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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male complains of central chest pain. During examination, a mitral regurgitation murmur is detected. An ECG reveals ST elevation in leads V1 to V6, but no ST elevation is observed in leads II, III, and aVF. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Inferior myocardial infarct
Correct Answer: Anterior myocardial infarct
Explanation:An anterior MI is the most probable diagnosis, given the absence of ST changes in the inferior leads. Aortic dissection is therefore less probable.
The following table displays the relationship between ECG changes and the affected coronary artery territories. Anteroseptal changes in V1-V4 indicate involvement of the left anterior descending artery, while inferior changes in II, III, and aVF suggest the right coronary artery is affected. Anterolateral changes in V4-6, I, and aVL may indicate involvement of either the left anterior descending or left circumflex artery, while lateral changes in I, aVL, and possibly V5-6 suggest the left circumflex artery is affected. Posterior changes in V1-3 may indicate a posterior infarction, which is typically caused by the left circumflex artery but can also be caused by the right coronary artery. Reciprocal changes of STEMI are often seen as horizontal ST depression, tall R waves, upright T waves, and a dominant R wave in V2. Posterior infarction is confirmed by ST elevation and Q waves in posterior leads (V7-9), usually caused by the left circumflex artery but also possibly the right coronary artery. It is important to note that a new LBBB may indicate acute coronary syndrome.
Diagram showing the correlation between ECG changes and coronary territories in acute coronary syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents to his GP with worsening breathlessness. He reports difficulty climbing stairs and sleeping, and finds it easier to sleep in his living room chair. He used to manage stairs fine a year ago, but now has to stop twice on the way up.
When asked about other symptoms, he reports feeling slightly wheezy and occasionally coughing up white sputum. He denies any weight loss. His medical history includes angina, non-diabetic hyperglycaemia, and hypertension. He has smoked 15 cigarettes per day since he was 25 and drinks around 5 pints of lager every Friday and Saturday night.
On examination, his oxygen saturations are 96%, respiratory rate 16/min at rest, heart rate 78/min, and blood pressure 141/88 mmHg. Bibasal crackles are heard on auscultation of his lungs.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Correct Answer: Heart failure
Explanation:Orthopnoea is a distinguishing symptom that can help differentiate between heart failure and COPD in patients. While the symptoms may be non-specific, the presence of orthopnoea, or breathlessness when lying down, is a key indicator of heart failure rather than COPD.
Although the patient has a significant history of smoking, there are no other signs of lung cancer such as weight loss, persistent cough, or coughing up blood. However, it is recommended to conduct an urgent chest X-ray to rule out any serious underlying conditions.
In cases of occupational asthma, symptoms tend to worsen when exposed to triggers in the workplace and improve during time off. However, in this patient’s case, the symptoms have been gradually worsening over time.
Features of Chronic Heart Failure
Chronic heart failure is a condition that affects the heart’s ability to pump blood effectively. It is characterized by several features that can help in its diagnosis. Dyspnoea, or shortness of breath, is a common symptom of chronic heart failure. Patients may also experience coughing, which can be worse at night and accompanied by pink or frothy sputum. Orthopnoea, or difficulty breathing while lying down, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea, or sudden shortness of breath at night, are also common symptoms.
Another feature of chronic heart failure is the presence of a wheeze, known as a cardiac wheeze. Patients may also experience weight loss, known as cardiac cachexia, which occurs in up to 15% of patients. However, this may be hidden by weight gained due to oedema. On examination, bibasal crackles may be heard, and signs of right-sided heart failure, such as a raised JVP, ankle oedema, and hepatomegaly, may be present.
In summary, chronic heart failure is a condition that can be identified by several features, including dyspnoea, coughing, orthopnoea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea, wheezing, weight loss, bibasal crackles, and signs of right-sided heart failure. Early recognition and management of these symptoms can help improve outcomes for patients with chronic heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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You are asked to evaluate a 5-day old cyanotic infant named Benjamin. Benjamin has had a chest x-ray which shows a heart appearance described as 'egg-on-side'. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect
Correct Answer: Transposition of the great arteries
Explanation:The ‘egg-on-side’ appearance on x-rays is a characteristic finding of transposition of the great arteries, which is one of the causes of cyanotic heart disease along with tetralogy of Fallot. While the age of the patient can help distinguish between the two conditions, the x-ray provides a clue for diagnosis. Patent ductus arteriosus, coarctation of the aorta, and ventricular septal defect do not typically present with cyanosis.
Understanding Transposition of the Great Arteries
Transposition of the great arteries (TGA) is a type of congenital heart disease that results in cyanosis. This condition occurs when the aorticopulmonary septum fails to spiral during septation, causing the aorta to leave the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk to leave the left ventricle. Infants born to diabetic mothers are at a higher risk of developing TGA.
The clinical features of TGA include cyanosis, tachypnea, a loud single S2, and a prominent right ventricular impulse. Chest x-rays may show an egg-on-side appearance. To manage TGA, prostaglandins can be used to maintain the ductus arteriosus. However, surgical correction is the definitive treatment for this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old male immigrant from India visits his primary care physician complaining of gradually worsening shortness of breath, particularly during physical exertion, and widespread joint pain. He had a severe untreated throat infection in the past, but his vaccination record is complete. During the physical examination, a high-pitched holosystolic murmur is heard at the apex with radiation to the axilla.
Hemoglobin: 135 g/L
Platelets: 150 * 10^9/L
White blood cells: 9.5 * 10^9/L
Anti-streptolysin O titers: >200 units/mL
What is the most probable histological finding in his heart?Your Answer: Schiller-Duval bodies
Correct Answer: Aschoff bodies
Explanation:Rheumatic heart fever is characterized by the presence of Aschoff bodies, which are granulomatous nodules. The mitral valve is commonly affected in this condition, and an elevated ASO titre indicates exposure to group A streptococcus bacteria. Rheumatic heart disease is also associated with the presence of Anitschkow cells, which are enlarged macrophages with an ovoid, wavy, rod-like nucleus. Other types of bodies seen in different conditions include Councilman bodies in hepatitis C and yellow fever, Mallory bodies in alcoholism affecting hepatocytes, and Call-Exner bodies in granulosa cell tumours.
Rheumatic fever is a condition that occurs as a result of an immune response to a recent Streptococcus pyogenes infection, typically occurring 2-4 weeks after the initial infection. The pathogenesis of rheumatic fever involves the activation of the innate immune system, leading to antigen presentation to T cells. B and T cells then produce IgG and IgM antibodies, and CD4+ T cells are activated. This immune response is thought to be cross-reactive, mediated by molecular mimicry, where antibodies against M protein cross-react with myosin and the smooth muscle of arteries. This response leads to the clinical features of rheumatic fever, including Aschoff bodies, which are granulomatous nodules found in rheumatic heart fever.
To diagnose rheumatic fever, evidence of recent streptococcal infection must be present, along with 2 major criteria or 1 major criterion and 2 minor criteria. Major criteria include erythema marginatum, Sydenham’s chorea, polyarthritis, carditis and valvulitis, and subcutaneous nodules. Minor criteria include raised ESR or CRP, pyrexia, arthralgia, and prolonged PR interval.
Management of rheumatic fever involves antibiotics, typically oral penicillin V, as well as anti-inflammatories such as NSAIDs as first-line treatment. Any complications that develop, such as heart failure, should also be treated. It is important to diagnose and treat rheumatic fever promptly to prevent long-term complications such as rheumatic heart disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 5
Correct
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A 3-week old girl is presented to the GP by her mother who has noticed yellowish discharge from her umbilicus on a daily basis. The baby was born without any complications and is healthy otherwise.
Which embryological structure is most likely responsible for this issue?Your Answer: Allantois
Explanation:If the allantois persists, it can result in a patent urachus, which may manifest as urine leakage from the belly button.
A patent urachus is a remnant of the allantois from embryonic development that links the bladder to the umbilicus, enabling urine to flow through and exit from the abdominal area.
When the vitelline duct fails to close, it can lead to the formation of a Meckel’s diverticulum.
The ductus venosus acts as a bypass for umbilical blood to avoid the liver in the fetus.
The umbilical vessels serve as a conduit for blood to and from the fetus during gestation. They are not connected to the bladder and would not cause daily leakage.
During cardiovascular embryology, the heart undergoes significant development and differentiation. At around 14 days gestation, the heart consists of primitive structures such as the truncus arteriosus, bulbus cordis, primitive atria, and primitive ventricle. These structures give rise to various parts of the heart, including the ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk, right ventricle, left and right atria, and majority of the left ventricle. The division of the truncus arteriosus is triggered by neural crest cell migration from the pharyngeal arches, and any issues with this migration can lead to congenital heart defects such as transposition of the great arteries or tetralogy of Fallot. Other structures derived from the primitive heart include the coronary sinus, superior vena cava, fossa ovalis, and various ligaments such as the ligamentum arteriosum and ligamentum venosum. The allantois gives rise to the urachus, while the umbilical artery becomes the medial umbilical ligaments and the umbilical vein becomes the ligamentum teres hepatis inside the falciform ligament. Overall, cardiovascular embryology is a complex process that involves the differentiation and development of various structures that ultimately form the mature heart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 6
Correct
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A 59-year-old woman presents to a respiratory clinic with worsening breathlessness and a recent diagnosis of pulmonary hypertension. The decision is made to initiate treatment with bosentan. Can you explain the mechanism of action of this medication?
Your Answer: Endothelin antagonist
Explanation:Bosentan, a non-selective endothelin antagonist, is used to treat pulmonary hypertension by blocking the vasoconstrictive effects of endothelin. However, it may cause liver function abnormalities, requiring regular monitoring. Endothelin agonists would worsen pulmonary vasoconstriction and are not suitable for treating pulmonary hypertension. Guanylate cyclase stimulators like riociguat work with nitric oxide to dilate blood vessels and treat pulmonary hypertension. Sildenafil, a phosphodiesterase inhibitor, selectively reduces pulmonary vascular tone to treat pulmonary hypertension.
Understanding Endothelin and Its Role in Various Diseases
Endothelin is a potent vasoconstrictor and bronchoconstrictor that is secreted by the vascular endothelium. Initially, it is produced as a prohormone and later converted to ET-1 by the action of endothelin converting enzyme. Endothelin interacts with a G-protein linked to phospholipase C, leading to calcium release. This interaction is thought to be important in the pathogenesis of many diseases, including primary pulmonary hypertension, cardiac failure, hepatorenal syndrome, and Raynaud’s.
Endothelin is known to promote the release of angiotensin II, ADH, hypoxia, and mechanical shearing forces. On the other hand, it inhibits the release of nitric oxide and prostacyclin. Raised levels of endothelin are observed in primary pulmonary hypertension, myocardial infarction, heart failure, acute kidney injury, and asthma.
In recent years, endothelin antagonists have been used to treat primary pulmonary hypertension. Understanding the role of endothelin in various diseases can help in the development of new treatments and therapies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a severe headache that started 3 weeks ago and is localised to the back of the head. He rates it 8/10 on a pain scale and reports that it has gradually become worse. The patient has a medical history of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome.
Unfortunately, the patient passes away after suffering a brainstem stroke.
During the autopsy, a vertebral artery dissection is discovered at the point of entry into the cranial cavity.
Where is this location?Your Answer: Foramen ovale
Correct Answer: Foramen magnum
Explanation:The vertebral arteries pass through the foramen magnum to enter the cranial cavity.
Other foramina and their corresponding arteries include the stylomastoid foramen for the posterior auricular artery (stylomastoid branch), the foramen ovale for the accessory meningeal artery, and the foramen spinosum for the middle meningeal artery.
The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis formed by the internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries on the bottom surface of the brain. It is divided into two halves and is made up of various arteries, including the anterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, internal carotid artery, posterior communicating artery, and posterior cerebral arteries. The circle and its branches supply blood to important areas of the brain, such as the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain.
The vertebral arteries enter the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum and lie in the subarachnoid space. They then ascend on the anterior surface of the medulla oblongata and unite to form the basilar artery at the base of the pons. The basilar artery has several branches, including the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, labyrinthine artery, pontine arteries, superior cerebellar artery, and posterior cerebral artery.
The internal carotid arteries also have several branches, such as the posterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, middle cerebral artery, and anterior choroid artery. These arteries supply blood to different parts of the brain, including the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. Overall, the Circle of Willis and its branches play a crucial role in providing oxygen and nutrients to the brain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman with resistant hypertension is currently on ramipril and amlodipine. The GP wants to add a diuretic that primarily acts on the distal convoluted tubule. What diuretic should be considered?
Your Answer: Acetazolamide (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor)
Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide (thiazide diuretic)
Explanation:Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlorthalidone.
Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.
It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 9
Correct
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A 63-year-old woman comes to a vascular clinic complaining of varicosities in the area supplied by the short saphenous vein.
Into which vessel does this vein directly empty?Your Answer: Popliteal vein
Explanation:The correct answer is that the short saphenous vein passes posterior to the lateral malleolus and ascends between the two heads of the gastrocnemius muscle to empty directly into the popliteal vein. The long saphenous vein drains directly into the femoral vein and does not receive blood from the short saphenous vein. The dorsal venous arch drains the foot into the short and great saphenous veins but does not receive blood from either. The posterior tibial vein is part of the deep venous system but does not directly receive the short saphenous vein.
The Anatomy of Saphenous Veins
The human body has two saphenous veins: the long saphenous vein and the short saphenous vein. The long saphenous vein is often used for bypass surgery or removed as a treatment for varicose veins. It originates at the first digit where the dorsal vein merges with the dorsal venous arch of the foot and runs up the medial side of the leg. At the knee, it runs over the posterior border of the medial epicondyle of the femur bone before passing laterally to lie on the anterior surface of the thigh. It then enters an opening in the fascia lata called the saphenous opening and joins with the femoral vein in the region of the femoral triangle at the saphenofemoral junction. The long saphenous vein has several tributaries, including the medial marginal, superficial epigastric, superficial iliac circumflex, and superficial external pudendal veins.
On the other hand, the short saphenous vein originates at the fifth digit where the dorsal vein merges with the dorsal venous arch of the foot, which attaches to the great saphenous vein. It passes around the lateral aspect of the foot and runs along the posterior aspect of the leg with the sural nerve. It then passes between the heads of the gastrocnemius muscle and drains into the popliteal vein, approximately at or above the level of the knee joint.
Understanding the anatomy of saphenous veins is crucial for medical professionals who perform surgeries or treatments involving these veins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which ions are responsible for the plateau phase of the cardiac action potential in stage 2?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Calcium in, potassium out
Explanation:The Phases of Cardiac Action Potential
The cardiac action potential is a complex process that involves four distinct phases. The first phase, known as phase 0 or the depolarisation phase, is initiated by the opening of fast Na channels, which allows an influx of Na ions into the cell. This influx of positively charged ions creates a positive current that rapidly depolarises the cell membrane.
In the second phase, known as phase 1 or initial repolarisation, the fast Na channels close, causing a brief period of repolarisation. This is followed by phase 2 or the plateau phase, which is characterised by the opening of K and Ca channels. The influx of calcium ions into the cell is balanced by the efflux of potassium ions, resulting in a net neutral current.
The final phase, phase 3 or repolarisation, is initiated by the closure of Ca channels, which causes a net negative current as K+ ions continue to leave the cell. It is important to note that the inward movement of sodium alone would not result in a plateau, as it represents a positive current. The normal action of the sodium-potassium pump involves the inward movement of potassium combined with the outward movement of sodium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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