs in 20% of cases. Treatment involves removing pressure from the joint to allow for normal development and physiotherapy. If diagnosed and treated promptly, the condition is usually self-limiting. X-rays will show a flattened femoral head, and in untreated cases, the femoral head will eventually fragment.

      Slipped upper femoral epiphysis is typically seen in obese male adolescents. Pain is often referred to the knee, and limitation to internal rotation is usually seen. Knee pain is usually present two months prior to hip slipping, and bilateral disease occurs in 20% of cases. Treatment involves bed rest and non-weight bearing to avoid avascular necrosis. If severe slippage or risk of it occurring is present, percutaneous pinning of the hip may be required. X-rays will show the femoral head displaced and falling inferolaterally, resembling a melting ice cream cone. The Southwick angle gives an indication of disease severity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 6 - You are a GPST1 working in a general practice. A practice nurse seeks...

    Incorrect

    • You are a GPST1 working in a general practice. A practice nurse seeks your guidance on a routine ECG performed on a 50-year-old man. Upon examining the ECG, you observe that the patient is in regular sinus rhythm with a rate of 70 beats per minute. However, the patient has a long QT interval and small T waves.

      What could be the reason for this distinct ECG pattern?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Long QT syndrome may result from hypokalaemia.

      Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a genetic condition that causes a delay in the ventricles’ repolarization. This delay can lead to ventricular tachycardia/torsade de pointes, which can cause sudden death or collapse. The most common types of LQTS are LQT1 and LQT2, which are caused by defects in the alpha subunit of the slow delayed rectifier potassium channel. A normal corrected QT interval is less than 430 ms in males and 450 ms in females.

      There are various causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital factors, drugs, and other conditions. Congenital factors include Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome and Romano-Ward syndrome. Drugs that can cause a prolonged QT interval include amiodarone, sotalol, tricyclic antidepressants, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Other factors that can cause a prolonged QT interval include electrolyte imbalances, acute myocardial infarction, myocarditis, hypothermia, and subarachnoid hemorrhage.

      LQTS may be detected on a routine ECG or through family screening. Long QT1 is usually associated with exertional syncope, while Long QT2 is often associated with syncope following emotional stress, exercise, or auditory stimuli. Long QT3 events often occur at night or at rest and can lead to sudden cardiac death.

      Management of LQTS involves avoiding drugs that prolong the QT interval and other precipitants if appropriate. Beta-blockers are often used, and implantable cardioverter defibrillators may be necessary in high-risk cases. It is important to note that sotalol may exacerbate LQTS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 7 - In a study examining mortality outcomes after bariatric surgery, it was found that...

    Incorrect

    • In a study examining mortality outcomes after bariatric surgery, it was found that obese patients with type II diabetes had a lower 10-year mortality rate (RR = 0.65) compared to obese patients without diabetes (RR = 0.90). However, the study did not show a statistically significant difference between the two groups. If bariatric surgery does indeed decrease mortality more in patients with diabetes, what has this study demonstrated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A type II error

      Explanation:

      Understanding Type II Errors in Statistical Studies

      A type II error occurs when a study fails to reject a false null hypothesis, also known as a false negative. In the context of a study comparing the impact of bariatric surgery on mortality rates for diabetics versus non-diabetics, if the surgery does indeed have a significantly greater impact on mortality rates for diabetics but the study fails to detect this, it would be an example of a type II error.

      To reduce the risk of type II errors, the power of a study can be increased by, for example, increasing the sample size. It is important to note that a type II error is different from a type I error, which occurs when a true null hypothesis is incorrectly rejected (false positive).

      Other potential biases in a study include selection bias, where subjects are not chosen randomly or representatively, and misclassification bias, where subjects are wrongly assigned to a classification. However, there is no indication of these biases in the given study. Ultimately, understanding and minimizing the risk of type II errors is crucial for ensuring accurate and reliable statistical results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 8 - A 6-year-old boy is brought by his mother to see his General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy is brought by his mother to see his General Practitioner following increasing concern about his behaviour at home and in school. His teacher has suggested that he is showing signs of a learning disability. He was diagnosed with epilepsy when he was three years of age. On examination, some abnormal findings were observed. You suspect tuberous sclerosis.
      Which of the following examination findings would support the diagnosis of tuberous sclerosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ungual fibromas

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Tuberous Sclerosis from Other Genetic Conditions

      Tuberous sclerosis is a genetic condition that causes non-cancerous overgrowths of tissue in multiple organs, including the skin, brain, eyes, kidneys, and heart. One of the common skin signs of tuberous sclerosis is the presence of flesh-colored papules in or around the nail bed, known as ungual fibromas. However, it is important to differentiate tuberous sclerosis from other genetic conditions that may present with similar features.

      Ataxia, increased tone, and jerky movements are features of Angelman syndrome, which is caused by a chromosomal abnormality and also causes learning disabilities and developmental delay. Brushfield spots, white/grey spots seen on the periphery of the iris, are a feature of Down syndrome, along with a single palmar crease, hypotonia, short neck, and epicanthic folds. Fragile X syndrome, an X-linked dominant condition, is associated with typical facial features such as a large head, long face, prominent forehead, chin, and ears, as well as learning disability, seizures, hyperextensible joints, and behavioral problems. Cri-du-chat syndrome, a chromosomal abnormality, is associated with a high-pitched cry, typical facial features, learning disability, and developmental delay, including microcephaly with orbital hypertelorism.

      Therefore, a thorough evaluation of clinical features and genetic testing is necessary to accurately diagnose and differentiate tuberous sclerosis from other genetic conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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  • Question 9 - The use of beta-blockers in treating hypertension has decreased significantly over the last...

    Incorrect

    • The use of beta-blockers in treating hypertension has decreased significantly over the last half-decade. What are the primary factors contributing to this decline?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Less likely to prevent stroke + potential impairment of glucose tolerance

      Explanation:

      The ASCOT-BPLA study showcased this phenomenon.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 10 - As per the guidelines of NICE and National Patient Safety Agency (NPSA), how...

    Incorrect

    • As per the guidelines of NICE and National Patient Safety Agency (NPSA), how frequently should lithium levels be monitored once a stable dose has been attained?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Every 3 months

      Explanation:

      Once a stable dose has been achieved, lithium levels need to be monitored every 3 months.

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate or cAMP formation.

      Common adverse effects of lithium include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, and nephrotoxicity. It may also cause thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, and hyperparathyroidism.

      Monitoring of patients on lithium therapy is crucial to prevent toxicity. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until concentrations are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every 3 months. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 11 - A 50-year-old woman returns for review. She has been experiencing lower abdominal pains...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman returns for review. She has been experiencing lower abdominal pains and bloating for the last four to five months.

      She reports a history of constipation since her teenage years and uses lactulose as needed to ensure regular bowel movements. Currently, she has daily bowel movements with soft and easily passed stools. She denies any rectal bleeding or mucous passage and has not experienced any vaginal bleeding or discharge since her last period at age 50.

      On clinical examination, her abdomen feels soft and no masses are palpable.

      As part of her investigation in primary care, which tumour marker would be appropriate to request?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CA125

      Explanation:

      Tumour Markers in Clinical Contexts

      Tumour markers can be a useful tool in certain clinical contexts, but they are not a routine primary care investigation. One example of a valuable tumour marker is CA125, which is associated with ovarian cancer. Ovarian cancer often presents with vague symptoms that can be easily attributed to more benign pathology, so a high index of suspicion is needed. The use of the CA125 tumour marker can be helpful in the diagnosis of ovarian cancer during initial primary care investigations.

      NICE recommends that women over the age of 50 who have one or more symptoms associated with ovarian cancer that occur more than 12 times a month or for more than a month are offered CA125 testing. These symptoms include bloating, appetite loss, early satiety, abdominal pain, pelvic pain, urinary frequency/urgency, lethargy, weight loss, and change in bowel habit.

      Other tumour markers are typically specialist tests that would rarely, if at all, be requested in primary care. These markers are associated with other types of cancer, such as α fetoprotein for hepatocellular carcinoma, CEA for colonic carcinoma, CA19-9 for pancreatic cancer, and Chromogranin A for neuroendocrine tumours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 12 - You are evaluating a 65-year-old woman who presented a few months ago with...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 65-year-old woman who presented a few months ago with pain in her left hip. She was evaluated by a colleague who suspected that her symptoms were likely due to osteoarthritis and since then she has had some plain films of her hip which confirm significant changes of osteoarthritis.

      She has been attempting to remain active and has increased her daily exercise to try and help with her symptoms and also lose weight. To manage any pain she experiences, she has been using heat and cold packs which provide some relief when her pain is bothersome.

      What is the most appropriate first-line pharmacological intervention in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Managing Osteoarthritis Symptoms: Core Strategies and Pharmacological Treatments

      In managing osteoarthritis symptoms, core strategies such as weight loss, appropriate exercise, and suitable footwear can be effective. Local application of heat and cold packs or TENS may also be helpful for some patients. Pharmacological treatments can be considered alongside these core strategies and used as adjuncts to manage symptoms.

      Oral paracetamol is a recommended first-line drug as it provides a good balance of efficacy, cost-effectiveness, and tolerability. It can be used as needed or regularly and is available over-the-counter, making it easier for patients to manage their symptoms independently. Topical capsaicin can also be used in some patients with knee and hand osteoarthritis, but its use must be complied with and may cause a burning sensation at the start of treatment.

      If paracetamol is ineffective in managing symptoms, other options such as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) or opioids may be considered further up the treatment ladder. It is important to note that oral paracetamol is most effective when taken regularly, and the dose may need to be reduced in older patients. Patients should be counseled on the need for regular use and that it may take up to two weeks to feel the analgesic benefit of capsaicin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 13 - A 55-year-old man visits your clinic to request a refill of his sildenafil...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man visits your clinic to request a refill of his sildenafil prescription, which he has been taking for several years. Upon reviewing his medical history, you discover that he suffered a heart attack four months ago. What course of action should you take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Do not prescribe as contraindicated

      Explanation:

      Sildenafil use is not recommended for patients who have had a recent myocardial infarction or unstable angina, as stated in both the BNF and NICE guidelines. As the patient in this question had a myocardial infarction just 4 months ago, prescribing sildenafil is contraindicated. Therefore, the answer to this question is do not prescribe.

      Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 14 - A 42-year-old woman is diagnosed with chronic kidney disease and requires long-term haemodialysis....

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman is diagnosed with chronic kidney disease and requires long-term haemodialysis. What is the most common long-term complication for patients receiving haemodialysis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ischaemic heart disease

      Explanation:

      Cardiovascular Disease and Other Complications in End-Stage Renal Disease Patients

      End-stage renal disease (ESRD) patients are at high risk for cardiovascular disease, which is the leading cause of death in this population. Atherosclerosis is present in all long-term dialysis patients, and premature cardiac death occurs at a much higher rate than in the general population. Hypertension is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease and is often poorly controlled in ESRD patients.

      In addition to cardiovascular disease, ESRD patients may also develop β2 microglobulin amyloidosis, which can cause physical handicaps and even life-threatening cervical spinal cord compression. This condition typically appears after 5 years or more of hemodialysis and can affect any joint, but is especially common in the sternoclavicular joint and hips. Clinical features include periarthritis of the shoulders, carpal tunnel syndrome, and spondyloarthropathy.

      Kidney transplant recipients may also face complications, including an increased risk of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and skin cancers due to prolonged immunosuppressive therapy. However, there is no known increased risk of gastrointestinal malignancy in patients on long-term dialysis.

      Overall, ESRD patients require careful monitoring and management to prevent and address these potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 15 - A 32-year-old Caucasian woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) requesting a referral...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old Caucasian woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) requesting a referral to a Fertility Clinic. She has had two first-trimester miscarriages and, six months ago, one second-trimester miscarriage. Karyotyping of the fetus showed no chromosomal abnormalities. Her body mass index (BMI), blood and urine tests in her last pregnancy showed no abnormalities. She has regular periods, no known medical problems, and takes only folic acid and vitamin D regularly. Her mother had two miscarriages, before having a successful pregnancy with no complications, and is now well. Her maternal aunt had two unprovoked deep-vein thrombosis (DVTs) in her thirties.
      What is the most likely cause of her recurrent miscarriages?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Factor V Leiden mutation

      Explanation:

      Causes of Recurrent Miscarriage: Understanding the Factors Involved

      Recurrent miscarriage, defined as the loss of three or more consecutive pregnancies, affects 1% of couples trying to conceive. While up to 50% of cases remain unexplained after investigation, there are several factors that can contribute to this condition.

      One of the most common causes of recurrent miscarriage is the Factor V Leiden mutation, which is the most common inherited thrombophilia. This mutation increases the risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE) and recurrent miscarriage, particularly in the second trimester. Carriers of this mutation have double the risk of miscarriage compared to those without it. Therefore, all women with second-trimester miscarriages should be screened for inherited thrombophilias, including Factor V Leiden mutation.

      Chromosomal abnormality is another potential cause of recurrent miscarriage, affecting 2-5% of couples. This is more common in women over the age of 35 and men over the age of 40. Karyotyping of products of conception should be undertaken from the third (and any subsequent) miscarriages.

      Uncontrolled diabetes is also a risk factor for recurrent miscarriage. However, in cases where there is no indication of diabetes, this cause is less likely.

      Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a syndrome that can cause infertility and miscarriage, affecting up to 50% of pregnancies in people with PCOS. However, this is more common in young females with obesity, acne, hirsutism, male-pattern balding, oligomenorrhoea or subfertility.

      In conclusion, understanding the potential causes of recurrent miscarriage is crucial in identifying the underlying factors and providing appropriate treatment. While some cases may remain unexplained, screening for inherited thrombophilias and chromosomal abnormalities, as well as considering factors such as diabetes and PCOS, can help in determining the best course of action for couples trying to conceive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 16 - A child of 6 years is suspected to have Giardiasis.

    Which one of the...

    Incorrect

    • A child of 6 years is suspected to have Giardiasis.

      Which one of the following drugs is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Giardia Lamblia: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Giardia lamblia is a parasite that can cause malabsorption and non-bloody diarrhea. The condition can be acquired locally, and stool microscopy may not always detect it. However, the good news is that it can be treated with metronidazole. Once treated, malabsorption typically resolves. If you experience symptoms of giardia lamblia, it is important to seek medical attention promptly to receive an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 17 - A 16-year-old female complains of an itchy eye with watery discharge on one...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female complains of an itchy eye with watery discharge on one side. She reports feeling generally healthy with no changes to her vision or fever. The patient wears contact lenses but has not had an optician appointment recently.

      During the examination, the patient displays injected conjunctiva in the affected eye, but there is no apparent redness or swelling around the eye. The application of topical fluorescein doesn't reveal any corneal staining.

      What would be the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise she should not wear contact lenses for the duration of her symptoms

      Explanation:

      It is not recommended to wear contact lenses when experiencing conjunctivitis, which is likely the case for this 15-year-old with viral conjunctivitis. While it is possible that her prescription may not be up to date, this doesn’t affect her susceptibility to infection or more severe conditions. Warm compresses are more effective for treating styes or chalazion, which present as lumps on the eyelid, rather than viral conjunctivitis. Since the fluorescein test did not show any corneal stains, there is no need for ophthalmology referral. However, if a contact lens wearer with these symptoms had staining, they would require a visit to eye casualty as this would indicate a corneal injury. While topical antihistamine eye drops may be used for allergic conjunctivitis, the unilateral nature of the presentation makes this diagnosis less likely. Topical chloramphenicol is the preferred treatment for bacterial conjunctivitis, but the watery discharge suggests viral conjunctivitis instead.

      Infective conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes that are accompanied by a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.

      In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves on its own within one to two weeks. However, patients are often offered topical antibiotic therapy, such as Chloramphenicol or topical fusidic acid. Chloramphenicol drops are given every two to three hours initially, while chloramphenicol ointment is given four times a day initially. Topical fusidic acid is an alternative and should be used for pregnant women. For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. It is important to advise patients not to share towels and to avoid wearing contact lenses during an episode of conjunctivitis. School exclusion is not necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 18 - A 22-year-old woman visits her GP for a regular check-up and expresses concern...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman visits her GP for a regular check-up and expresses concern about her facial acne. She has a combination of comedones and pustules, but no significant scarring. Despite using a topical retinoid, she is hesitant to try another oral antibiotic after experiencing no improvement with three months of lymecycline. She has no risk factors for venous thromboembolism, her blood pressure is normal, and her cervical screening is up to date. She is interested in exploring hormonal treatments for her acne. What is the most appropriate medication to prescribe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Microgynon

      Explanation:

      When treating moderate acne that doesn’t respond to topical treatments, it may be appropriate to add an oral antibiotic like lymecycline or doxycycline for up to three months. If there is no improvement, the acne worsens, or the patient cannot tolerate side effects, a different antibiotic can be tried. However, if the patient doesn’t want to try a different antibiotic, combined oral contraceptives can be considered as long as there are no contraindications. Second or third-generation combined oral contraceptives are typically preferred, such as Microgynon. It is important to note that Cerelle, a progesterone-only contraceptive, can worsen acne due to its androgenic activity. Dianette (co-cyprindiol) is a second-line contraceptive option for moderate to severe acne, but it comes with an increased risk of VTE and should only be used after careful discussion of the risks and benefits with the patient. It should be discontinued three months after acne has been controlled. Similarly, Cerazette is not a suitable option due to its androgenic activity.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 19 - You see a 16-year-old boy with his father. They are planning on travelling...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 16-year-old boy with his father. They are planning on travelling to Africa to climb Mount Kenya in 3 months time. They would like you to prescribe some malaria prophylaxis as Kenya is a malaria endemic country. They were given some information from the nurse and they think they would like to take atovaquone/proguanil (brand name Malarone). They are aware that most regimens have side effects and would like to know a bit more about what to expect from this drug.

      What is a common side effect of atovaquone/proguanil that the 16-year-old boy and his father should be aware of before taking it as a malaria prophylaxis for their upcoming trip to Kenya?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastrointestinal upset

      Explanation:

      Malaria is a serious illness caused by Plasmodium parasites that infect red blood cells and is transmitted through mosquito bites. When traveling to areas where malaria is prevalent, it is recommended to take medication to prevent infection. There are several options available, including chloroquines, proguanil, mefloquine, and doxycycline. Each medication has its own set of potential side effects, with gastrointestinal upset being the most common. Other side effects may include headaches, rash, and neuropsychiatric reactions. It is important to discuss the risks and benefits of each medication with a healthcare provider before starting prophylaxis.

      Malaria is a serious disease caused by the Plasmodium falciparum protozoa, with around 1,500-2,000 cases reported each year in patients returning from endemic countries. The majority of these cases occur in patients who did not take prophylaxis. It is important to consult up-to-date charts for recommended regimens for malaria zones before prescribing. There are several drugs available for prophylaxis, including Atovaquone + proguanil (Malarone), Chloroquine, Doxycycline, Mefloquine (Lariam), and Proguanil (Paludrine). Pregnant women and children are at higher risk of serious complications and should avoid travel to malaria endemic regions if possible. However, if travel is essential, prophylaxis should be taken, and DEET can be used to repel mosquitoes. Doxycycline is only licensed for use in children over the age of 12 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 20 - Which pathogen is annual immunisation proven to reduce mortality and hospital admissions against...

    Incorrect

    • Which pathogen is annual immunisation proven to reduce mortality and hospital admissions against in patients aged 65 or above who are more susceptible to community acquired infections?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: influenza virus

      Explanation:

      The Importance of influenza Vaccination in the Elderly Population

      influenza vaccination is crucial for promoting health and preventing disease in the elderly population, especially those with underlying chronic conditions. While recommended for all individuals over 65, those with cardiorespiratory, metabolic, or neoplastic diseases are at the highest risk. Despite being cost-effective, protection rates against influenza-associated respiratory illness are lower in the elderly population. In England, the uptake for patients over 65 was 73% in 2010/2011. While vaccination doesn’t change the incidence of upper respiratory tract symptoms, it significantly reduces hospital admission and mortality rates by 72% and 87%, respectively, in community-dwelling elderly individuals. However, nursing-home residents may not experience the same efficacy due to a greater burden of chronic disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 21 - A 30-year-old woman complains of heavy menstrual bleeding and a constant sore throat....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman complains of heavy menstrual bleeding and a constant sore throat. Upon examination, she is found to have pancytopenia. Which medication is the most probable cause of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      Causes of Pancytopenia Due to Drug Intake

      Pancytopenia is a medical condition characterized by a decrease in the number of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets in the blood. It can be caused by various factors, including drug intake. Some drugs can lead to pancytopenia by suppressing the bone marrow’s ability to produce blood cells.

      Cytotoxic drugs, antibiotics such as trimethoprim and chloramphenicol, and anti-rheumatoid drugs like gold and penicillamine are some of the drugs that can cause pancytopenia. Carbimazole, an anti-thyroid drug, can also lead to this condition. Additionally, anti-epileptic drugs like carbamazepine and sulphonylureas such as tolbutamide have been known to cause pancytopenia.

      It is important to monitor blood counts regularly when taking these drugs to detect any potential side effects. If pancytopenia is suspected, the drug should be discontinued immediately, and appropriate treatment should be initiated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 22 - A 60-year-old male presents to his GP with complaints of severe ear pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old male presents to his GP with complaints of severe ear pain. He reports experiencing pain and white discharge from his left ear for the past two weeks, along with a feeling of dulled hearing. The patient has a medical history of glaucoma, hypertension, and type two diabetes, with a recent HbA1c of 59 mmol/mol.

      During the examination, the patient appears to be in discomfort. The right ear appears normal, but the left external auditory canal is swollen and painful to examine, with copious amounts of white discharge. There is no swelling or erythema affecting the pinna nor mastoid. Cranial nerve exam detects a conductive hearing loss in the left ear and a subtle inability to wrinkle the forehead on the left. The patient is afebrile with a blood pressure of 142/96 mmHg.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange urgent admission for intravenous antibiotics, imaging

      Explanation:

      If a patient has unilateral ear discharge and a facial nerve palsy on the left side, it is more likely to be a case of malignant otitis externa. This is a serious condition where the infection has spread to the temporal bone and can affect the facial nerve. The pain associated with this condition is severe and persistent, often waking the patient at night. Malignant otitis externa can be life-threatening in severe cases, and immediate referral to an ENT specialist for intravenous antibiotics and imaging is necessary.

      Malignant Otitis Externa: A Rare but Serious Infection

      Malignant otitis externa is a type of ear infection that is uncommon but can be serious. It is typically found in individuals who are immunocompromised, with 90% of cases occurring in diabetics. The infection starts in the soft tissues of the external auditory meatus and can progress to involve the soft tissues and bony ear canal, eventually leading to temporal bone osteomyelitis.

      Key features in the patient’s history include diabetes or immunosuppression, severe and persistent ear pain, temporal headaches, and purulent otorrhea. In some cases, patients may also experience dysphagia, hoarseness, and facial nerve dysfunction.

      Diagnosis is typically done through a CT scan, and non-resolving otitis externa with worsening pain should be referred urgently to an ENT specialist. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics that cover pseudomonal infections.

      In summary, malignant otitis externa is a rare but serious infection that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Patients with diabetes or immunosuppression should be particularly vigilant for symptoms and seek medical attention if they experience persistent ear pain or other related symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 23 - You encounter an 18-year-old student with acne on his face, chest, and shoulders....

    Incorrect

    • You encounter an 18-year-old student with acne on his face, chest, and shoulders. He presents with papules and pustules accompanied by widespread inflammation. Additionally, he has nodules and scarring on his chin. After diagnosing him with moderate-severe acne, you decide to refer him to dermatology while initiating treatment. Your treatment plan includes prescribing a topical retinoid and an oral antibiotic. What is the first-line antibiotic for acne vulgaris?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tetracycline

      Explanation:

      Tetracyclines are the preferred oral antibiotics for treating moderate to severe acne vulgaris. This condition is a common reason for patients to visit their GP and can significantly impact their quality of life.

      To address this patient’s acne and scarring, it would be appropriate to initiate a topical treatment and prescribe an oral antibiotic. Referral to a dermatologist may also be necessary, but first-line treatment may be effective.

      Tetracyclines are the recommended first-line oral antibiotics for acne vulgaris. All tetracyclines are licensed for this indication, and there is no evidence to suggest that one is more effective than another. The choice of specific tetracycline should be based on individual preference and cost.

      Tetracycline and oxytetracycline are typically prescribed at a dose of 500 mg twice daily on an empty stomach. Doxycycline and lymecycline are taken once daily and can be taken with food, although doxycycline may cause photosensitivity.

      Minocycline is not recommended for acne treatment, and erythromycin is a suitable alternative to tetracyclines if they are contraindicated. The usual dose for erythromycin is 500 mg twice daily.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 24 - A 23-year-old woman contacts her doctor to request a referral for antenatal care....

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman contacts her doctor to request a referral for antenatal care. She has been attempting to conceive for the past year and has recently received a positive pregnancy test result. Her LMP was 5 weeks ago, which prompted her to take the test. The patient is in good health with no pre-existing medical conditions, doesn't smoke, and abstains from alcohol. Her BMI is 34 kg/m².

      What is the advised folic acid consumption for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Folic acid 5mg daily, continue until end of 1st trimester

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women who have a BMI of 30 kg/m² or higher should be given a daily dose of 5mg folic acid until the 13th week of pregnancy. Folic acid is crucial during the first trimester to prevent neural tube defects (NTD). While most pregnant women require 400mcg of folic acid daily during the first 12 weeks of pregnancy, those with a BMI of over 30 kg/m² need a higher dose.

      Apart from women with a BMI of over 30 kg/m², those with diabetes, sickle cell disease (SCD), thalassaemia trait, coeliac disease, on anti-epileptic medication, personal or family history of NTD, or who have previously given birth to a baby with an NTD should also be prescribed a daily dose of 5mg folic acid. It is recommended to start taking folic acid while trying to conceive to further reduce the risk of NTD.

      In addition to folic acid, NICE advises all pregnant women to take 10mcg (400 units) of vitamin D daily throughout their pregnancy. This should be continued until the end of their pregnancy.

      Pregnancy and Obesity: Risks and Management

      Obesity during pregnancy can lead to various complications for both the mother and the unborn child. A woman is considered obese if her body mass index (BMI) is equal to or greater than 30 kg/m² at the first antenatal visit. Maternal risks include miscarriage, venous thromboembolism, gestational diabetes, pre-eclampsia, dysfunctional labour, induced labour, postpartum haemorrhage, wound infections, and a higher rate of caesarean section. Fetal risks include congenital anomaly, prematurity, macrosomia, stillbirth, increased risk of developing obesity and metabolic disorders in childhood, and neonatal death.

      It is important to note that women with a BMI of 30 or more should not try to reduce the risk by dieting while pregnant. Instead, health professionals caring for them during their pregnancy will manage the risk. At the booking appointment, women with a BMI of 30 or more should be informed of the risks to their health and the health of their unborn child.

      Management of obesity during pregnancy includes taking 5mg of folic acid instead of 400mcg, screening for gestational diabetes with an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) at 24-28 weeks, giving birth in a consultant-led obstetric unit if the BMI is equal to or greater than 35 kg/m², and having an antenatal consultation with an obstetric anaesthetist and a plan made if the BMI is equal to or greater than 40 kg/m². By managing the risks associated with obesity during pregnancy, both the mother and the unborn child can have a healthier outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 25 - A 35-year-old man contacts the clinic to discuss his 'sick note'. He had...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man contacts the clinic to discuss his 'sick note'. He had recently injured his shoulder in a fall and self-certified for the first seven days with an SC2 note. He then saw a colleague of yours a week ago who gave him a medical certificate to cover the last week. The fit note has been marked you may be fit to return to work taking into account the following advice, has ticked amended duties and has handwritten in the comments section: to avoid heavy lifting. The fit note has been marked I will need to assess your fitness to work again at the end of this period.
      He works in a factory and some of his duties include heavy lifting but he is able to contribute effectively in his role in other areas that do not involve heavy lifting. As this is the case he has been on light duties at work for the last week. He informs you that his shoulder is now fully healed. However, his employer has requested he has a 'return to work note' stating he is fit to return to full work activities due to the previous note being marked I will need to assess your fitness to work again at the end of this period.
      What is the best course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: His employer has a legal responsibility to carry out a formal occupational health assessment by private arrangement with a GP or occupational health specialist and following this it is their decision whether he is ready to return to full duties

      Explanation:

      Return to Work Note in UK Practice

      When returning to work after a period of sickness, employers may ask for a return to work note. However, it is important to note that employees do not need to sign this note. The Department for Work and Pensions (DWP) provides guidance for employers and managers, stating that employees can return to work at any time, even before the end of the sick note. This doesn’t breach Employers Liability Compulsory Insurance, as long as a suitable risk assessment has been conducted if necessary. It is important to advise patients and employers of this information and refer them to the DWP guidance. Remember, there is no need to sign a return to work note in UK practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old man is HIV positive but in the stable phase of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man is HIV positive but in the stable phase of the disease.
      What is the most suitable marker for monitoring his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CD4 lymphocyte count

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Importance of CD4 Lymphocyte Count in HIV-related Immune Impairment

      The CD4 lymphocyte count, also known as T-helper cell count, is a crucial indicator of immune impairment in individuals with HIV. While CD4 counts can vary even in the absence of HIV infection, a fall in the count to below 200/mm3 without antiretroviral treatment can increase the risk of opportunistic infections by 80% over three years. However, some patients with stable low CD4 counts can remain well for several years, and this variability is partly explained by differences in HIV viral load.

      The level of CD4 lymphopenia determines the potential spectrum of infections, with certain infections such as oral candidiasis and pneumocystis pneumonia being more frequent at CD4 counts of 100-200/mm3, while others like disseminated Mycobacterium avium complex infection and cytomegalovirus retinitis are rarely seen until the CD4 count drops below 50/mm3.

      While plasma HIV RNA levels strongly predict progression to AIDS and death, regular monitoring of CD4 counts is usually sufficient. Anti-HIV IgG is also used in the diagnosis of HIV infection. Understanding the importance of CD4 lymphocyte count in HIV-related immune impairment is crucial for effective management and treatment of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 27 - You are the GP trainee doing your morning clinic. You see a 35-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • You are the GP trainee doing your morning clinic. You see a 35-year-old woman with coeliac disease.

      Which of the following is indicated as part of her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Administration of the pneumococcal vaccine

      Explanation:

      To prevent overwhelming pneumococcal sepsis due to hyposplenism, Coeliac UK advises that individuals with coeliac disease receive a pneumococcal infection vaccine and a booster every five years. Pertussis vaccines beyond those in the vaccination schedule are unnecessary. According to NICE CKS guidelines, annual blood tests for FBC, ferritin, thyroid function tests, liver function tests, B12, and folate are recommended. Calprotectin is utilized to assess gut inflammation, often as part of the diagnostic process for inflammatory bowel disease. Faecal occult blood testing is typically conducted if there are concerns about bowel cancer.

      Managing Coeliac Disease with a Gluten-Free Diet

      Coeliac disease is a condition that requires the management of a gluten-free diet. Gluten-containing cereals such as wheat, barley, rye, and oats must be avoided. However, some patients with coeliac disease can tolerate oats. Gluten-free foods include rice, potatoes, and corn. Compliance with a gluten-free diet can be checked by testing for tissue transglutaminase antibodies.

      Patients with coeliac disease often have functional hyposplenism, which is why they are offered the pneumococcal vaccine. Coeliac UK recommends that patients with coeliac disease receive the pneumococcal vaccine and have a booster every five years. influenza vaccine is given on an individual basis according to current guidelines.

      Overall, managing coeliac disease requires strict adherence to a gluten-free diet and regular immunisation to prevent infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 28 - A 65-year-old man with a history of myocardial infarction, congestive heart failure, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of myocardial infarction, congestive heart failure, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease presents for a diabetes check-up at his GP's office. He has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus and his HbA1c remains high at 56 mmol/mol despite attempts to modify his lifestyle. The GP decides to initiate drug therapy.

      Which of the following medications would be inappropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pioglitazone

      Explanation:

      Patients with heart failure should not take pioglitazone due to its potential to cause fluid retention.

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 29 - A 16-year-old girl with a learning disability has been exhibiting aggressive behavior without...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl with a learning disability has been exhibiting aggressive behavior without any identifiable physical, psychological, or environmental triggers. Despite attempts at behavioral interventions, there has been no improvement. Recently, she attacked one of her caregivers, causing concern for their safety. The caregivers are considering medication as a possible solution. Which medication would be the most suitable option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Olanzapine

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic and Melatonin Medications for People with Learning Disabilities and Autism

      Concerns about the overuse of antipsychotic and antidepressant medications in people with learning disabilities and/or autism have been raised. Instead, a full assessment of physical, psychological, and environmental factors should be conducted when a person presents with challenging behavior. Psychological and behavioral interventions should be considered first.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends that antipsychotic medication should only be used if other interventions do not produce change within an agreed time, treatment for coexisting mental or physical health problems has not led to a reduction in behavior, or the risk to the person or others is severe. Olanzapine is the only antipsychotic medication offered in the option list, but other antipsychotic drugs may also be appropriate. Antipsychotic medication should only be offered in combination with psychological or other interventions and initiated by a specialist.

      Melatonin, a pineal hormone that affects sleep patterns, may be of value for treating sleep-onset insomnia and delayed sleep phase syndrome in children with conditions such as visual impairment, cerebral palsy, attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, autism, and learning difficulties if behavioral measures fail. Clinical experience supports this use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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  • Question 30 - A 5-year-old boy with chronic cough and failure to thrive has been referred...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy with chronic cough and failure to thrive has been referred for a sweat test by the paediatricians. His parents come to see you to discuss what is involved in this test and how accurate it is.
      Select the single statement that is true regarding this procedure.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: False positives are seen in patients with hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cystic Fibrosis: Diagnosis and Testing Methods

      Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a genetic disorder caused by a mutation in the CFTR gene, which is responsible for regulating sweat, digestive juices, and mucous in the body. CFTR controls the movement of chloride and sodium ions across epithelial membranes, such as those found in the lungs. While most people have two working copies of the CFTR gene, only one is needed to prevent CF due to its recessive nature.

      Diagnosing CF involves identifying mutations in the CFTR gene, but this method has not replaced sweat testing as the primary diagnostic tool. Sweat testing involves injecting pilocarpine and collecting sweat to analyze sodium and chloride levels. This test is 98% sensitive, but it may be unreliable in patients under three weeks of age or those with hormonal issues like hypothyroidism, hypopituitarism, or adrenal insufficiency.

      The Guthrie test is a screening test that can detect immunoreactive trypsinogen, which may be associated with CF, but it is not diagnostic. Further testing is required to confirm a diagnosis.

      In summary, understanding the diagnosis and testing methods for CF is crucial in identifying and managing this genetic disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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