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  • Question 1 - A 34 year old woman of Singaporean descent arrives at clinic for a...

    Correct

    • A 34 year old woman of Singaporean descent arrives at clinic for a pre operative assessment of varicose veins. On auscultation, a mid diastolic murmur is heard at the apex. The murmur is accentuated when the patient lies in the left lateral position. Which of the following is the most likely underlying lesion?

      Your Answer: Mitral valve stenosis

      Explanation:

      A mid diastolic murmur at the apex is a classical description of a mitral stenosis (MS) murmur.
      MS a valvular anomaly of the mitral valve that leads to obstruction of blood flow into the left ventricle. The most common cause of MS is rheumatic fever. The clinical manifestations depend on the extent of stenosis: reduced mitral opening leads to progressive congestion behind the stenotic valve. Acute decompensation can cause pulmonary oedema. Echocardiography is the main diagnostic tool for evaluating the mitral valve apparatus, left atrial size, and pulmonary pressure. In the event of high grade and/or symptomatic stenosis, percutaneous valvuloplasty or surgical valve replacement is often required.

      Types and causes of murmurs:
      Ejection systolic: Aortic stenosis, pulmonary stenosis, HOCM, ASD, Fallot’s
      Pan-systolic: Mitral regurgitation, tricuspid regurgitation, VSD
      Late systolic: Mitral valve prolapse, coarctation of aorta
      Early diastolic: Aortic regurgitation, Graham-Steel murmur (pulmonary regurgitation)
      Mid diastolic: Mitral stenosis, Austin-Flint murmur (severe aortic regurgitation)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Vascular
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 33 year old man with fulminant ulcerative colitis underwent a subtotal colectomy....

    Correct

    • A 33 year old man with fulminant ulcerative colitis underwent a subtotal colectomy. Which type of stoma would most likely be fashioned?

      Your Answer: End ileostomy

      Explanation:

      Subtotal colectomy is resection of the entire right, transverse, left and part of the sigmoid colon. The rectal stump is closed and an end ileostomy fashioned in the right iliac fossa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • The Abdomen
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old woman is vomiting persistently following a laparoscopic appendicectomy for a perforated...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman is vomiting persistently following a laparoscopic appendicectomy for a perforated gangrenous appendicitis. Imaging shows some dilated small bowel loops. What should be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Insertion of wide bore nasogastric tube

      Explanation:

      This patient is likely to have paralytic ileus and the administration of antiemetic drugs, in this situation, will have no effect. It is, therefore, important to decompress the stomach with a wide bore nasogastric tube.

      Paralytic ileus is the obstruction of the intestine due to paralysis of the intestinal muscles. It commonly occurs after an abdominal surgery. Irrespective of the cause, paralytic ileus causes constipation, abdominal distention, nausea, and vomiting. It is a severe condition because if left untreated, an ileus can cut off blood supply to the intestines and cause tissue death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • The Abdomen
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 39 year old man presents to the clinic with a headache. His...

    Correct

    • A 39 year old man presents to the clinic with a headache. His blood pressure is found to be 175/110 on routine screening. Examination shows no abnormalities. However, further investigations show a left-sided adrenal mass on CT. Labs reveal an elevated plasma level of metanephrines. Which of the following would be the most likely cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer: Pheochromocytoma

      Explanation:

      Hypertension in a young patient without any obvious cause should be investigated.

      A pheochromocytoma is a catecholamine-secreting tumour typically located in the adrenal medulla. Pheochromocytomas are usually benign (∼ 90% of cases) but may also be malignant. Classic clinical features are due to excess sympathetic nervous system stimulation and involve episodic blood pressure crises with paroxysmal headaches, diaphoresis, heart palpitations, and pallor. However, a pheochromocytoma may also present asymptomatically or with persistent hypertension. Elevated catecholamine metabolites in the plasma or urine confirm the diagnosis, while imaging studies in patients with positive biochemistry are used to determine the location of the tumour. Surgical resection is the treatment of choice, but is only carried out once alpha blockade with phenoxybenzamine has become effective.

      Pheochromocytoma is said to follow a 10% rule:

      ,10% are extra-adrenal
      ,10% are bilateral
      ,10% are malignant
      ,10% are found in children
      ,10% are familial
      ,10% are not associated with hypertension
      ,10% contain calcification

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Breast And Endocrine Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 32 year old presents with symptoms of an anal fistula. The clinician...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old presents with symptoms of an anal fistula. The clinician examines him in the lithotomy position and the external opening of the fistula is identified in the 7 o'clock position. At which of the following locations is the internal opening most likely to be found?

      Your Answer: 6 o'clock

      Explanation:

      Goodsall’s rule can be used to clinically predict the course of an anorectal fistula tract. Imagine a line that bisects the anus in the coronal plane (transverse anal line). Any fistula that originates anterior to the line will course anteriorly in a direct route. Fistulae that originate posterior to the line will have a curved path. An exception to the rule are anterior fistulas lying more than 3 cm from the anus, which may open into the anterior midline of the anal canal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 45-year-old man has a long history of ulcerative colitis. His symptoms are...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man has a long history of ulcerative colitis. His symptoms are well-controlled with steroids. However, attempts at steroid weaning and use of steroid-sparing drugs have repeatedly failed. He wishes to avoid a permanent stoma. Which of the following should be the best operative strategy?

      Your Answer: Subtotal colectomy and construction of an ileoanal pouch

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      In patients with ulcerative colitis (UC) where medical management is not successful, surgical resection (pan-proctocolectomy) may offer a chance of cure. Those patients wishing to avoid a permanent stoma may be considered for an ileoanal pouch. However, this procedure is only offered in the elective setting.

      Patients with inflammatory bowel disease (UC and Crohn’s disease) frequently present in surgical practice. Elective indications for surgery in UC include disease that requires maximal therapy or prolonged courses of steroids.

      Long-standing UC is associated with a risk of malignant transformation. Dysplastic transformation of the colonic epithelium with associated mass lesions is an absolute indication for a proctocolectomy. Restorative options in UC include an ileoanal pouch. Complications of such a pouch include anastomotic dehiscence, pouchitis, and poor physiological function with seepage and soiling.
      .
      Emergency presentation of poorly-controlled colitis that fails to respond to medical therapy should usually be managed with a subtotal colectomy. Excision of the rectum is a procedure with a higher morbidity and is not generally performed in the emergency setting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 50 year old man develops a colocutaneous fistula after having reversal of...

    Correct

    • A 50 year old man develops a colocutaneous fistula after having reversal of a loop colostomy fashioned for the defunctioning of an anterior resection. Pre-operative Gastrografin enema showed no distal obstruction or anastomotic stricture. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Provide local wound care and await spontaneous resolution

      Explanation:

      Containment of fistula output and skin protection should be instituted as soon as the diagnosis is made as it will decrease local skin excoriation and inflammation, pain and infection. While low output fistulas may be controlled with a simple absorbent dressing, complex fistulas often require advanced techniques including barrier creams, powders, and sealants to protect the skin from auto-digestion as well as bridging for fistula isolation, topographical enhancements, and complex pouching systems with or without sump drainage
      Fistulas arising from the oesophagus, duodenal stump after gastric resection, pancreaticobiliary tract, and jejunum are more likely to close without operative intervention. Additionally, those with long tracts and small enteric wall defects are associated with higher spontaneous closure rates. Fistulas in the colon show favourable rates of spontaneous resolution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • The Abdomen
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 53 year old male presents with generalised right upper quadrant pain which...

    Correct

    • A 53 year old male presents with generalised right upper quadrant pain which started from the previous day. On admission, he is septic and jaundiced and there is tenderness in the right upper quadrant. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Acute cholangitis is a bacterial infection superimposed on an obstruction of the biliary tree most commonly from a gallstone, but it may be associated with neoplasm or stricture. The classic triad of findings is right upper quadrant (RUQ) pain, fever, and jaundice. A pentad may also be seen, in which mental status changes and sepsis are added to the triad.

      A spectrum of cholangitis exists, ranging from mild symptoms to fulminant overwhelming sepsis. Thus, therapeutic options for patient management include broad-spectrum antibiotics and, potentially, emergency decompression of the biliary tree.
      The main factors in the pathogenesis of acute cholangitis are biliary tract obstruction, elevated intraluminal pressure, and infection of bile. A biliary system that is colonized by bacteria but is unobstructed, typically does not result in cholangitis. It is believed that biliary obstruction diminishes host antibacterial defences, causes immune dysfunction, and subsequently increases small bowel bacterial colonization. Although the exact mechanism is unclear, it is believed that bacteria gain access to the biliary tree by retrograde ascent from the duodenum or from portal venous blood. As a result, infection ascends into the hepatic ducts, causing serious infection. Increased biliary pressure pushes the infection into the biliary canaliculi, hepatic veins, and perihepatic lymphatics, leading to bacteraemia (25-40%). The infection can be suppurative in the biliary tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Hepatobiliary And Pancreatic Surgery
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 20-year-old woman is admitted with right upper quadrant pain. On examination, there...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old woman is admitted with right upper quadrant pain. On examination, there is tenderness in the right upper quadrant region. Imaging shows signs of acute cholecystitis due to gallstones. The common bile duct appears normal and liver function tests are normal as well. What should be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Laparoscopic cholecystectomy during the next 24–48 hours

      Explanation:

      In most cases, the treatment of choice for acute cholecystitis is cholecystectomy performed early in the illness. The procedure can be carried out laparoscopically even when acute inflammation is present. Delayed surgery particularly around five to seven days after presentation is much more technically challenging and is often best deferred.

      Up to 24% of women and 12% of men may have gallstones. Of these, up to 30% may develop local infection and cholecystitis. The classical symptom of cholecystitis is colicky right upper quadrant pain that occurs postprandially. Others include swinging pyrexia, and general feeling of being unwell. They are usually worst following a fatty meal when cholecystokinin levels are highest and gallbladder contraction is maximal.

      Murphy’s sign is positive on examination. The standard diagnostic work-up consists of abdominal ultrasound and liver function tests. For management, cholecystectomy should ideally be done within 48 hours of presentation. In patients unfit for surgery, percutaneous drainage may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Hepatobiliary And Pancreatic Surgery
      24.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 36 year old woman who smokes heavily arrives at the clinic complaining...

    Correct

    • A 36 year old woman who smokes heavily arrives at the clinic complaining of frequent stools and crampy abdominal pain that has been occurring for some time. She undergoes colonoscopy (which is macroscopically normal) and several pan colonic biopsies are taken. Histologic analysis reveals a thickened sub apical collagen layer and increased lymphocytes in the lamina propria. Which of the following diagnosis is most likely?

      Your Answer: Microscopic colitis

      Explanation:

      Microscopic colitis is an inflammation of the large intestine (colon) that causes persistent watery diarrhoea. The disorder gets its name from the fact that it’s necessary to examine the colon tissue under a microscope to identify it, since the tissue may appear normal with a colonoscopy or flexible sigmoidoscopy. It is characterised by normal endoscopic appearances, microscopic features of colonic inflammation and thickening of the sub epithelial collagen layer. Features such as granulomas are absent. It is the normal endoscopic appearance that makes the other options less likely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • The Abdomen
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 39 year old male is identified as having gallstones after presenting with...

    Incorrect

    • A 39 year old male is identified as having gallstones after presenting with colicky right upper quadrant pain. An abdominal ultrasound scan was done. Which of the following is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: ERCP

      Correct Answer: Liver function tests

      Explanation:

      In patients with suspected gallstone complications, blood tests should include a complete blood cell (CBC) count with differential, liver function panel, and amylase and lipase. Up to 24% of women and 12% of men may have gallstones. Of these up to 30% may develop local infection and cholecystitis.

      Acute cholecystitis is associated with polymorphonuclear leucocytosis. However, up to one third of the patients with cholecystitis may not manifest leucocytosis. In severe cases, mild elevations of liver enzymes may be caused by inflammatory injury of the adjacent liver.

      Patients with cholangitis and pancreatitis have abnormal laboratory test values. Importantly, a single abnormal laboratory value does not confirm the diagnosis of choledocholithiasis, cholangitis, or pancreatitis; rather, a coherent set of laboratory studies leads to the correct diagnosis.

      Choledocholithiasis with acute common bile duct (CBD) obstruction initially produces an acute increase in the level of liver transaminases (alanine and aspartate aminotransferases), followed within hours by a rising serum bilirubin level. The higher the bilirubin level, the greater the predictive value for CBD obstruction. CBD stones are present in approximately 60% of patients with serum bilirubin levels greater than 3 mg/dL.

      If obstruction persists, a progressive decline in the level of transaminases with rising alkaline phosphatase and bilirubin levels may be noted over several days. Prothrombin time may be elevated in patients with prolonged CBD obstruction, secondary to depletion of vitamin K (the absorption of which is bile-dependent). Concurrent obstruction of the pancreatic duct by a stone in the ampulla of Vater may be accompanied by increases in serum lipase and amylase levels.

      Repeated testing over hours to days may be useful in evaluating patients with gallstone complications. Improvement of the levels of bilirubin and liver enzymes may indicate spontaneous passage of an obstructing stone. Conversely, rising levels of bilirubin and transaminases with progression of leucocytosis in the face of antibiotic therapy may indicate ascending cholangitis with the need for urgent intervention. Blood culture results are positive in 30%-60% of patients with cholangitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Hepatobiliary And Pancreatic Surgery
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 43 year old female with thyrotoxicosis is referred to the endocrinology clinic...

    Correct

    • A 43 year old female with thyrotoxicosis is referred to the endocrinology clinic because she was poorly controlled on carbimazole and has received orbital radiotherapy for severe proptosis. She had improved clinically but she relapsed on stopping her carbimazole. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Total thyroidectomy

      Explanation:

      Due to this patient having a relapse after using carbimazole following orbital radiotherapy for severe proptosis., total thyroidectomy is the treatment of choice.
      Thyroidectomy is the definitive surgical management for Graves thyrotoxicosis and usually requires a short course of pre-treatment with thionamides or inorganic iodine to achieve euthyroid state; this reduces operative complications and thyroid vascularity. Although subtotal thyroidectomy was once practiced, most surgeons now recommend complete thyroidectomy to minimize chances of relapse.

      Radioactive iodine (I-131) is widely used to treat the thyrotoxicosis of Graves’ disease, but, despite its demonstrable efficacy and safety, there have long been concerns about its possible adverse effect on thyroid eye disease. A study showed that after radioiodine treatment 15% of patients developed new or worsened ophthalmopathy, whereas this occurred in only 3% of patients treated with methimazole and in none treated with radioiodine plus prednisone. In the radioiodine group 24% of those with pre-existing ophthalmopathy suffered an exacerbation, whereas only 8% of patients without eye disease at baseline developed it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Breast And Endocrine Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 60 year old man receives a cadaveric renal transplant for treatment of...

    Correct

    • A 60 year old man receives a cadaveric renal transplant for treatment of end stage renal failure. The organ is ABO group matched only. On completion of the vascular anastomoses the surgeons remove the clamps. Over the course of the next fifteen minutes, the donated kidney becomes dusky and swollen and appears non viable. Which of the following is the most likely process that has caused this event?

      Your Answer: IgG anti HLA Class I antibodies in the recipient

      Explanation:

      Antibody-mediated rejection (AMR) is defined as allograft rejection caused by antibodies of the recipient directed against donor-specific HLA molecules and blood group antigens. Although the mechanism by which HLA I antibodies promote inflammation and proliferation has been revealed by experimental models, the pathogenesis of HLA II antibodies is less defined. Antibodies to HLA II frequently accompany chronic rejection in renal transplants. AMR has been recognized as the leading cause of graft loss after kidney transplant if there is a donor-host antigenic disparity. Antibodies can be produced against epitopes of the antigen that differ from self by as little as one amino acid. Pre-existing antibodies or the development of de novo antibodies after transplantation has become a biomarker for AMR graft loss. HLA antibodies are risk factors for hyperacute, acute, and chronic allograft rejections.

      The specificity of HLA antibodies can be determined using single-antigen luminex beads that consist of fluorescent microbeads conjugated to single recombinant HLA class I and class II molecules. Complement-fixing ability would be assessed by the binding of C1q to HLA antibodies present in the serum. In several studies, C1q-positive DSA had associated with antibody-mediated rejection in renal transplantation compared with antibodies identified only by IgG. Complement-fixing ability is relevant to hyperacute and acute rejections. Hyperacute rejection is predominantly complement-mediated severe allograft injury occurring within hours of transplantation. It is caused by high titre of pre-existing HLA or non-HLA antibodies in presensitized patients. But the incidence of hyperacute rejection is reduced due to improved DSA detection methods and desensitization protocols.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Organ Transplantation
      166.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 26 year old lady slips in her house and lands on her...

    Correct

    • A 26 year old lady slips in her house and lands on her right arm. She has anatomical snuffbox tenderness but no x-rays either at the time or subsequently have shown evidence of a scaphoid fracture. She has been immobilised in a futura splint for two weeks and is now asymptomatic. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Discharge with reassurance

      Explanation:

      The College of Emergency Medicine states that the patient should be discharged with no follow-up required if the patient presents with anatomical snuffbox tenderness and plain radiographs show no fracture when done initially and after when wrist splint has been used.

      A scaphoid fracture is a break of the scaphoid bone in the wrist. Symptoms generally includes pain at the base of the thumb which is worse with use of the hand. The anatomic snuffbox is generally tender and swelling may occur. Complications may include non-union of the fracture, avascular necrosis, and arthritis.

      Scaphoid fractures are most commonly caused by a fall on an outstretched hand. Diagnosis is generally based on examination and medical imaging. Some fractures may not be visible on plain X-rays. In such cases a person may be casted with repeat X-rays in two weeks or an MRI or bone scan may be done.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 3 month old baby boy is taken to the hospital for recurrent...

    Correct

    • A 3 month old baby boy is taken to the hospital for recurrent colicky abdominal pain and intermittent intestinal obstruction. The transverse colon is herniated into the thoracic cavity, through a mid line defect and this is shown when imaging is done. What is the cause of this defect?

      Your Answer: Morgagni hernia

      Explanation:

      Morgagni hernias are one of the congenital diaphragmatic hernias (CDH), and are characterized by herniation through the foramen of Morgagni. When compared to Bochdalek hernias, Morgagni hernias are:
      -anterior
      -more often right-sided (,90%)
      -small
      -rare (,2% of CDH)
      -at low risk of prolapse

      Only ,30% of patients are symptomatic. Newborns may present with respiratory distress at birth similar to a Bochdalek hernia. Additionally, recurrent chest infections and gastrointestinal symptoms have been reported in those with previously undiagnosed Morgagni hernia.
      The image of the transverse colon is herniated into the thoracic cavity, through a mid line defect and this indicates that it is a Morgagni hernia since the foramen of a Morgagni hernia occurs in the anterior midline through the sternocostal hiatus of the diaphragm, with 90% of cases occurring on the right side.

      Clinical manifestations of congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH) include the following:
      Early diagnosis – Right-side heart; decreased breath sounds on the affected side; scaphoid abdomen; bowel sounds in the thorax, respiratory distress, and/or cyanosis on auscultation; CDH can often be diagnosed in utero with ultrasonography (US), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), or both

      Late diagnosis – Chest mass on chest radiography, gastric volvulus, splenic volvulus, or large-bowel obstruction

      Congenital hernias (neonatal onset) – Respiratory distress and/or cyanosis occurs within the first 24 hours of life; CDH may not be diagnosed for several years if the defect is small enough that it does not cause significant pulmonary dysfunction

      Congenital hernias (childhood or adult onset) – Obstructive symptoms from protrusion of the colon, chest pain, tightness or fullness the in chest, sepsis following strangulation or perforation, and many respiratory symptoms occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • The Abdomen
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 34 year old athlete presents to the clinic after receiving a hard...

    Correct

    • A 34 year old athlete presents to the clinic after receiving a hard blow to his palm that has resulted into a painful swelling over the volar aspect of his hand. On examination, pain is felt on wrist movement and longitudinal compression of the thumb. Which of the following is the most likely injury?

      Your Answer: Scaphoid fracture

      Explanation:

      The scaphoid bone is the most commonly fractured carpal bone. Fractures are most often localized in the middle third of the scaphoid bone.
      Generally, scaphoid bone fractures result from indirect trauma when an individual falls onto the outstretched hand with a hyperextended and radially deviated wrist. Pain when applying pressure to the anatomical snuffbox is highly suggestive of a scaphoid bone fracture.
      X-ray is the initial test of choice for diagnosis. Computer tomography and magnetic resonance imaging may be indicated, if x-ray findings are negative but clinical suspicion is high.
      Treatment can be conservative (e.g., wrist immobilization) or in certain cases surgical (e.g., proximal pole fracture). Complications include non-union and avascular necrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 26-year-old male presents with intermittent dysphagia to both liquids and solids. An...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old male presents with intermittent dysphagia to both liquids and solids. An upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is unremarkable. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Oesophageal manometry

      Explanation:

      Oesophageal dysphagia occurs when there is a difficulty with the passage of solid or liquid material through the oesophagus, specifically the region between the upper and lower oesophageal sphincter. It results from either abnormal motility of this segment of the oesophagus or obstruction.
      Common causes of dysphagia:
      Gastro-oesophageal reflux—waterbrash, regurgitation, due to dysmotility or stricture
      Achalasia—classically hold-up relieved by carbonated beverages
      Motility disorders—may be associated with central chest pain, systemic disease (scleroderma, dermatomyositis)
      Oesophageal cancer—progressive, weight loss
      Head and neck cancer—pain, dysphagia, otalgia, >90% smokers, often excess alcohol consumption
      Pharyngeal pouch—slowly progressive, regurgitation, gurgling
      Web—able to swallow only small amounts, “can’t swallow tablets”
      Stroke
      Neurodegenerative disorders—parkinsonism, motor neurone disease, multiple sclerosis, myasthenia gravis
      Presbyphagia

      Endoscopy has the advantage of potentially yielding a histological diagnosis. The overall rate of oesophageal perforation after flexible endoscopy involving oesophageal instrumentation, biopsy, or dilatation is 2.6%

      Oesophageal manometry remains the investigation of choice in suspected motility disorders. Manometry can classify oesophageal dysmotility into rare specific disorders such as achalasia and diffuse oesophageal spasm or more common non-specific motility disorders that do not respond directly to drug treatment but may improve if related reflux or psychiatric disturbances are treated. The symptoms of non-specific motility disorders may have an uncertain relation to the manometric abnormalities

      Management is based on the history, findings of the clinical investigations, and prognosis for the individual patient. The underlying disorder is treated, but the impact of dysphagia on nutrition and hydration will compromise any intervention unless managed effectively. Poor physical condition from malnutrition or dehydration will lead to a suboptimal rehabilitation process, in both duration and completeness of recovery and inadequate management of dysphagia contributes to this. A malnourished person is at risk of decompensation of the swallow, leading to dysphagia. The clinical swallow assessment is used to determine safely modified diets that reduce malnutrition and dehydration. This may range from nil by mouth with total enteral support to full oral route or a balance of the two. Enteral feeding is essential to maintain nutritional status when oral feeding is suspended, even if only for a short time. Prompt involvement of a dietitian is thus essential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 14 year old boy is taken to the emergency room after complaining...

    Correct

    • A 14 year old boy is taken to the emergency room after complaining of sudden onset of pain in the left hemiscrotum despite not having any other urinary symptoms. The superior pole of the testis is tender on examination and the cremasteric reflex is particularly marked. What would be the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Torsion of a testicular hydatid

      Explanation:

      Answer: Torsion of a testicular hydatid

      The appendix testis (or hydatid of Morgagni) is a vestigial remnant of the Müllerian duct, present on the upper pole of the testis and attached to the tunica vaginalis. It is present about 90% of the time. The appendix of testis can, occasionally, undergo torsion (i.e. become twisted), causing acute one-sided testicular pain and may require surgical excision to achieve relief. One third of patients present with a palpable blue dot discoloration on the scrotum. This is nearly diagnostic of this condition. If clinical suspicion is high for the serious differential diagnosis of testicular torsion, a surgical exploration of the scrotum is warranted. Torsion of the appendix of testis occurs at ages 0-15 years, with a mean at 10 years, which is similar to that of testicular torsion.

      Occasionally a torsion of the hydatid of Morgagni can produce symptoms mimicking those created by a testicular torsion; a torsion of the hydatid, however, does not lead to any impairment of testicular function.
      Absence of the cremasteric reflex is a sign of testicular torsion. This therefore confirms that the diagnosis is Torsion of a testicular hydatid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 26-year-old female presents to her GP complaining of a two day history...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old female presents to her GP complaining of a two day history of right upper quadrant pain, fever and a white vaginal discharge. She has seen the GP twice in 12 weeks complaining of pelvic pain and dyspareunia. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Pelvic inflammatory disease

      Explanation:

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is an infectious and inflammatory disorder of the upper female genital tract, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, and adjacent pelvic structures. Infection and inflammation may spread to the abdomen, including perihepatic structures (Fitz-Hugh−Curtis syndrome). The classic high-risk patient is a menstruating woman younger than 25 years who has multiple sex partners, does not use contraception, and lives in an area with a high prevalence of sexually transmitted disease (STD).
      PID is initiated by an infection that ascends from the vagina and cervix into the upper genital tract. Chlamydia trachomatis is the predominant sexually transmitted organism associated with PID. Of all acute PID cases, less than 50% test positive for the sexually transmitted organisms such as Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoea.
      Other organisms implicated in the pathogenesis of PID include Gardnerella vaginalis (which causes bacterial vaginosis (BV), Haemophilus influenzae, and anaerobes such as Peptococcus and Bacteroides species. Laparoscopic studies have shown that in 30-40% of cases, PID is polymicrobial.
      The most common presenting complaint is lower abdominal pain. Abnormal vaginal discharge is present in approximately 75% of cases. Unanticipated vaginal bleeding, often postcoital, is reported in about 40% of cases. Temperature is higher than 38°C (found in 30% of cases), nausea, and vomiting manifest late in the clinical course of the disease. Abnormal uterine bleeding is present in more than one-third of patients.
      Right upper quadrant tenderness, especially if associated with jaundice, may indicate associated Fitz-Hugh−Curtis syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • The Abdomen
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 30-year-old male falls on the back of his hand. On x-ray, he...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old male falls on the back of his hand. On x-ray, he has a fractured distal radius demonstrating volar displacement of the fracture. What eponymous term is used to describe this?

      Your Answer: Smith's

      Explanation:

      The Frykman classification of distal radial fractures is based on the AP appearance and encompasses the eponymous entities of Colles fracture, Smith fracture, Barton fracture, chauffeur fracture.

      Colles fractures are very common extra-articular fractures of the distal radius that occur as the result of a fall onto an outstretched hand. They consist of a fracture of the distal radial metaphyseal region with dorsal angulation and impaction, but without the involvement of the articular surface.
      Colles fractures are the most common type of distal radial fracture and are seen in all adult age groups and demographics. They are particularly common in patients with osteoporosis, and as such, they are most frequently seen in elderly women.

      Smith fractures, also known as Goyrand fractures in the French literature 3, are fractures of the distal radius with associated volar angulation of the distal fracture fragment(s). Classically, these fractures are extra-articular transverse fractures and can be thought of like a reverse Colles fracture.
      The term is sometimes used to describe intra-articular fractures with volar displacement (reverse Barton fracture) or juxta-articular fractures

      Barton fractures are fractures of the distal radius. It is also sometimes termed the dorsal type Barton fracture to distinguish it from the volar type or reverse Barton fracture.
      Barton fractures extend through the dorsal aspect to the articular surface but not to the volar aspect. Therefore, it is similar to a Colles fracture. There is usually associated with dorsal subluxation/dislocation of the radiocarpal joint.

      Chauffeur fractures (also known as Hutchinson fractures or backfire fractures) are intra-articular fractures of the radial styloid process. The radial styloid is within the fracture fragment, although the fragment can vary markedly in size.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 32-year-old man is brought to the emergency department following a crush injury...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man is brought to the emergency department following a crush injury to his right forearm. On examination, the arm is tender, red, and swollen. There is clinical evidence of an ulnar fracture, and the patient cannot move his fingers. What should be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Fasciotomy

      Explanation:

      The combination of a crush injury, limb swelling, and inability to move digits raises suspicion of compartment syndrome that would require a fasciotomy.

      Compartment syndrome is a particular complication that may occur following fractures, especially supracondylar fractures and tibial shaft injuries. It is characterised by raised pressure within a closed anatomical space which may, eventually, compromise tissue perfusion, resulting in necrosis.

      The clinical features of compartment syndrome include:
      1. Pain, especially on movement
      2. Paraesthesia
      3. Pallor
      4. Paralysis of the muscle group may also occur

      Diagnosis is made by measurement of intracompartmental pressure. Pressures >20mmHg are abnormal and >40mmHg are diagnostic.

      Compartment syndrome requires prompt and extensive fasciotomy. Myoglobinuria may occur following fasciotomy, resulting in renal failure. Therefore, aggressive IV fluids are required. If muscle groups are frankly necrotic at fasciotomy, they should be debrided, and amputation may have to be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 41 year old lecturer is admitted with abdominal pain. He has suffered...

    Correct

    • A 41 year old lecturer is admitted with abdominal pain. He has suffered from repeated episodes of this colicky right upper quadrant pain. On examination, he has a fever with right upper quadrant peritonism. His blood tests show a white cell count of 22. An abdominal ultrasound scan shows multiple gallstones in a thick walled gallbladder, the bile duct measures 4mm. Tests show that his liver function is normal. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Undertake a laparoscopic cholecystectomy

      Explanation:

      This individual has acute cholecystitis. This is demonstrated by well-localized pain in the right upper quadrant, usually with rebound and guarding; frequent presence of fever and peritonism. Ultrasonography is the procedure of choice in suspected gallbladder or biliary disease. A bile duct measuring 4mm is usually normal.
      Once gallstones become symptomatic, definitive surgical intervention with cholecystectomy is usually indicated (typically, laparoscopic cholecystectomy is the first-line therapy at centres with experience in this procedure).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Hepatobiliary And Pancreatic Surgery
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 56 year old woman with end stage renal failure undergoes a renal...

    Correct

    • A 56 year old woman with end stage renal failure undergoes a renal transplant with a donation after circulatory death (DCD) kidney. The transplanted organ has a cold ischaemic time of 26 hours and a warm ischaemic time of 55 minutes. Post operatively, she receives immunosuppressive therapy. 10 days later her weight has increased, she becomes oliguric and feels systemically unwell. She also complains of swelling over the transplant site that is painful. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Acute rejection

      Explanation:

      Prolonged cold ischemia time (CIT) may contribute to the perception of the graft as being suboptimal since donation after circulatory death (DCD) kidneys may be considered less tolerant of CIT. In fact, previous reports recommend restriction of CIT to 12 to 18 hours when transplanting DCD kidneys and a recent UK registry analysis identified increased risks of DCD graft failure with CIT longer than 12 hours.
      The donated kidney in this case had a CIT of 26 hours and the patient presented with symptoms 10 days later which would lead to acute rejection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Organ Transplantation
      36.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 44 year old actor presents with an attack of mild acute pancreatitis....

    Correct

    • A 44 year old actor presents with an attack of mild acute pancreatitis. Imaging identifies gallstones but a normal calibre bile duct, and a peripancreatic fluid collection. Which management option would be the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Cholecystectomy once the attack has settled

      Explanation:

      Pancreatitis is inflammation of the pancreas with variable involvement of regional tissues or remote organ systems. Acute pancreatitis (AP) is characterized by severe pain in the upper abdomen and elevation of pancreatic enzymes in the blood. In the majority of patients,
      Biliary pancreatitis should always be treated eventually with a cholecystectomy after the process has subsided.
      Feeding should be introduced enterally as the patient’s anorexia and pain resolves.
      The use of nasogastric aspiration offers no clear advantage in patients with mild AP, but is beneficial in patients with profound pain, severe disease, paralytic ileus, and intractable vomiting.
      AP is a mild, self-limiting disease that resolves spontaneously without complications. Patients can be initiated on a low-fat diet initially and need not invariably start their dietary advancement using a clear liquid diet. Systematic reviews and meta-analyses have shown that administration of enteral nutrition may reduce mortality and infectious complications compared with parenteral nutrition. Although the ideal timing to initiate enteral feeding remains undetermined, administration within 48 hours appears to be safe and tolerated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Hepatobiliary And Pancreatic Surgery
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 34-year-old man presents with a five-week history of painful, bright red bleeding...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old man presents with a five-week history of painful, bright red bleeding that typically occurs after defecation and is noted on the toilet paper. External inspection of the anal canal shows a small skin tag at six o'clock position. The patient does not give consent for internal palpation. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fissure-in-ano

      Explanation:

      Painful, bright red rectal bleeding is usually due to a fissure. Presence of pain and the sentinel tag suggests a posterior fissure-in-ano.

      Anal fissures are a common cause of painful, bright red, rectal bleeding. Most fissures are idiopathic and present as a painful mucocutaneous defect in the posterior midline (90% cases). Fissures are more likely to be anteriorly located in females, particularly if they are multiparous. Diseases associated with fissure-in-ano include:
      1. Crohn’s disease
      2. Tuberculosis
      3. Internal rectal prolapse

      Diagnosis:
      In most cases, the defect can be visualised as a posterior midline epithelial defect. Where symptoms are highly suggestive of the condition and examination findings are unclear, an examination under anaesthesia may be helpful. Atypical disease presentation should be investigated with colonoscopy and EUA with biopsies of the area.

      Treatment:
      1. Stool softeners are important as hard stools may tear the epithelium and result in recurrent symptoms. The most effective first-line agents are topically applied GTN (0.2%) or Diltiazem (2%) paste. Side effects of diltiazem are better tolerated.
      2. Resistant cases may benefit from injection of botulinum toxin or lateral internal sphincterotomy. Advancement flaps may be used to treat resistant cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 12 hour old baby is seen to be cyanotic whilst feeding and...

    Correct

    • A 12 hour old baby is seen to be cyanotic whilst feeding and crying. A diagnosis of congenital heart disease is suspected by the team of doctors. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Transposition of the great arteries

      Explanation:

      Answer: Transposition of the great arteries

      Transposition of the great arteries (TGA) is the most common cyanotic congenital heart lesion that presents in neonates. The hallmark of transposition of the great arteries is ventriculoarterial discordance, in which the aorta arises from the morphologic right ventricle and the pulmonary artery arises from the morphologic left ventricle.

      Infants with transposition of the great arteries (TGA) are usually born at term, with cyanosis apparent within hours of birth.

      The clinical course and manifestations depend on the extent of intercirculatory mixing and the presence of associated anatomic lesions. Note the following:

      Transposition of the great arteries with intact ventricular septum: Prominent and progressive cyanosis within the first 24 hours of life is the usual finding in infants if no significant mixing at the atrial level is evident.

      Transposition of the great arteries with large ventricular septal defect: Infants may not initially manifest symptoms of heart disease, although mild cyanosis (particularly when crying) is often noted. Signs of congestive heart failure (tachypnoea, tachycardia, diaphoresis, and failure to gain weight) may become evident over the first 3-6 weeks as pulmonary blood flow increases.

      Transposition of the great arteries with ventricular septal defect and left ventricular outflow tract obstruction: Infants often present with extreme cyanosis at birth, proportional to the degree of left ventricular (pulmonary) outflow tract obstruction. The clinical history may be similar to that of an infant with tetralogy of Fallot.

      Transposition of the great arteries with ventricular septal defect and pulmonary vascular obstructive disease: Progressively advancing pulmonary vascular obstructive disease can prevent this rare subgroup of patients from developing symptoms of congestive heart failure, despite a large ventricular septal defect. Most often, patients present with progressive cyanosis, despite an early successful palliative procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Paediatric Surgery
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 9 year old boy is admitted with right iliac fossa pain and...

    Correct

    • A 9 year old boy is admitted with right iliac fossa pain and an appendicectomy is to be performed.Which of the following incision is the best for this procedure?

      Your Answer: Lanz

      Explanation:

      Answer: Lanz

      The Lanz and Gridiron incisions are two incisions that can be used to access the appendix, predominantly for appendectomy.

      Both incisions are made at McBurney’s point (two-thirds from the umbilicus to the anterior superior iliac spine). They involve passing through all of the abdominal muscles, transversalis fascia, and then the peritoneum, before entering the abdominal cavity.

      The Lanz incision is a transverse incision, whilst the Gridiron incision is oblique (superolateral to inferomedial). Due to its continuation with Langer’s lines, the Lanz incision produces much more aesthetically pleasing results with reduced scarring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • The Abdomen
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 30-year-old female undergoes a renal transplant for focal segmental glomerulosclerosis. Within hours...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old female undergoes a renal transplant for focal segmental glomerulosclerosis. Within hours of the operation, the patient becomes unwell with features consistent with severe systemic inflammatory response syndrome. The patient is immediately taken back to the theatre and the transplanted kidney is removed. What type of immunoglobulins is responsible for graft rejection?

      Your Answer: IgG

      Explanation:

      Rejection is related primarily to activation of T cells, which, in turn, stimulate specific antibodies against the graft. Various clinical syndromes of rejection can be correlated with the length of time after transplantation.

      Hyperacute rejection
      Hyperacute rejection of the renal allograft happens in the operating room within hours of the transplant, when the graft becomes mottled and cyanotic. This type of rejection is due to unrecognized compatibility of blood groups A, AB, B, and O (ABO) or to a positive T-cell crossmatch (class I human leukocyte antigen [HLA] incompatibility).
      It is thought that IgG antibodies from the host bind to HLA-1 antigen of the donated organ.
      No treatment exists, and nephrectomy is indicated.

      Acute rejection
      Acute rejection appears within the first 6 months after transplantation and affects approximately 15% of transplanted kidneys. Rejection is secondary to prior sensitization to donor alloantigens (occult T-cell crossmatch) or a positive B-cell crossmatch.
      Acute tubular interstitial cellular rejection is the most common type of rejection reaction, with an incidence of approximately 20-25%. Typically, it occurs between 1 and 3 months after transplantation. It is T-cell mediated, and injury is directed to the renal tubules. The standard for diagnosis is renal allograft biopsy. Mild rejections may be successfully reversed with corticosteroids alone, whereas moderate or severe rejections may require the use of anti–T-cell antibodies, either polyclonal or monoclonal.
      Late acute rejection is strongly correlated with the scheduled withdrawal of immunosuppressive therapy 6 months after transplantation.

      Chronic rejection
      Chronic rejection occurs more than 1 year after transplantation and is a major cause of allograft loss. It is a slow and progressive deterioration in renal function characterized by histologic changes involving the renal tubules, capillaries, and interstitium. Its precise mechanism is poorly defined and is an area of intense study. Diagnosis is by renal biopsy, and treatment depends on the identified cause if any. Application of conventional antirejection agents (e.g., corticosteroids or anti–T-cell antibodies) does not appear to alter the progressive course.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Organ Transplantation
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 41-year-old man presents with a newly pigmented lesion on his right shin,...

    Correct

    • A 41-year-old man presents with a newly pigmented lesion on his right shin, which has been increasing in size. On examination, the lesion has regular borders and normal-appearing skin appendages.What should be the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Excision biopsy

      Explanation:

      Lesions bearing normal dermal appendages and regular borders are likely to be benign pigmented naevi. Therefore diagnostic and not radical excision is indicated. Incision biopsy should not be done.

      Melanocytic naevi are pigmented moles. Some moles are present at birth or appear within the first two years of life. These are known as congenital melanocytic naevi. Most develop during childhood and early adult life and are, consequently, called acquired melanocytic naevi. The number of moles increase up to the age of 30–40. Thereafter, the number of naevi tend to decrease. New moles appearing in adulthood need to be monitored and checked if growing or changing. Moles can be found anywhere on the skin, including on the hands and feet, genitals, eyes, and scalp.

      There are three main types of acquired melanocytic naevi:
      1. Junctional melanocytic naevi: flat and usually circular.
      2. Compound melanocytic naevi: raised brown bumps most of which are hairy, some have a slightly warty surface.
      3. Intradermal melanocytic naevi: raised and often hairy bumps, similar to compound naevi but more pale coloured (often skin-coloured).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Skin Lesions
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 5 year old boy is rushed to the A&E department after accidentally...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year old boy is rushed to the A&E department after accidentally inhaling a Brazil nut. He is seen to be extremely distressed and cyanotic and imaging shows that it is lodged in the left main bronchus. Which of the following is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange immediate transfer to theatre for bronchoscopy

      Explanation:

      A small number of foreign body aspirations are incidentally found after chest radiography or bronchoscopic inspection. Patients may be asymptomatic or may be undergoing testing for other diagnoses. If present, physical findings may include stridor, fixed wheeze, localized wheeze, or diminished breath sounds. If obstruction is severe, cyanosis may occur. Signs of consolidation can accompany post obstructive pneumonia.

      Bronchoscopy can be used diagnostically and therapeutically. Most aspirated foreign bodies are radiolucent. Radiologic procedures do not have extreme diagnostic accuracy, and aspiration events are not always detected. Rigid bronchoscopy usually requires heavy intravenous sedation or general anaesthesia. The rigid bronchoscope has important advantages over the flexible bronchoscope. The larger diameter of the rigid bronchoscope facilitates the passage of various grasping devices, including a flexible bronchoscope. A better chance of quick, successful extraction and better capabilities of suctioning clotted blood and thick secretions are offered by the rigid bronchoscope. The paediatric flexible bronchoscope lacks a hollow working channel through which instruments may be inserted or blood and secretions may be aspirated.
      Unlike the flexible bronchoscope, the patient can be ventilated through the rigid scope; therefore, ventilation of the patient can be maintained. Rigid bronchoscopy is the procedure of choice for removing foreign bodies in children and in most adults. Success rates for extracting foreign bodies are reportedly more than 98%. Large solid and semisolid objects are best managed emergently in the operating room with a rigid bronchoscope and appropriate grasping instruments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Paediatric Surgery
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Generic Surgical Topics (27/29) 93%
Vascular (1/1) 100%
The Abdomen (7/7) 100%
Breast And Endocrine Surgery (2/2) 100%
Colorectal Surgery (2/3) 67%
Hepatobiliary And Pancreatic Surgery (4/5) 80%
Organ Transplantation (3/3) 100%
Orthopaedics (4/4) 100%
Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery (1/1) 100%
Urology (1/1) 100%
Paediatric Surgery (1/1) 100%
Skin Lesions (1/1) 100%
Passmed