00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - The combination of hypomania and depression is referred to as a subtype in...

    Incorrect

    • The combination of hypomania and depression is referred to as a subtype in Klerman's expanded classification of bipolar disorders as:

      Your Answer: Bipolar III

      Correct Answer: Bipolar II

      Explanation:

      Bipolar Disorder: Historical Subtypes

      Bipolar disorder is a complex mental illness that has been classified into several subtypes over the years. The most widely recognized subtypes are Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymia. However, there have been other classification systems proposed by experts in the field.

      In 1981, Gerald Klerman proposed a classification system that included Bipolar I, Bipolar II, Bipolar III, Bipolar IV, Bipolar V, and Bipolar VI. This system was later expanded by Akiskal in 1999, who added more subtypes such as Bipolar I 1/2, Bipolar II 1/2, and Bipolar III 1/2.

      Bipolar I is characterized by full-blown mania, while Bipolar II is characterized by hypomania with depression. Cyclothymia is a milder form of bipolar disorder that involves cycling between hypomania and mild depression.

      Other subtypes include Bipolar III, which is associated with hypomania of mania precipitated by antidepressant drugs, and Bipolar IV, which is characterized by hyperthymic depression. Bipolar V is associated with depressed patients who have a family history of bipolar illness, while Bipolar VI is characterized by mania without depression (unipolar mania).

      Overall, the classification of bipolar disorder subtypes has evolved over time, and different experts have proposed different systems. However, the most widely recognized subtypes are still Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the most frequently utilized method of suicide among individuals receiving mental...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequently utilized method of suicide among individuals receiving mental health services?

      Your Answer: Hanging

      Explanation:

      Patients and the general population tend to prefer hanging as their method of choice.

      2021 National Confidential Inquiry into Suicide and Safety in Mental Health (NCISH) report reveals key findings on suicide rates in the UK from 2008-2018. The rates have remained stable over the years, with a slight increase following the 2008 recession and another rise since 2015/2016. Approximately 27% of all general population suicides were patients who had contact with mental health services within 12 months of suicide. The most common methods of suicide were hanging/strangulation (52%) and self-poisoning (22%), mainly through prescription opioids. In-patient suicides have continued to decrease, with most of them occurring on the ward itself from low lying ligature points. The first three months after discharge remain a high-risk period, with 13% of all patient suicides occurring within this time frame. Nearly half (48%) of patient suicides were from patients who lived alone. In England, suicide rates are higher in males (17.2 per 100,000) than females (5.4 per 100,000), with the highest age-specific suicide rate for males in the 45-49 years age group (27.1 deaths per 100,000 males) and for females in the same age group (9.2 deaths per 100,000). Hanging remains the most common method of suicide in the UK, accounting for 59.4% of all suicides among males and 45.0% of all suicides among females.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is not considered an effective prophylaxis for bipolar affective...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not considered an effective prophylaxis for bipolar affective disorder, despite the use of other medications such as valproate, olanzapine, lithium, and quetiapine, and the avoidance of antidepressants due to their lack of significant benefit?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to avoid the use of antidepressants in bipolar disorder whenever possible, as studies have not shown significant benefits from their continued use (Maudsley 13th Ed).

      Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management

      Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.

      Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.

      The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.

      It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.

      Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What are the endocrine changes observed in individuals with Anorexia nervosa? ...

    Correct

    • What are the endocrine changes observed in individuals with Anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer: Increased cortisol levels

      Explanation:

      Eating Disorders: Lab Findings and Medical Complications

      Eating disorders can lead to a range of medical complications, including renal failure, peripheral edema, sinus bradycardia, QT-prolongation, pericardial effusion, and slowed GI motility. Other complications include constipation, cathartic colon, esophageal esophagitis, hair loss, and dental erosion. Blood abnormalities are also common in patients with eating disorders, including hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypophosphatemia, and hypoglycemia. Additionally, patients may experience leucopenia, anemia, low albumin, elevated liver enzymes, and vitamin deficiencies. These complications can cause significant morbidity and mortality in patients with eating disorders. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients for these complications and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      323.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following has the greatest number of risk factors associated with...

    Correct

    • Which of the following has the greatest number of risk factors associated with completed suicide?

      Your Answer: 45-year-old male, divorced, unemployed, social class V

      Explanation:

      Suicide Risk Factors

      Risk factors for completed suicide are numerous and include various demographic, social, and psychological factors. Men are at a higher risk than women, with the risk peaking at age 45 for men and age 55 for women. Being unmarried and unemployed are also risk factors. Concurrent mental disorders are present in about 90% of people who commit suicide, with depression being the most commonly associated disorder. Previous suicide attempts and substance misuse are also significant risk factors. Co-existing serious medical conditions and personality factors such as rigid thinking, pessimism, and perfectionism also increase the risk of suicide. It is important to identify and address these risk factors in order to prevent suicide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the accuracy of the standardised mortality ratio for individuals with schizophrenia?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accuracy of the standardised mortality ratio for individuals with schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: It is higher in males

      Correct Answer: It falls with age

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia and Mortality

      Schizophrenia is associated with a reduced life expectancy, according to a meta-analysis of 37 studies. The analysis found that people with schizophrenia have a mean SMR (standardised mortality ratio) of 2.6, meaning that their risk of dying over the next year is 2.6 times higher than that of people without the condition. Suicide and accidents contribute significantly to the increased SMR, while cardiovascular disease is the leading natural cause of death. SMR decreases with age due to the early peak of suicides and the gradual rise in population mortality. There is no sex difference in SMR, but patients who are unmarried, unemployed, and of lower social class have higher SMRs. The majority of deaths in people with schizophrenia are due to natural causes, with circulatory disease being the most common. Other linked causes include diabetes, epilepsy, and respiratory disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      85.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A teenager complains that her boyfriend is extremely conceited, believes he is the...

    Correct

    • A teenager complains that her boyfriend is extremely conceited, believes he is the center of the universe, and will go to any lengths to achieve his desires. What personality disorder is he most likely suffering from?

      Your Answer: Narcissistic personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The inclination to prioritize one’s own desires over others, regardless of the consequences, is a shared characteristic of both antisocial and narcissistic personality disorders. Nevertheless, the conceitedness and exaggerated belief in one’s own significance are particularly indicative of narcissistic personality disorder.

      Personality Disorder (Narcissistic)

      Narcissistic personality disorder is a mental illness characterized by individuals having an exaggerated sense of their own importance, an intense need for excessive attention and admiration, troubled relationships, and a lack of empathy towards others. The DSM-5 diagnostic manual outlines the criteria for this disorder, which includes a pervasive pattern of grandiosity, a need for admiration, and a lack of empathy. To be diagnosed with this disorder, an individual must exhibit at least five of the following traits: a grandiose sense of self-importance, preoccupation with fantasies of unlimited success, belief in being special and unique, excessive admiration requirements, a sense of entitlement, interpersonal exploitation, lack of empathy, envy towards others, and arrogant of haughty behaviors. While the previous version of the ICD included narcissistic personality disorder, the ICD-11 does not have a specific reference to this condition, but it can be coded under the category of general personality disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The level one treatment in the STAR*D study involved the use of which...

    Correct

    • The level one treatment in the STAR*D study involved the use of which SSRI?

      Your Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      STAR*D Study

      The STAR*D trial, conducted in the USA, aimed to evaluate the effectiveness of treatments for major depressive disorder in real-world patients. The study involved four levels of treatment, with patients starting at level 1 and progressing to the next level if they did not respond. The outcome measure used was remission, and the study entry criteria were broadly defined to ensure results could be generalized to a wide range of patients.

      A total of 4,041 patients were enrolled in the first level of treatment, making STAR*D the largest prospective clinical trial of depression ever conducted. In level 1, one-third of participants achieved remission, and a further 10-15% responded but not to the point of remission. If treatment with an initial SSRI fails, then one in four patients who choose to switch to another medication will enter remission, regardless of whether the second medication is an SSRI of a medication of a different class. If patients choose to add a medication instead, one in three will get better.

      Overall, the STAR*D study provides valuable insights into the effectiveness of different treatments for major depressive disorder and highlights the importance of considering alternative treatments if initial treatment fails.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 60-year-old woman from South Africa presents with cognitive impairment, slow movements, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman from South Africa presents with cognitive impairment, slow movements, and some psychotic symptoms. She has been referred to you by the medical team at the local hospital who are investigating her for an unexplained low-grade fever. Upon assessment, you find that she is relatively oriented and her sleep pattern is not disrupted. She is aware of her memory issues. During the physical examination, you observe signs of hypertonia and hyperreflexia. Additionally, there are raised purple plaques on her ankle. What is your preferred diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lyme disease

      Correct Answer: HIV dementia

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms are consistent with subcortical dementia caused by HIV. Kaposi’s sarcoma plaques, African origin, and a fever of unknown origin provide additional evidence for this diagnosis. While delirium can be a symptom of cerebral malaria and Lyme disease, the patient in this case remains oriented. Culture bound syndromes typically do not cause fever. Alzheimer’s disease typically affects the cortical regions of the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      3829.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following factors have not been proven to be a risk...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following factors have not been proven to be a risk factor for postnatal depression?

      Your Answer: Youth

      Correct Answer: Older age of the mother

      Explanation:

      Perinatal Depression, Baby Blues, and Postpartum Depression

      Perinatal depression, also known as postpartum depression, is a common mood disorder experienced by new mothers after childbirth. The term baby blues is used to describe the emotional lability that some mothers experience during the first week after childbirth, which usually resolves by day 10 without treatment. The prevalence of baby blues is around 40%. Postpartum depression, on the other hand, refers to depression that occurs after childbirth. While neither DSM-5 nor ICD-11 specifically mention postpartum depression, both diagnostic systems offer categories that encompass depression during pregnancy of in the weeks following delivery. The prevalence of postpartum depression is approximately 10-15%.

      Various factors have been shown to increase the risk of postnatal depression, including youth, marital and family conflict, lack of social support, anxiety and depression during pregnancy, substance misuse, previous pregnancy loss, ambivalence about the current pregnancy, and frequent antenatal admissions to a maternity hospital. However, obstetric factors such as length of labor, assisted delivery, of separation of the mother from the baby in the Special Care Baby Unit do not seem to influence the development of postnatal depression. Additionally, social class does not appear to be associated with postnatal depression.

      Puerperal psychosis, along with severe depression, is thought to be mainly caused by biological factors, while psychosocial factors are most important in the milder postnatal depressive illnesses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which intervention would be most likely to decrease a patient's alanine aminotransferase (ALT)...

    Correct

    • Which intervention would be most likely to decrease a patient's alanine aminotransferase (ALT) levels?

      Your Answer: Vigabatrin

      Explanation:

      Vigabatrin, an AED, is recognized for its ability to decrease AST and ALT levels, but it is also associated with the development of visual field impairments.

      Biochemical Changes Associated with Psychotropic Drugs

      Psychotropic drugs can have incidental biochemical of haematological effects that need to be identified and monitored. The evidence for many of these changes is limited to case reports of information supplied by manufacturers. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition summarises the important changes to be aware of.

      One important parameter to monitor is ALT, a liver enzyme. Agents that can raise ALT levels include clozapine, haloperidol, olanzapine, quetiapine, chlorpromazine, mirtazapine, moclobemide, SSRIs, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, and valproate. On the other hand, vigabatrin can lower ALT levels.

      Another liver enzyme to monitor is ALP. Haloperidol, clozapine, olanzapine, duloxetine, sertraline, and carbamazepine can raise ALP levels, while buprenorphine and zolpidem (rarely) can lower them.

      AST levels are often associated with ALT levels. Trifluoperazine and vigabatrin can raise AST levels, while agents that raise ALT levels can also raise AST levels.

      TSH levels, which are associated with thyroid function, can be affected by aripiprazole, carbamazepine, lithium, quetiapine, rivastigmine, sertraline, and valproate (slightly). Moclobemide can lower TSH levels.

      Thyroxine levels can be affected by dexamphetamine, moclobemide, lithium (which can raise of lower levels), aripiprazole (rarely), and quetiapine (rarely).

      Overall, it is important to monitor these biochemical changes when prescribing psychotropic drugs to ensure the safety and well-being of patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      238.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - For which condition is lithium the most suitable treatment option? ...

    Correct

    • For which condition is lithium the most suitable treatment option?

      Your Answer: Steroid-induced psychosis

      Explanation:

      The preferred treatment for pseudologia fantastica (pathological lying) is psychotherapy.

      Lithium – Clinical Usage

      Lithium is primarily used as a prophylactic agent for bipolar disorder, where it reduces the severity and number of relapses. It is also effective as an augmentation agent in unipolar depression and for treating aggressive and self-mutilating behavior, steroid-induced psychosis, and to raise WCC in people using clozapine.

      Before prescribing lithium, renal, cardiac, and thyroid function should be checked, along with a Full Blood Count (FBC) and BMI. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Once daily administration is preferred, and various preparations are available. Abrupt discontinuation of lithium increases the risk of relapse, and if lithium is to be discontinued, the dose should be reduced gradually over a period of at least 4 weeks.

      Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and it is often an exam hot topic. Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio, and samples should ideally be taken 12 hours after the dose. The target range for prophylaxis is 0.6–0.75 mmol/L.

      Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI and neuro symptoms.

      The severity of toxicity can be assessed using the AMDISEN rating scale.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old patient on clozapine has a white blood cell count of 4...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient on clozapine has a white blood cell count of 4 10^9/L. Which of the following does this correspond to?

      Your Answer: This is a normal blood result

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What characteristic distinguishes mania from hypomania? ...

    Correct

    • What characteristic distinguishes mania from hypomania?

      Your Answer: Delusions of grandeur

      Explanation:

      While psychotic symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations can manifest during mania, they are not a requirement for diagnosis. Hypomania, on the other hand, is a milder form of mania that does not involve psychotic symptoms.

      Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis

      Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.

      Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.

      Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.

      Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.

      Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.

      Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 56-year-old man presents with a variety of physical symptoms that have been...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man presents with a variety of physical symptoms that have been present for the past 30 years. Numerous investigations and review by a variety of specialties have indicated no organic basis for his symptoms.

      This is an example of:

      Your Answer: Bodily distress disorder

      Explanation:

      Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterized by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behavior. Somatoform disorders are characterized by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterized by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. Dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. The symptoms of these disorders result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning. Diagnosis of these disorders involves a thorough evaluation of the individual’s symptoms and medical history, as well as ruling out other possible causes of the symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      37.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What is the most frequently observed symptom in individuals diagnosed with schizophrenia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequently observed symptom in individuals diagnosed with schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Ideas of reference

      Correct Answer: Lack of insight

      Explanation:

      – Schizophrenia and other primary psychotic disorders are characterized by impairments in reality testing and alterations in behavior.
      – Schizophrenia is a chronic mental health disorder with symptoms including delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech of behavior, and impaired cognitive ability.
      – The essential features of schizophrenia include persistent delusions, persistent hallucinations, disorganized thinking, experiences of influence, passivity of control, negative symptoms, grossly disorganized behavior, and psychomotor disturbances.
      – Schizoaffective disorder is diagnosed when all diagnostic requirements for schizophrenia are met concurrently with mood symptoms that meet the diagnostic requirements of a moderate or severe depressive episode, a manic episode, of a mixed episode.
      – Schizotypal disorder is an enduring pattern of unusual speech, perceptions, beliefs, and behaviors that are not of sufficient intensity of duration to meet the diagnostic requirements of schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, of delusional disorder.
      – Acute and transient psychotic disorder is characterized by an acute onset of psychotic symptoms, which can include delusions, hallucinations, disorganized thinking, of experiences of influence, passivity of control, that emerge without a prodrome, progressing from a non-psychotic state to a clearly psychotic state within 2 weeks.
      – Delusional disorder is diagnosed when there is a presence of a delusion of set of related delusions, typically persisting for at least 3 months and often much longer, in the absence of a depressive, manic, of mixed episode.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What factor is the most probable cause of neural tube defects? ...

    Correct

    • What factor is the most probable cause of neural tube defects?

      Your Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      Paroxetine Use During Pregnancy: Is it Safe?

      Prescribing medication during pregnancy and breastfeeding is challenging due to the potential risks to the fetus of baby. No psychotropic medication has a UK marketing authorization specifically for pregnant of breastfeeding women. Women are encouraged to breastfeed unless they are taking carbamazepine, clozapine, of lithium. The risk of spontaneous major malformation is 2-3%, with drugs accounting for approximately 5% of all abnormalities. Valproate and carbamazepine are associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, and lithium is associated with cardiac malformations. Benzodiazepines are associated with oral clefts and floppy baby syndrome. Antidepressants have been linked to preterm delivery and congenital malformation, but most findings have been inconsistent. TCAs have been used widely without apparent detriment to the fetus, but their use in the third trimester is known to produce neonatal withdrawal effects. Sertraline appears to result in the least placental exposure among SSRIs. MAOIs should be avoided in pregnancy due to a suspected increased risk of congenital malformations and hypertensive crisis. If a pregnant woman is stable on an antipsychotic and likely to relapse without medication, she should continue the antipsychotic. Depot antipsychotics should not be offered to pregnant of breastfeeding women unless they have a history of non-adherence with oral medication. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest specific drugs for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. NICE CG192 recommends high-intensity psychological interventions for moderate to severe depression and anxiety disorders. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with mania of psychosis who are not taking psychotropic medication. Promethazine is recommended for insomnia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      66.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What is the approximate incidence of agranulocytosis linked to the usage of clozapine?...

    Correct

    • What is the approximate incidence of agranulocytosis linked to the usage of clozapine?

      Your Answer: 1%

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is the likelihood of individuals who visit an emergency department after self-harm...

    Correct

    • What is the likelihood of individuals who visit an emergency department after self-harm engaging in self-harm again within a year?

      Your Answer: 15%

      Explanation:

      Approximately 16% of individuals who visit an emergency department after self-harm will engage in self-harm again within the next year.

      Self-Harm and its Management

      Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.

      Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.

      In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.

      For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What are some factors that increase the risk of developing schizophrenia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are some factors that increase the risk of developing schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Having lost his mother before the age of 14

      Correct Answer: Being a migrant

      Explanation:

      The AESOP study provides the latest evidence that being a migrant significantly increases the likelihood of developing schizophrenia, as it is a well-established risk factor.

      Schizophrenia: Understanding the Risk Factors

      Social class is a significant risk factor for schizophrenia, with people of lower socioeconomic status being more likely to develop the condition. Two hypotheses attempt to explain this relationship, one suggesting that environmental exposures common in lower social class conditions are responsible, while the other suggests that people with schizophrenia tend to drift towards the lower class due to their inability to compete for good jobs.

      While early studies suggested that schizophrenia was more common in black populations than in white, the current consensus is that there are no differences in rates of schizophrenia by race. However, there is evidence that rates are higher in migrant populations and ethnic minorities.

      Gender and age do not appear to be consistent risk factors for schizophrenia, with conflicting evidence on whether males of females are more likely to develop the condition. Marital status may also play a role, with females with schizophrenia being more likely to marry than males.

      Family history is a strong risk factor for schizophrenia, with the risk increasing significantly for close relatives of people with the condition. Season of birth and urban versus rural place of birth have also been shown to impact the risk of developing schizophrenia.

      Obstetric complications, particularly prenatal nutritional deprivation, brain injury, and influenza, have been identified as significant risk factors for schizophrenia. Understanding these risk factors can help identify individuals who may be at higher risk for developing the condition and inform preventative measures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What is the estimated percentage of individuals in Great Britain who have a...

    Incorrect

    • What is the estimated percentage of individuals in Great Britain who have a personality disorder?

      Your Answer: 5.80%

      Correct Answer: 4.40%

      Explanation:

      Personality Disorder: Understanding the Clinical Diagnosis

      A personality disorder is a long-standing pattern of behavior and inner experience that deviates significantly from cultural expectations, is inflexible and pervasive, and causes distress of impairment. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 have different approaches to classifying personality disorders. DSM-5 divides them into 10 categories, while ICD-11 has a general category with six trait domains that can be added. To diagnose a personality disorder, clinicians must first establish that the general diagnostic threshold is met before identifying the subtype(s) present. The course of personality disorders varies, with some becoming less evident of remitting with age, while others persist.

      DSM-5 and ICD-11 have different classification systems for personality disorders. DSM-5 divides them into three clusters (A, B, and C), while ICD-11 has a general category with six trait domains that can be added. The prevalence of personality disorders in Great Britain is 4.4%, with Cluster C being the most common. Clinicians are advised to avoid diagnosing personality disorders in children, although a diagnosis can be made in someone under 18 if the features have been present for at least a year (except for antisocial personality disorder).

      Overall, understanding the clinical diagnosis of personality disorders is important for effective treatment and management of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A teenager is referred for a review following a stressful life event associated...

    Correct

    • A teenager is referred for a review following a stressful life event associated with a deterioration in their mental health.

      How can we distinguish between post traumatic stress disorder and an acute stress reaction in this case?

      Your Answer: The duration of the symptoms

      Explanation:

      The primary distinction between PTSD and an acute stress reaction lies in the length of time that symptoms persist. If symptoms have not significantly diminished within a month, the diagnosis shifts to PTSD; prior to that point, it is classified as an acute stress reaction.

      Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - In a patient with hyperlipidaemia and a psychotic illness, which antipsychotic medication would...

    Correct

    • In a patient with hyperlipidaemia and a psychotic illness, which antipsychotic medication would have the least impact on their lipid profile and should be considered as a treatment option?

      Your Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Out of all the atypical antipsychotics, aripiprazole has the smallest impact on the lipid profile.

      Antipsychotics and Dyslipidaemia

      Antipsychotics have been found to have an impact on lipid profile. Among the second generation antipsychotics, olanzapine and clozapine have been shown to have the greatest effect on lipids, followed by quetiapine and risperidone. Aripiprazole and ziprasidone, on the other hand, appear to have minimal effects on lipids.

      Maudsley Guidelines 10th Edition

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      60.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What is the recommended psychological treatment for an adult with mild body dysmorphic...

    Incorrect

    • What is the recommended psychological treatment for an adult with mild body dysmorphic disorder?

      Your Answer: Psychodynamic psychotherapy

      Correct Answer: Exposure and response prevention

      Explanation:

      Systematic desensitization is a therapeutic technique used to treat phobias by gradually exposing the individual to the feared object of situation in a controlled and safe environment, while teaching them relaxation techniques to manage their anxiety.

      Exposure and response prevention is a cognitive-behavioral therapy used to treat obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and body dysmorphic disorder (BDD). It involves exposing the individual to their obsessive thoughts of compulsive behaviors, while preventing them from engaging in their usual response. This helps to break the cycle of anxiety and compulsions, and teaches the individual to tolerate their distress without resorting to their usual rituals.

      Maudsley Guidelines

      First choice: SSRI of clomipramine (SSRI preferred due to tolerability issues with clomipramine)

      Second line:

      – SSRI + antipsychotic
      – Citalopram + clomipramine
      – Acetylcysteine + (SSRI of clomipramine)
      – Lamotrigine + SSRI
      – Topiramate + SSRI

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What is a true statement regarding schizophrenia in women? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement regarding schizophrenia in women?

      Your Answer: Schizophrenia in women is associated with fewer structural brain abnormalities than in men

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia presents differently in men and women. Women tend to have a later onset and respond better to treatment, requiring lower doses of antipsychotics. Men, on the other hand, have an earlier onset, poorer premorbid functioning, and more negative symptoms and cognitive deficits. They also have greater structural brain and neurophysiological abnormalities. Females display more affective symptoms, auditory hallucinations, and persecutory delusions, but have a more favorable short- and middle-term course of illness with less smoking and substance abuse. Families of males are more critical, and expressed emotion has a greater negative impact on them. Certain neurological soft signs may be more prevalent in males. There are no clear sex differences in family history, obstetric complications, and minor physical anomalies.

      Schizophrenia Epidemiology

      Prevalence:
      – In England, the estimated annual prevalence for psychotic disorders (mostly schizophrenia) is around 0.4%.
      – Internationally, the estimated annual prevalence for psychotic disorders is around 0.33%.
      – The estimated lifetime prevalence for psychotic disorders in England is approximately 0.63% at age 43, consistent with the typically reported 1% prevalence over the life course.
      – Internationally, the estimated lifetime prevalence for psychotic disorders is around 0.48%.

      Incidence:
      – In England, the pooled incidence rate for non-affective psychosis (mostly schizophrenia) is estimated to be 15.2 per 100,000 years.
      – Internationally, the incidence of schizophrenia is about 0.20/1000/year.

      Gender:
      – The male to female ratio is 1:1.

      Course and Prognosis:
      – Long-term follow-up studies suggest that after 5 years of illness, one quarter of people with schizophrenia recover completely, and for most people, the condition gradually improves over their lifetime.
      – Schizophrenia has a worse prognosis with onset in childhood of adolescence than with onset in adult life.
      – Younger age of onset predicts a worse outcome.
      – Failure to comply with treatment is a strong predictor of relapse.
      – Over a 2-year period, one-third of patients with schizophrenia showed a benign course, and two-thirds either relapsed of failed to recover.
      – People with schizophrenia have a 2-3 fold increased risk of premature death.

      Winter Births:
      – Winter births are associated with an increased risk of schizophrenia.

      Urbanicity:
      – There is a higher incidence of schizophrenia associated with urbanicity.

      Migration:
      – There is a higher incidence of schizophrenia associated with migration.

      Class:
      – There is a higher prevalence of schizophrenia among lower socioeconomic classes.

      Learning Disability:
      – Prevalence rates for schizophrenia in people with learning disabilities are approximately three times greater than for the general population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - What strategies are effective in managing obsessive compulsive disorder? ...

    Correct

    • What strategies are effective in managing obsessive compulsive disorder?

      Your Answer: Exposure and response prevention

      Explanation:

      Maudsley Guidelines

      First choice: SSRI of clomipramine (SSRI preferred due to tolerability issues with clomipramine)

      Second line:

      – SSRI + antipsychotic
      – Citalopram + clomipramine
      – Acetylcysteine + (SSRI of clomipramine)
      – Lamotrigine + SSRI
      – Topiramate + SSRI

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is a licensed treatment for bulimia nervosa? ...

    Correct

    • What is a licensed treatment for bulimia nervosa?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants (Licensed Indications)

      The following table outlines the specific licensed indications for antidepressants in adults, as per the Maudsley Guidelines and the British National Formulary. It is important to note that all antidepressants are indicated for depression.

      – Nocturnal enuresis in children: Amitriptyline, Imipramine, Nortriptyline
      – Phobic and obsessional states: Clomipramine
      – Adjunctive treatment of cataplexy associated with narcolepsy: Clomipramine
      – Panic disorder and agoraphobia: Citalopram, Escitalopram, Sertraline, Paroxetine, Venlafaxine
      – Social anxiety/phobia: Escitalopram, Paroxetine, Sertraline, Moclobemide, Venlafaxine
      – Generalised anxiety disorder: Escitalopram, Paroxetine, Duloxetine, Venlafaxine
      – OCD: Escitalopram, Fluoxetine, Fluvoxamine, Paroxetine, Sertraline, Clomipramine
      – Bulimia nervosa: Fluoxetine
      – PTSD: Paroxetine, Sertraline

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - What factor is most likely to trigger a seizure in a patient with...

    Incorrect

    • What factor is most likely to trigger a seizure in a patient with epilepsy?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline

      Explanation:

      Out of the given options, Amitriptyline (TCA) is classified as high risk while the others are categorized as either moderate of low risk.

      Psychotropics and Seizure Threshold in People with Epilepsy

      People with epilepsy are at an increased risk for various mental health conditions, including depression, anxiety, psychosis, and suicide. It is important to note that the link between epilepsy and mental illness is bidirectional, as patients with mental health conditions also have an increased risk of developing new-onset epilepsy. Psychotropic drugs are often necessary for people with epilepsy, but they can reduce the seizure threshold and increase the risk of seizures. The following tables provide guidance on the seizure risk associated with different classes of antidepressants, antipsychotics, and ADHD medications. It is important to use caution and carefully consider the risks and benefits of these medications when treating people with epilepsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - What is the information provided by ICD-11 regarding bipolar disorder? ...

    Correct

    • What is the information provided by ICD-11 regarding bipolar disorder?

      Your Answer: Hypomania, is by definition, not accompanied by delusions of hallucinations

      Explanation:

      Manic episodes have similar symptoms to hypomanic episodes, but they are more severe and can cause significant impairment in various areas of life. They may also require hospitalization to prevent harm to oneself of others, of be accompanied by delusions of hallucinations. Hypomanic episodes last for at least several days and may include flight of ideas, which is not a helpful way to distinguish between the two. If a hypomanic syndrome occurs during treatment with antidepressants of other therapies, it should be considered a hypomanic episode if it persists after treatment is stopped and meets the full diagnostic criteria for hypomania.

      Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis

      Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.

      Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.

      Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.

      Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.

      Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.

      Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A teenager is involved in an attack on his school in which he...

    Correct

    • A teenager is involved in an attack on his school in which he sees his friend hit and killed with a gun. He sustains minor injuries and is taken to a nearby hospital.

      Within 48 hours he develops flashbacks of the scene which are vivid and intrusive. He also experiences nightmares which wake him from his sleep. He becomes extremely distressed and startles easily to any nearby noise.

      He is initially very reluctant to return to the school as he feels this is too stark a remainder of the trauma.

      Within one week he is feeling much better and whilst still somewhat shaken he is able to return to the school and the flashbacks and nightmares cease.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute stress reaction

      Explanation:

      Typical immediate responses to traumatic events may involve the full range of symptoms associated with Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder, including reliving the experience. However, these symptoms tend to diminish rapidly (for example, within one week of the event’s conclusion of removal from the dangerous environment, of within one month for ongoing stressors).

      Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      44.5
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - Which drug is known to have the smallest impact on the threshold for...

    Correct

    • Which drug is known to have the smallest impact on the threshold for seizures?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Individuals with epilepsy are at a low risk when taking sertraline.

      Psychotropics and Seizure Threshold in People with Epilepsy

      People with epilepsy are at an increased risk for various mental health conditions, including depression, anxiety, psychosis, and suicide. It is important to note that the link between epilepsy and mental illness is bidirectional, as patients with mental health conditions also have an increased risk of developing new-onset epilepsy. Psychotropic drugs are often necessary for people with epilepsy, but they can reduce the seizure threshold and increase the risk of seizures. The following tables provide guidance on the seizure risk associated with different classes of antidepressants, antipsychotics, and ADHD medications. It is important to use caution and carefully consider the risks and benefits of these medications when treating people with epilepsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - If a man has had 3 episodes of depression and has been in...

    Correct

    • If a man has had 3 episodes of depression and has been in full remission for the past 2 months, how long should he continue taking his antidepressant medication?

      Your Answer: 2 years following remission

      Explanation:

      Depression Treatment Duration

      It is recommended to treat a single episode of depression for 6-9 months after complete remission. Abruptly stopping antidepressants after recovery can lead to a relapse in 50% of patients within 3-6 months. For patients who have experienced 2 of more depressive episodes in recent history, NICE recommends a minimum of 2 years of antidepressant treatment. These guidelines are outlined in the Maudsley Guidelines 10th Edition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - Which of the following has a maximum licensed dose of 1200 mg/day? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following has a maximum licensed dose of 1200 mg/day?

      Your Answer: Amisulpride

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics (Maximum Doses)

      It is important to be aware of the maximum doses for commonly used antipsychotics. The following are the maximum doses for various antipsychotics:

      – Clozapine (oral): 900 mg/day
      – Haloperidol (oral): 20 mg/day
      – Olanzapine (oral): 20 mg/day
      – Quetiapine (oral): 750mg/day (for schizophrenia) and 800 mg/day (for bipolar disorder)
      – Risperidone (oral): 16 mg/day
      – Amisulpride (oral): 1200 mg/day
      – Aripiprazole (oral): 30 mg/day
      – Flupentixol (depot): 400 mg/week
      – Zuclopenthixol (depot): 600 mg/week
      – Haloperidol (depot): 300 mg every 4 weeks

      It is important to keep these maximum doses in mind when prescribing antipsychotics to patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      313.8
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - What is the recommended approach for managing a patient with severe depression according...

    Correct

    • What is the recommended approach for managing a patient with severe depression according to NICE guidelines?

      Your Answer: SSRI + high-intensity psychological interventions

      Explanation:

      Depression Treatment Guidelines by NICE

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) provides guidelines for the treatment of depression. The following are some general recommendations:

      – Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are preferred when prescribing antidepressants.
      – Antidepressants are not the first-line treatment for mild depression.
      – After remission, continue antidepressant treatment for at least six months.
      – Continue treatment for at least two years if at high risk of relapse of have a history of severe or prolonged episodes of inadequate response.
      – Use a stepped care approach to depression treatment, starting at the appropriate level based on the severity of depression.

      The stepped care approach involves the following steps:

      – Step 1: Assessment, support, psychoeducation, active monitoring, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
      – Step 2: Low-intensity psychosocial interventions, psychological interventions, medication, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
      – Step 3: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, combined treatments, collaborative care, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
      – Step 4: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, electroconvulsive therapy, crisis service, combined treatments, multiprofessional and inpatient care.

      Individual guided self-help programs based on cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) principles should be supported by a trained practitioner and last 9 to 12 weeks. Physical activity programs should consist of three sessions per week of moderate duration over 10 to 14 weeks.

      NICE advises against using antidepressants routinely to treat persistent subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression. However, they may be considered for people with a past history of moderate or severe depression, initial presentation of subthreshold depressive symptoms that have been present for a long period, of subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression that persist after other interventions.

      NICE recommends a combination of antidepressant medication and a high-intensity psychological intervention (CBT of interpersonal therapy) for people with moderate of severe depression. Augmentation of antidepressants with lithium, antipsychotics, of other antidepressants may be appropriate, but benzodiazepines, buspirone, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, of valproate should not be routinely used.

      When considering different antidepressants, venlafaxine is associated with a greater risk of death from overdose compared to other equally effective antidepressants. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) except for lofepramine are associated with the greatest risk in overdose. Higher doses of venlafaxine may exacerbate cardiac arrhythmias, and venlafaxine and duloxetine may exacerbate hypertension. TCAs may cause postural hypotension and arrhythmias, and mianserin requires hematological monitoring in elderly people.

      The review frequency depends on the age and suicide risk of the patient. If the patient is over 30 and has no suicide risk, see them after two weeks and then at intervals of 2-4 weeks for the first three months. If the patient is under 30 and has a suicide risk, see them after one week.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A teenager prescribed theophylline experiences depression and is prescribed an antidepressant. Which of...

    Correct

    • A teenager prescribed theophylline experiences depression and is prescribed an antidepressant. Which of the following SSRIs is most likely to increase their theophylline levels?

      Your Answer: Fluvoxamine

      Explanation:

      Theophylline levels may be elevated by Fluvoxamine due to its inhibition of CYP1A2, while Fluoxetine does not affect CYP1A2.

      Interactions of Antidepressants with Cytochrome P450 System

      Antidepressants, particularly selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), can have significant effects on the cytochrome P450 system. This can result in drug interactions that can affect the efficacy and safety of the medications.

      One example of such interaction is between fluvoxamine and theophylline. Fluvoxamine is a potent inhibitor of CYP1A2, which can lead to increased levels of theophylline in the body. This can cause adverse effects such as nausea, vomiting, and tremors.

      Another example is between fluoxetine and clozapine. Fluoxetine is a potent inhibitor of CYP2D6, which can increase the risk of seizures with clozapine. Clozapine is metabolized by CYP1A2, CYP3A4, and CYP2D6, and any inhibition of these enzymes can affect its metabolism and increase the risk of adverse effects.

      It is important to be aware of these interactions and monitor patients closely when prescribing antidepressants, especially in those who are taking other medications that are metabolized by the cytochrome P450 system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - If a patient with depression is resistant to conventional medicine, which herbal remedy...

    Correct

    • If a patient with depression is resistant to conventional medicine, which herbal remedy has been proven to be effective in treating depression?

      Your Answer: Hypericum perforatum

      Explanation:

      Herbal Remedies for Depression and Anxiety

      Depression can be treated with Hypericum perforatum (St John’s Wort), which has been found to be more effective than placebo and as effective as standard antidepressants. However, its use is not advised due to uncertainty about appropriate doses, variation in preparations, and potential interactions with other drugs. St John’s Wort can cause serotonin syndrome and decrease levels of drugs such as warfarin and ciclosporin. The effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill may also be reduced.

      Anxiety can be reduced with Piper methysticum (kava), but it cannot be recommended for clinical use due to its association with hepatotoxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - Which statement accurately reflects the NICE guidelines on self-harm? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately reflects the NICE guidelines on self-harm?

      Your Answer: Most people who self harm do not meet criteria for a psychiatric diagnosis at the time they are assessed

      Correct Answer: All children who have self-harmed should be admitted overnight to a paediatric ward and assessed the following day

      Explanation:

      The NICE Guidelines from 2004 provide several recommendations regarding self-harm. It is advised that harm minimisation strategies should not be offered for those who have self-harmed by poisoning, as there are no safe limits for this type of self-harm. Children and young people who have self-harmed should be admitted overnight to a paediatric ward and fully assessed the following day before any further treatment of care is initiated. The admitting team should also obtain parental consent for mental health assessment of the child of young person. For individuals with borderline personality disorder who self-harm, dialectical behaviour therapy may be considered. It is important to note that most individuals who seek emergency department care following self-harm will meet criteria for one of more psychiatric diagnoses at the time of assessment, with depression being the most common diagnosis. However, within 12-16 months, two-thirds of those diagnosed with depression will no longer meet diagnostic criteria.

      Self-Harm and its Management

      Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.

      Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.

      In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.

      For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      69.2
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Which epilepsy medication can alleviate concerns about weight gain and may even lead...

    Correct

    • Which epilepsy medication can alleviate concerns about weight gain and may even lead to weight loss for a patient with epilepsy?

      Your Answer: Topiramate

      Explanation:

      Topiramate is a medication used for epilepsy and bipolar affective disorder. It works by inhibiting voltage gated sodium channels and increasing GABA levels. Unlike most psychotropic drugs, it is associated with weight loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 16-year-old male shows resistance towards consuming meals that are made for him....

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male shows resistance towards consuming meals that are made for him. What would be the most indicative of a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer: She secretly abused anabolic steroids

      Correct Answer: She achieves high grades at school

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Anorexia Nervosa

      Anorexia nervosa is a disorder characterized by an abnormal perception of body image. However, there are other conditions that may present with similar symptoms. This test aims to assess your knowledge of differential diagnoses and features that may indicate an alternative diagnosis.

      Patients with anorexia nervosa often feel well despite others’ concerns about their appearance. They may also be highly motivated and successful in their academic of professional pursuits. However, the absence of delusions about food being poisoned may suggest a different diagnosis, such as a psychotic illness.

      Heavy drinking is another factor that may indicate a different diagnosis, such as alcoholism. On the other hand, if the patient is secretly abusing laxatives, this would support a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa rather than the use of anabolic agents.

      In summary, it is important to consider other potential diagnoses when evaluating a patient with symptoms of anorexia nervosa. Factors such as delusions, heavy drinking, of the use of anabolic agents may suggest a different underlying condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 38-year-old lady attends clinic for a medication review. She has been established...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old lady attends clinic for a medication review. She has been established on lithium carbonate, once daily, for prophylaxis of recurrent depression for several years and has had stable levels. She also suffers from ankylosing spondylitis for which she has been prescribed celecoxib for many years. Her lithium level was checked three days prior to her appointment and was 0.6 mmol/L.

      When should her next lithium levels be checked?

      Your Answer: In one month

      Correct Answer: In three months

      Explanation:

      Patients taking lithium should be cautious when using celecoxib, an NSAID that has the potential to elevate lithium levels.

      Lithium – Clinical Usage

      Lithium is primarily used as a prophylactic agent for bipolar disorder, where it reduces the severity and number of relapses. It is also effective as an augmentation agent in unipolar depression and for treating aggressive and self-mutilating behavior, steroid-induced psychosis, and to raise WCC in people using clozapine.

      Before prescribing lithium, renal, cardiac, and thyroid function should be checked, along with a Full Blood Count (FBC) and BMI. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Once daily administration is preferred, and various preparations are available. Abrupt discontinuation of lithium increases the risk of relapse, and if lithium is to be discontinued, the dose should be reduced gradually over a period of at least 4 weeks.

      Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and it is often an exam hot topic. Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio, and samples should ideally be taken 12 hours after the dose. The target range for prophylaxis is 0.6–0.75 mmol/L.

      Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI and neuro symptoms.

      The severity of toxicity can be assessed using the AMDISEN rating scale.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 28-year-old woman is brought into hospital by her husband. She has been...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman is brought into hospital by her husband. She has been refusing to go outside for the past 12 months, telling her husband she is afraid of catching avian flu. This is despite there being no known cases of avian flu in the country. When asked about this she becomes agitated and says there are too many migrating birds in her garden. On further questioning she reports that approximately twelve months ago she saw a man lift his hat off his head twice in a supermarket and knew instantly that her life was in danger. She appears euthymic in mood. You note that her speech is highly disorganised and almost incoherent.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      The patient displays a strong fear for her safety due to what appears to be delusions regarding the severity of the threat posed by avian flu. Despite attempts to reason with her, her belief remains firmly held with delusional conviction. This is an example of delusional perception, a first rank symptom strongly indicative of schizophrenia. If the patient also exhibits disorganized speech for a duration of over six months, a diagnosis of schizophrenia is likely. Delusional disorder is not diagnosed if the criteria for schizophrenia are met. A schizophreniform disorder is similar to schizophrenia, but with a symptom duration of less than six months, while a brief psychotic disorder has a symptom duration of less than one month.

      – Schizophrenia and other primary psychotic disorders are characterized by impairments in reality testing and alterations in behavior.
      – Schizophrenia is a chronic mental health disorder with symptoms including delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech of behavior, and impaired cognitive ability.
      – The essential features of schizophrenia include persistent delusions, persistent hallucinations, disorganized thinking, experiences of influence, passivity of control, negative symptoms, grossly disorganized behavior, and psychomotor disturbances.
      – Schizoaffective disorder is diagnosed when all diagnostic requirements for schizophrenia are met concurrently with mood symptoms that meet the diagnostic requirements of a moderate or severe depressive episode, a manic episode, of a mixed episode.
      – Schizotypal disorder is an enduring pattern of unusual speech, perceptions, beliefs, and behaviors that are not of sufficient intensity of duration to meet the diagnostic requirements of schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, of delusional disorder.
      – Acute and transient psychotic disorder is characterized by an acute onset of psychotic symptoms, which can include delusions, hallucinations, disorganized thinking, of experiences of influence, passivity of control, that emerge without a prodrome, progressing from a non-psychotic state to a clearly psychotic state within 2 weeks.
      – Delusional disorder is diagnosed when there is a presence of a delusion of set of related delusions, typically persisting for at least 3 months and often much longer, in the absence of a depressive, manic, of mixed episode.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      70.8
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 65-year-old patient is titrated on clozapine which is shown to be effective...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient is titrated on clozapine which is shown to be effective at a dose of 450 mg daily. The dose is well tolerated. Plasma levels are taken which reveals the following:

      Clozapine (plasma) = 1100 µg/L
      Norclozapine = 730 µg/L

      What recommendation would you make to the patient based on these results?

      Your Answer: Add anticonvulsant and reduce the dose to achieve a clozapine level of < 1000 µg/L

      Correct Answer: Add anticonvulsant and maintain the dose

      Explanation:

      The validity of the sample is confirmed by the fact that the norclozapine level is around 2/3 of the clozapine level. To prevent seizures, an anticonvulsant should be included, but the current dose is both effective and well-tolerated, so it should be maintained. It should be noted that even with standard doses, high levels may occur.

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - Which statement accurately describes tardive dyskinesia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes tardive dyskinesia?

      Your Answer: It decreases when a patient becomes emotionally aroused

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Tardive Dyskinesia: Symptoms, Causes, Risk Factors, and Management

      Tardive dyskinesia (TD) is a condition that affects the face, limbs, and trunk of individuals who have been on neuroleptics for months to years. The movements fluctuate over time, increase with emotional arousal, decrease with relaxation, and disappear with sleep. The cause of TD remains theoretical, but the postsynaptic dopamine (D2) receptor supersensitivity hypothesis is the most persistent. Other hypotheses include the presynaptic dopaminergic/noradrenergic hyperactivity hypothesis, the cholinergic interneuron burnout hypothesis, the excitatory/oxidative stress hypothesis, and the synaptic plasticity hypothesis. Risk factors for TD include advancing age, female sex, ethnicity, longer illness duration, intellectual disability and brain damage, negative symptoms in schizophrenia, mood disorders, diabetes, smoking, alcohol and substance misuse, FGA vs SGA treatment, higher antipsychotic dose, anticholinergic co-treatment, and akathisia.

      Management options for TD include stopping any anticholinergic, reducing antipsychotic dose, changing to an antipsychotic with lower propensity for TD, and using tetrabenazine, vitamin E, of amantadine as add-on options. Clozapine is the antipsychotic most likely to be associated with resolution of symptoms. Vesicular monoamine transporter type 2 (VMAT2) inhibitors are agents that cause a depletion of neuroactive peptides such as dopamine in nerve terminals and are used to treat chorea due to neurodegenerative diseases of dyskinesias due to neuroleptic medications (tardive dyskinesia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 35-year-old woman is being treated in the trauma unit after a head...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is being treated in the trauma unit after a head injury resulting from a car accident which occurred two weeks ago when she was driving under the influence of drugs and after not sleeping for 48 hours.
      She needed drug detoxification and neurosurgical input to remove a subdural haematoma. She had anterograde amnesia for 5 days. She has suffered a head injury previously whilst playing soccer.
      You see her to aid the trauma team with management of the drug dependence but they ask you to comment on her prognosis with regard to the head injury.
      Which of the following is not a negative prognostic factor in the patient's history?

      Your Answer: Young age

      Explanation:

      A negative prognosis in head injury can be indicated by various factors, including advanced age, history of prior head injury, post traumatic amnesia lasting longer than seven days, dependence on alcohol, severity of the head injury requiring neurosurgical intervention, and presence of the APOE4 gene.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      793.8
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - What is a true statement about bodily distress disorder? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about bodily distress disorder?

      Your Answer: It is synonymous with the DSM-5 term illness anxiety disorder

      Correct Answer: A diagnosis can be made even when a diagnosis is medically explained

      Explanation:

      Unsightly skin changes are not a typical symptom of bodily distress disorder as the condition is usually characterized by subjective symptoms that are difficult to measure objectively, such as pain, fatigue, and gastrointestinal of respiratory issues.

      Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterized by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behavior. Somatoform disorders are characterized by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterized by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. Dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. The symptoms of these disorders result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning. Diagnosis of these disorders involves a thorough evaluation of the individual’s symptoms and medical history, as well as ruling out other possible causes of the symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - Which of the following factors does not increase the risk of suicide? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following factors does not increase the risk of suicide?

      Your Answer: Being female

      Explanation:

      Suicide Risk Factors

      Risk factors for completed suicide are numerous and include various demographic, social, and psychological factors. Men are at a higher risk than women, with the risk peaking at age 45 for men and age 55 for women. Being unmarried and unemployed are also risk factors. Concurrent mental disorders are present in about 90% of people who commit suicide, with depression being the most commonly associated disorder. Previous suicide attempts and substance misuse are also significant risk factors. Co-existing serious medical conditions and personality factors such as rigid thinking, pessimism, and perfectionism also increase the risk of suicide. It is important to identify and address these risk factors in order to prevent suicide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A patient in their late 50s with a history of schizophrenia attends the...

    Correct

    • A patient in their late 50s with a history of schizophrenia attends the out-patient clinic. They were discharged from hospital 9 months ago following a relapse of their psychotic illness. They report sustained improvement in their psychotic symptoms. During the clinic they complain that they are feeling very low, and lacking energy and they have felt this way for the past month. Their carer also comments that they are not attending to their self care as they usually do. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Post-schizophrenic depression

      Explanation:

      If an individual experiences depression within a year of a relapse of schizophrenia, it should be classified as post-schizophrenic depression.

      Understanding Post-Psychotic Depression

      The term post-psychotic depression refers to three distinct groups of patients who experience depressive symptoms after an acute psychotic episode. The first group experiences depressive symptoms during the acute episode, which only become apparent as the positive psychotic symptoms resolve. The second group develops depressive symptoms as their positive psychotic symptoms resolve, while the third group experiences significant depressive symptoms after the acute episode has resolved.

      The timing of the onset of depressive symptoms is not important for diagnostic purposes. The ICD 10 diagnostic guidelines for post-schizophrenic depression require that the patient has met general criteria for schizophrenia within the past 12 months, with some schizophrenic symptoms still present but no longer dominating the clinical picture. The depressive symptoms must be prominent and distressing, fulfilling at least the criteria for a depressive episode, and have been present for at least two weeks. While they are rarely severe enough to meet the criteria for a severe depressive episode, they can still be debilitating for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      43.7
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - Which age group in the UK has the highest incidence of suicide? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which age group in the UK has the highest incidence of suicide?

      Your Answer: 25-29

      Correct Answer: 45-49

      Explanation:

      2021 National Confidential Inquiry into Suicide and Safety in Mental Health (NCISH) report reveals key findings on suicide rates in the UK from 2008-2018. The rates have remained stable over the years, with a slight increase following the 2008 recession and another rise since 2015/2016. Approximately 27% of all general population suicides were patients who had contact with mental health services within 12 months of suicide. The most common methods of suicide were hanging/strangulation (52%) and self-poisoning (22%), mainly through prescription opioids. In-patient suicides have continued to decrease, with most of them occurring on the ward itself from low lying ligature points. The first three months after discharge remain a high-risk period, with 13% of all patient suicides occurring within this time frame. Nearly half (48%) of patient suicides were from patients who lived alone. In England, suicide rates are higher in males (17.2 per 100,000) than females (5.4 per 100,000), with the highest age-specific suicide rate for males in the 45-49 years age group (27.1 deaths per 100,000 males) and for females in the same age group (9.2 deaths per 100,000). Hanging remains the most common method of suicide in the UK, accounting for 59.4% of all suicides among males and 45.0% of all suicides among females.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - How can a patient's history indicate the presence of mania instead of hypomania?...

    Correct

    • How can a patient's history indicate the presence of mania instead of hypomania?

      Your Answer: Auditory hallucinations

      Explanation:

      While psychotic symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations can manifest during mania, they are not a requirement for diagnosis. Hypomania, on the other hand, is a milder form of mania that does not involve psychotic symptoms.

      Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis

      Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.

      Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.

      Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.

      Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.

      Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.

      Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - How can bipolar disorder be distinguished from borderline personality disorder? ...

    Correct

    • How can bipolar disorder be distinguished from borderline personality disorder?

      Your Answer: Episodic psychomotor activation

      Explanation:

      Psychomotor activation, also known as psychomotor agitation, is characterized by increased speed of thinking, difficulty focusing, excessive energy, and a sense of restlessness. These terms can be used interchangeably.

      Bipolar Disorder Versus BPD

      Bipolar disorder and borderline personality disorder (BPD) can be distinguished from each other based on several factors. Bipolar disorder is characterized by psychomotor activation, which is not typically seen in BPD. Additionally, self-destructive cutting behavior is rare in bipolar disorder but common in BPD. BPD is often associated with sexual trauma, while bipolar disorder has a lower prevalence of sexual trauma. Other BPD features such as identity disturbance and dissociative symptoms are not typically seen in bipolar disorder. Finally, bipolar disorder is highly heritable, while BPD has a lower genetic loading. Understanding these differences is important for accurate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      13.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

General Adult Psychiatry (34/50) 68%
Passmed