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  • Question 1 - A 45-year-old female patient was started on an antipsychotic medication for the first...

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    • A 45-year-old female patient was started on an antipsychotic medication for the first time. She presented with fluctuating blood pressure, hyperthermia, confusion, urinary incontinence, and elevated levels of creatinine kinase. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

      Explanation:

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a serious and potentially fatal complication of neuroleptic treatment that is characterized by hyperthermia, rigidity, confusion, diaphoresis, autonomic instability, elevated creatinine phosphokinase, and leukocytosis. It can occur at any time during antipsychotic treatment and is often misdiagnosed as an exacerbation of psychosis. Therefore, it is crucial to accurately diagnose NMS.

      Dystonias are abnormal movements of postures caused by brief of prolonged muscle contractions, including oculogyric crisis, tongue protrusion, trismus, torticollis, laryngeal pharyngeal dystonias, and dystonic postures of limbs and trunk.

      Symptoms of parkinsonism include muscle stiffness (lead pipe rigidity), cogwheel rigidity, shuffling gait, stooped posture, and drooling. The pill rolling tremor of idiopathic parkinsonism is rare, but a regular coarse tremor similar to essential tremor may be present.

      Tardive dyskinesia is a delayed effect of antipsychotics that rarely occurs until after six months of treatment. Tardive dystonia is a form of drug-induced secondary dystonia.

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  • Question 2 - Which statement below best describes Cotard's syndrome? ...

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    • Which statement below best describes Cotard's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Has an insidious onset

      Correct Answer: Occurs mostly in elderly age group

      Explanation:

      Cotard’s syndrome is a disorder characterized by sudden onset of nihilistic delusions, including beliefs of poverty, negation, and meaninglessness. Hypochondriacal delusions and feelings of guilt may also be present. This condition is more prevalent in elderly individuals and females, and is often associated with depression and organic illnesses.

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  • Question 3 - A 45-year-old man presents with a persistent abnormal movement of his neck. He...

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    • A 45-year-old man presents with a persistent abnormal movement of his neck. He experiences opisthotonos, retrocollis and mild blepharospasm, which worsen when walking of stressed and are not alleviated by alcohol. He has a history of paranoid schizophrenia for the past eight years and has been treated with various antipsychotics. Currently, he is stable on clozapine. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tardive dystonia

      Explanation:

      The symptoms described are consistent with tardive dystonia, which is commonly observed in younger patients who have been exposed to neuroleptic medication. Orofacial dyskinesia is more frequently seen in older patients. The symptoms do not suggest Huntington’s chorea of non-epileptic seizures, as the latter typically do not persist. Friedreich’s ataxia typically presents with muscle weakness and lack of coordination. Tourette’s syndrome is unlikely to cause such severe motor neurological symptoms.

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  • Question 4 - You observe a 42-year-old woman with delusions referred by her primary care physician....

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    • You observe a 42-year-old woman with delusions referred by her primary care physician. She is convinced that George Clooney is deeply in love with her. Over the past two months, she has attempted to send him 50 handwritten letters, along with numerous gifts. She frequently visits locations associated with the actor and places where he is attending public events. She believes that he is unable to express his true feelings for her due to the potential backlash from his wife and fans. What syndrome is being exhibited in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Othello's syndrome

      Correct Answer: De Clérambault's syndrome

      Explanation:

      De Clérambault’s syndrome is characterized by amorous delusions where the patient believes that a person of higher social status, often a public figure, is in love with them. These delusions are not based on any actual contact of encouragement from the subject. Patients with this syndrome may also experience delusions of persecution. Due to their strong belief in the reality of their delusions, patients often lack insight and may not seek help. Treatment can include psychotherapy and antipsychotics. Other syndromes with delusional symptoms include Capgras syndrome, Cotard’s syndrome, Ekbom’s syndrome, and Othello’s syndrome.

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  • Question 5 - A middle-aged man named John presents to the Emergency department with self-harm. The...

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    • A middle-aged man named John presents to the Emergency department with self-harm. The trigger for this was his wife asking him for a divorce.
      John informs you that he could have been a successful businessman himself had he chosen and wants to know your exact income. He then asks to speak to your supervisor instead, and when you explain this is not possible, he refuses to continue the interview, saying that he is a financial expert and can be treated only by professionals.
      His wife, who brought him in, explains that she can no longer cope with the patient's selfishness and lack of consideration. Things came to a head last night when she was upset and was crying. John stormed into her room to complain that the noise was keeping him awake. He then accused his wife of doing this purposively because she envied John's financial success. One of her friends went to college with John and says he has always been like this.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Narcissistic personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Based on the collateral history provided, it is more likely that the individual is exhibiting a personality disorder rather than a mental illness. Specifically, the DSM-IV diagnostic criteria for narcissistic personality disorder may be applicable. This disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of grandiosity, a need for admiration, and a lack of empathy, which typically begins in early adulthood and is present in various contexts. To meet the diagnostic criteria, an individual must exhibit at least five of the following: a grandiose sense of self-importance, preoccupation with fantasies of unlimited success of power, a belief that they are special and unique, a need for excessive admiration, a sense of entitlement, interpersonal exploitation, a lack of empathy, envy of others, and arrogant or haughty behaviors or attitudes.

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  • Question 6 - What is the probable diagnosis for an adult physicist who avoids teaching and...

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    • What is the probable diagnosis for an adult physicist who avoids teaching and publishing, is known for walking barefoot and dressing casually, and prefers solitude over socializing with colleagues and students?

      Your Answer: Schizotypal personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Schizoid personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Schizoid personality disorder is a personality disorder that is only recognized in the ICD-10. It is characterized by a lack of enjoyment in activities, emotional detachment, difficulty expressing emotions, indifference to praise of criticism, little interest in sexual experiences, a preference for solitary activities, excessive introspection, a lack of close relationships, and insensitivity to social norms. When diagnosing this disorder, it is important to differentiate it from an autistic spectrum disorder. One way to do this is to look for a lack of reliance on routines and rituals, as well as a lack of desire for friendship of relationships. While individuals with an autistic spectrum disorder may struggle with relationships, they typically desire them and experience feelings of loneliness.

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  • Question 7 - Which of the following statements is true about OCD? ...

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    • Which of the following statements is true about OCD?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Can be diagnosed in the presence of delusions and hallucinations

      Explanation:

      According to current diagnostic criteria in both the ICD-10 and DSM IV, OCD can co-occur with psychotic disorders. OCD is a chronic and debilitating disorder characterized by intrusive and distressing obsessions and/of compulsions that cause significant distress to the individual and their loved ones. Obsessions are recurrent and unpleasant thoughts, images, of impulses, while compulsions are repetitive behaviors that a person feels compelled to perform. These behaviors are often ritualistic and follow intrusive thoughts, with resistance to carrying out compulsions resulting in increased anxiety. Patients with OCD typically recognize that their obsessions and compulsions are irrational and experience them as ego dystonic. While an obsessional personality is over-represented among OCD patients, about a third of patients have other types of personality. While magnetic resonance imaging has not revealed any consistent structural brain abnormality specific to OCD patients, studies using SPECT and PET have shown increased activity in certain brain regions, such as the frontal lobe and orbitofrontal activity. Contrary to Freud’s theory, OCD has been linked to anal fixation rather than oedipal fixation, with obsessional symptoms occurring as a way of avoiding impulses related to the subsequent genital and oedipal stages.

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  • Question 8 - A 36-year-old woman presents to her doctor and reports feeling anxious and self-conscious...

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    • A 36-year-old woman presents to her doctor and reports feeling anxious and self-conscious in social situations, particularly at work meetings where she worries that her colleagues view her as unintelligent of uninteresting. Despite no one ever expressing such opinions to her, she avoids social gatherings such as football games, pubs, and family events. She notes that this has been a lifelong issue, but has become more severe since starting her current job with frequent meetings. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Social phobia

      Explanation:

      An Overview of Anxiety Disorders

      Anxiety disorders are a group of mental health conditions that are characterised by excessive and persistent feelings of fear, worry, and apprehension. There are several types of anxiety disorders, each with its own unique set of symptoms and diagnostic criteria.

      Social phobia, also known as social anxiety disorder, is characterised by intermittent anxiety that is associated with specific social situations. Individuals with social phobia often feel the need to perform of fear being scrutinised in these situations, leading to avoidance as a maladaptive coping strategy.

      Generalised anxiety disorder, on the other hand, is characterised by persistent free-floating anxiety that is not necessarily tied to any specific situation of trigger.

      Paranoid personality disorder is not typically associated with anxiety as a key feature, although individuals with this condition may experience other symptoms such as suspiciousness and mistrust.

      In contrast, paranoid schizophrenia may involve self-referential delusions, although the cognitive distortions seen in social phobia are not considered delusional.

      Finally, specific phobia is a category of anxiety disorders that involves intense fear of anxiety in response to a specific object of situation, such as heights of spiders.

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  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old individual presents with symptoms consistent with social anxiety disorder. To further...

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    • A 35-year-old individual presents with symptoms consistent with social anxiety disorder. To further assess their condition, you inquire about their seating preference when dining out.

      Which of the following responses would best support your suspicion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In a quiet corner

      Explanation:

      Individuals with social phobia experience anxiety and apprehension regarding the possibility of receiving unfavorable attention from others, leading them to avoid eating in public.

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  • Question 10 - A 37-year-old woman is experiencing constant fatigue~ sadness~ and tearfulness~ as well as...

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    • A 37-year-old woman is experiencing constant fatigue~ sadness~ and tearfulness~ as well as poor sleep. These symptoms have been present for the past 3 months. She recently delivered her third child 4 months ago. She has lost interest in socializing~ work~ and sex~ and feels guilty for not being able to feel happy despite having a healthy baby and a supportive family. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Postpartum depression

      Explanation:

      It is highly probable that the individual is experiencing postpartum depression, as all the symptoms are characteristic and have manifested within a year of giving birth. While the ‘baby blues’ is a brief and immediate response, postnatal depression typically develops within two to three months after delivery.

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  • Question 11 - A 79-year-old man has been out of contact with his daughter for several...

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    • A 79-year-old man has been out of contact with his daughter for several weeks whilst she has been on vacation. Upon her return, she finds him confused and unclothed on the couch in his apartment. He is unsteady on his feet and unable to recall how long he has been there, suggesting that he has also just returned from vacation. He points to rats on the floor of his apartment, which his daughter cannot see. He is taken to the hospital, where he is diagnosed with ataxia and ophthalmoplegia. Which of the following conditions would make this man more susceptible to the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alcohol dependence

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms is alcohol dependence, which can lead to a depletion of B1 stores and result in Wernicke’s encephalopathy. While hypertension and type 2 diabetes are risk factors for vascular disease, they typically present with focal neurological signs rather than confusion. The patient’s triad of confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia, along with visual hallucinations and confabulation, suggest a Korsakoff’s psychosis, which can result from a thiamine deficiency. While anorexia nervosa can also cause B1 deficiency, it is an unlikely condition in an elderly gentleman, and other conditions causing malabsorption can also trigger Wernicke’s. While diabetics can experience delirium from low blood sugars and infections, the specific symptoms described here are not typical of these causes. While people with learning difficulties may be more prone to delirium with concurrent illness, it is not likely to cause the specific triad of symptoms seen in this patient.

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  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old woman presents with unexplained weight loss and various medical tests have...

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    • A 25-year-old woman presents with unexplained weight loss and various medical tests have been inconclusive. You suspect she may be suffering from an eating disorder. Which of the following statements regarding anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In anorexia nervosa body weight is significantly reduced, but in bulimia nervosa it is often normal

      Explanation:

      Eating disorders are serious mental health conditions that can have severe physical consequences. Anorexia nervosa is diagnosed when a person has a BMI less than 17.5 kg/m2, self-induced weight loss, body image distortion, and abnormalities of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis. On the other hand, bulimia nervosa is diagnosed when a person experiences recurrent episodes of binge eating and recurrent inappropriate compensatory behavior to prevent weight gain, occurring more than twice weekly for three months. Unlike anorexia nervosa, there is no diagnostic requirement for weight loss in bulimia nervosa. Both conditions are characterized by a preoccupation with shape and weight, and obtaining a reliable dietary history from the patient is unlikely. A key feature of bulimia nervosa is a feeling of loss of control during binge eating episodes.

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  • Question 13 - A 45-year-old male alcoholic presents to the Emergency department with symptoms of ataxia,...

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    • A 45-year-old male alcoholic presents to the Emergency department with symptoms of ataxia, abnormal eye movements, confusion, and signs of dehydration. He also has a low blood sugar level. What is the initial treatment that should be given to this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thiamine IV, IV replacement of other vitamins, then both orally thereafter

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a medical emergency that requires immediate replacement of thiamine. The preferred route of administration is intravenous (IV). It is important to note that correcting hypoglycemia should not be attempted before thiamine replenishment, as a large dose of sugar, especially glucose, can worsen the encephalopathy. Rehydration to restore blood volume should follow as needed.

      In the UK, Pabrinex is the usual treatment for thiamine replacement, which also contains vitamins B2, B3, B6, and C. Parenteral treatment is given for at least 5 days. The prognosis depends on the severity of the condition. Early treatment leads to rapid and complete recovery. However, established Wernicke’s encephalopathy can have serious long-term consequences, and patients may require permanent inpatient care.

      Source: https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/cg100/chapter/Recommendations#wernickes-encephalopathy
      https://academic.oup.com/alcalc/article/48/4/514/533760

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  • Question 14 - Which of the following diagnostic characteristics is most strongly linked to schizophrenia? ...

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    • Which of the following diagnostic characteristics is most strongly linked to schizophrenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Running commentary' hallucinations

      Explanation:

      Somatisation is a clinical feature that can be present in a variety of disorders and is not exclusive to schizophrenia. Delusions of guilt and grandeur are more commonly associated with affective psychosis, while running commentary is a classic symptom of schizophrenia and is given diagnostic significance in ICD-10.

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  • Question 15 - Which of the following is indicative of a hypomanic episode in an individual...

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    • Which of the following is indicative of a hypomanic episode in an individual diagnosed with bipolar disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Disturbance of psychosocial function

      Explanation:

      Hypomania is a milder form of mania (F30.1) that lacks hallucinations of delusions but still presents persistent and noticeable changes in mood and behavior that exceed those seen in cyclothymia (F34.0). To diagnose hypomania, these features must be present for several consecutive days and cause significant interference with work of social activity. However, if the disruption is severe of complete, mania (F30.1 of F30.2) should be considered instead.

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  • Question 16 - In your clinic, a 25-year-old female patient presents with a frequent history of...

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    • In your clinic, a 25-year-old female patient presents with a frequent history of wrist cutting. Upon evaluation, you determine that she has a personality disorder. What specific type of personality disorder is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Anankastic personality disorder is a personality disorder characterized by a preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control. It falls under cluster C personality disorders according to DSM-IV classification.

      Deliberate self-harm is commonly associated with cluster B personality disorders. In the United Kingdom, poisoning by drugs accounts for 90% of deliberate self-harm cases, while wrist cutting accounts for 6-7%, and all other methods combined account for 3-4%. Frequent wrist cutting can be a part of recurrent suicidal gestures seen in individuals with depressive disorder, schizophrenia, and borderline personality disorder.

      The reasons for wrist cutting are varied and complex, including a means of punishment oneself, reducing tension, feeling bodily instead of emotional pain, wishing to die, testing the benevolence of fate, seeking an interruption to an unendurable state of tension, crying for help, communicating with others, and unbearable symptoms.

      Borderline personality disorder (BPD) is characterized by impulsive acts, mood instability, and chaotic relationships. Individuals with BPD are impulsive in areas that have a potential for self-harm and exhibit recurrent suicidal gestures such as wrist cutting, overdose, of self-mutilation.

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  • Question 17 - What is a common compulsion that may be present in individuals with OCD?...

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    • What is a common compulsion that may be present in individuals with OCD?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Checking locks

      Explanation:

      The typical compulsive behaviors in OCD involve checking locks, taps, and safety issues, which serve to alleviate anxiety and reinforce the behavior. Breath-holding is not a common manifestation of OCD, nor is hand-wringing of stepping on cracks in the pavement. While fear of contamination is a common obsession, it is not a compulsion in and of itself. Instead, the compulsion typically involves behaviors aimed at avoiding contamination.

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  • Question 18 - A 45-year-old woman is in a car accident where several individuals lose their...

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    • A 45-year-old woman is in a car accident where several individuals lose their lives. Although she is not physically harmed, she experiences a sense of detachment, confusion, and disorientation in the days that ensue, along with physical symptoms of trembling and perspiration. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute stress disorder

      Explanation:

      Acute stress disorder is a brief yet intense condition triggered by a highly distressing event that can cause a range of symptoms. Although the symptoms can appear quickly, they typically subside within a few days. These symptoms may include psychological effects like feeling disconnected of confused, as well as physical symptoms such as sweating, trembling, heart palpitations, and difficulty sleeping. In some cases, individuals may progress to develop post-traumatic stress disorder.

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  • Question 19 - Which of the subsequent options is not classified as a personality disorder in...

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    • Which of the subsequent options is not classified as a personality disorder in the ICD-10?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schizotypal

      Explanation:

      While schizotypal personality disorder is included in the DSM, it is not listed as a separate diagnosis in the ICD-10. Instead, it is classified under the umbrella of schizophrenia. However, all of the other personality disorders mentioned are recognized in both the ICD-10 and DSM.

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  • Question 20 - A teenage girl refuses to attend social events with her peers due to...

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    • A teenage girl refuses to attend social events with her peers due to her fear of having bad breath, even though others have told her she does not have it. She insists on staying home alone. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Taijin-jikoshu-kyofu

      Explanation:

      Culture-bound syndromes are conditions that are specific to certain cultures and are often accompanied by culturally accepted beliefs and practices for treatment. These syndromes may not fit into the diagnostic criteria of Western medicine and are often unique to certain regions of ethnic groups. Examples of culture-bound syndromes include Taijin-jikoshu-kyofu in Japan, Piblokto in the Arctic, Koro in Malaysia, Locura among Latinos in the United States and Latin America, and Susto among Latinos in the United States and in Mexico, Central America, and South America. These syndromes are often associated with social and cultural factors and may require culturally sensitive approaches to treatment.

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  • Question 21 - You receive a call from a fellow physician who is worried she might...

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    • You receive a call from a fellow physician who is worried she might be experiencing panic disorder. What symptom is most indicative of this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Episodic anxiety

      Explanation:

      Panic disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by sudden and intense episodes of anxiety that often occur without warning. Physical symptoms such as palpitations and dizziness are common during these episodes. Fear of collapsing of dying is a common psychological symptom associated with this disorder. Free-floating anxiety is a feature of generalized anxiety disorder, while situational anxiety is more characteristic of specific phobic anxiety. The International Classification of Diseases (ICD-10) classifies panic disorder as F41.0, also known as episodic paroxysmal anxiety.

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  • Question 22 - As the liaison psychiatry doctor on-call, you are requested to assess a 42-year-old...

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    • As the liaison psychiatry doctor on-call, you are requested to assess a 42-year-old male patient in the early hours of the morning on a general medical ward. He was admitted with pancreatitis twelve hours ago and has been medically cleared. The patient has no significant past medical of psychiatric history, but he has become paranoid and delusional, believing that there are bugs crawling under his skin. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Delirium tremens (DTs)

      Explanation:

      The presence of acute psychosis, visual hallucinations, and formications in an individual with pancreatitis likely caused by alcohol suggests severe alcohol withdrawal of DTs, which should have been prevented with prophylactic treatment using Librium (chlordiazepoxide). Schizophrenia is improbable due to the patient’s age, sudden onset of symptoms, and lack of first rank symptoms. Korsakoff’s of amnesic syndrome typically precedes Wernicke’s, and parenteral Pabrinex (thiamine) is usually administered prophylactically. Since the patient was an inpatient, it is unlikely that he had access to illicit drugs, and the absence of post-seizure psychosis rules out that possibility.

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  • Question 23 - A 42-year-old man presents with a potassium reading of 3.1 mmol/L. As there...

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    • A 42-year-old man presents with a potassium reading of 3.1 mmol/L. As there is no apparent cause, you schedule an appointment to conduct a thorough assessment. During the history-taking, you discover that he experiences strong cravings to consume large amounts of food and frequently engages in binge eating. He then takes laxatives but denies inducing vomiting. These episodes occur approximately three times per week, and his body mass index is 19.5 kg/m2. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Bulimia Nervosa

      Bulimia nervosa is the likely diagnosis for the patient, given her recurrent binges and use of laxatives to compensate for them. The DSM-IV criteria for bulimia nervosa require that these features occur more than twice weekly for three months. Weight loss is not a diagnostic requirement. In both anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa, self-worth is judged largely of exclusively in terms of shape and weight, and obtaining a reliable dietary history from the patient is unlikely. A key feature of bulimia nervosa is a feeling of loss of control during binge eating episodes.

      Paragraph spacing:

      Bulimia nervosa is the likely diagnosis for the patient, given her recurrent binges and use of laxatives to compensate for them. The DSM-IV criteria for bulimia nervosa require that these features occur more than twice weekly for three months. Weight loss is not a diagnostic requirement.

      In both anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa, self-worth is judged largely of exclusively in terms of shape and weight, and obtaining a reliable dietary history from the patient is unlikely.

      A key feature of bulimia nervosa is a feeling of loss of control during binge eating episodes.

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  • Question 24 - Based on the provided information, what is the probable diagnosis for Mr Smith's...

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    • Based on the provided information, what is the probable diagnosis for Mr Smith's previous mental health condition, given his lifelong tendencies towards perfectionism and high standards that have caused conflicts in his personal and professional life, as well as strained relationships with family members?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Obsessive-compulsive/anankastic personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The consistent and long-standing nature of this behavior suggests that it may be indicative of a personality of developmental disorder. According to the DSM-IV criteria for obsessive-compulsive personality disorder, individuals may exhibit a pervasive preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control in various contexts, often at the expense of flexibility, efficiency, and openness. To meet the criteria for this disorder, an individual must display at least four of the following behaviors: excessive concern with details, rules, lists, order, of schedules; perfectionism that interferes with task completion; excessive devotion to work and productivity; over-conscientiousness and inflexibility regarding morality, ethics, of values; difficulty discarding worthless objects; reluctance to delegate tasks of work with others; a miserly spending style; and rigidity and stubbornness.

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  • Question 25 - Mrs. Johnson is a 45-year-old woman who has been referred to you by...

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    • Mrs. Johnson is a 45-year-old woman who has been referred to you by her therapist. She has a history of pursuing over 40 cases against various individuals, services, and authorities. Many of these cases have been dismissed as frivolous.

      She works as a receptionist, but presents as someone capable of more challenging work. She reports being fired from several jobs due to discrimination and mistreatment.

      Mrs. Johnson is divorced, following her husband's infidelity. After the divorce, she told her children they could either continue to see her of their father. They chose to maintain a relationship with both parents, but Mrs. Johnson is unable to accept this.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paranoid personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The symptoms described in the scenario could be consistent with various diagnoses, but the most appropriate diagnosis is paranoid personality disorder. This disorder is characterized by several symptoms, including excessive sensitivity to setbacks, persistent grudges, distorted perceptions of others’ actions, a strong sense of personal rights, unfounded suspicions of infidelity, self-importance, and preoccupation with conspiracies.

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  • Question 26 - A 35-year-old firefighter comes to the hospital six weeks after responding to a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old firefighter comes to the hospital six weeks after responding to a major fire incident. He is worried that he might be suffering from post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD).
      What symptom would be the most indicative of this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flashbacks of the traumatic event

      Explanation:

      While EMDR can be beneficial for various disorders, its effectiveness does not hold any diagnostic significance for PTSD. The presence of flashbacks of distressing reliving experiences is the primary requirement for diagnosing PTSD, and other symptoms such as autonomic disturbance, avoidance of work, and increased sensitivity to noise are not necessary for diagnosis.

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  • Question 27 - A 68-year-old retired teacher was referred to your team by the liaison service...

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    • A 68-year-old retired teacher was referred to your team by the liaison service for further assessment following a recent episode of confusion during hospital admission for a surgical procedure. Her acute confusion was treated with haloperidol and she developed severe rigidity.
      The patient's family reported that she has been somewhat forgetful in the last 12-18 months. They also gave a longer history of disturbed sleep almost once a week, in which she screams and sometimes acts out her dreams. She herself was more troubled by 'tremors' and few episodes in evenings when she saw a 'strange army' in her lounge. On MMSE she scored 23/30.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lewy body dementia

      Explanation:

      Research has shown that there is a connection between idiopathic rapid eye movement (REM) sleep behavior disorder (IRBD) and the onset of neurodegenerative diseases that involve alpha synucleinopathy, such as Parkinson’s disease (PD), dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB), and multiple systems atrophy (MSA).

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  • Question 28 - A 45-year-old woman accompanied by her husband was seen by her GP. Over...

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    • A 45-year-old woman accompanied by her husband was seen by her GP. Over several months she had begun to hear voices. These voices could be heard at any time. Sometimes the voices would demand her to do things; sometimes they would hum of laugh. Over the months she had developed the notion that her husband was having an affair and was planning to leave her. In addition, she believed that she had a deadly illness and was unlikely to live for more than a year.

      The arguments that followed these 'ideas' had caused a huge rift between her and her husband, as he had been unable to convince her that they were not true. She had lost over a stone in weight, had become increasingly nervous and was neglecting her appearance. She had no known medical problems and was not taking any regular medication. She was a smoker of 10 cigarettes per day and drank 10 units of alcohol per week. She worked as a teacher, but had recently taken time off sick. She had a brother with schizophrenia, but there were no other known family illnesses.

      On examination, she appeared withdrawn and unkempt. She continued to fidget with her clothes and continually commented she could smell smoke. She was able to talk fluently about her childhood and university years which appeared to be happy times. The death of her father three years ago had been 'difficult'. She scored 28/30 on mini-mental state examination. Cranial nerve and peripheral nervous system examination did not reveal any abnormalities. An MRI scan of her brain was normal.

      What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paranoid schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      Paranoid Schizophrenia Diagnosis

      This patient’s symptoms include hearing hallucinatory voices that command him to do things of non-verbal forms such as humming of laughing. He also experiences delusions with a persecutory of jealousy theme, as well as hallucinations of smell, changes in weight, and neglect of personal hygiene. These symptoms are consistent with a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia.

      The patient’s clinical picture is dominated by fixed delusions, with less emphasis on mood changes, making diagnoses of psychotic depression and bipolar disease less likely. There is no evidence of epileptic-form activity of altered awareness during episodes of delusions or hallucinations.

      It is important to differentiate paranoid schizophrenia from other disorders, such as schizoid personality disorder, which is characterized by emotional coldness, detachment, limited capacity to express emotion, and subsequently, few friends of close relationships.

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  • Question 29 - A 72-year-old woman, with a lengthy history of alcohol misuse, presents in a...

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    • A 72-year-old woman, with a lengthy history of alcohol misuse, presents in a disorganized and bewildered state. She has significant difficulty maintaining her balance. What clinical manifestation would provide the strongest evidence for a diagnosis of Wernicke's encephalopathy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nystagmus and ataxia of gait

      Explanation:

      The typical symptoms of Wernicke’s encephalopathy include ophthalmoplegia (such as horizontal and vertical nystagmus, weakness of paralysis of the lateral rectus muscles, and weakness of paralysis of conjugate gaze), ataxia (primarily affecting stance of gait, often without clear intention tremor), and confusion. If a patient presents with drowsiness, jaundice, and metabolic flap, it may indicate hepatic encephalopathy. On the other hand, nystagmus and intention tremor are indicative of alcohol withdrawal.

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  • Question 30 - A 45-year-old woman presents to a dual-diagnosis outpatient clinic for psychiatric evaluation. She...

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    • A 45-year-old woman presents to a dual-diagnosis outpatient clinic for psychiatric evaluation. She reports an increase in her alcohol consumption over the past week due to frustration with her colleagues and partner. Over the past two weeks, she has been more productive at work, leading to conflicts with her colleagues whom she accuses of holding her back. She frequently argues with her partner, who accuses her of being too friendly with male colleagues. She has experienced similar episodes in the past, lasting about a month and occurring twice a year. During these times, she drinks more alcohol than usual as she finds it difficult to relax and fall asleep in the evenings. She is concerned that her alcohol consumption could have negative health consequences if this pattern continues. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type II bipolar affective disorder

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing a hypomanic episode, which is characterized by increased concentration, productivity, over-familiarity, possible increased sexual drive, and poor sleep. Her alcohol use is likely a result of her mood disturbance. Although she has shown increased irritability and alcohol consumption, she has been able to maintain her employment and there is no evidence of psychosis. Based on these symptoms, the patient can be diagnosed with hypomania, rather than cyclothymia of depressive disorder. It is common for individuals with bipolar affective disorder to have comorbid substance misuse. However, the patient’s alcohol use appears to be secondary to her disrupted sleep and other signs of mood disturbance, rather than harmful alcohol use disorder. It is important to note that the patient does not meet the criteria for type I bipolar disorder, as she has not experienced episodes of mania of severe disruption to social functioning.

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  • Question 31 - A 35-year-old man was at a concert when a firework exploded nearby. He...

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    • A 35-year-old man was at a concert when a firework exploded nearby. He was standing at the time and the force of the blast threw him to the ground. He suffered a broken arm and multiple cuts. Several people were killed and many others were injured.
      After four months, he experiences nightmares about the incident, struggles to sleep, has avoided going to concerts since, and jumps at sudden sounds. He often finds himself unable to stop thinking about what happened.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Post-traumatic stress disorder

      Explanation:

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a condition that develops in response to an exceptionally threatening of catastrophic event of situation, such as the one described above. It is only diagnosed if symptoms arise within six months of the traumatic event. The symptoms of PTSD can be categorized into three groups: re-experiencing the traumatic event (such as through nightmares of vivid thoughts), persistent avoidance of stimuli associated with the trauma, and persistent symptoms of increased arousal (such as difficulty sleeping of concentrating).

      Agoraphobia is a fear of being in situations of places from which escape is difficult, leading to avoidance of many situations and confinement to the home. This fear is typically triggered by situations such as crowds, public places, of traveling alone of away from home.

      Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by persistent anxiety that is not limited to any specific environmental circumstance. To receive this diagnosis, a patient must experience symptoms of anxiety on most days for several weeks of months, with evidence of impairment in important areas of functioning. However, this diagnosis is not appropriate for the scenario described above, as the anxiety is related to a specific event of trigger.

      Panic disorder involves sudden onset of severe anxiety, with at least three panic attacks experienced over a three-week period. Symptoms may include sweating, palpitations, shortness of breath, nausea, trembling, chest pain of discomfort, dizziness of lightheadedness, chills of hot flushes, fear of losing control of dying, paraesthesia, feeling of choking, and derealization or depersonalization.

      Social phobia is characterized by a marked fear of social situations in which embarrassment may occur, leading to avoidance of these situations.

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  • Question 32 - You are on call for a general medical ward and are asked to...

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    • You are on call for a general medical ward and are asked to evaluate a 45-year-old woman who has been experiencing intermittent confusion and aggression for the past three days. She recently recovered from a severe respiratory infection but has been experiencing 20-minute periods of lucidity and confusion, preceded by abdominal discomfort. There is no history of substance abuse of alcohol dependence, and all blood and urine tests have come back negative. A CT scan of her brain is normal, and she has not been taking her prescribed medication during her hospital stay. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Temporal lobe epilepsy

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Temporal Lobe Epilepsy

      Temporal lobe epilepsy, also known as complex partial seizures, is characterized by an aura of abdominal symptoms followed by altered consciousness and behavior. This episodic condition can occur rapidly. The presenting symptoms of this patient suggest an acute confusional state, ruling out antibiotic-induced psychosis, which is associated with ongoing antibiotic treatment. Delirium tremens, a severe form of alcohol withdrawal, is also unlikely. Early onset dementia cannot be associated with this presentation due to insufficient information. A differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms.

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  • Question 33 - A 62-year-old male with a prolonged history of alcohol abuse arrives at the...

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    • A 62-year-old male with a prolonged history of alcohol abuse arrives at the Emergency department displaying evident disorientation, a lateral gaze palsy, and lack of coordination. His blood alcohol concentration measures at 68 mg per 100 mls blood, while his electrolytes, complete blood count, and liver function tests appear normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wernicke's encephalopathy

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with confusion, eye signs (ophthalmoplegia of nystagmus), and an ataxic gait, Wernicke’s encephalopathy should be suspected. This serious, but reversible, condition is most commonly caused by alcohol dependence and is due to a lack of Vitamin B1 (thiamine). Acute alcohol intoxication is unlikely as the patient’s blood alcohol level is below the legal limit for driving. Amnesic syndrome is not the correct diagnosis as it is characterized by impairment of new learning without obvious confusion. Normal pressure hydrocephalus is characterized by urinary incontinence, gait disturbance, and cognitive decline. Subdural hematoma is not a likely diagnosis as there is no history of head injury.

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  • Question 34 - John is a 35-year-old businessman. He is seeking therapy for his anxiety and...

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    • John is a 35-year-old businessman. He is seeking therapy for his anxiety and the therapist is struggling to understand his constant need for attention and validation. They are also confused by his rapid mood swings, going from feeling hopeless and defeated to being overly confident and grandiose. He often shows up to sessions in flashy clothing and talks about his accomplishments and successes. His wife mentions that he has always been this way and that his charisma was what initially attracted her to him.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Histrionic personality disorder

      Explanation:

      John’s behavior is causing distress and impairment in his ability to participate in family therapy and may have contributed to his child’s depression. His behavior is consistent with histrionic personality disorder, which is only found in the ICD-10. This disorder is characterized by self-dramatization, exaggerated emotions, suggestibility, a shallow and unstable emotional state, a constant need for attention and excitement, inappropriate seductive behavior, and an excessive concern with physical appearance. Other associated features may include egocentricity, self-indulgence, a constant desire for appreciation, easily hurt feelings, and manipulative behavior to meet personal needs.

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  • Question 35 - A 12-year-old child has several tics. What is a characteristic symptom of Tourette's...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old child has several tics. What is a characteristic symptom of Tourette's syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vocal tics

      Explanation:

      Tourette’s syndrome, also known as combined vocal and motor tic disorder, is characterized by multiple motor tics and one of more vocal tics. Inattention may be present but is not a defining symptom. Coprophagia, of the act of eating feces, is not associated with Tourette’s syndrome and is more commonly seen in individuals with learning difficulties of chronic psychotic disorders. Glossolalia, of speaking in tongues, is not related to psychopathology and is not a feature of Tourette’s syndrome.

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  • Question 36 - You are asked to assist a middle-aged woman who is experiencing hyperventilation and...

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    • You are asked to assist a middle-aged woman who is experiencing hyperventilation and finger spasms. She has had multiple similar episodes in the past few weeks, both at home and at work. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Panic disorder

      Explanation:

      The symptoms described are consistent with panic disorder, as rapid hyperventilation and carpopedal spasm are common during panic attacks. Agoraphobia is not suggested as the episodes have occurred at home, ruling out the fear of leaving one’s safe space. Complex partial seizure is unlikely as there is no loss of consciousness. Generalized anxiety disorder is not a match as the anxiety is episodic. Social phobia is also unlikely as the symptoms do not align with this disorder.

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  • Question 37 - A concerned individual informs you that their 40-year-old friend has been housebound for...

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    • A concerned individual informs you that their 40-year-old friend has been housebound for the past year due to anxiety. The friend last went shopping a year ago and expressed feeling too nervous to leave the house again. The individual reports no knowledge of any panic attacks. The friend is now experiencing low mood and has begun to lose contact with friends. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Agoraphobia

      Explanation:

      Agoraphobia is the most probable diagnosis, even though not all individuals with agoraphobia experience panic attacks.

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  • Question 38 - A middle-aged individual reports regularly wearing their partner's clothing without feeling sexually aroused,...

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    • A middle-aged individual reports regularly wearing their partner's clothing without feeling sexually aroused, maintaining a positive relationship with their partner, and having no desire to permanently identify as the opposite gender. What diagnosis would be most appropriate for this individual's situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dual-role transvestism

      Explanation:

      Types of Gender and Sexual Identity

      Dual-role transvestism refers to the act of wearing clothing typically associated with the opposite sex without experiencing discomfort with one’s biological gender of a desire to permanently live as the opposite sex. This behavior is not accompanied by sexual arousal, which distinguishes it from fetishistic transvestism. Fetishistic transvestism, on the other hand, involves wearing clothing of the opposite sex for the purpose of sexual arousal. Transsexualism is a desire to live as a member of the opposite sex, often accompanied by discomfort with one’s biological gender and a desire for gender reassignment. Sexual dysfunction encompasses a range of difficulties with sexual desire and performance.

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  • Question 39 - Samantha is a middle-aged woman who has been brought to the Emergency department...

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    • Samantha is a middle-aged woman who has been brought to the Emergency department by her husband. He is concerned about her recent behavior and wants her to be evaluated by a medical professional.
      Samantha is initially resistant to speaking with you, stating that she only wants to speak with a specialist. She explains that she is a successful businesswoman and needs to be treated by someone who understands her unique needs. She is unsure why her husband has brought her in, but suspects that he is jealous of her success. As she speaks, she paces the room and is anxious to return to work.
      Her husband tells you that Samantha has been working long hours and has become increasingly irritable and demanding. She has been spending a lot of money on expensive clothes and accessories, and he recently discovered that she has been using their joint credit card to make these purchases. When confronted, Samantha said that she needed to look her best to maintain her professional image and that she deserved to treat herself.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mania

      Explanation:

      It is important to note that there is no collateral history available and the duration of the observed behaviour pattern is unknown. Additionally, the individual’s excessive panting and pacing may indicate motor over-activity, which is consistent with symptoms of mania. Therefore, it is necessary to consider the possibility of a drug-induced state as a potential differential diagnosis. However, until further information is obtained, it is crucial to treat this as an episode of mania.

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  • Question 40 - A middle-aged woman presents with concerns about a possible bipolar disorder diagnosis. Upon...

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    • A middle-aged woman presents with concerns about a possible bipolar disorder diagnosis. Upon reviewing her psychiatric history, it is noted that she has a long standing pattern of impulsive self-harm, which has not been linked to any treatable mental illness. This behavior dates back to her teenage years and often occurs during crises in tumultuous romantic relationships. Additionally, she has a history of child protection involvement due to abuse. The patient reports feeling constantly unhappy and experiencing extreme emotional reactions that frighten those around her. She frequently falls deeply in love, but these relationships inevitably become abusive. She is unsure of her sexual orientation and struggles with a sense of identity. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Impulsive-unstable personality disorder - borderline type

      Explanation:

      Borderline personality disorder is often a result of childhood abuse of neglect, according to research. In the ICD-10, impulsive-unstable personality disorder is divided, and borderline PD is distinguished by a fundamental uncertainty about identity. Emotional instability is a common trait, and the patient’s self-image, goals, and internal preferences, including sexual preferences, are often unclear of disturbed. Chronic feelings of emptiness are also common. The patient may have a tendency to engage in unstable relationships, leading to emotional crises and efforts to avoid abandonment. Suicidal threats of self-harm may occur without obvious triggers.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Diagnosis (3/6) 50%
Passmed