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  • Question 1 - A 34-year-old male is brought into the Emergency Department by the paramedics after...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old male is brought into the Emergency Department by the paramedics after a road traffic accident. After a quick triage, you establish that he will need to be intubated, and you ask for some ketamine to be prepared. Which one of the following options regarding this drug is true?

      Your Answer: It works by agonism of the NDMA receptor

      Correct Answer: It is the only anaesthetic agent available that has analgesic, hypnotic, and amnesic properties

      Explanation:

      Ketamine is a dissociative anaesthetic with analgesic, amnesic, and hypnotic effects. It is the only anaesthetic agent which causes all three of these effects.Ketamine exerts its action by non-competitive antagonism at the NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartate) receptor. Due to its analgesic property, Ketamine is given so that patients do not retain memories of short term procedures. Ketamine is used for the induction and maintenance of anaesthesia in general surgery and for treating burn wounds, battlefield injuries, and children who cannot tolerate other anaesthetic or analgesic agents.It can be given by both intravenous and intramuscular routes. Ketamine causes cardiac stimulation by increasing the sympathetic tone. The major side effect is increased intracranial pressure as an increase in the sympathetic tone causes vasoconstriction and an increase in the MAP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) is used first line for which of the following infections:...

    Correct

    • Cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) is used first line for which of the following infections:

      Your Answer: Blind treatment of suspected bacterial meningitis

      Explanation:

      Cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) are indicated first line in:- Blind treatment of meningitis in patients > 3 months (with amoxicillin if patient > 50 years)- Meningitis caused by meningococci- Meningitis caused by pneumococci- Meningitis caused by H. influenzae- Severe or invasive salmonellosis- Typhoid fever- Gonorrhoea- Gonococcal arthritis- Haemophilus influenzae epiglottitis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following best describes the correct administration of adrenaline for a...

    Correct

    • Which of the following best describes the correct administration of adrenaline for a shockable rhythm in adult advanced life support?

      Your Answer: Give 1 mg of adrenaline after the third shock and every 3 - 5 minutes thereafter

      Explanation:

      The correct administration of IV adrenaline 1 mg (10 mL of 1:10,000 solution) is that it should be given after 3 shocks and every 3 – 5 minutes/after alternate shocks thereafter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is the pathophysiology of Cushing's syndrome: ...

    Correct

    • What is the pathophysiology of Cushing's syndrome:

      Your Answer: Glucocorticoid excess

      Explanation:

      Cushing’s syndrome is the name given to the clinical symptoms and signs induced by chronic glucocorticoid excess.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Hartmann's solution contains how much sodium: ...

    Correct

    • Hartmann's solution contains how much sodium:

      Your Answer: 131 mmol/L

      Explanation:

      Hartmann’s solution (compound sodium lactate) contains: Na+131 mmol/L, K+5 mmol/L, HCO3-29 mmol/L (as lactate), Cl-111 mmol/L, Ca2+2 mmol/L. It can be used instead of isotonic sodium chloride solution during or after surgery, or in the initial management of the injured or wounded; it may reduce the risk of hyperchloraemic acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids And Electrolytes
      • Pharmacology
      31.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Reed-Sternberg cells are characteristic of which of the following malignancies: ...

    Correct

    • Reed-Sternberg cells are characteristic of which of the following malignancies:

      Your Answer: Hodgkin lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Lymphomas are a group of diseases caused by malignant lymphocytes that accumulate in lymph nodes and other lymphoid tissue and cause the characteristic clinical feature of lymphadenopathy. The major subdivision of lymphomas is into Hodgkin lymphoma (HL) and non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) and this is based on the histological presence of Reed-Sternberg cells present in HL. Hodgkin lymphoma can present at any age but is rare in children and has a peak incidence in young adults. There is an almost 2 : 1 male predominance. Most patients present with painless, asymmetrical, firm and discrete enlargement of superficial lymph nodes. Cervical nodes are involved in 60-70% of cases, axillary nodes in 10-15% and inguinal nodes in 6-12%. Modest splenomegaly occurs during the course of the disease in 50% of patients; the liver may also be enlarged. Bone marrow failure involvement is unusual in early disease. The prognosis depends on age, stage and histology, but overall approximately 85% of patients are cured. Alcohol‐induced pain and pruritus are two well‐known but rare symptoms in HL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A patient presents with acute severe asthma. Her initial salbutamol nebulization produced a...

    Correct

    • A patient presents with acute severe asthma. Her initial salbutamol nebulization produced a poor response and you administer another nebuliser with ipratropium bromide added on.Which statement about ipratropium bromide is true?

      Your Answer: It can trigger acute closed-angle glaucoma

      Explanation:

      Ipratropium bromide is an antimuscarinic drug. It is used in the management of acute asthma and COPD. It provides short-term relief in chronic asthma. Short-acting β2agonists are preferred and act more quickly.The commonest side effect of ipratropium bromide is dry mouth. Tremor is commonly seen with β2agonists. It can trigger acute closed-angle glaucoma in patients that are susceptible. First-line treatment for moderate asthma attacks is short-acting β2agonists.The BTS guidelines recommend that nebulised ipratropium bromide (0.5 mg 4-6 hourly) be added to β2agonist treatment in patients with a poor initial response to β2agonist therapy or with acute severe or life-threatening asthma.Its duration of action is 3-6 hours, maximum effect occurs 30-60 minutes after use, and bronchodilation can be maintained with three times per day dosing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      707.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Tiredness, night sweats, and easy bruising are symptoms of a 58-year-old woman. Splenomegaly...

    Incorrect

    • Tiredness, night sweats, and easy bruising are symptoms of a 58-year-old woman. Splenomegaly is observed during the examination.Which of the following diagnoses is the SINGLE MOST LIKELY?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)

      Explanation:

      CML is a myeloproliferative disorder characterised by an abnormal pluripotent haemopoietic stem cell. A cytogenetic abnormality known as the Philadelphia chromosome, which results from a reciprocal translocation between the long arms of chromosomes 9 and 22, causes more than 80% of cases of CML.CML is a disease that develops slowly over several years. This is known as the ‘chronic stage.’ This stage is usually asymptomatic, and 90 percent of patients are diagnosed at this point, with the disease being discovered frequently as a result of a routine blood test. During this stage, the bone marrow contains less than 10% immature white cells (blasts).When CML cells expand, symptoms typically begin to appear. The ‘accelerated stage’ is what it’s called. Approximately 10% of people are diagnosed at this point. During this stage, between 10% and 30% of blood cells in the bone marrow are blasts. During this stage, common clinical features include:Fatigue and exhaustionNight sweats and feverDistension of the abdomenPain in the left upper quadrant (splenic infarction)Splenomegaly (commonest examination finding)HepatomegalyBruising is simple.Gout is a type of arthritis that affects (rapid cell turnover)Hyperviscosity is a condition in which the viscosity of (CVA, priapism)A small percentage of patients experience a ‘blast crisis’ (blast stage). More than 30% of the blood cells in the bone marrow are immature blast cells at this stage. Patients with severe constitutional symptoms (fever, weight loss, bone pain), infections, and bleeding diathesis typically present at this stage.In CML, laboratory findings include:White cell count is abnormally high (often greater than 100 x 109/l).Increased number of immature leukocytes causes a left shift.Anaemia that is mild to moderately normochromic and normocytic.Platelets can be low, normal, or elevated, and the Philadelphia chromosome can be found in > 80% of patients. Serum uric acid and ALP levels are frequently elevated. Tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs), such as imatinib and dasatinib, are the current mainstay of CML treatment. Allogenic bone marrow transplantation is now only used in cases where TKIs have failed to work.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Glucagon may be used as an antidote for overdose with which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Glucagon may be used as an antidote for overdose with which of the following:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beta blockers

      Explanation:

      Glucagon is a peptide hormone that is produced and secreted by alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans, which are located in the endocrine portion of the pancreas. The main physiological role of glucagon is to stimulate hepatic glucose output, thereby leading to increases in glycaemia. It provides the major counter-regulatory mechanism to insulin in maintaining glucose homeostasis.Hypoglycaemia is the principal stimulus for the secretion of glucagon but may also be used as an antidote in beta-blocker overdose and in anaphylaxis in patients on beta-blockers that fail to respond to adrenaline. Glucagon then causes:GlycogenolysisGluconeogenesisLipolysis in adipose tissueThe secretion of glucagon is also stimulated by:AdrenalineCholecystokininArginineAlanineAcetylcholineThe secretion of glucagon is inhibited by:InsulinSomatostatinIncreased free fatty acidsIncreased urea productionGlycolysis is the metabolic pathway that converts glucose into pyruvate. The free energy released by this process is used to form ATP and NADH. Glycolysis is inhibited by glucagon, and glycolysis and gluconeogenesis are reciprocally regulated so that when one cell pathway is activated, the other is inactive and vice versa.Glucagon has a minor effect of enhancing lipolysis in adipose tissue. Lipolysis is the breakdown of lipids and involves the hydrolysis of triglycerides into glycerol and free fatty acids. It makes fatty acids available for oxidation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 10 - Following an injury sustained during a rugby match, a 16-year-old boy is brought...

    Incorrect

    • Following an injury sustained during a rugby match, a 16-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his mother. His forearm appears to be deformed, and you believe he has a distal radius fracture. A numerical rating scale is used to assess his pain, and the triage nurse informs you that he is in moderate pain.'The RCEM guidance recommends which of the following analgesics for the treatment of moderate pain in a child of this age?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral codeine phosphate 1 mg/kg

      Explanation:

      According to a 2018 audit conducted by the Royal College of Emergency Medicine (RCEM), the standard of care for children presenting to EDs with fractured limbs has deteriorated, with most patients waiting longer than ever before for pain relief. More than one-tenth of the children who came in with significant pain from a limb fracture received no pain relief at all.For all patients, including children, the Agency for Health Care Policy and Research (AHCPR) in the United States recommends using the ABCs of pain management:A – Ask about pain regularly. Assess pain systematically.B – Believe the patient and family in their reports of pain and what relieves it.C – Choose pain control options appropriate for the patient, family, and setting.D – Deliver interventions in a timely, logical, coordinated fashion.E – Empower patients and their families. Enable patients to control their course to the greatest extent possible.The RCEM guidelines recommend assessing a child’s pain within 15 minutes of arrival. This is a fundamental requirement. For the assessment of pain in children, a variety of rating scales are available; which one is used depends on the child’s age and ability to use the scale. These are some of them:Faces of Wong-Baker Scale for assessing painScale of numerical evaluationThe behavioural scale is a scale that measures how people behave.The RCEM has provided the following visual guide:The RCEM has established the following guidelines for when patients in severe pain should receive appropriate analgesia:100% within 60 minutes of arrival or triage, whichever is earliest75% within 30 minutes of arrival or triage, whichever is earliest50% within 20 minutes of arrival or triage, whichever is earliest

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - An analytical cohort study aimed to determine a relationship between intake of dietary...

    Incorrect

    • An analytical cohort study aimed to determine a relationship between intake of dietary calcium and incidence of hip fractures among post-menopausal women. The following are the data obtained from the study:No. of post-menopausal women who took Calcium: 500No. of post-menopausal women who took Calcium and suffered a hip fracture: 10No. of post-menopausal women who took placebo: 500No. of post-menopausal women who took placebo and suffered a hip fracture: 25Compute for the absolute risk in the placebo group.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.05

      Explanation:

      The absolute risk (AR) is the probability or chance of an event. It is computed as the number of events in treated or control groups, divided by the number of people in that group.AR = 25/500 = 0.05

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 22-year-old with a history of brittle asthma is brought to the ED...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old with a history of brittle asthma is brought to the ED by her partner. She is wheezing and very short of breath and her condition is deteriorating rapidly. Following a series of nebulisations, hydrocortisone and IV magnesium sulphate, she is taken to resus and the intensive care team is called to review her. She is severely hypoxic and confused and a decision is made to intubate her.Which of these drugs is ideal as an induction agent in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ketamine

      Explanation:

      Only about 2% of asthma attacks requires intubation and most severe cases are managed with non-invasive ventilation techniques.Though life-saving in the crashing asthmatic, intubation in asthmatic patients is associated with significant morbidity and mortality and is risky. Indications for intubation in asthmatic patients include:Severe hypoxiaAltered mental stateRespiratory or cardiac arrestFailure to respond to medicationsKetamine (1-2 mg/kg) is the preferred induction agent. It has bronchodilatory properties and does not cause hypotension. Propofol poses a risk of hypotension but can also be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 54-year-old man returns from a recently holiday on a cruise ship with...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man returns from a recently holiday on a cruise ship with a dry cough and a fever. Today he has also had several episodes of diarrhoea and has developed bilateral pleuritic chest pain. He states that he is short of breath, most notably on exertion. He had been prescribed amoxicillin by the cruise ship doctor a few days earlier but has not seen any improvement.Which of the following is the most likely causative organism? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Legionella pneumophila

      Explanation:

      Legionella pneumophilais a Gram negative bacterium that is found in natural water supplies and in the soil, transmitted predominantly via inhalation of aerosols generated from contaminated water (direct person-to-person spread of infected patients does not occur). It is the cause of Legionnaires’ disease. Outbreaks of Legionnaires’ disease have been linked to poorly maintained air conditioning systems, whirlpool spas and hot tubs.The clinical features of the pneumonic form of Legionnaires’ disease include:Mild flu-like prodrome for 1-3 daysCough (usually non-productive and occurs in approximately 90%)Pleuritic chest painHaemoptysisHeadacheNausea, vomiting and diarrhoeaAnorexiaLegionella pneumophilainfections can be successfully treated with macrolide antibiotics, such as erythromycin, or quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin. Tetracyclines, such as doxycycline, can also be used.The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) can occur with Legionnaires’ disease and will result in hyponatraemia as is seen in this case.Legionella pneumophilainfections are resistant to amoxicillin but can be successfully treated with macrolide antibiotics, such as erythromycin, or quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin. Tetracyclines, such as doxycycline, can also be used. The majority of cases of Legionnaires’ disease are caused by Legionella pneumophila, however many other species of Legionella have been identified.Legionella longbeachae is another less commonly encountered species that has also been implicated in outbreaks. It is predominantly found in soil and potting compost, and has caused outbreaks of Pontiac fever, the non-respiratory and less severe variant of Legionnaires’ disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - You suspect that your patient with polycystic kidney disease has developed a berry...

    Incorrect

    • You suspect that your patient with polycystic kidney disease has developed a berry aneurysm as a complication of his disease. The patient complains of a sudden, severe headache. You are guessing subarachnoid haemorrhage secondary to a ruptured berry aneurysm as the cause of his severe headaches. What is the most likely location of his aneurysm?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior communicating artery

      Explanation:

      One of the complications that polycystic kidney disease may cause is the development of a brain aneurysm. A berry aneurysm is the most common type of brain aneurysm. The Circle of Willis, where the major blood vessels meet at the base of the brain, is where it usually appears. The most common junctions of the Circle of Willis where an aneurysm may occur include the anterior communicating artery (35%), internal carotid artery (30%), the posterior communicating artery and the middle cerebral artery (22%), and finally, the posterior circulation sites, most commonly the basilar artery tip.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The first line drug for oral candidiasis is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The first line drug for oral candidiasis is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nystatin

      Explanation:

      Treatment for oral candidiasis is with nystatin mouthwash. In unresponsive cases, oral fluconazole is used

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following pathogens is the common cause of diarrhoea in a...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following pathogens is the common cause of diarrhoea in a patient who has had a prolonged course of a broad spectrum of antibiotics?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clostridium difficile

      Explanation:

      Clostridium difficile is the most likely cause of diarrhoea after a long course of broad-spectrum antibiotic treatment. Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhoea appeared to be linked to an increase in the usage of third-generation cephalosporins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following is NOT a common side effect of diazepam: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a common side effect of diazepam:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bradycardia

      Explanation:

      Adverse effects include:Drowsiness and lightheadednessConfusion and ataxia (especially in the elderly), amnesia, muscle weaknessHeadache, vertigo, tremor, dysarthria, hypotension, decreased libido, erectile dysfunction, gynaecomastia, urinary retentionParadoxical effects such as talkativeness, excitement, irritability, aggression, anti-social behaviour, and suicidal ideationWithdrawal symptoms, for example anxiety, depression, anorexia, impaired concentration, insomnia, abdominal cramps, palpitations, tremor, tinnitus and perceptual disturbancesTolerance and dependence (people who use benzodiazepines longer term can develop tolerance and eventual dependence)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Regarding carbon dioxide transport in the blood, which of the following statements is...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding carbon dioxide transport in the blood, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Deoxygenated haemoglobin acts as a buffer for H+ ions.

      Explanation:

      CO2generated in the tissues and water combine to form carbonic acid which readily dissociates to form HCO3-and H+. The first part of this reaction is very slow in plasma, but is accelerated dramatically by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase present in red blood cells. Bicarbonate is therefore formed preferentially in red cells, from which it freely diffuses down its concentration gradient into plasma where it is transported to the lungs. The red cell membrane is impermeable to H+ions which remain in the cell. To maintain electroneutrality, Cl-ions diffuse into the cell to replace HCO3-, an effect known as the chloride shift. Deoxygenated haemoglobin acts as a buffer for H+, allowing the reaction to continue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Where: Capillary hydrostatic pressure is (P c) Hydrostatic pressure in the interstices is (P I...

    Incorrect

    • Where: Capillary hydrostatic pressure is (P c) Hydrostatic pressure in the interstices is (P I )Plasma oncotic pressure is (π p) Interstitial oncotic pressure is (π i)Which of the following formulas best represents fluid flow at the capillary bed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Volume / min = (P c - P i ) - (π p - π i )

      Explanation:

      Starling’s equation for fluid filtration describes fluid flow at the capillary bed.Filtration forces (capillary hydrostatic pressure and interstitial oncotic pressure) stimulate fluid movement out of the capillary, while resorption forces promote fluid movement into the capillary (interstitial hydrostatic pressure and plasma oncotic pressure). Although the forces fluctuate along the length of the capillary bed, overall filtration is achieved.At the capillary bed, there is fluid movement.The reflection coefficient (σ), the surface area accessible (S), and the hydraulic conductance of the wall (Lp) are frequently used to account for the endothelium’s semi-permeability, yielding:Volume / min = LpS [(Pc- Pi) –  σ(πp– πi)]Volume /min = (Pc-Pi) – (πp–πi) describes the fluid circulation at the capillaries.Where:Pc= capillary hydrostatic pressurePi= interstitial hydrostatic pressureπp= plasma oncotic pressureπi= interstitial oncotic pressure

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Physiology
      • Physiology
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  • Question 20 - A 72-year-old man presents with chest pain that is characteristic of angina. You...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents with chest pain that is characteristic of angina. You administer a dose of glyceryl trinitrate (GTN), which rapidly resolved his symptoms. Unfortunately, he also develops an unpleasant side effect.Which of the following side effects is he most likely to have developed? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Headache

      Explanation:

      Nitrates are used in the treatment of angina pectoris and the prevention of myocardial ischaemia. Commonly used examples of nitrates are glyceryl trinitrate and isosorbide dinitrate. Unwanted effects, however, are common and can limit therapy, particularly when angina is severe or when patients are unusually sensitive to the effects of nitrates.The following are common or very common side effects of nitratesArrhythmiasAstheniaCerebral ischaemiaDizzinessDrowsinessFlushingHeadacheHypotensionNausea and vomitingDiarrhoea, syncope and cyanosis can occur, but these are rare side effects. Dry eyes, bradycardia and metabolic acidosis have not been reported.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 21 - Regarding iron handling, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding iron handling, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Iron is taken across the enterocyte apical membrane by the divalent metal transporter (DMT1).

      Explanation:

      Dietary iron may be in the form of haem or non-haem iron. Haem iron is degraded after absorption through the cell surface to release Fe2+. Most non-haem iron is in the form Fe3+, which is reduced at the luminal surface to the more soluble Fe2+, facilitated by hydrochloric acid in gastric secretions (and enhanced by ascorbic acid). Fe2+is taken across the enterocyte apical membrane by the divalent metal transporter (DMT1). In the enterocyte, Fe2+is then either stored in enterocyte epithelial cells as ferritin, or released into portal plasma via the molecule ferroportin at the basolateral membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
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  • Question 22 - Which of the following side effects has limited the use of etomidate as...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following side effects has limited the use of etomidate as an intravenous induction agent:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adrenocortical suppression

      Explanation:

      Etomidate causes the least cardiovascular depression of the intravenous induction agents, with only a small reduction in the cardiac output and blood pressure. In the past, etomidate was widely used to induce anaesthesia in the shocked, elderly or cardiovascularly unstable patient. However, more recently it has become less popular as a single induction dose blocks the normal stress-induced increase in adrenal cortisol production for 4 – 8 hours, and up to 24 hours in elderly and debilitated patients. Although no increase in mortality has been identified following a single dose during induction of anaesthesia, the use of etomidate has declined due to a perceived potential morbidity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 23 - Which of the following statements about lithium treatment is FALSE: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about lithium treatment is FALSE:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Concomitant treatment with NSAIDs decreases serum-lithium concentration.

      Explanation:

      Lithium levels are raised by NSAIDs because renal clearance is reduced. Lithium is a small ion (74 Daltons) with no protein or tissue binding and is therefore amenable to haemodialysis. Lithium is freely distributed throughout total body water with a volume of distribution between 0.6 to 0.9 L/kg, although the volume may be smaller in the elderly, who have less lean body mass and less total body water. Steady-state serum levels are typically reached within five days at the usual oral dose of 1200 to 1800 mg/day. The half-life for lithium is approximately 18 hours in adults and 36 hours in the elderly.Lithium is excreted almost entirely by the kidneys and is handled in a manner similar to sodium. Lithium is freely filtered but over 60 percent is then reabsorbed by the proximal tubules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 24 - The resting membrane potential of a neurone is usually about: ...

    Incorrect

    • The resting membrane potential of a neurone is usually about:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: -70 mV

      Explanation:

      In most neurones the resting potential has a value of approximately -70 mV. The threshold potential is generally around -55 mV. Initial depolarisation occurs as a result of a Na+influx through ligand-gated Na+channels. Action potential is an all or nothing response; because the size of the action potential is constant, the intensity of the stimulus is coded by the frequency of firing of a neuron. Repolarisation occurs primarily due to K+efflux.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      0
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  • Question 25 - After reviewing a child with respiratory distress who presented to the clinic, you...

    Incorrect

    • After reviewing a child with respiratory distress who presented to the clinic, you make a diagnosis of bronchiolitis.What is the most common causative organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Respiratory syncitial virus

      Explanation:

      Bronchiolitis is a common respiratory infection that occurs in infancy between the ages of 3-6 months and in the winter months. It is most commonly caused by the respiratory syncytial virus (70% of cases)Although it can also be caused by parainfluenza virus, adenovirus, coronavirus, rhinovirus, and influenza virus, these are not the most common causes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      0
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  • Question 26 - Which ONE statement about homeostasis is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which ONE statement about homeostasis is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Negative feedback occurs via receptors, comparators and effectors

      Explanation:

      Homeostasis is the property of a system in which variables are regulated so that internal conditions remain relatively constant and stable. Homeostasis is achieved by a negative feedback mechanism.Negative feedback occurs based upon a set point through receptors, comparators and effectors. The ‘set point’ is a NARROW range of values within which normal function occurs.The two body systems that regulate homeostasis are the Nervous system and the Endocrine system. The smooth muscle of the uterus becomes more active towards the end of pregnancy. This is a POSITIVE feedback.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
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  • Question 27 - Red cell protein expression is induced by which of the following pathogens: ...

    Incorrect

    • Red cell protein expression is induced by which of the following pathogens:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Plasmodium falciparum

      Explanation:

      Plasmodium falciparum induces the expression of red cell protein, making cerebral malaria more severe. Bacteria may invade a host passively through micro traumata or macro traumata in the skin or mucosa. On the other hand, bacteria that invadethrough intact mucosa first, adhere to this anatomical barrier, then activelybreach it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles
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  • Question 28 - A 74-year-old woman with a history of ischaemic heart disease and heart failure...

    Incorrect

    • A 74-year-old woman with a history of ischaemic heart disease and heart failure is complaining of worsening oedema, bloating, and a loss of appetite. She has ascites and peripheral oedema on examination. Her oedema is being controlled by an oral diuretic, but it appears that this is no longer enough. You discuss her care with the on-call cardiology registrar, who believes she is very likely to have significant gut oedema that is interfering with her diuretic absorption and that she will need to change her medication.Which of the following oral diuretics is most likely to help you overcome this problem?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bumetanide

      Explanation:

      Bumetanide is primarily used in patients with heart failure who have failed to respond to high doses of furosemide. Bumetanide and furosemide differ primarily in terms of bioavailability and pharmacodynamic potency. In the intestine, furosemide is only partially absorbed, with a bioavailability of 40-50 percent. Bumetanide, on the other hand, is almost completely absorbed in the intestine and has a bioavailability of about 80%. As a result, when it has a better bioavailability than furosemide, it is commonly used in patients with gut oedema.When taken alone, Bendroflumethiazide is a moderately potent diuretic that is unlikely to control her oedema.Mannitol is a type of osmotic diuretic used to treat cerebral oedema and high intracranial pressure.Acetazolamide is a weak diuretic that inhibits carbonic anhydrase. It’s a rare occurrence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 29 - When there is the presence of distended and engorged veins in the umbilical...

    Incorrect

    • When there is the presence of distended and engorged veins in the umbilical area, which of the following portosystemic anastomoses has most likely occurred?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Para-umbilical veins and inferior epigastric vein

      Explanation:

      Caput medusae is a condition that consists of collateral veins radiating from the umbilicus and results from recanalization of the umbilical vein.Under normal conditions, the portal venous blood traverses the liver and drains into the inferior vena cava of the systemic venous circulation by way of the hepatic veins. This is the direct route. However, other, smaller communications exist between the portal and systemic systems, and they become important when the direct route becomes blocked. These communications are as follows:At the lower third of the oesophagus, the oesophageal branches of the left gastric vein (portal tributary) anastomose with the oesophageal veins draining the middle third of the oesophagus into the azygos veins (systemic tributary).Halfway down the anal canal, the superior rectal veins (portal tributary) draining the upper half of the anal canal anastomosis with the middle and inferior rectal veins (systemic tributaries), which are tributaries of the internal iliac and internal pudendal veins, respectively.The paraumbilical veins connect the left branch of the portal vein with the superficial veins of the anterior abdominal wall (systemic tributaries). The paraumbilical veins travel in the falciform ligament and accompany the ligamentum teres.The veins of the ascending colon, descending colon, duodenum, pancreas, and liver (portal tributary) anastomose with the renal, lumbar, and phrenic veins (systemic tributaries).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
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  • Question 30 - All of the following statements are considered true regarding L'Abbe plots, except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are considered true regarding L'Abbe plots, except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treatment group results are plotted on the horizontal axis

      Explanation:

      A L’Abbé plot is a scatter plot with the risk in the control group on the x-axis and the risk in the experimental group on the y-axis. It can be used to evaluate heterogeneity in meta-analysis. Furthermore, this plot can aid to choose a summary measure (odds ratio, risk ratio, risk difference) that will result in more consistent results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anaesthesia (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (4/5) 80%
Infections (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Endocrine (1/1) 100%
Physiology (1/1) 100%
Fluids And Electrolytes (1/1) 100%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Pathology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Passmed