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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy presents to the Emergency Department with periorbital pain, ascites, and oedema. He has no past medical history and is typically healthy, without recent illnesses. Upon examination, his serum urea is elevated and protein in his urine is ++++. What is the probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: IgA nephropathy glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer: Minimal change glomerulonephritis
Explanation:Overview of Different Types of Glomerulonephritis
Glomerulonephritis is a group of kidney diseases that affect the glomeruli, the tiny blood vessels in the kidneys that filter waste and excess fluids from the blood. Here are some of the different types of glomerulonephritis:
1. Minimal Change Glomerulonephritis: This is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children. It is caused by T-cell-mediated injury to the podocytes of the epithelial cells. The diagnosis is made by electron microscopy, and treatment is with steroids.
2. Membranous Glomerulonephritis: This is the second most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults. It can be primary or secondary, and some causes of secondary membranous glomerulonephritis include autoimmune conditions, malignancy, viral infections, and drugs. On light microscopy, the basement membrane has characteristic spikes.
3. Mesangiocapillary Glomerulonephritis: This is associated with immune deposition in the glomerulus, thickening of the basement membrane, and activation of complement pathways leading to glomerular damage. It presents with nephrotic syndrome and is seen in both the pediatric and adult population. It is the most common glomerulonephritis associated with hepatitis C.
4. Post-Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis: This presents with haematuria, oedema, hypertension, fever, or acute kidney failure following an upper respiratory tract infection or pharyngitis from Streptococcus spp.
5. IgA Nephropathy Glomerulonephritis: This is a condition associated with IgA deposition within the glomerulus, presenting with haematuria following an upper respiratory tract infection. It is the most common cause of glomerulonephritis in adults.
Understanding the Different Types of Glomerulonephritis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 2
Correct
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A worried mother brings her 12-year-old daughter to a paediatric gynaecologist. Her daughter is significantly shorter than her peers, has not yet started puberty, and is deaf in both ears. During the examination, the clinician observes neck webbing, a high arched palate, and low-set ears. Based on these findings, the clinician suspects that the child may have Turner syndrome.
What is the most appropriate chromosomal abnormality that characterizes Turner syndrome?Your Answer: 45,X
Explanation:Understanding Sex Chromosome Abnormalities: Turner Syndrome, Triple X Syndrome, and Klinefelter’s Syndrome
Sex chromosome abnormalities can have significant impacts on an individual’s physical and developmental characteristics. Here, we will discuss three such abnormalities: Turner syndrome, triple X syndrome, and Klinefelter’s syndrome.
Turner syndrome, or monosomy X, occurs when an individual is missing an X chromosome. This condition affects approximately 1 in 2000 live female births and can result in lymphoedema, hypoplastic nails, heart murmurs, and a high risk of congenital hip dislocation. Individuals with Turner syndrome also experience short stature and do not experience the pubertal growth spurt. They may have absent breast development, primary or secondary amenorrhoea, and infertility due to ovarian failure. Treatment involves hormone replacement and growth hormone to increase growth rate.
Triple X syndrome, or trisomy X, occurs when an individual has an extra X chromosome. This condition is not usually inherited and does not have physical features associated with it. Females with triple X syndrome tend to be taller than peers with a normal female karyotype and have normal pubertal development and fertility. However, they may experience learning difficulties and delayed development of speech and motor skills.
Klinefelter’s syndrome occurs when an individual has an extra X chromosome, resulting in a male patient with a tall stature and sparse pubic/axillary and facial hair. They have a delayed puberty and hypogonadism, and are infertile. Patients with Klinefelter’s are also at an increased risk of developing systemic lupus erythematosus, breast cancer, and extragonadal germ cell tumours. Treatment involves androgen supplementation and may require behavioural therapy as well.
Understanding these sex chromosome abnormalities can aid in early diagnosis and appropriate treatment for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents to her GP seeking guidance on conception, specifically regarding the use of supplements or medication. She has no significant medical or family history and has previously given birth to two healthy children in the past three years without complications. Upon examination, she appears to be in good health, with a BMI of 31 kg/m2. What is the most suitable course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: Lifestyle and dietary advice
Correct Answer: 5mg of folic acid
Explanation:Pregnant women with a BMI greater than 30 kg/m2 should be prescribed a high dose of 5mg folic acid instead of the standard 400 micrograms. Therefore, the lifestyle and dietary advice given to this patient is incorrect. Additionally, prescribing 75 mg of aspirin is not appropriate for this patient as it is typically given to women with one high-risk factor or two moderate-risk factors for pre-eclampsia, and a BMI over 35 would only qualify as a single moderate-risk factor. While 150 mg of aspirin is an alternative dose for pre-eclampsia prophylaxis, 75 mg is more commonly used in practice.
Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention
Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.
To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.
In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old pregnant woman with type 1 diabetes inquires about the frequency of blood glucose level testing during her pregnancy.
Your Answer: Daily fasting test
Correct Answer: Daily fasting, pre-meal, 1-hour post-meal and bedtime tests.
Explanation:It is important for pregnant individuals with type 1 diabetes to closely monitor their blood glucose levels by testing multiple times throughout the day. This is recommended by NICE NG3.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 5
Correct
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A 26-year-old man presents to the clinic with an enlarged testicle. During a self-examination in the shower, he noticed that his left testicle was significantly larger than the right. He reports no specific symptoms, but mentions a recent weight loss of 5kg over the past 4 months, which he attributed to a new diet. Additionally, he has been experiencing general fatigue for the past month.
The patient has no significant medical history and takes no regular medications. He is sexually active with his partner of 2 years and denies alcohol, smoking, and recreational drug use. There are no other notable symptoms upon further questioning.
On clinical examination, there is an enlarged, non-tender, left testicle, but no other abnormalities are detected. There is no palpable lymphadenopathy or gynaecomastia.
What is the most appropriate next step in evaluating this patient?Your Answer: Ultrasound testes
Explanation:An ultrasound is the initial test for investigating a testicular mass. It is common for there to be a slight size difference between the two testes. The first step is to perform an ultrasound to identify the mass and confirm its presence. If the mass appears to be cancerous, tumor markers should be measured. In cases where the ultrasound results are unclear, an MRI may be necessary.
Understanding Testicular Cancer
Testicular cancer is a type of cancer that commonly affects men between the ages of 20 and 30. Germ-cell tumors are the most common type of testicular cancer, accounting for around 95% of cases. These tumors can be divided into seminomas and non-seminomas, which include embryonal, yolk sac, teratoma, and choriocarcinoma. Other types of testicular cancer include Leydig cell tumors and sarcomas. Risk factors for testicular cancer include infertility, cryptorchidism, family history, Klinefelter’s syndrome, and mumps orchitis.
The most common symptom of testicular cancer is a painless lump, although some men may experience pain. Other symptoms may include hydrocele and gynaecomastia, which occurs due to an increased oestrogen:androgen ratio. Tumor markers such as hCG, AFP, and beta-hCG may be elevated in germ cell tumors. Ultrasound is the first-line diagnostic tool for testicular cancer.
Treatment for testicular cancer depends on the type and stage of the tumor. Orchidectomy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy may be used. Prognosis for testicular cancer is generally excellent, with a 5-year survival rate of around 95% for seminomas and 85% for teratomas if caught at Stage I. It is important for men to perform regular self-examinations and seek medical attention if they notice any changes or abnormalities in their testicles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents with fever and painful urination. She reports feeling unwell for the past three days and now has left flank pain. She is currently taking combined oral contraceptive pills. On examination, she has tenderness in the left renal angle and supra-pubic area, and her vital signs are as follows: temperature of 38.8°C, blood pressure of 105/60 mmHg, and pulse rate of 94 beats per minute. Laboratory results show a hemoglobin level of 114 g/L, white blood cell count of 14.9 ×109/L, platelet count of 193 ×109/L, sodium level of 140 mmol/L, potassium level of 4.1 mmol/L, and creatinine level of 132 µmol/L. Her urine analysis reveals the presence of blood, nitrites, and leukocytes. What is the most appropriate initial step in management?
Your Answer: Ultrasound renal tract
Correct Answer: IV antibiotics
Explanation:Urgent Treatment and Diagnosis for Suspected Pyelonephritis
Given the patient’s elevated white blood cell count, increased creatinine levels, and significant hypotension, it is crucial to administer intravenous antibiotics immediately. A broad-spectrum cephalosporin is recommended to combat the potential infection. The patient’s left renal angle pain raises concerns about pyelonephritis and possible ureteric obstruction. Therefore, it is necessary to rule out obstruction by conducting an ultrasound of the renal tract. If the ultrasound shows signs of ureteric dilation, it is advisable to seek an opinion from a urologist. In the case of a first episode of pyelonephritis, many urologists recommend an ultrasound as the first step in diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old male presents with black tarry stools. He has a history of chronic alcoholism for 30 years, consuming approximately a litre of vodka daily. During an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy, oesophageal varices with bleeding and a small gastric ulcer were discovered. Due to active gastrointestinal bleeding, he was kept nil by mouth and given intravenous infusions of 5% glucose plus 0.45% sodium chloride solution at a rate of 60 ml/hour and 60 ml of 50% glucose water every 6 hours. Initially, he showed no signs of confusion, and his ammonia levels were normal. However, he later developed polymorphic VT, and refeeding syndrome is suspected. What electrolyte changes would you anticipate?
Your Answer: Low Phosphate, low potassium, high magnesium
Correct Answer: Low Phosphate, low potassium, low magnesium
Explanation:Refeeding Syndrome
Refeeding syndrome is a condition that occurs when nutrition is reintroduced to individuals who have been starved, severely malnourished, or metabolically stressed due to severe illness. This syndrome is characterized by metabolic disturbances that can be attributed to the resumption of glycaemia, which leads to increased insulin and decreased secretion of glucagon. As a result, insulin stimulates glycogen, fat, and protein synthesis, which requires minerals such as phosphate and magnesium, as well as cofactors such as thiamine. Furthermore, insulin stimulates the uptake of potassium into the cell, which can lead to low levels of potassium, magnesium, and phosphate.
To treat refeeding syndrome, it is essential to correct the electrolyte imbalances that occur. This can be achieved through careful monitoring of the patient’s electrolyte levels and providing appropriate supplementation as needed. By the underlying mechanisms of refeeding syndrome and taking appropriate measures to correct electrolyte imbalances, healthcare professionals can effectively manage this condition and prevent potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents to the clinic with three positive faecal occult blood specimens. He has had no significant symptoms, apart from mild fatigue over the past few months.
On examination, he has pale conjunctiva, but there are no other specific findings.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 105 g/l 135–175 g/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 79 fl 76–98 fl
White cell count (WCC) 4.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 275 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 11 mm/hour 0–10mm in the 1st hour
Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 100 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 35 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Alkaline phosphatase 46 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
Flexible colonoscopy: abnormal vessels visualised on the right side of the colon
Which of the following is the initial therapy of choice?Your Answer: 2 units of blood transfusion
Correct Answer: Endoscopic ablation of abnormal vessels
Explanation:Management of Angiodysplasia of the Colon
Angiodysplasia of the colon is a condition that commonly affects individuals over the age of 60 and presents with chronic hypochromic microcytic anemia or massive bleeding with hemodynamic instability in 15% of patients. The treatment of choice for this condition is endoscopic ablation of abnormal vessels. Surgery may be considered for those who do not respond to ablation therapy. A review colonoscopy in 6 months would not be appropriate as management is required for the observed angiodysplasia. Blood transfusion is not indicated unless there are signs of acute large-volume blood loss. Iron sulfate supplementation may not be necessary if the underlying condition is treated, as the iron deficiency should correct itself with adequate dietary intake.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 9
Correct
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A 75-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of lower abdominal pain and rectal bleeding. He reports that over the past 2-3 months he has had bouts of intermittent lower abdominal pain. He usually opens his bowels once every 4-5 days and complains of passing hard stools. There is no past medical history of note.
Upon examination, he has a temperature of 38.1ºC with a heart rate of 80 beats/min and a blood pressure of 122/85 mmHg. There is palpable tenderness with guarding in the left iliac fossa.
What is the most appropriate long-term management plan for this patient?Your Answer: Increased dietary fibre intake
Explanation:Increasing dietary fibre intake is beneficial for managing diverticular disease, which is likely the cause of this patient’s symptoms based on their history of left iliac fossa pain, rectal bleeding, and diarrhea, as well as a history of constipation. While intravenous antibiotics may be necessary for moderate-severe cases of diverticulitis, they are not part of the long-term management plan. Intravenous hydrocortisone is used to treat inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), but this is unlikely to be the diagnosis given the patient’s age of onset. Laparoscopic resection is reserved for recurrent episodes of acute diverticulitis and would not be appropriate for a first presentation.
Understanding Diverticular Disease
Diverticular disease is a common condition that involves the protrusion of colonic mucosa through the muscular wall of the colon. This typically occurs between the taenia coli, where vessels penetrate the muscle to supply the mucosa. Symptoms of diverticular disease include altered bowel habits, rectal bleeding, and abdominal pain. Complications can arise, such as diverticulitis, haemorrhage, fistula development, perforation and faecal peritonitis, abscess formation, and diverticular phlegmon.
To diagnose diverticular disease, patients may undergo a colonoscopy, CT cologram, or barium enema. However, it can be challenging to rule out cancer, especially in diverticular strictures. For acutely unwell surgical patients, plain abdominal films and an erect chest x-ray can identify perforation, while an abdominal CT scan with oral and intravenous contrast can detect acute inflammation and local complications.
Treatment for diverticular disease includes increasing dietary fibre intake and managing mild attacks with antibiotics. Peri colonic abscesses may require surgical or radiological drainage, while recurrent episodes of acute diverticulitis may necessitate a segmental resection. Hinchey IV perforations, which involve generalised faecal peritonitis, typically require a resection and stoma, with a high risk of postoperative complications and HDU admission. Less severe perforations may be managed with laparoscopic washout and drain insertion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman attends the Neurological Outpatient Clinic as an urgent referral, with a short, but progressive, history of double vision. It is noted by her husband that her speech is worse last thing in the evening. She is a non-smoker and drinks 18 units a week of alcohol.
Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic test?Your Answer: Visually evoked responses
Correct Answer: Nerve conduction studies with repetitive nerve stimulation
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Myasthenia Gravis
Myasthenia gravis (MG) is a disease characterized by weakness and fatigability due to antibodies against the acetylcholine receptor at the neuromuscular junction. Nerve conduction studies with repetitive nerve stimulation can objectively document the fatigability, showing a decrement in the evoked muscle action after repeat stimulation. A CT brain scan is not useful for MG diagnosis, but CT chest imaging is indicated as thymic hyperplasia or tumors are associated with MG. Autoantibodies to voltage-gated calcium channels are associated with Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome, which is rare. Visually evoked potentials are useful for assessing optic nerve function but not for MG diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy weighing 26 kg has been diagnosed with epilepsy and needs to be prescribed an anticonvulsant medication called Fitamil. The medication must be taken twice daily and the dosage is based on weight. The loading dose is 4 mg/kg and the maintenance dose is 0.8 mg/kg to be given every 12 hours. What is the correct dosing regimen for this child?
Your Answer: Loading dose of 100 mg, maintenance dose of 25 mg 12 hourly
Correct Answer: Loading dose of 100 mg, maintenance dose of 20 mg 12 hourly
Explanation:Importance of Body Weight and Dosing Interval in Drug Prescription
Many drugs require prescription based on body weight, especially in paediatrics. The initial dose, known as the loading dose, is calculated based on the weight of the patient. The maintenance dose is then determined based on the half life of the drug, which follows first order kinetics. Regular dosing is necessary to prevent total elimination of the drug from the body.
The dosing interval is chosen by the manufacturer according to the half life of the drug. It is important to maintain adequate drug levels in the blood to achieve maximal efficacy and reduce the risk of further seizures, especially in diseases like epilepsy. The concentration of the drug should be sufficient to maintain an anticonvulsant effect between doses, even if a dose is late or missed.
To achieve therapeutic concentrations of the drug, repeated dosing may be necessary. In some cases, a loading dose is used to attain high concentrations of the drug quickly. The timing of the dosing interval is also crucial in achieving therapeutic concentrations. Overall, proper dosing based on body weight and dosing interval is essential in ensuring the effectiveness and safety of drug therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman, with a history of fibromyalgia, presents to her General Practitioner with a 6-month history of a constant soreness in the pelvic and perineal area. She reports it is there most of the time, and she struggles to carry on with her daily activities and sleep. She is tearful and fatigued. She tried paracetamol and ibuprofen, but these have not worked. She denies any postmenopausal bleeding or vaginal discharge.
Examination is unremarkable. She had a recent abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan for investigation of acute diverticulitis that revealed no abnormality in the uterus and ovaries.
Which of the following is the next step in the patient’s management?Your Answer: Referral to the Gynaecology team
Correct Answer: Amitriptyline
Explanation:Management of Unprovoked Vulvodynia: Medications, Referrals, and Other Modalities
Unprovoked vulvodynia is a chronic pain syndrome characterized by chronic vulvovaginal pain lasting at least three months, without identifiable cause. The pain can be localized or generalized, has no triggers, and cannot be provoked by light touch on examination. In addition, there is associated dyspareunia. The intensity of the pain and the impact on the patient varies greatly between cases. The mainstay of first-line treatment is pain-modifying medication such as amitriptyline, an oral tricyclic antidepressant medication, which is also used in the management of depression, migraines, and chronic pain. However, if an adequate trial of amitriptyline fails to improve symptoms or if the side-effects are not tolerated by the patient, then gabapentin or pregabalin can be offered as second line. Other modalities that should be considered in the management of unprovoked vulvodynia include cognitive behavioural therapy, acupuncture, and pelvic floor exercise training. Severe unprovoked vulvodynia that persists despite the above measurements should be dealt with in secondary care by the pain team. Referral to the Gynaecology team is unnecessary unless there are concerning factors in the history or examination to point towards causes like carcinoma, sexually transmitted infections, or chronic inflammatory skin conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 68-year-old man with oesophageal cancer has completed two cycles of neo-adjuvant cisplatin and 5-fluorouracil (5FU) and is scheduled for his third cycle of chemotherapy in a week. He complains of pain, discharge, and redness around the site of his jejunostomy and has a fever of 38.5 °C. Upon examination, he is stable, with a clear chest and soft abdomen, but shows signs of infection around the jejunostomy. His renal function is normal, and he has no known drug allergies. A full blood count taken yesterday reveals a neutrophil count of 0.5 × 109/l.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?Your Answer: Obtain iv access, take full blood count and blood cultures and commence iv piperacillin–tazobactam (as per local policy) as soon as possible
Explanation:Management of Neutropenic Sepsis in a Patient Receiving Chemotherapy
Neutropenic sepsis is a life-threatening condition that can occur in patients receiving chemotherapy. It is defined as pyrexia in the presence of a neutrophil count of <0.5 × 109/l. Prompt administration of broad-spectrum iv antibiotics is crucial in improving outcomes. Therefore, obtaining iv access, taking full blood count and blood cultures, and commencing iv piperacillin–tazobactam (as per local policy) should be done as soon as possible. In cases where there is suspicion of a collection around the jejunostomy, further imaging and surgical consultation may be required. It is important to discuss the management of chemotherapy with the patient’s oncologist. Delaying chemotherapy is necessary in cases of active infection and worsening neutropenia. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines advise treating suspected neutropenic sepsis as an acute medical emergency and offering empiric antibiotic therapy immediately. It is important to note that NICE guidelines recommend offering β-lactam monotherapy with piperacillin with tazobactam as initial empiric antibiotic therapy to patients with suspected neutropenic sepsis who need iv treatment, unless there are patient-specific or local microbiological contraindications. However, this should be reviewed with the result of cultures at 48 hours. In summary, the management of neutropenic sepsis in a patient receiving chemotherapy requires prompt and appropriate administration of antibiotics, delaying chemotherapy, and close collaboration with the patient’s oncologist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man with chronic heart failure is prescribed digoxin for atrial fibrillation. The patient expresses anxiety about starting a new medication. What is the recommended frequency for monitoring the levels of this medication?
Your Answer: Every 3 months
Correct Answer: No regular monitoring needed
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, routine monitoring of plasma-digoxin concentration is not necessary during maintenance treatment unless there is suspicion of toxicity. Digoxin has a long half-life and is administered once daily for maintenance doses. If toxicity is suspected, digoxin concentrations should be measured within 8 to 12 hours of the last dose. It is important to note that toxicity can occur even when the concentration is within the therapeutic range, and caution should be exercised when prescribing to the elderly who are at increased risk of toxicity. The BNF advises that the likelihood of toxicity increases progressively from 1.5 to 3 mcg/l. Therefore, digoxin levels are not monitored on a weekly, monthly, or quarterly basis, but rather only in cases where toxicity is suspected.
Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity
Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and requires monitoring for toxicity.
Toxicity may occur even when the digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range. Symptoms of toxicity include lethargy, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor, as it allows digoxin to more easily bind to the ATPase pump and increase its inhibitory effects. Other factors that may contribute to toxicity include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, and verapamil.
Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of Digibind, correction of arrhythmias, and monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to recognize the potential for toxicity and monitor patients accordingly to prevent adverse outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Perinuclear antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (pANCA) are most commonly associated with which medical condition?
Your Answer: Autoimmune hepatitis
Correct Answer: Churg-Strauss syndrome
Explanation:ANCA Associated Vasculitis: Common Findings and Management
Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) are associated with small-vessel vasculitides such as granulomatosis with polyangiitis, eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and microscopic polyangiitis. ANCA associated vasculitis is more common in older individuals and presents with renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, systemic symptoms, and sometimes a vasculitic rash or ear, nose, and throat symptoms. First-line investigations include urinalysis, blood tests for renal function and inflammation, ANCA testing, and chest x-ray. There are two main types of ANCA – cytoplasmic (cANCA) and perinuclear (pANCA) – with varying levels found in different conditions. ANCA associated vasculitis should be managed by specialist teams and the mainstay of treatment is immunosuppressive therapy.
ANCA associated vasculitis is a group of small-vessel vasculitides that are associated with ANCA. These conditions are more common in older individuals and present with renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, systemic symptoms, and sometimes a vasculitic rash or ear, nose, and throat symptoms. To diagnose ANCA associated vasculitis, first-line investigations include urinalysis, blood tests for renal function and inflammation, ANCA testing, and chest x-ray. There are two main types of ANCA – cytoplasmic (cANCA) and perinuclear (pANCA) – with varying levels found in different conditions. ANCA associated vasculitis should be managed by specialist teams and the mainstay of treatment is immunosuppressive therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman has been newly diagnosed with breast cancer. She receives a wide-local excision and subsequently undergoes whole-breast radiotherapy. The pathology report reveals that the tumour is negative for HER2 but positive for oestrogen receptor. She has a medical history of hypertension and premature ovarian failure. What adjuvant treatment is she expected to receive?
Your Answer: Tamoxifen
Correct Answer: Anastrozole
Explanation:Anastrozole is the correct adjuvant hormonal therapy for postmenopausal women with ER+ breast cancer. This is because the tumour is positive for oestrogen receptors and negative for HER2 receptors, and aromatase inhibitors are the preferred treatment for postmenopausal women due to the majority of oestrogen production being through aromatisation. Goserelin is used for ovarian suppression in premenopausal women, while Herceptin is used for HER2 positive tumours. Imatinib is not used in breast cancer management.
Breast cancer management varies depending on the stage of the cancer, type of tumor, and patient’s medical history. Treatment options may include surgery, radiotherapy, hormone therapy, biological therapy, and chemotherapy. Surgery is typically the first option for most patients, except for elderly patients with metastatic disease who may benefit more from hormonal therapy. Prior to surgery, an axillary ultrasound is recommended for patients without palpable axillary lymphadenopathy, while those with clinically palpable lymphadenopathy require axillary node clearance. The type of surgery offered depends on various factors, such as tumor size, location, and type. Breast reconstruction is also an option for patients who have undergone a mastectomy.
Radiotherapy is recommended after a wide-local excision to reduce the risk of recurrence, while mastectomy patients may receive radiotherapy for T3-T4 tumors or those with four or more positive axillary nodes. Hormonal therapy is offered if tumors are positive for hormone receptors, with tamoxifen being used in pre- and perimenopausal women and aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole in postmenopausal women. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of endometrial cancer, venous thromboembolism, and menopausal symptoms. Biological therapy, such as trastuzumab, is used for HER2-positive tumors but cannot be used in patients with a history of heart disorders. Chemotherapy may be used before or after surgery, depending on the stage of the tumor and the presence of axillary node disease. FEC-D is commonly used in the latter case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 17
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the maternity unit 3 days after delivering a healthy baby at 39 weeks gestation. She had a normal third stage of labour and has been experiencing intermittent vaginal bleeding and brown discharge, with an estimated blood loss of 120 ml. The patient has a history of asthma.
On examination, her temperature is 37.2ºC, heart rate is 92 bpm, and blood pressure is 120/78 mmHg. There is no abdominal tenderness and a pelvic and vaginal exam are unremarkable.
What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Reassure and advise sanitary towel use
Explanation:After a vaginal delivery, the loss of blood exceeding 500 ml is referred to as postpartum haemorrhage.
Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage
Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.
In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.
Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 18
Correct
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As a junior doctor in the neonatal unit, you receive a call from a nurse regarding a delivery where the baby's head has been delivered, but the shoulders are not descending with normal downward traction. What is your initial step in managing this situation?
Your Answer: Ask the mother to hyperflex their legs and apply suprapubic pressure
Explanation:In cases where the previous method is unsuccessful, an episiotomy may be necessary to facilitate internal maneuvers. Various alternatives may be considered, such as…
Shoulder dystocia is a complication that can occur during vaginal delivery when the body of the fetus cannot be delivered after the head has already been delivered. This is usually due to the anterior shoulder of the fetus becoming stuck on the mother’s pubic bone. Shoulder dystocia can cause harm to both the mother and the fetus. Risk factors for shoulder dystocia include fetal macrosomia, high maternal body mass index, diabetes mellitus, and prolonged labor.
If shoulder dystocia is identified, it is important to call for senior help immediately. The McRoberts’ maneuver is often performed, which involves flexing and abducting the mother’s hips to increase the angle of the pelvis and facilitate delivery. An episiotomy may be performed to provide better access for internal maneuvers, but it will not relieve the bony obstruction. Symphysiotomy and the Zavanelli maneuver are not recommended as they can cause significant maternal morbidity. Oxytocin administration is not indicated for shoulder dystocia.
Complications of shoulder dystocia can include postpartum hemorrhage and perineal tears for the mother, and brachial plexus injury and neonatal death for the fetus. It is important to manage shoulder dystocia promptly and appropriately to minimize the risk of these complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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In a study of the usefulness of serum procalcitonin level in identifying bacteraemia in elderly patients, 100 consecutive febrile patients aged 65 and above were examined for serum procalcitonin and bacterial culture.
The study found that a serum procalcitonin level above 0.5 microgram/L had an 80% positive predictive value in detecting bacteraemia.
What does this statement mean?Your Answer: 80% of the patients who have bacteraemia would be expected to have serum procalcitonin level above 0.5 microgram/L
Correct Answer: 80% of the patients who have serum procalcitonin level above 0.5 microgram/L would be expected to have bacteraemia
Explanation:Positive Predictive Value
Positive predictive value refers to the proportion of patients who test positive for a particular condition and actually have the disease. For instance, if 80% of patients with a serum procalcitonin level above 0.5 microgram/L have bacteraemia, then the positive predictive value is 80%. It is important to note that the number of patients tested does not affect the positive predictive value. However, changes in the prevalence of the condition can affect the value. Therefore, it is crucial to understand the concept of positive predictive value when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after intentionally overdosing on paracetamol. She has a medical history of depression, epilepsy, and pulmonary tuberculosis and is currently taking carbamazepine, St John's wort, rifampicin, and isoniazid. Upon examination, she appears emaciated and has a noticeable odor of alcohol. Given her overdose, what factors may be associated with a lower risk of hepatotoxicity in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute alcohol intake
Explanation:There is no evidence to suggest that acute alcohol intake increases the risk of hepatotoxicity from paracetamol overdose. In fact, it may even have a protective effect. Chronic alcohol excess, on the other hand, is known to increase the risk of liver damage. Additionally, drugs like carbamazepine that induce liver enzymes should be used with caution in cases of paracetamol overdose.
Risk Factors for Paracetamol Overdose
Paracetamol overdose can lead to hepatotoxicity, especially in certain groups of patients. Those taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs such as rifampicin, phenytoin, carbamazepine, or those with chronic alcohol excess or who take St John’s Wort are at an increased risk. Malnourished patients, such as those with anorexia nervosa, or those who have not eaten for a few days are also at a higher risk. Interestingly, acute alcohol intake does not increase the risk of hepatotoxicity, and may even have a protective effect. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors when treating patients who have overdosed on paracetamol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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