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  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old woman with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) visits her...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) visits her primary care physician complaining of wrist pain that has been bothering her for the past week. She also reports feeling stiffness in her wrists, particularly in the morning. Although she typically experiences minor joint aches, this pain is more severe than usual.

      During the examination, the physician notes tenderness and pain in both of the patient's wrists upon passive movement. There is no apparent swelling or deformity. Additionally, a rash across her cheeks is observed, which she says has also developed over the past week.

      What would be an appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Anti-dsDNA titres are useful for monitoring her SLE flare – the levels are usually low during active disease

      Correct Answer: Complement levels are useful for monitoring her SLE flare – the levels are usually low during active disease

      Explanation:

      During active SLE, complement levels tend to decrease due to the formation of complexes that consume complement. As a result, monitoring complement levels can be useful in tracking SLE flares. In contrast, CRP is not a reliable marker of disease activity as it may remain normal unless there is an infection or serositis. ESR is a better indicator for monitoring disease activity. Additionally, high levels of anti-dsDNA titres are typically observed during active SLE and can also be used for disease monitoring.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive, making it useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%), but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%), but only 30% of SLE patients test positive. Other antibody tests include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).

      Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, but a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Proper monitoring of SLE is crucial for effective management of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      169.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 30-year-old woman visits her doctor seeking guidance on contraception and opts for...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman visits her doctor seeking guidance on contraception and opts for the intrauterine system. What is the predominant side effect that she should be informed about during the initial 6 months of having the intrauterine system inserted?

      Your Answer: Menorrhagia

      Correct Answer: Irregular bleeding

      Explanation:

      During the initial 6 months after the intrauterine system is inserted, experiencing irregular bleeding is a typical adverse effect. However, over time, the majority of women who use the IUS will experience reduced or absent menstrual periods, which is advantageous for those who experience heavy menstrual bleeding or prefer not to have periods.

      Intrauterine contraceptive devices include copper IUDs and levonorgestrel-releasing IUS. Both are over 99% effective. The IUD prevents fertilization by decreasing sperm motility, while the IUS prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucous. Potential problems include heavier periods with IUDs and initial bleeding with the IUS. There is a small risk of uterine perforation, ectopic pregnancy, and infection. New IUS systems, such as Jaydess® and Kyleena®, have smaller frames and less levonorgestrel, resulting in lower serum levels and different rates of amenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 21-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her flatmates who...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her flatmates who claim that she has vomited up blood. Apparently she had consumed far too much alcohol over the course of the night, had vomited on multiple occasions, and then began to dry-retch. After a period of retching, she vomited a minimal amount of bright red blood. On examination, she is intoxicated and has marked epigastric tenderness; her blood pressure is 135/75 mmHg, with a heart rate of 70 bpm, regular.
      Investigations:
      Investigation
      Result
      Normal value
      Haemoglobin 145 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.4 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 301 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 3.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 75 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for her?

      Your Answer: Discharge in the morning if stable

      Explanation:

      Management of Mallory-Weiss Tear: A Case Study

      A Mallory-Weiss tear is a longitudinal mucosal laceration at the gastro-oesophageal junction or cardia caused by repeated retching. In a stable patient with a Hb of 145 g/l, significant blood loss is unlikely. Observation overnight is recommended, and if stable, the patient can be discharged the following morning. Further endoscopic investigation is not necessary in this case. Intravenous pantoprazole is not indicated for a Mallory-Weiss tear, and antacid treatment is unnecessary as the tear will heal spontaneously. Urgent endoscopic investigation is not required if the patient remains clinically stable and improves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old mother of two presents to her general practitioner with depression. She...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old mother of two presents to her general practitioner with depression. She explains that for the last 4 months, she has been unable to leave her house or socialize with friends due to an embarrassing and uncomfortable incontinence problem.
      What is the most common type of urinary incontinence in women?

      Your Answer: Genuine stress incontinence

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Different Types of Urinary Incontinence in Women

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects many women. There are different types of urinary incontinence, each with its own causes and treatment options. The most common type of incontinence in women is genuine stress incontinence, which is caused by sphincter incompetence and leads to leakage of small amounts of urine on stress, such as sneezing, standing, laughing, and coughing.

      To diagnose incontinence, common investigations include a midstream urine specimen, frequency volume chart, filling urodynamic assessment, and voiding urodynamic assessment. Treatment options vary depending on the patient’s wishes, desire for future children, and severity of symptoms. Conservative treatment involves pelvic floor exercises, vaginal cones, and drugs such as estrogen. Surgery is the most effective way of restoring continence, with a cure rate of 80-90%. Procedures include burch colposuspension, anterior repair and bladder buttress, tension-free vaginal tape, and suburethral sling.

      Other types of urinary incontinence in women include fistula, which is a rare cause of incontinence caused by pelvic surgery, overactive bladder, which is the second most common type of incontinence, retention with overflow, which is a rare cause of incontinence more common in men, and congenital abnormalities, which is a rare cause of incontinence that is often apparent since early life.

      It is important for women to understand the different types of urinary incontinence and seek medical advice if they experience any symptoms. With proper diagnosis and treatment, urinary incontinence can be effectively managed, improving quality of life and overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old insurance broker with mitral stenosis is seen in the Cardiology Clinic....

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old insurance broker with mitral stenosis is seen in the Cardiology Clinic. He reports increasing shortness of breath on exertion and general fatigue over the past six months. Additionally, he notes swelling in his feet and ankles at the end of the day. What is the first-line intervention for symptomatic mitral stenosis with a mobile undistorted mitral valve and no left atrial thrombus or mitral regurgitation?

      Your Answer: Balloon valvuloplasty

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Mitral Valve Disease

      Mitral valve disease can be managed through various treatment options depending on the severity and type of the condition. Balloon valvuloplasty is the preferred option for symptomatic patients with mitral stenosis, while mitral valve repair is the preferred surgical management for mitral regurgitation. Aortic valve replacement is an option if the aortic valve is faulty. Mitral valve replacement with a metallic valve requires high levels of anticoagulation, and therefore repair is preferred if possible. The Blalock–Taussig shunt is a surgical method for palliation of cyanotic congenital heart disease. Mitral valve repair may be considered in patients with mitral stenosis if the valve anatomy is unsuitable for balloon valvuloplasty. However, if the patient has severe symptomatic mitral stenosis with signs of heart failure, mitral valve replacement would be the first line of treatment.

      Treatment Options for Mitral Valve Disease

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      110.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old man with a history of hypercholesterolaemia and psoriasis is admitted to...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of hypercholesterolaemia and psoriasis is admitted to the hospital after experiencing central crushing chest pain. He was diagnosed with a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) and received appropriate treatment. While in the hospital, he had a psoriasis flare-up.
      Which medication is most likely responsible for the psoriasis flare-up?

      Your Answer: Statins

      Correct Answer: Beta blockers

      Explanation:

      Medications and Psoriasis: Which Drugs to Avoid

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can be triggered by various factors, including stress, infection, and certain medications. While sunlight can help alleviate psoriasis symptoms in most patients, it can worsen the condition in some individuals. Among the drugs that can exacerbate psoriasis are β blockers, antimalarials, lithium, and interferons. Therefore, if possible, people with psoriasis should avoid taking these medications. However, drugs such as clopidogrel, glyceryl trinitrate spray, low-molecular-weight heparin, and statins are not known to cause psoriasis flares. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication if you have psoriasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      502.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old man visits his doctor with a complaint about his penis. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits his doctor with a complaint about his penis. He explains that he experiences a noticeable curvature during erection, which has become more severe in recent years. He feels ashamed and worried that it could be cancerous.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bowenoid papulosis

      Correct Answer: Peyronie’s disease

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting symptoms of Peyronie’s disease, a condition where fibrous tissue accumulates in the penis, causing it to curve or bend in a particular direction. This is a non-malignant connective tissue disorder that affects approximately 5% of men. The condition results in scar tissue forming in the tunica albuginea, the thick sheath of tissue surrounding the corpora cavernosa, leading to pain, abnormal curvature, erectile dysfunction, indentation, loss of girth, and shortening.

      Bowenoid papulosis, on the other hand, is a rare pre-cancerous skin condition that causes the accumulation of red or dark papules on the penis, but does not cause curvature. It is linked to human papillomavirus (HPV) and can transform into invasive squamous cell carcinoma in a small percentage of cases.

      Bowen’s disease is a neoplastic skin disease that causes a grey plaque to form on the penis or scrotum, usually affecting older men. It is an early stage or intraepidermal form of squamous cell carcinoma.

      Penile lymphoma is unlikely in a young man without associated systemic symptoms, and a history of progressive curvature of the penis is more suggestive of Peyronie’s disease. Erythroplasia of Queyrat is another in situ squamous cell carcinoma of the penis that causes red patches to form.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 75-year-old female comes to her doctor complaining of sudden left shoulder and...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old female comes to her doctor complaining of sudden left shoulder and arm pain that has been getting worse over the past week. The pain is now unbearable even with regular co-codamol. During the examination, the doctor observes that the patient's left pupil is smaller than the other and the eyelid is slightly drooping. What question would be most helpful in determining the diagnosis for this woman?

      Your Answer: Recent flu-like illness

      Correct Answer: Smoking history

      Explanation:

      Smoking is responsible for the majority of cases of cancer that lead to Pancoast’s syndrome. The patient’s condition is not influenced by factors such as alcohol consumption, physical activity, or exposure to pathogens.

      Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.

      Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.

      There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      114.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old woman comes to the clinic with asymmetrical pupils. Upon shining light...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman comes to the clinic with asymmetrical pupils. Upon shining light into her eyes, the right pupil is 3 mm larger than the left. In a darkened room, the right pupil remains larger, but by only 1mm. Both pupils are regular in shape. She reports no discomfort, her sclerae appear normal, and a slit-lamp examination reveals no abnormalities. Her eye movements are also unaffected. The patient's father died from a brain tumor, and she is concerned that she may have the same condition. What is the most probable underlying cause?

      Your Answer: Horner syndrome

      Correct Answer: Adie's tonic pupil

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis for this patient’s anisocoria, which is worse in bright light, is Adie’s tonic pupil. This is because the pupil is unable to constrict properly, indicating dysfunction in the parasympathetic innervation. Adie’s tonic pupil is characterised by impaired pupil constriction due to ciliary ganglion dysfunction. Argyll-Robertson pupil, Horner syndrome, and oculomotor nerve palsy are not the correct diagnoses as they present with different symptoms and causes.

      Mydriasis, which is the enlargement of the pupil, can be caused by various factors. These include third nerve palsy, Holmes-Adie pupil, traumatic iridoplegia, pheochromocytoma, and congenital conditions. Additionally, certain drugs can also cause mydriasis, such as topical mydriatics like tropicamide and atropine, sympathomimetic drugs like amphetamines and cocaine, and anticholinergic drugs like tricyclic antidepressants. It’s important to note that anisocoria, which is when one pupil is larger than the other, can also result in the appearance of mydriasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      236.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is true about the inheritance pattern of achondroplasia? ...

    Correct

    • What is true about the inheritance pattern of achondroplasia?

      Your Answer: Autosomal dominant

      Explanation:

      Achondroplasia: Inheritance and Genetic Testing

      Achondroplasia is a genetic condition that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. This means that if one parent has the condition, their child has a 50% chance of inheriting it as well. However, it is important to note that approximately 75% of individuals with achondroplasia are born to parents of average size, as the condition can also occur due to a new genetic mutation.

      The gene responsible for achondroplasia is called fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3). When two individuals with achondroplasia have children, there is a risk of the child inheriting two copies of the mutated gene, which is known as double homozygosity. Infants with this condition are either stillborn or die shortly after birth.

      Couples who are at risk of having a child with achondroplasia can undergo prenatal diagnosis through serial ultrasounds. Additionally, a DNA test is now available to detect double homozygosity. It is important for individuals and families affected by achondroplasia to understand the inheritance pattern and available testing options in order to make informed decisions about family planning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A clinical trial was conducted to compare operative treatment with bracing therapy for...

    Incorrect

    • A clinical trial was conducted to compare operative treatment with bracing therapy for scoliosis. Thirty patients who met the criteria for surgery were assigned to group A, while 60 patients who refused surgery or had contraindications were treated with bracing alone in group B. The patients in group A were older and had a poorer performance status compared to group B. Three patients in each group were lost to follow-up for unknown reasons. What is the most probable bias in this study?

      Your Answer: Response bias

      Correct Answer: Selection bias

      Explanation:

      Types of Bias in Medical Studies

      Medical studies can be affected by various types of bias that can impact the accuracy of the results. One type of bias is selection bias, which occurs when the allocation of patients into different treatment groups is not randomised. This can lead to a systematic difference in the outcomes between the groups, as low-risk patients may be more likely to receive a certain treatment. Another type of bias is response bias, which can occur in questionnaire studies when there is a systematic difference between those who participate and those who do not.

      Performance bias is another type of bias that can occur when there is a systematic difference in the treatments received by the two groups other than the study treatments. Attrition bias can also occur when a significant proportion of subjects are lost to follow up, with proportions or reasons different between the treatment groups. However, in the described study, the proportion of attrition is low, so this type of bias is not very likely. Confounding factors may also bias the results, but this can be reduced during the data analysis stage using multivariate or stratified analyses. Overall, it is important to consider and address these types of bias in medical studies to ensure accurate and reliable results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What leads to the constriction of skin arterioles? ...

    Correct

    • What leads to the constriction of skin arterioles?

      Your Answer: Epinephrine

      Explanation:

      Effects of Different Hormones on Blood Vessels

      Epinephrine, also known as adrenaline, has different effects on blood vessels depending on their location. It causes vasoconstriction of skin arterioles, which reduces blood flow to the skin, and vasodilation of skeletal muscle, which increases blood flow to the muscles. This is why adrenaline is often used during local anaesthesia to reduce bleeding. On the other hand, vasopressin is a hormone that causes vasoconstriction of blood vessels, which increases blood pressure. It is often used as a pressor agent in medical emergencies.

      In contrast, bradykinin and substance P are both vasodilators, which means they cause blood vessels to widen and increase blood flow. Bradykinin is involved in inflammation and pain, while substance P is a neuropeptide that plays a role in the transmission of pain signals. These hormones can be targeted with drugs to treat conditions such as hypertension or migraines. the effects of different hormones on blood vessels is important for developing effective treatments for various medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 50-year-old male presents to the endocrinology clinic with symptoms of hypogonadism. He...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male presents to the endocrinology clinic with symptoms of hypogonadism. He reports consuming five cans of lager per week, which is believed to be the cause of his abnormal liver function tests. The patient has a history of type 2 diabetes and osteoarthritis affecting his hips and knees. What tests should be performed to determine the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Serum ferritin and iron studies

      Explanation:

      Haemochromatosis as a Cause of Hypogonadism

      The patient’s medical history suggests that haemochromatosis may be the underlying cause of their hypogonadism. While their moderate alcohol consumption of 10 units per week may contribute to liver dysfunction, other potential explanations should be explored. Additionally, the patient’s history of type 2 diabetes and seronegative arthropathy are consistent with iron storage diseases. Haemochromatosis can lead to reduced insulin production, resulting in a presentation similar to type 2 diabetes. To confirm the diagnosis, serum ferritin and transferrin saturation levels should be evaluated, as elevated levels of both are highly indicative of haemochromatosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old man with a past medical history of internal hemorrhoids presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man with a past medical history of internal hemorrhoids presents with a recent exacerbation of symptoms. He reports having to manually reduce his piles after bowel movements. What grade of hemorrhoids is he experiencing?

      Your Answer: Grading system does not apply to internal haemorrhoids

      Correct Answer: Grade III

      Explanation:

      Understanding Haemorrhoids

      Haemorrhoids are a normal part of the anatomy that contribute to anal continence. They are mucosal vascular cushions found in specific areas of the anal canal. However, when they become enlarged, congested, and symptomatic, they are considered haemorrhoids. The most common symptom is painless rectal bleeding, but pruritus and pain may also occur. There are two types of haemorrhoids: external, which originate below the dentate line and are prone to thrombosis, and internal, which originate above the dentate line and do not generally cause pain. Internal haemorrhoids are graded based on their prolapse and reducibility. Management includes softening stools through dietary changes, topical treatments, outpatient procedures like rubber band ligation, and surgery for large, symptomatic haemorrhoids. Acutely thrombosed external haemorrhoids may require excision if the patient presents within 72 hours, but otherwise can be managed with stool softeners, ice packs, and analgesia.

      Overall, understanding haemorrhoids and their management is important for individuals experiencing symptoms and healthcare professionals providing care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 14-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her mother, who...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her mother, who found her on the bathroom floor. She is ataxic, appears confused and her speech is slurred, however she does not smell of alcohol. She says she 'took something' because she wanted to end her life. She has vomited twice.

      On the blood gas, there is a metabolic acidosis.

      What is the most appropriate treatment for this situation?

      Your Answer: Naloxone

      Correct Answer: Fomepizole

      Explanation:

      Fomepizole is an effective treatment for ethylene glycol toxicity as it inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase, slowing down the production of toxic metabolites. Ethanol can also be used if fomepizole is not available. Symptoms of ethylene glycol poisoning include ataxia, vomiting, dysarthria, and metabolic acidosis with a raised anion gap. In severe cases, convulsions and coma can occur. Atropine is used to treat organophosphate poisoning, which can cause anxiety, restlessness, headache, muscle weakness, respiratory failure, and bronchospasm with bronchial secretions. Flumazenil is used to treat benzodiazepine overdose, which can cause drowsiness, dizziness, ataxia, coma, and respiratory depression. Glucagon is used to treat beta blocker overdose, which can cause sinus bradycardia, hypotension, and coma.

      Understanding Ethylene Glycol Toxicity and Its Management

      Ethylene glycol is a type of alcohol commonly used as a coolant or antifreeze. Its toxicity is characterized by three stages of symptoms. The first stage is similar to alcohol intoxication, with confusion, slurred speech, and dizziness. The second stage involves metabolic acidosis with high anion gap and high osmolar gap, as well as tachycardia and hypertension. The third stage is acute kidney injury.

      In the past, ethanol was the primary treatment for ethylene glycol toxicity. It works by competing with ethylene glycol for the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase, which limits the formation of toxic metabolites responsible for the haemodynamic and metabolic features of poisoning. However, in recent times, fomepizole, an inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase, has become the first-line treatment preference over ethanol. Haemodialysis also has a role in refractory cases.

      Overall, understanding the stages of ethylene glycol toxicity and the changing management options is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide effective treatment and prevent further harm to patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      1670.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What is the way in which trimethoprim works? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the way in which trimethoprim works?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of protein synthesis (translation)

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of folic acid metabolism

      Explanation:

      Trimethoprim Mechanism of Action

      Trimethoprim works by inhibiting the activity of an enzyme called dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR). This enzyme is responsible for converting dihydrofolic acid to tetrahydrofolic acid, which is a crucial step in the synthesis of purines and DNA in bacteria. By blocking DHFR, trimethoprim disrupts the bacterial cell’s ability to produce these essential components, ultimately leading to the inhibition of bacterial growth and replication. This mechanism of action makes trimethoprim an effective antibiotic for treating bacterial infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 54-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department complaining of right upper quadrant...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department complaining of right upper quadrant and epigastric pain and associated vomiting. This is his third attack in the past 9 months. He has a past history of obesity, hypertension and hypertriglyceridaemia. Medications include ramipril, amlodipine, fenofibrate, aspirin and indapamide. On examination, he is obese with a body mass index (BMI) of 31; his blood pressure is 145/85 mmHg, and he has jaundiced sclerae. There is right upper quadrant tenderness.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 3.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 140 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Haemoglobin 139 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 10.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 239 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Alanine aminotransferase 75 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Bilirubin 99 μmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
      Alkaline phosphatase 285 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
      Ultrasound of abdomen: gallstones clearly visualised within a thick-walled gallbladder, dilated duct consistent with further stones.
      Which of his medications is most likely to be responsible for his condition?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Correct Answer: Fenofibrate

      Explanation:

      Drugs and their association with gallstone formation

      Explanation:

      Gallstones are a common medical condition that can cause severe pain and discomfort. Certain drugs have been found to increase the risk of gallstone formation, while others do not have any association.

      Fenofibrate, a drug used to increase cholesterol excretion by the liver, is known to increase the risk of cholesterol gallstone formation. Oestrogens are also known to increase the risk of gallstones. Somatostatin analogues, which decrease gallbladder emptying, can contribute to stone formation. Pigment gallstones are associated with high haem turnover, such as in sickle-cell anaemia.

      On the other hand, drugs like indapamide, ramipril, amlodipine, and aspirin are not associated with increased gallstone formation. It is important to be aware of the potential risks associated with certain medications and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 38-year-old woman with shortness of breath, fatigue, chest pain, non-productive cough and...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman with shortness of breath, fatigue, chest pain, non-productive cough and two documented episodes of pulmonary thromboemboli over the last year undergoes a heart–lung transplant. Her native heart shows massive right ventricular hypertrophy. The lungs show numerous thromboemboli, and the vasculature shows marked medial smooth muscle hypertrophy and atherosclerotic plaques on the main pulmonary arteries.
      With which of the following diagnoses are these findings most consistent?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary hypertension

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Lung Conditions: Understanding the Unique Characteristics

      Pulmonary Hypertension:
      Pulmonary hypertension causes medial hypertrophy, arterial fibrosis, and narrowing of the arterial lumen, leading to arterial thrombosis. Primary pulmonary hypertension is characterized by plexogenic pulmonary arteriopathy, which causes hypertrophy of the right ventricle.

      Pneumonia:
      Pneumonia is inflammation of the air sacs in the lungs caused by bacteria, viruses, or micro-organisms. However, the presence of massive right ventricular hypertrophy and multiple thromboemboli in the lungs is not consistent with a sole diagnosis of pneumonia.

      Atopic Asthma:
      Atopic asthma is characterized by chronic airway inflammation and bronchial hyper-responsiveness. The findings in atopic asthma include copious mucous plugs, numerous bronchial eosinophils and neutrophils, bronchial basement membrane thickening, and hypertrophy of bronchial smooth muscle and submucosal glands.

      Adult Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS):
      ARDS is a rapid onset of respiratory insufficiency due to diffuse alveolar damage. The lung findings include alveoli filled with proteinaceous debris and desquamated alveolar lining cells and alveolar septae lined by hyaline membranes. The heart and pulmonary vasculature show no specific changes in ARDS.

      Goodpasture’s Syndrome:
      Goodpasture’s syndrome is a necrotizing and hemorrhagic pneumonitis accompanied by rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. The lungs are filled with fresh hemorrhage and hemosiderin-laden macrophages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiothoracic
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A patient in a small hospital in the Highlands of Scotland has been...

    Correct

    • A patient in a small hospital in the Highlands of Scotland has been detained under an emergency detention order. A psychiatrist attends the patient after 26 hours and conducts an examination of the patient’s mental state. She finds that the patient has paranoid ideation, believing that hospital staff are trying to kill him, is experiencing auditory hallucinations and is talking of causing harm to his wife, who ‘got’ him ‘into all this.’
      What is the psychiatrist’s most likely course of action?

      Your Answer: Arrange for a mental health officer to attend with a view to issuing a short-term detention certificate

      Explanation:

      Steps for Managing a Patient with Mental Health Issues

      When dealing with a patient who is showing signs of a mental disorder and poses a risk to others, it is important to take appropriate steps to ensure their safety and well-being. Here are the steps that should be taken:

      1. Arrange for a mental health officer to attend with a view to issuing a short-term detention certificate. This will allow the patient to be detained in hospital and assessed for necessary medical treatment.

      2. Once the patient has been assessed, a management plan needs to be put into place. It is important to prescribe medication and monitor the patient’s condition.

      3. If the patient is not willing to consent to treatment, contact the Mental Health Tribunal to request a Compulsory Treatment Order be granted. This can only be done after the patient has been placed on a short-term detention certificate.

      4. Make an appointment for the patient to attend their outpatient clinic when they are discharged from the current hospital. This will ensure that they continue to receive necessary treatment and support.

      By following these steps, healthcare professionals can effectively manage patients with mental health issues and ensure their safety and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 70-year-old hypertensive, diabetic smoker presents with sudden onset unilateral facial weakness, hemiparesis...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old hypertensive, diabetic smoker presents with sudden onset unilateral facial weakness, hemiparesis of the upper and lower limbs and sensory disturbance. All symptoms are on the same side. Global aphasia is also noted on examination. CT brain is normal. An ischaemic cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is diagnosed.
      What is the most likely vascular territory involved?

      Your Answer: Left vertebral artery

      Correct Answer: Left middle cerebral artery

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Different Types of Stroke and Their Symptoms

      Strokes can occur when there is a blockage or rupture of blood vessels in the brain, leading to a lack of oxygen and nutrients to brain cells. Different types of strokes can affect different areas of the brain, resulting in varying symptoms. Here are some examples:

      – Left middle cerebral artery: This type of stroke can cause unilateral facial weakness, hemiplegia, and hemisensory loss. It can also lead to global aphasia, which is a language impairment that affects the dominant hemisphere of the brain (usually the left side). This occurs when the trunk of the left MCA is occluded, causing damage to Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas in the left perisylvian cortex.
      – Right middle cerebral artery: A stroke in the right MCA can cause contralateral motor and sensory symptoms without speech disturbance.
      – Basilar artery: This type of stroke can be particularly devastating, as it affects the brainstem and can lead to a locked-in state. Prognosis is poor.
      – Right internal carotid artery: This is typically asymptomatic, as collateral circulation from the circle of Willis can compensate for the occlusion.
      – Left vertebral artery: A stroke in the left vertebral artery can cause posterior circulation stroke, which can result in symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, gait disturbance, and vertigo.

      It’s important to recognize the symptoms of a stroke and seek medical attention immediately. Time is of the essence when it comes to treating strokes, as early intervention can help minimize damage to the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - You are working as a Foundation Year 2 in a GP surgery. A...

    Incorrect

    • You are working as a Foundation Year 2 in a GP surgery. A mother brings her 4-year-old girl to see you with a cough. You notice an alert on her notes that states she is on a child protection plan.
      Which of the following is true regarding a child protection plan?

      Your Answer: They are devised for children in need of extra support for health, safety ± developmental issues

      Correct Answer: They are devised for children at risk of significant harm

      Explanation:

      Understanding Child Protection Plans and Child in Need Plans

      Child protection plans and child in need plans are two different interventions designed to support children who may be at risk of harm or in need of extra support. It is important to understand the differences between these plans and how they are implemented.

      Child protection plans are devised for children who are at risk of significant harm. The aim of these plans is to ensure the child’s safety, promote their health and development, and support the family in safeguarding and promoting the child’s welfare. Child protection plans are not voluntary and involve a team of professionals working together to ensure the child’s safety.

      On the other hand, child in need plans are voluntary and are designed to support children who may need extra help with their health, safety, or development. These plans identify a lead professional and outline the resources and services needed to achieve the planned outcomes within a specific timeframe.

      It is important to note that both plans involve consultation with parents, wider family members, and relevant agencies. Additionally, child protection plans are regularly reviewed to ensure that the child’s safety and well-being are being maintained.

      In summary, child protection plans and child in need plans are interventions designed to support children in different ways. Understanding the differences between these plans can help ensure that children receive the appropriate support and interventions they need to thrive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      55
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A young adult is a frequent attendee at hospital with recurrent attacks of...

    Incorrect

    • A young adult is a frequent attendee at hospital with recurrent attacks of drowsiness, sweating, and palpitations. The blood glucose level during one of the episodes is 2.9 mmol/l. Recovery occurs in response to intravenous 10% dextrose. C-peptide levels are measured and are found to be below the normal range.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gastrinoma

      Correct Answer: Factitious insulin use

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Causes of Recurrent Hypoglycaemia: Insulinoma, Factitious Insulin Use, Phaeochromocytoma, Gastrinoma, and Glucagonoma

      Recurrent episodes of hypoglycaemia can be caused by various conditions, including insulinoma and factitious insulin use. To differentiate between the two, C-peptide levels can be measured. C-peptide is secreted with insulin, so high levels indicate insulinoma, while suppressed levels suggest factitious insulin use.

      Phaeochromocytoma can also cause hypoglycaemia, along with symptoms such as sweating and palpitations. However, it also leads to elevated blood glucose levels due to increased lipolysis, glycogenolysis, and gluconeogenesis.

      Gastrinomas alone do not cause hypoglycaemia or affect C-peptide levels. However, when they occur in the context of MEN syndrome, insulinoma may coexist.

      Glucagonomas, on the other hand, lead to elevated blood sugar levels.

      In the case of insulinoma, C-peptide levels are low, indicating exogenous insulin as the cause of recurrent hypoglycaemia. If C-peptide levels were raised, this would suggest insulinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A client under your care has been prescribed imipramine for depression. What combination...

    Incorrect

    • A client under your care has been prescribed imipramine for depression. What combination of side-effects is most probable in an individual taking this type of antidepressant?

      Your Answer: Dry mouth + urinary frequency

      Correct Answer: Blurred vision + dry mouth

      Explanation:

      Tricyclic Antidepressants for Neuropathic Pain

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) were once commonly used for depression, but their side-effects and toxicity in overdose have led to a decrease in their use. However, they are still widely used in the treatment of neuropathic pain, where smaller doses are typically required. TCAs such as low-dose amitriptyline are commonly used for the management of neuropathic pain and the prophylaxis of headache, while lofepramine has a lower incidence of toxicity in overdose. It is important to note that some TCAs, such as amitriptyline and dosulepin, are considered more dangerous in overdose than others.

      Common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, and lengthening of the QT interval. When choosing a TCA for neuropathic pain, the level of sedation may also be a consideration. Amitriptyline, clomipramine, dosulepin, and trazodone are more sedative, while imipramine, lofepramine, and nortriptyline are less sedative. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the appropriate TCA and dosage for the individual’s specific needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Linda is a 51-year-old woman who is currently perimenopausal and visits your GP...

    Incorrect

    • Linda is a 51-year-old woman who is currently perimenopausal and visits your GP clinic seeking advice on how to manage her night sweats, hot flashes, and mood swings. She has heard about hormone replacement therapy (HRT) and is interested in trying it to alleviate her symptoms. She has a medical history of hypothyroidism and experienced a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) a decade ago.

      What are the HRT choices you would suggest to her?

      Your Answer: HRT is contra-indicated in this scenario

      Correct Answer: A transdermal combined patch would be the most appropriate option

      Explanation:

      For women who are perimenopausal and experiencing symptoms that require management, HRT is often recommended as a first-line treatment, provided there are no contraindications. While a history of DVT is not an absolute contraindication, arterial thromboembolic disease or current/recurrent VTE would be. Transdermal HRT is generally considered a safer option for those at risk of VTE compared to oral preparations.

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) involves a small dose of oestrogen and progesterone to alleviate menopausal symptoms. The indications for HRT have changed due to the long-term risks, and it is primarily used for vasomotor symptoms and preventing osteoporosis in younger women. HRT consists of natural oestrogens and synthetic progestogens, and can be taken orally or transdermally. Transdermal is preferred for women at risk of venous thromboembolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      10.9
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  • Question 25 - A 29-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of mood and sleep disturbances. She...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of mood and sleep disturbances. She reveals that she was involved in a car accident a few months ago, which left her with minor injuries. However, she has been experiencing flashbacks of the incident and feels anxious when crossing roads, often avoiding them altogether. She also mentions being easily startled by car noises and horns. The woman feels fatigued and irritable, and her sleep is affected. What is the minimum duration of symptoms required for a probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      To receive a diagnosis of PTSD, symptoms must be evident for a minimum of four weeks. This indicates a history of experiencing classic signs and symptoms following a traumatic event. PTSD symptoms can be categorized into hyperarousal, re-experiencing phenomenon, avoidance of reminders, and emotional numbing. These symptoms occur after a traumatic life event, such as a near-death experience. If symptoms persist for less than four weeks, it would be considered an acute stress reaction. However, if symptoms continue beyond four weeks, the patient may be diagnosed with PTSD. It is important to note that the time frame refers to the duration of symptoms, not the time since the traumatic event.

      Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include experiences such as natural disasters, accidents, or even childhood abuse. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of situations or people associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and even substance abuse.

      Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, depending on the severity of the symptoms. Single-session interventions are not recommended, and watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting less than four weeks. Military personnel have access to treatment provided by the armed forces, while trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy may be used in more severe cases.

      It is important to note that drug treatments for PTSD should not be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults. If drug treatment is used, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, should be tried. In severe cases, NICE recommends that risperidone may be used. Overall, understanding the symptoms and effective management of PTSD is crucial in supporting individuals who have experienced traumatic events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      7.9
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  • Question 26 - What is the life expectancy for a man in the UK? ...

    Correct

    • What is the life expectancy for a man in the UK?

      Your Answer: 80–84 years

      Explanation:

      The Remarkable Increase in Life Expectancy for Women in the UK

      At the beginning of the twentieth century, the life expectancy for a woman in the UK was only 59 years old. However, due to a combination of factors such as reduced infant mortality, improved public health, modern medical advances, and the introduction of the welfare state, women in the UK can now expect to live an average of 82.5 years. This remarkable increase in life expectancy is a testament to the progress made in healthcare and social welfare in the UK.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 78-year-old man collapsed during a routine hospital visit and was quickly assessed....

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man collapsed during a routine hospital visit and was quickly assessed. He presented with homonymous hemianopia, significant weakness in his right arm and leg, and a new speech impairment. A CT head scan was urgently performed and confirmed the diagnosis of an ischemic stroke. What CT head results would be indicative of this condition?

      Your Answer: Effacement of the cerebral ventricles and loss of grey-white matter differentiation

      Correct Answer: Hyperdense middle cerebral artery (MCA) sign

      Explanation:

      A hyperdense middle cerebral artery (MCA) sign may be observed on CT in cases of acute ischaemic stroke, typically appearing immediately after symptom onset. This is in contrast to changes in the parenchyma, which tend to develop as the ischaemia within the tissue becomes established. An acute subdural haematoma can be identified on a CT head scan by the presence of a crescent-shaped hyperdense extra-axial collection adjacent to the frontal lobe. Raised intracranial pressure can be detected on a CT head scan by the effacement of the cerebral ventricles and loss of grey-white matter differentiation. The presence of hyperdense material in the cerebral sulci and basal cisterns is indicative of subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) on a CT head scan.

      Assessment and Investigations for Stroke

      Whilst diagnosing a stroke may be straightforward in some cases, it can be challenging when symptoms are vague. The FAST screening tool, which stands for Face/Arms/Speech/Time, is a well-known tool used by the general public to identify stroke symptoms. However, medical professionals use a validated tool called the ROSIER score, recommended by the Royal College of Physicians. The ROSIER score assesses for loss of consciousness or syncope, seizure activity, and new, acute onset of asymmetric facial, arm, or leg weakness, speech disturbance, or visual field defect. A score of greater than zero indicates a likely stroke.

      When investigating suspected stroke, a non-contrast CT head scan is the first line radiological investigation. The key question to answer is whether the stroke is ischaemic or haemorrhagic, as this determines the appropriate management. Ischaemic strokes may show areas of low density in the grey and white matter of the territory, while haemorrhagic strokes typically show areas of hyperdense material surrounded by low density. It is important to identify the type of stroke promptly, as thrombolysis and thrombectomy play an increasing role in acute stroke management. In rare cases, a third pathology such as a tumour may also be detected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 7 week old baby girl is brought to the clinic by her...

    Incorrect

    • A 7 week old baby girl is brought to the clinic by her father. He is worried because although the left testis is present in the scrotum the right testis is absent. He reports that it is sometimes palpable when he bathes the child. On examination the right testis is palpable at the level of the superficial inguinal ring. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Laparoscopy

      Correct Answer: Re-assess in 6 months

      Explanation:

      At 3 months of age, children may have retractile testes which can be monitored without intervention.

      Cryptorchidism is a condition where a testis fails to descend into the scrotum by the age of 3 months. It is a congenital defect that affects up to 5% of male infants at birth, but the incidence decreases to 1-2% by the age of 3 months. The cause of cryptorchidism is mostly unknown, but it can be associated with other congenital defects such as abnormal epididymis, cerebral palsy, mental retardation, Wilms tumour, and abdominal wall defects. Retractile testes and intersex conditions are differential diagnoses that need to be considered.

      It is important to correct cryptorchidism to reduce the risk of infertility, allow for examination of the testes for testicular cancer, avoid testicular torsion, and improve cosmetic appearance. Males with undescended testes are at a higher risk of developing testicular cancer, particularly if the testis is intra-abdominal. Orchidopexy, which involves mobilisation of the testis and implantation into a dartos pouch, is the preferred treatment for cryptorchidism between 6-18 months of age. Intra-abdominal testes require laparoscopic evaluation and mobilisation, which may be a single or two-stage procedure depending on the location. If left untreated, the Sertoli cells will degrade after the age of 2 years, and orchidectomy may be necessary in late teenage years to avoid the risk of malignancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 27-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner for a follow-up appointment after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner for a follow-up appointment after being diagnosed with depression. She is currently undergoing treatment with citalopram and has started a course of cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT).
      What is used to assess the effectiveness of treatment in patients with depression?

      Your Answer: Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)

      Correct Answer: Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9)

      Explanation:

      Common Screening Tools Used in Primary Care

      Primary care physicians often use various screening tools to assess their patients’ mental and physical health. Here are some of the most commonly used screening tools:

      1. Patient Health Questionnaire-9 (PHQ-9): This tool is used to monitor the severity of depression and the response to treatment.

      2. Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE): This questionnaire is used to identify cognitive impairment and screen for dementia.

      3. Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (AUDIT): This screening tool is used to identify signs of harmful drinking and dependence on alcohol.

      4. Generalised Anxiety Disorder Questionnaire (GAD-7): This tool consists of seven questions and is used to screen for generalised anxiety disorder and measure the severity of symptoms.

      5. Modified Single-Answer Screening Question (M-SASQ): This is a single question alcohol harm assessment tool designed for use in Emergency Departments. It identifies high-risk drinkers based on the frequency of consuming six or more units (if female) or eight or more units (if male) on a single occasion in the last year.

      By using these screening tools, primary care physicians can identify potential health issues early on and provide appropriate treatment and care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Over the last 150 years, the life expectancy of people in all countries...

    Incorrect

    • Over the last 150 years, the life expectancy of people in all countries throughout the world has continued to increase. What is the estimated maximum lifespan for a human being?

      Your Answer: 111-120 years

      Correct Answer: 131-140 years

      Explanation:

      The Limits of Human Lifespan

      Life Expectancy and Maximum Lifespan

      Life expectancy has been increasing steadily in both developing and developed countries. In fact, it is estimated that 50% of baby girls born in the UK at the turn of the millennium will live to be over 100 years old. This is a remarkable achievement, but it is important to note that it is not the same as the maximum human lifespan.

      The Ceiling of Human Lifespan

      Despite the advances in medicine and technology, the maximum human lifespan has remained unchanged for over 500 years. It is believed that this is due to a combination of genetic programming and environmental factors. Scientists estimate that the maximum human lifespan is around 140 years old. While there have been a few individuals who have lived beyond this age, they are extremely rare.

      The Possibility of Immortality

      If the ceiling of human lifespan could be broken, it would have significant implications for the concept of immortality. While it may not be possible to achieve true immortality, an increase in lifespan to hundreds of years would be a significant step forward. However, it is important to remember that we are still far from achieving this goal.

      Conclusion

      Life expectancy is increasing, but the maximum human lifespan remains unchanged. While it is possible that we may one day break through the ceiling of human lifespan, we are not there yet. In the meantime, we should focus on improving the quality of life for those who are living longer and finding ways to prevent age-related diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
      3.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology (2/2) 100%
Cardiology (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Genitourinary (0/1) 0%
Ophthalmology (0/2) 0%
Clinical Sciences (1/3) 33%
Pharmacology (1/4) 25%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Surgery (0/2) 0%
Cardiothoracic (0/1) 0%
Ethics And Legal (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (1/3) 33%
Statistics (1/2) 50%
Medicine (0/1) 0%
Passmed