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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old with a long standing history of schizophrenia presents to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old with a long standing history of schizophrenia presents to the emergency department in status epilepticus. After receiving treatment, he informs the physician that he has been experiencing frequent seizures lately.
      Which medication is the most probable cause of his seizures?

      Your Answer: Haloperidol

      Correct Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Seizures are more likely to occur with the use of clozapine due to its ability to lower the seizure threshold. This is a known side-effect of the atypical antipsychotic, which is commonly prescribed for treatment resistant schizophrenia.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.

      Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old woman is brought to the edge of a roof by a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman is brought to the edge of a roof by a trained practitioner and then left there for as long as possible until she overcomes her phobia of heights.

      What sort of behavioural therapy is this?

      Your Answer: Exposure response therapy

      Correct Answer: Flooding

      Explanation:

      Behavioural Therapies: Techniques for Overcoming Fears and Habits

      Behavioural therapies are a set of techniques used to treat various mental health conditions. These therapies aim to modify an individual’s behaviour by exposing them to their fears or habits and gradually desensitising them to the stimuli. Here are some common behavioural therapies:

      1. Flooding: This therapy involves exposing an individual directly to their worst fear to trigger desensitisation.

      2. Graded Exposure: Also known as systematic desensitisation, this therapy involves exposing the patient to the feared stimulus for progressively longer amounts of time or from a ‘virtual’ to a real exposure in an attempt to overcome the fear.

      3. Relaxation Training: This therapy involves activities that allow the individual to calm or relax in the exposed situation.

      4. Aversion Therapy: This therapy is used in the management of habits such as alcoholism and smoking. It involves exposing the individual to the behaviour while simultaneously evoking a noxious and/or painful stimulus to develop an aversion to the behaviour.

      5. Exposure Response Therapy: This therapy is often used as an effective treatment for OCD. It involves gradually increasing exposure to uncomfortable stimuli to build a tolerance and reduce anxiety that feeds obsessions and compulsions.

      Overall, behavioural therapies can be effective in treating various mental health conditions and helping individuals overcome their fears and habits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 3 - A 22-year-old first-year graduate student presents to the Student Health Clinic because she...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old first-year graduate student presents to the Student Health Clinic because she feels depressed. She describes feeling homesick and is so sad that it is interfering with her ability to focus, work or make new friends. Her sleep, appetite and energy have been unaffected. She denies suicidal ideation or feelings of guilt. She thought it would have gotten better by now, but she said it has already been 2 months since she left home and she is still unhappy. She is worried that she is experiencing major depression.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Adjustment disorder

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Adjustment Disorder from Other Mood Disorders

      Adjustment disorder is a type of mood disorder that occurs in response to a major stressor. It is characterized by symptoms of depression or anxiety that present within three months of the stressor and last for less than six months. In contrast, major depressive disorder requires two episodes of major depression with a symptom-free interval, all in two months. Dysthymia, on the other hand, requires a depressive mood for at least two years. Bipolar disorder is characterized by manic symptoms, which the patient in question does not exhibit. Acute stress disorder is associated with psychotic symptoms that last less than one month from an identifiable stressor. Therefore, it is important to differentiate adjustment disorder from other mood disorders to provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 4 - A 78-year-old man is admitted with new-onset confusion. He is usually independent and...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old man is admitted with new-onset confusion. He is usually independent and enjoys gardening in his spare time. When he didn't show up for his weekly gardening club meeting, a friend went to his house. The friend noticed that the patient appeared disoriented and was speaking nonsensically, prompting them to call for medical assistance.
      What distinguishes delirium from dementia?

      Your Answer: Fluctuating level of consciousness

      Explanation:

      Dementia vs Delirium: Understanding the Differences

      Dementia and delirium are two conditions that can affect cognitive abilities and behavior. While they share some similarities, there are also important differences between them.

      Dementia is a group of neurodegenerative disorders that cause a progressive decline in cognition and/or behavior from previous levels of functioning. It is characterized by a slow, insidious progression and is rarely reversible. Memory loss, executive functioning problems, speech and language difficulties, social interaction loss, personality changes, and visuospatial problems are some of the areas of loss associated with dementia. Mobility and gait disturbances are also common.

      Delirium, on the other hand, is an acute confusional state characterized by a relatively rapid onset and variable, fluctuating progression. It may cause a global reduction in cognitive abilities but is usually reversible if the underlying cause is promptly identified. Common causes include sepsis, medications, metabolic derangement, and causes of raised intracranial pressure.

      While there are some similarities between dementia and delirium, there are also some differences. For example, dementia is never associated with a persistent fluctuating level of consciousness, which is a feature of delirium. Visual hallucinations are present in both delirium and dementia, particularly Lewy body dementia. Impaired memory and dysarthria are also present in both conditions, as is urinary incontinence.

      In summary, understanding the differences between dementia and delirium is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. While both conditions can affect cognitive abilities and behavior, they have distinct features that can help differentiate them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 5 - A 42-year-old man visits his doctor's office and reports that his partner of...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man visits his doctor's office and reports that his partner of many years passed away recently. He shares that when he woke up this morning, he believed he was lying next to her and heard her voice calling his name. Despite knowing that this is impossible, it has caused him considerable anguish. He is concerned that he may be losing his mind. He has no other significant psychiatric history.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pseudohallucination

      Explanation:

      Pseudohallucinations, which are characterized by the patient’s awareness that the voice or feeling is coming from their own mind, are not indicative of psychosis or serious psychiatric conditions. This makes schizophrenia and other psychotic options less likely, and there are no signs of schizoid personality disorder in the patient. Pseudohallucinations are often observed in individuals who have experienced bereavement.

      Understanding Pseudohallucinations

      Pseudohallucinations are false sensory perceptions that occur in the absence of external stimuli, but with the awareness that they are not real. While not officially recognized in the ICD 10 or DSM-5, there is a general consensus among specialists about their definition. Some argue that it is more helpful to view hallucinations on a spectrum, from mild sensory disturbances to full-blown hallucinations, to avoid misdiagnosis or mistreatment.

      One example of a pseudohallucination is a hypnagogic hallucination, which occurs during the transition from wakefulness to sleep. These vivid auditory or visual experiences are fleeting and can happen to anyone. It is important to reassure patients that these experiences are normal and do not necessarily indicate the development of a mental illness.

      Pseudohallucinations are particularly common in people who are grieving. Understanding the nature of these experiences can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate support and reassurance to those who may be struggling with them. By acknowledging the reality of pseudohallucinations and their potential impact on mental health, we can better equip ourselves to provide compassionate care to those who need it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old man who works as a software engineer has recently been terminated...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man who works as a software engineer has recently been terminated by his supervisor, citing missed deadlines and a decline in the quality of his work. He disputes this and claims that his supervisor has always had a personal vendetta against him. He has confided in his family and close friends, but despite their reassurances, he believes that some of his colleagues were colluding with his supervisor to oust him. During his mental health evaluation, he appears to be generally stable, except for his fixation on his supervisor and coworkers conspiring against him. His family reports that he is easily offended and has a tendency to believe in conspiracies. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Schizophrenia

      Correct Answer: Paranoid personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of paranoid personality disorder may be appropriate for individuals who exhibit hypersensitivity, hold grudges when insulted, doubt the loyalty of those around them, and are hesitant to confide in others.

      In the given case, the correct diagnosis is paranoid personality disorder as the individual is reacting strongly to being fired by her manager and believes it to be a conspiracy involving her manager and colleagues. This aligns with the classic symptoms of paranoid personality disorder, and the individual’s family has also observed her tendency to be easily offended and paranoid.

      Borderline personality disorder is an incorrect diagnosis as it is characterized by emotional instability, difficulty controlling anger, unstable relationships, and recurrent suicidal thoughts, rather than paranoia.

      Schizoid personality disorder is also an incorrect diagnosis as it is characterized by a preference for solitary activities, lack of interest in socializing, and a lack of close relationships, rather than paranoia.

      Schizophrenia is an incorrect diagnosis as the individual’s mental state examination is broadly normal, whereas schizophrenia typically presents with delusions, hallucinations, and disordered thinking.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old divorced man gives a history of moderately heavy drinking for 10...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old divorced man gives a history of moderately heavy drinking for 10 years. In the 2 years since his divorce, he has experienced disrupted sleep, fatigue, irritability and cynicism. He typically drinks excessively. For example, he consumes a case of beer in a weekend and now drinks before work.
      Which is the most appropriate initial form of psychotherapy?

      Your Answer: Psychoanalytic psychotherapy

      Correct Answer: Self-help group

      Explanation:

      Different Forms of Therapy for Alcohol Dependence: Pros and Cons

      Alcohol dependence is a serious issue that requires professional intervention. There are various forms of therapy available for individuals struggling with alcohol abuse. Here are some of the most common types of therapy and their pros and cons:

      1. Self-help group: Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) and similar self-help programs are free, widely available, and confidential. The diversity of membership, vast experience with alcohol among participants, and flexibility of meeting times provide therapeutic advantages. However, the lack of accountability and wide variation in quality among different groups can be a disadvantage.

      2. Interpersonal psychotherapy and antidepressants: Interpersonal psychotherapy deals with specific circumstances thought to contribute to depression, including losses, social transitions, role disputes, and unsatisfactory interpersonal relations. Antidepressants are only considered after a month of abstinence. However, this form of therapy may not be suitable for everyone.

      3. Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT): CBT may be useful for addressing underlying reasons for alcohol abuse in the long run. However, first-line support for patients with addiction is self-help groups such as AA.

      4. Structural family therapy: This form of treatment is developed for helping families in which a child shows psychiatric symptoms, behaviour problems, or unstable chronic illness. However, it may not be suitable for patients with isolated alcoholism or fractured families.

      5. Psychoanalytic psychotherapy: This therapy posits that therapeutic change requires making early experiences conscious and their influence explicit. However, it may not be suitable for everyone and may require a longer time commitment.

      In conclusion, there are various forms of therapy available for individuals struggling with alcohol dependence. It is important to consider the pros and cons of each type of therapy and choose the one that is most suitable for the individual’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old office worker presents to the Emergency Department after taking a handful...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old office worker presents to the Emergency Department after taking a handful of various tablets following an argument with her current partner. She has a history of tumultuous relationships and struggles to maintain friendships or romantic relationships due to this. She also admits to experiencing intense emotions, frequently oscillating between extreme happiness and anger or anxiety. In the past, she has engaged in self-harm and frequently drinks to excess. A psychiatry review is requested to evaluate the possibility of a personality disorder. What personality disorder is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Narcissistic personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Personality Disorders: Borderline Personality Disorder and Other Types

      Personality disorders are complex and severe disturbances in an individual’s character and behavior, causing significant personal and social disruption. These disorders are challenging to treat, but psychological and pharmacological interventions can help manage symptoms. One of the most common types of personality disorder is borderline personality disorder, characterized by intense emotions, unstable relationships, impulsive behavior, self-harm, and abandonment anxieties. Other types of personality disorders include schizoid personality disorder, avoidant personality disorder, dependent personality disorder, and narcissistic personality disorder. Understanding these disorders can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old homeless man is brought to the hospital as he reports seeing...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old homeless man is brought to the hospital as he reports seeing an 'ocean of bees' surrounding him. He is unable to provide a detailed medical history due to his extreme anxiety and confusion, constantly yelling about the 'deafening buzzing.' His heart rate is 140 beats per minute and his breathing rate is 23 breaths per minute. Reviewing his records, it is noted that he has been admitted to the emergency department multiple times due to alcohol intoxication.

      What is the initial treatment for his condition?

      Your Answer: Aripiprazole

      Correct Answer: Chlordiazepoxide

      Explanation:

      Chlordiazepoxide or diazepam are administered to manage delirium tremens/alcohol withdrawal.

      When a patient experiences delirium tremens due to alcohol withdrawal after dependency, chlordiazepoxide or diazepam are commonly prescribed. This condition often leads to the manifestation of visual and auditory hallucinations. While haloperidol can be beneficial in calming the patient, the primary treatment for delirium tremens is administering 10-30 mg of chlordiazepoxide four times daily.

      Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. Chronic alcohol consumption enhances the inhibitory effects of GABA in the central nervous system, similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. However, alcohol withdrawal leads to the opposite effect, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start at 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which includes coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, peak at 48-72 hours.

      Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said to be less effective in treating alcohol withdrawal seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old woman has had >10 very short relationships in the past year,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman has had >10 very short relationships in the past year, all of which she thought were the love of her life. She is prone to impulsive behaviour such as gambling and binge eating, and she has dabbled in drugs. She also engages in self-harm.
      Which of the following personality disorders most accurately describes her?

      Your Answer: Paranoid personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Personality Disorders: Clusters and Traits

      Personality disorders can be categorized into three main clusters based on their characteristics. Cluster A includes odd or eccentric personalities such as schizoid and paranoid personality disorder. Schizoid individuals tend to be emotionally detached and struggle with forming close relationships, while paranoid individuals are suspicious and distrustful of others.

      Cluster B includes dramatic, erratic, or emotional personalities such as borderline and histrionic personality disorder. Borderline individuals often have intense and unstable relationships, exhibit impulsive behavior, and may have a history of self-harm or suicide attempts. Histrionic individuals are attention-seeking, manipulative, and tend to be overly dramatic.

      Cluster C includes anxious personalities such as obsessive-compulsive personality disorder. These individuals tend to be perfectionists, controlling, and overly cautious.

      Understanding the different clusters and traits associated with personality disorders can help individuals recognize and seek appropriate treatment for themselves or loved ones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 11 - A 30-year-old woman is in a car accident. Another car collided with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is in a car accident. Another car collided with a truck and she swerved to avoid them, hitting a tree. Two weeks later, she still experiences flashbacks, nightmares, and difficulty sleeping. Her brother reports that she startles easily and seems disoriented at times. The woman denies any chest pain or dizziness.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Panic disorder

      Correct Answer: Acute stress reaction

      Explanation:

      Acute stress disorder refers to a reaction to a traumatic event that occurs within four weeks, as opposed to PTSD which is diagnosed after this time frame. Symptoms may include negative mood, dissociation, and avoidance.

      Acute stress disorder is a condition that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. It is characterized by symptoms such as intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. These symptoms can include flashbacks, nightmares, feeling disconnected from reality, and being hypervigilant.

      To manage acute stress disorder, trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is typically the first-line treatment. This type of therapy helps individuals process their traumatic experiences and develop coping strategies. In some cases, benzodiazepines may be used to alleviate acute symptoms such as agitation and sleep disturbance. However, caution must be taken when using these medications due to their addictive potential and potential negative impact on adaptation. Overall, early intervention and appropriate treatment can help individuals recover from acute stress disorder and prevent the development of more chronic conditions such as PTSD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 12 - A 30-year-old bipolar woman has been readmitted to the hospital after attempting to...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old bipolar woman has been readmitted to the hospital after attempting to harm herself. She is currently stable. What form of psychotherapy would be most appropriate in this case?

      Your Answer: Counselling

      Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      Psychotherapy Options for Schizophrenia

      There are several psychotherapy options available for individuals with schizophrenia. Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is a structured, goal-directed, problem-focused, and time-limited therapy that combines principles of both behavioural and cognitive therapy. It focuses on the environment, behaviour, and cognition simultaneously. Brief psychodynamic psychotherapy primarily relies on insight, bringing unconscious or unclear material into awareness, and linking past and present experiences to address the patient’s difficulties. Interpersonal therapy is derived partially from a psychodynamic perspective and focuses primarily on the patient’s interpersonal relationships. It is fairly non-directive and addresses issues such as grief, role transitions, interpersonal role disputes, and interpersonal deficits as they relate to the patient’s current symptoms.

      Family therapy is another option that helps family members learn about the disorder, solve problems, and cope more constructively with the patient’s illness. There is evidence that family interventions can reduce relapse rates in schizophrenia. Systemic desensitisation is an exposure-based behavioural treatment that utilises gradual, systematic, repeated exposure to the feared object or situation to allow patients with anxiety disorders to become desensitised to the feared stimulus.

      The decision between CBT and family therapy would be highly influenced by patient preference. However, if only CBT is presented as an option, it would be the appropriate choice. It is important to consider the different psychotherapy options available and choose the one that best suits the patient’s needs and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 13 - A 29-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of mood and sleep disturbances. She...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of mood and sleep disturbances. She reveals that she was involved in a car accident a few months ago, which left her with minor injuries. However, she has been experiencing flashbacks of the incident and feels anxious when crossing roads, often avoiding them altogether. She also mentions being easily startled by car noises and horns. The woman feels fatigued and irritable, and her sleep is affected. What is the minimum duration of symptoms required for a probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      To receive a diagnosis of PTSD, symptoms must be evident for a minimum of four weeks. This indicates a history of experiencing classic signs and symptoms following a traumatic event. PTSD symptoms can be categorized into hyperarousal, re-experiencing phenomenon, avoidance of reminders, and emotional numbing. These symptoms occur after a traumatic life event, such as a near-death experience. If symptoms persist for less than four weeks, it would be considered an acute stress reaction. However, if symptoms continue beyond four weeks, the patient may be diagnosed with PTSD. It is important to note that the time frame refers to the duration of symptoms, not the time since the traumatic event.

      Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include experiences such as natural disasters, accidents, or even childhood abuse. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of situations or people associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and even substance abuse.

      Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, depending on the severity of the symptoms. Single-session interventions are not recommended, and watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting less than four weeks. Military personnel have access to treatment provided by the armed forces, while trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy may be used in more severe cases.

      It is important to note that drug treatments for PTSD should not be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults. If drug treatment is used, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, should be tried. In severe cases, NICE recommends that risperidone may be used. Overall, understanding the symptoms and effective management of PTSD is crucial in supporting individuals who have experienced traumatic events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 14 - A 25-year-old male has been taking antipsychotics for a few months and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male has been taking antipsychotics for a few months and is experiencing a severe side-effect that causes repetitive involuntary movements such as grimacing and sticking out the tongue. This side-effect is known to occur only in individuals who have been on antipsychotics for an extended period. What medication is the most appropriate for treating this side-effect?

      Your Answer: Propranolol

      Correct Answer: Tetrabenazine

      Explanation:

      Tetrabenazine is an effective treatment for moderate to severe tardive dyskinesia, which is the condition that this patient is experiencing. Propranolol is typically used to alleviate symptoms of akathisia, while procyclidine and benztropine are commonly prescribed for acute dystonia.

      Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 15 - A mental state examination is conducted on a 30-year-old individual. When asked about...

    Incorrect

    • A mental state examination is conducted on a 30-year-old individual. When asked about their activities during the week, they begin discussing their job, then transition to their passion for writing, followed by reminiscing about their favorite literature teacher from school, and finally discussing the death of their childhood dog and how it relates to their current writing project. Although their speech is at a normal pace, they never fully answer the question about their recent activities. What can be said about this individual's behavior?

      Your Answer: Circumstantiality

      Correct Answer: Tangentiality

      Explanation:

      Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 16 - A 9-year-old patient is brought to the general practitioner by his parents because...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old patient is brought to the general practitioner by his parents because he has been disruptive at school. His teachers report that he does not pay attention in class, bullies other classmates and takes their food during lunchtime without their permission. One teacher also reported that the patient was seen hurting the class hamster.
      What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Major depression

      Correct Answer: Conduct disorder

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between Conduct Disorder, Major Depression, Oppositional Defiant Disorder, Antisocial Disorder, and Manic Episode

      Conduct Disorder, Major Depression, Oppositional Defiant Disorder, Antisocial Disorder, and Manic Episode are all mental health conditions that can present with similar symptoms. However, each disorder has its own unique characteristics that differentiate it from the others.

      Conduct Disorder is a disorder that affects individuals under the age of 18 and is associated with disruptive, bullying behavior and often torture of animals. It is characterized by repetitive behavior that violates the rights of others.

      Major Depression is associated with depressed mood, in addition to five of the following symptoms: sleep changes, loss of interest in previous hobbies or activities, guilt, decreased energy, difficulty concentrating, changes in appetite, sluggishness, and suicidal thoughts persisting for 2 weeks.

      Oppositional Defiant Disorder is characterized by behavior in opposition to authority, but there is no violation of the rights of others or extreme behavior such as bullying or animal cruelty.

      Antisocial Disorder is diagnosed in individuals who are 18 or older and exhibit signs of Conduct Disorder. It is characterized by a disregard for the rights of others and a lack of empathy.

      Manic Episode is associated with elevated mood lasting for 7 days. These patients feel as though they have increased energy, do not need sleep, engage in risky sexual activity and sometimes illicit behavior, feel above the law or invincible, are easily distractible, have flight of fancy, are agitated, and have pressured speech.

      It is important to differentiate between these disorders to ensure that individuals receive the appropriate treatment and support for their specific condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old man is brought to the psychiatric unit due to his abnormal...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man is brought to the psychiatric unit due to his abnormal behaviour in a police cell. He claimed that there was a conspiracy against him and started acting irrationally. After 36 hours of admission, the patient complains of visual hallucinations and experiences a grand-mal seizure. What is the probable reason behind the seizure?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic epilepsy

      Correct Answer: Withdrawal from alcohol

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Fits in a Patient with a History of Substance Abuse

      There are several possible causes of fits in a patient with a history of substance abuse. LSD withdrawal and amphetamine withdrawal are not known to cause seizures, but amphetamine withdrawal may lead to depression, intense hunger, and lethargy. Hypercalcaemia is not likely to be the cause of fits in this patient, but hyponatraemia due to water intoxication following ecstasy abuse is a possibility. Alcohol withdrawal is a well-known cause of fits in habitual abusers, along with altered behavior. Although idiopathic epilepsy is a differential diagnosis, it is unlikely given the patient’s history of substance abuse. Overall, there are several potential causes of fits in this patient, and further investigation is necessary to determine the underlying cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 18 - A 78-year-old man comes to see you, struggling to cope after his wife...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old man comes to see you, struggling to cope after his wife passed away suddenly 5 months ago. He appears sad and spends most of the appointment looking down, but answers your questions. He expresses concern that he may be losing his mind because he has started seeing his wife sitting in her old chair and sometimes talks to her when he is alone. He confirms that he can hear her voice responding to him. He says he mostly talks to her while cooking in the kitchen or when he is alone at night. Despite these experiences, he knows that what he sees and hears is not real. He reports occasional memory loss and some abdominal pain due to his irritable bowel syndrome, but is otherwise healthy. He has no history of psychiatric conditions in himself or his family. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Normal grief reaction

      Explanation:

      Pseudohallucinations may be a normal part of the grieving process, and differ from true hallucinations in that the individual is aware that what they are experiencing is not real. While pseudohallucinations can be distressing, they are not considered pathological unless accompanied by urinary symptoms, which would require further investigation. The patient in question displays low mood and avoids eye contact, but responds well to questioning and is able to prepare food independently. While depression with psychotic features can involve true hallucinations, there are no other symptoms to suggest this diagnosis. Lewy-body dementia, which can cause visual hallucinations, Parkinsonian features, and cognitive impairment, is not a likely explanation for this patient’s symptoms. Abnormal grief reactions are typically defined as persisting for at least six months after the loss.

      Understanding Pseudohallucinations

      Pseudohallucinations are false sensory perceptions that occur in the absence of external stimuli, but with the awareness that they are not real. While not officially recognized in the ICD 10 or DSM-5, there is a general consensus among specialists about their definition. Some argue that it is more helpful to view hallucinations on a spectrum, from mild sensory disturbances to full-blown hallucinations, to avoid misdiagnosis or mistreatment.

      One example of a pseudohallucination is a hypnagogic hallucination, which occurs during the transition from wakefulness to sleep. These vivid auditory or visual experiences are fleeting and can happen to anyone. It is important to reassure patients that these experiences are normal and do not necessarily indicate the development of a mental illness.

      Pseudohallucinations are particularly common in people who are grieving. Understanding the nature of these experiences can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate support and reassurance to those who may be struggling with them. By acknowledging the reality of pseudohallucinations and their potential impact on mental health, we can better equip ourselves to provide compassionate care to those who need it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 19 - A 29-year-old man presented to the hospital, accompanied by the police after having...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man presented to the hospital, accompanied by the police after having had a fight in a casino. The casino manager called the police when the man refused to leave after he had spent almost 24 hours gambling. The patient ran out of money and was harassing other clients, trying to borrow money from them and telling them that he will return it after he had won and invested the prize money. The patient has no known next of kin and refuses to engage with the attending doctor. He threatens to assault the medical staff and is eventually put under urgent mental health Section 4. A review of his medical notes reveals that the only medication on which he has been is lithium for a known psychiatric illness, but he has not been in touch with his general practitioner for the past two months.
      What is the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Stop lithium and start olanzapine

      Correct Answer: Check the lithium levels and consider adding olanzapine

      Explanation:

      Management of Bipolar Depression with Mania or Hypomania

      According to the latest NICE guideline CG85, patients with bipolar depression presenting with mania or hypomania should have their lithium levels checked and consider adding an antipsychotic such as haloperidol, olanzapine, quetiapine or risperidone. Therefore, checking the lithium levels and considering adding olanzapine is the correct answer in this case.

      Stopping lithium without checking the levels first is not recommended as it is a mood stabiliser and may be required for the patient. Starting haloperidol or risperidone without checking the lithium levels is also not recommended as the doctor must consider the patient’s lithium levels before adding an antipsychotic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 20 - A 16-year-old boy is referred by his general practitioner (GP). He was brought...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy is referred by his general practitioner (GP). He was brought in by his parents after he had attempted to set fire to his room. His parents reported that, over the past two months, they have noticed that the patient appears withdrawn and has been spending a lot of time in his room. He will not let anyone in his room and has also blocked the view from his windows using aluminium foil.
      At the clinic, he accused the GP of being one of the police agents sent to spy on him. He has also lost significant weight, and his parents report that his mood seems to be quite low on some days. The patient has no insight into his current condition and says that his room needs to be burnt down to destroy the surveillance devices installed by the police. The patient denies drug use, but his father confirms that he has once seen his son smoking what he suspected was an illicit drug in the backyard.
      The GP refers the patient to a psychiatric hospital, and the doctors there explain to the parents that it is in the patient’s best interests to be kept in hospital for assessment for a maximum of 28 days.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate Section to be used for this patient?

      Your Answer: Section 5(4)

      Correct Answer: Section 2

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Different Sections of the Mental Health Act

      The Mental Health Act provides legal frameworks for the assessment, treatment, and care of individuals with mental health illnesses. There are several sections under the Act that allow for patients to be detained in hospital for assessment or treatment. It is important to understand these sections and their limitations.

      Section 2 is used to keep a patient in hospital for assessment for up to 28 days. This section is used when a patient is at risk of harming themselves or others and there is a suspicion of a psychiatric illness or drug misuse.

      Section 5(2) allows doctors to keep a patient in hospital for at least 72 hours when Section 2 or 3 cannot be used. However, it cannot be extended, and arrangements should be made for Section 2 or 3 if the patient is to be kept longer in hospital.

      Section 4 is used in emergencies and allows for a patient to be kept in hospital for 72 hours. This section can be used by only one doctor when finding another doctor to use Section 5(2), 2 or 3 would cause delay, which is not in the patient’s best interests.

      Section 3 can be used to keep a patient in hospital for treatment for up to six months. The patient can also be discharged earlier if the doctor thinks the patient is well enough. However, if necessary, it can be extended for another six months, and then after that for one year for each renewal.

      Finally, Section 5(4) can be used by mental health or learning disability nurses to keep a patient in hospital for a maximum of six hours. This section is used when a doctor cannot be found for Section 5(2) to be used. However, it cannot be extended, and arrangements should be made for Section 2 or 3 if the patient is to be kept longer in hospital.

      It is important to note that these sections should only be used when necessary and in the best interests of the patient. The Mental Health Act also provides safeguards and rights for patients, including the right to appeal against detention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 21 - A 32-year-old man with schizophrenia has been refusing to allow the mental health...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with schizophrenia has been refusing to allow the mental health team to enter his residence, believing that they are secret agents. His mother is worried about his health and informs the team that he has not taken his medication for two weeks.
      What is the most suitable section of the mental health act to be utilized?

      Your Answer: 2

      Correct Answer: 135

      Explanation:

      Understanding Mental Health Detainment: A Guide to Sections 135, 4, 2, 3, and 136

      Mental health detainment can be a confusing and overwhelming process for both the individual in question and their loved ones. However, it is important to understand the different sections that can be used to detain a person for their own safety and the safety of others. Here is a breakdown of the most common sections used in mental health detainment:

      Section 135: This section allows the police to detain a person who is an immediate risk to themselves or others due to their mental health. The person can be moved to a safe area for assessment by a trained medical professional.

      Section 4: An emergency application for admission to hospital for up to 72 hours. This allows for an assessment by a doctor to determine if further detainment is necessary.

      Section 2: Used for assessment, this section allows for detainment for up to 28 days. If necessary, the responsible clinician can apply for a conversion to a section 3.

      Section 3: Detainment for up to six months, with the option for renewal if deemed necessary by the responsible clinician.

      Section 136: This section allows the police to detain a person in a public place who appears to have a mental health concern. The person can be moved to a safe location for assessment by a medical professional.

      Understanding these sections can help individuals and their loved ones navigate the mental health detainment process with more clarity and confidence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 22 - A 20-year-old man presented to the psychiatry outpatients department with a sense of...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man presented to the psychiatry outpatients department with a sense of unsettling alteration in his personality. He expressed feeling peculiar, as if he is not his usual self. Despite being anxious and tense, he was unable to identify the exact nature of this change. What term best characterizes this sensation?

      Your Answer: Overvalued idea

      Correct Answer: Depersonalisation

      Explanation:

      Depersonalisation

      Depersonalisation is a distressing experience where an individual feels disconnected from their own body and reality. It is often described as feeling like living in a dream or being in immediate danger of disappearing. Despite cognitive functioning remaining intact, the sufferer may interpret the experience as a sign of losing their mind. This can lead to the development of an autochthonous delusion, which arises spontaneously.

      The delusional mood is a sense of unease that can be resolved when a delusional belief forms. Over valued ideas are also present in depersonalisation, but they are not held with the same level of fixity as delusional beliefs. Overall, depersonalisation can be a frightening and disturbing experience that can leave individuals feeling disconnected from themselves and their surroundings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 23 - A 30-year-old man is exhibiting changes in mental status. He has been staying...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man is exhibiting changes in mental status. He has been staying up most nights for the past month, working on four different novels simultaneously. He has not left his home or eaten in the last week and refuses to do so. Additionally, he has started gambling. During the consultation, he appears easily distracted and responds to questions with nonsensical sentences made up of random words. A collateral history was necessary to gather information. There is no evidence of drug misuse, and he is currently being treated for depression. When his family attempts to understand his behavior, he accuses them of trying to hold him back from achieving fame. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Schizotypal personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Bipolar disorder (type I)

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely suffering from bipolar disorder (type I) due to their elevated mood and energy following treatment for depression, which can often be a sign of bipolar disorder unmasked by antidepressants. The presence of disorganized speech in the form of ‘word salad’ is evidence of psychosis, which is a characteristic of bipolar I. The patient has also not slept or eaten in the last week, indicating severe functional impairment and the need for hospitalization, which is another DSM-V criteria for bipolar I. Additionally, the patient exhibits decreased need for sleep, increased risky activities, increased goal-directed behavior, and distractibility, which are all symptoms of bipolar I.

      Bipolar disorder (type II) is unlikely as the patient’s disorganized speech suggests psychosis, which is more commonly associated with bipolar I. Schizoaffective disorder is also unlikely as the patient’s elevated mood and history of depression do not fit the diagnostic criteria. Schizophrenia is less likely as it typically presents with negative symptoms followed by delusions and hallucinations, whereas the patient’s symptoms are primarily manic in nature.

      Understanding Psychosis

      Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in various ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. Associated features may include agitation/aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm. Psychotic symptoms can occur in a range of conditions, such as schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions, and drug use. The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 24 - A 22-year old woman comes to see her GP, seeking medication for opioid...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year old woman comes to see her GP, seeking medication for opioid withdrawal. She explains that she has been using heroin for the past six months since losing her job as a store manager. She informs the GP that she has decided to quit using heroin and has not taken any for the past three days. She reports experiencing severe withdrawal symptoms that have been affecting her daily life and asks if there is anything that can be prescribed to alleviate her symptoms.
      What are the observable indications of opioid withdrawal?

      Your Answer: Dilated pupils, respiratory depression, bradycardia

      Correct Answer: Dilated pupils, yawning, rhinorrhoea, epiphora

      Explanation:

      Identifying Objective Signs of Opioid Withdrawal and Intoxication

      It is crucial to recognize objective signs of opioid withdrawal and intoxication to prevent fatal outcomes. In psychiatric settings, individuals may falsely claim withdrawal to obtain opioid medications. Objective signs of withdrawal include epiphora, rhinorrhoea, agitation, perspiration, piloerection, tachycardia, vomiting, shivering, yawning, and dilated pupils. Pinpoint pupils, yawning, and galactorrhoea are indicative of opiate intoxication. Respiratory depression is a feature of opioid intoxication, along with pinpoint pupils and bradycardia. Opioid intoxication can also cause pulmonary oedema, stupor, pallor, severe respiratory depression, and nausea. By recognizing these objective signs, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat opioid withdrawal and intoxication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 25 - A 47-year-old male comes to the GP with concerns about his difficulty falling...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old male comes to the GP with concerns about his difficulty falling asleep. He believes that he may be suffering from chronic insomnia, which he has read about online.

      The patient reports that he has attempted various methods to help him sleep, such as meditation and taking a warm bath before bed. However, he feels that he has too many thoughts racing through his mind and cannot seem to turn them off. This occurs at least three times a week and has persisted for the past month.

      What indication would suggest that this individual has misdiagnosed himself?

      Your Answer: The duration of insomnia is too brief; it must be over 3 months

      Explanation:

      If a person experiences difficulty falling asleep or staying asleep for at least three nights per week, they may be diagnosed with chronic insomnia after three months. This form of insomnia can occur alone or together with other sleep disturbances. The diagnosis of chronic insomnia is not limited by age and can be made in patients of any age.

      Insomnia: Causes, Diagnosis, and Management

      Insomnia is a common problem reported in primary care, often associated with other physical and mental health complaints. It is defined as difficulty initiating or maintaining sleep, or early-morning awakening that leads to dissatisfaction with sleep quantity or quality, despite adequate time and opportunity for sleep, resulting in impaired daytime functioning. Insomnia may be acute or chronic, with chronic insomnia diagnosed if a person has trouble falling asleep or staying asleep at least three nights per week for 3 months or longer.

      Patients with insomnia typically present with decreased daytime functioning, decreased periods of sleep, or increased accidents due to poor concentration. It is important to identify the cause of insomnia, as management can differ. Risk factors for insomnia include female gender, increased age, lower educational attainment, unemployment, economic inactivity, widowed/divorced/separated status, alcohol and substance abuse, stimulant usage, poor sleep hygiene, chronic pain, chronic illness, and psychiatric illness.

      Diagnosis is primarily made through patient interview, looking for the presence of risk factors. Sleep diaries and actigraphy may aid diagnosis, while polysomnography is not routinely indicated. Short-term management of insomnia involves identifying potential causes, advising good sleep hygiene, and considering the use of hypnotic drugs only if daytime impairment is severe. The recommended hypnotics for treating insomnia are short-acting benzodiazepines or non-benzodiazepines, with the lowest effective dose used for the shortest period possible. Diazepam may be useful if insomnia is linked to daytime anxiety. It is important to review after 2 weeks and consider referral for cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT). Other sedative drugs are not recommended for managing insomnia.

      In summary, insomnia is a common problem that can significantly impact a person’s daily functioning. It is important to identify the cause of insomnia and manage it appropriately, with short-term management involving good sleep hygiene and the cautious use of hypnotic drugs. Referral for CBT may also be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 26 - Which of the following interventions is most likely to be beneficial for a...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following interventions is most likely to be beneficial for a patient with early-onset schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Supportive psychotherapy

      Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      Management of Schizophrenia: NICE Guidelines

      Schizophrenia is a complex mental disorder that requires careful management. In 2009, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published guidelines on the management of schizophrenia. According to these guidelines, oral atypical antipsychotics should be the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia. Additionally, cognitive behavioural therapy should be offered to all patients to help them manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

      It is also important to pay close attention to cardiovascular risk-factor modification in patients with schizophrenia. This is because schizophrenic patients have high rates of cardiovascular disease, which is linked to antipsychotic medication and high smoking rates. Therefore, healthcare providers should work with patients to modify their lifestyle habits and reduce their risk of developing cardiovascular disease.

      Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to managing schizophrenia. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can help patients with schizophrenia achieve better outcomes and improve their overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 27 - A 26-year-old man is admitted to your psychiatric ward in a state of...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old man is admitted to your psychiatric ward in a state of distress saying that he knows for certain that his colleagues are plotting to have him dismissed from work. He says they are spreading malicious rumours about his sexuality and, with the help of the CIA, have bugged his office. In the first week of his admission, he is observed to be responding to unseen stimuli when alone in his room. His family state that he is a lovely lad who never gets into any trouble with drink or drugs. They are very worried because in the last 3 months he has told them he can hear people talking about him to each other when he lies in bed at night. He has no significant medical history.
      Which one of the following courses of action would be most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Commence olanzapine with lorazepam and procyclidine as required

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Schizophrenia

      Schizophrenia is a serious mental disorder that requires prompt treatment. The following are some treatment options for schizophrenia:

      Commence Olanzapine with Lorazepam and Procyclidine as Required
      Olanzapine is an atypical anti-psychotic that carries a lower risk of extrapyramidal side-effects. However, it is appropriate to prescribe anticholinergic medication such as procyclidine to reduce the risk further. The anti-psychotic action of olanzapine may take up to 10 days to begin, so short-acting benzodiazepines such as lorazepam may be prescribed for sedation.

      Do Not Just Observe with Sedation as Required
      Observing with sedation is not a definitive treatment for schizophrenia. It is essential to commence anti-psychotic medication promptly.

      Commence Chlorpromazine
      Chlorpromazine is a typical anti-psychotic that carries a higher risk of extrapyramidal side-effects. Therefore, atypical anti-psychotics are usually preferred as first-line treatment.

      Commence Clozapine
      Clozapine is the most effective medication for treatment-resistant schizophrenia. However, it carries a small risk of serious complications such as fatal agranulocytosis, myocarditis or cardiomyopathy, and pulmonary embolus. Therefore, it is usually reserved for patients who have not responded to two anti-psychotics given at an appropriate dose for 6-8 weeks.

      Commence Chlorpromazine with Lorazepam and Procyclidine as Required
      Chlorpromazine is a typical anti-psychotic that carries a higher risk of extrapyramidal side-effects. Therefore, it is appropriate to prescribe anticholinergic medication such as procyclidine to reduce the risk. Short-acting benzodiazepines such as lorazepam may also be prescribed for sedation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old man with Down syndrome is brought to see the General Practitioner...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man with Down syndrome is brought to see the General Practitioner (GP) by his mother to discuss his acne. His mother takes care of all his medications, as he cannot understand the instructions. He lives with his parents and depends on them to do all his cooking and washing. He does not work but attends a day centre a few days per week, where he enjoys craft activities and has a number of close friends. The staff report he is always very polite and interacts well with everyone at the centre. His mother says he is unable to be left alone in the house and cannot go out on his own without the support of another adult.
      Which one of the following conditions does he have?

      Your Answer: Learning disability

      Explanation:

      The patient is unable to function independently and relies on his parents for daily care, indicating a possible diagnosis of a learning disability. This condition is defined by the Department of Health as a significant reduction in the ability to learn new skills and understand complex information, leading to a decreased ability to cope independently. Symptoms must have started before adulthood and have a lasting impact on development. Other potential diagnoses, such as ADHD, autism spectrum disorder, learning difficulty, and oppositional defiant disorder, do not fit the patient’s symptoms and behaviors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 29 - A 36-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of mood changes...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of mood changes eight days after giving birth. She expresses that she does not want the baby and believes that it is dying. She feels like crying constantly. She experiences auditory and visual hallucinations that tell her to harm herself. Apart from this, she has no significant medical history.
      What is the diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Postpartum psychosis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Postpartum Psychosis from Other Psychiatric Disorders

      Postpartum psychosis is a severe form of postpartum depression that presents with psychotic features, including auditory hallucinations instructing the patient to harm herself and rejection of the child. Antipsychotic medication is required for intervention in severe cases, while cognitive behavioural therapy and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors may be used for milder cases. On the other hand, postnatal blues is a mild, transient disturbance in mood occurring between the third and sixth day after delivery, while adjustment disorder is diagnosed in the absence of another psychiatric diagnosis and does not involve auditory or visual hallucinations. Anxiety disorder, specifically generalised anxiety disorder, is characterised by excessive worry disproportionate to the situation, restlessness, fatigue, impaired concentration, muscle tenderness, and poor sleep, but does not occur specifically post-delivery. Schizoid personality disorder, which involves a lack of interest in social relationships, solitary lifestyle, secretiveness, emotional coldness, and apathy, is not an acute presentation like postpartum psychosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old male with a history of agoraphobia for the past 3 months...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male with a history of agoraphobia for the past 3 months presents for a telemedicine consultation to discuss his current issues. He reports feeling unable to leave his home due to a fear of contamination and illness. He explains that he feels the outside world is too dirty and that he will become sick and die if he leaves his house. He also reports washing his hands six times with soap and water after touching anything, which has resulted in his hands becoming dry, cracked, and erythematosus. He has lost his job as a result of missing deadlines and not being able to complete his work due to his compulsive hand washing behavior. Despite his awareness of the negative impact of his behavior, he feels unable to stop himself from washing his hands exactly six times every time.

      During the telemedicine consultation, his mental state examination is unremarkable. However, upon requesting to see his hands over the video conversation, it is noted that they appear dry, cracked, and erythematosus.

      What is the most appropriate management strategy for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: SSRI and CBT (including ERP)

      Explanation:

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by the presence of obsessions and/or compulsions that can cause significant functional impairment and distress. Risk factors include family history, age, pregnancy/postnatal period, and history of abuse, bullying, or neglect. Treatment options include low-intensity psychological treatments, SSRIs, and more intensive CBT (including ERP). Severe cases should be referred to the secondary care mental health team for assessment and may require combined treatment with an SSRI and CBT or clomipramine as an alternative. ERP involves exposing the patient to an anxiety-provoking situation and stopping them from engaging in their usual safety behavior. Treatment with SSRIs should continue for at least 12 months to prevent relapse and allow time for improvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychiatry (17/28) 61%
Passmed