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Question 1
Correct
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A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner to discuss the uptitration of his medication as advised by cardiology. He suffered an anterior myocardial infarction (MI) four weeks ago. His history reveals that he is a smoker (20 per day for 30 years) and works in a sedentary office job, where he often works long days and eats ready meals to save time with food preparation.
On examination, his heart rate is 62 bpm and his blood pressure is 126/74 mmHg, body mass index (BMI) is 31. His bisoprolol is increased to 5 mg and ramipril to 7.5 mg.
Which of the following is the single non-pharmacological intervention that will be most helpful in reducing his risk of a future ischaemic event?
Your Answer: Stopping smoking
Explanation:Reducing Cardiovascular Risk: Lifestyle Changes to Consider
Cardiovascular disease (CVD) is a leading cause of death worldwide, but many of the risk factors are modifiable through lifestyle changes. The three most important modifiable and causal risk factors are smoking, hypertension, and abnormal lipids. While hypertension and abnormal lipids may require medication to make significant changes, smoking cessation is the single most important non-pharmacological, modifiable risk factor in reducing cardiovascular risk.
In addition to quitting smoking, there are other lifestyle changes that can help reduce cardiovascular risk. A cardioprotective diet should limit total fat intake to 30% or less of total energy intake, with saturated fat intake below 7%. Low-carbohydrate dietary intake is also thought to be important in cardiovascular disease prevention.
Regular exercise is also important, with 150 minutes or more per week of moderate-intensity aerobic activity and muscle-strengthening activities on at least two days a week recommended. While exercise is beneficial, stopping smoking remains the most effective lifestyle change for reducing cardiovascular risk.
Salt restriction can also help reduce risk, with a recommended intake of less than 6 g per day. Patients should be advised to avoid adding salt to their meals and minimize processed foods.
Finally, weight reduction should be advised to decrease future cardiovascular risk, with a goal of achieving a normal BMI. Obese patients should also be assessed for sleep apnea. By making these lifestyle changes, individuals can significantly reduce their risk of developing cardiovascular disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with a history of myocardial infarction is experiencing respiratory distress during your emergency home visit. He is sweating, pale, and tachypnoeic with severe chest pain. His heart rate is 140 bpm and blood pressure is 110/60 mmHg. You hear fine crackles in the lower parts of both lungs and determine that he requires immediate hospitalization.
What is the best initial management option to administer while waiting for hospital transfer for this patient?Your Answer: Intravenous (IV) diamorphine
Correct Answer: IV furosemide
Explanation:Management of Acute Left-Ventricular Failure: Initial Treatment Options
Acute left-ventricular failure (LVF) with pulmonary oedema can be caused by various factors such as ischaemic heart disease, acute arrhythmias, and valvular heart disease. The initial management of this condition involves the use of intravenous (IV) diuretics, such as furosemide. However, other treatment options should be avoided or used with caution.
Initial Treatment Options for Acute Left-Ventricular Failure with Pulmonary Oedema
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 3
Correct
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How long should a patient refrain from driving after undergoing an elective cardiac angioplasty?
Your Answer: 1 week
Explanation:DVLA guidance after angioplasty – refrain from driving for a period of 7 days.
DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving
The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.
Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.
Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 4
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman undergoes successful DC cardioversion for atrial fibrillation (AF).
Select from the list the single factor that best predicts long-term maintenance of sinus rhythm following this procedure.Your Answer: Absence of structural or valvular heart disease
Explanation:Factors Affecting Success of Cardioversion
Cardioversion is a medical procedure used to restore a normal heart rhythm in patients with atrial fibrillation. However, the success of cardioversion can be influenced by various factors.
Factors indicating a high likelihood of success include being under the age of 65, having a first episode of atrial fibrillation, and having no evidence of structural or valvular heart disease.
On the other hand, factors indicating a low likelihood of success include being over the age of 80, having atrial fibrillation for more than three years, having a left atrial diameter greater than 5cm, having significant mitral valve disease, and having undergone two or more cardioversions.
Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to consider these factors when deciding whether or not to perform cardioversion on a patient with atrial fibrillation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents for an insurance medical. He has no significant medical history. During the examination, his BMI is 23 kg/m2, blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and auscultation of the heart reveals a mid-systolic click and a late systolic murmur (which are more pronounced when he stands up).
What is the most likely diagnosis based on these findings?Your Answer: Mitral stenosis
Correct Answer: Mitral valve prolapse
Explanation:Understanding Mitral Valve Prolapse: Symptoms, Causes, and Associated Conditions
Mitral valve prolapse is a condition where the leaflets of the mitral valve bulge in systole, affecting around 2-3% of the population. It can occur as an isolated entity or with heritable disorders of connective tissue. While most people are asymptomatic, some may experience symptoms such as anxiety, panic attacks, palpitations, syncope, or presyncope. The condition is also a risk factor for mitral regurgitation and carries a small risk of cerebral emboli and sudden death. Diagnosis is made through auscultation, with a mid-to-late systolic click and a late systolic murmur heard at the apex. Other heart conditions, such as atrial septal defect, aortic stenosis, mitral regurgitation, and mitral stenosis, have distinct murmurs that aid in diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You review a 54-year-old man who has recently been discharged from the hospital after receiving thrombolysis for an acute inferior myocardial infarction (MI). He was relatively well post-infarct, and he is here to review his post- discharge medication.
Other past medical history of note includes type 2 diabetes. Current treatment includes metformin 1g BD, aspirin 75 mg, atorvastatin 10 mg daily and ramipril 10 mg. On examination his BP is 155/92 mmHg, pulse is 75 and regular. His BMI is 29 kg/m2. There are bibasal crackles on auscultation of the chest.
Investigations reveal:
Hb 125 g/dL (135-180)
WCC 5.2 ×109/L (4-10)
PLT 231 ×109/L (150-400)
Na 139 mmol/L (134-143)
K 4.5 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
Cr 145 µmol/L (60-120)
HbA1c 55 mmol/mol (20-46)
7.2% (<5.5)
Which of the following is true with respect to the management of his post-MI medication?Your Answer: He should be transitioned to insulin therapy
Correct Answer: A thiazide diuretic is the most appropriate option for controlling his BP
Explanation:Treatment Recommendations for Patients with Acute MI
All patients who have experienced an acute MI should be offered a combination of medications, including an ACE inhibitor, beta blocker, aspirin, and statin. Calcium channel antagonists are not typically recommended unless a beta blocker is not tolerated.
While the DIGAMI study initially suggested that transitioning to insulin therapy may be beneficial for patients with type 2 diabetes, subsequent research has shown a trend towards increased mortality with this treatment. Therefore, it is not routinely recommended.
Thiazide and nicorandil have not shown convincing post-MI outcome data and may worsen insulin resistance. On the other hand, bisoprolol, a selective beta blocker, has demonstrated positive outcomes in patients with heart failure and hypertension, making it a sensible addition to post-MI therapy.
In summary, a combination of ACE inhibitor, beta blocker, aspirin, and statin is recommended for all patients with acute MI, with caution advised when considering insulin therapy and thiazide or nicorandil use. Bisoprolol may be a beneficial addition for those with hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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You are evaluating an 80-year-old patient who has recently been diagnosed with heart failure. Her left ventricular ejection fraction is 55%. She has been experiencing orthopnoea and ankle swelling. The cardiology team has referred her to you for medication initiation.
During the assessment, her vital signs are blood pressure 120/80 mmHg and heart rate 82/min.
What should be the initial consideration in her management?Your Answer: Spironolactone
Correct Answer: Furosemide
Explanation:Furosemide is the appropriate choice for managing symptoms in individuals with heart failure with preserved ejection fraction using loop diuretics. Spironolactone is not recommended for this purpose. In cases of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction, mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists should be considered along with an ACE inhibitor (or ARB) and beta-blocker if symptoms persist.
Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man who experiences Stokes-Adams attacks has received a pacemaker that is functioning properly. What guidance should he be provided regarding driving?
Your Answer: Cannot drive for 6 weeks
Correct Answer: Cannot drive for 1 week
Explanation:If you have had a pacemaker inserted or the box has been changed, it is important to inform the DVLA. It is also necessary to refrain from driving for a minimum of one week.
DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving
The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.
Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.
Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of loss of vision in his right eye which lasted approximately 30 minutes.
He was aware of a an initial blurring of his vision and then cloudiness with inability to see out of the eye.
He has been generally well except for a recent history of hypertension for which he takes atenolol. He drinks modest quantities of alcohol and is a smoker of five cigarettes per day.
Examination reveals that he has now normal vision in both eyes with visual acuities of 6/12 in both eyes. He has a pulse of 72 beats per minute regular, a blood pressure of 162/88 mmHg and a BMI of 30.
Examination of the cardiovascular system including auscultation over the neck is otherwise normal.
What investigation would you request for this patient?Your Answer: Vertebral Dopplers
Correct Answer: Carotid Dopplers
Explanation:Understanding Amaurosis Fugax
Amaurosis fugax is a condition that occurs when an embolism blocks the right carotid distribution, resulting in temporary blindness in one eye. To determine the cause of this condition, doctors will typically look for an embolic source and scan the carotids for atheromatous disease. It’s important to note that significant carotid disease may still be present even if there is no bruit. If stenosis greater than 70% of diameter are detected, carotid endarterectomy is recommended. Additionally, echocardiography may be used to assess for cardiac embolic sources. By understanding the causes and potential treatments for amaurosis fugax, patients can receive the care they need to manage this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 10
Correct
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A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with a diastolic murmur that is most audible at the left sternal edge. The apex beat is also displaced outwards. What condition is commonly associated with these symptoms?
Your Answer: Aortic regurgitation
Explanation:Characteristics of Aortic Regurgitation
Aortic regurgitation is a heart condition characterized by the backflow of blood from the aorta into the left ventricle during diastole. One of the key features of this condition is a blowing high pitched early diastolic murmur that can be heard immediately after A2. This murmur is loudest at the left third and fourth intercostal spaces.
In addition to the murmur, aortic regurgitation can also cause displacement of the apex beat. This is due to the dilatation of the left ventricle, which occurs as a result of the increased volume of blood that flows back into the ventricle during diastole. Despite this dilatation, there is relatively little hypertrophy of the left ventricle.
Overall, the combination of a high pitched early diastolic murmur and displacement of the apex beat can be strong indicators of aortic regurgitation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man has recently been discharged from hospital with a new diagnosis of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction. His symptoms of breathlessness and ankle swelling have now resolved and he has been commenced on ramipril, bisoprolol and furosemide. He also has type 2 diabetes, for which he is already taking metformin and gliclazide. His renal function is normal and his serum potassium is 4.9 mmol/L.
What ongoing care interventions should be included for this patient?Your Answer: Avoid sexual intercourse for 4 weeks
Correct Answer: Annual influenza vaccination
Explanation:An annual influenza vaccine should be offered as part of the comprehensive lifestyle approach to managing heart failure.
Individuals diagnosed with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction should receive an annual influenza vaccine and a one-time pneumococcal vaccination.
Typically, only those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or chronic kidney disease require pneumococcal revaccination every five years.
Following a myocardial infarction, patients are typically advised to abstain from sexual activity for four weeks, rather than heart failure.
While patients should limit their salt intake to no more than 6 g per day, they should not replace it with potassium-containing salt substitutes due to the risk of hyperkalemia when used concurrently with ACE inhibitors.
For group 1 entitlement (cars, motorcycles), driving may continue as long as there are no symptoms that could distract the driver’s attention, and there is no need to notify the DVLA.
Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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You are assessing a 67-year-old woman with longstanding varicose veins. A couple of weeks ago, she experienced pain and redness around one of them, which resolved after using ibuprofen gel for a few weeks. Upon examination, her legs appear normal except for the varicose veins, and she has normal distal pulses. Based on current NICE guidelines, what is the most suitable next step in management?
Your Answer: Routine referral to dermatology
Correct Answer: Routine referral to vascular services
Explanation:Patients with varicose veins and a history of superficial thrombophlebitis should be referred for routine referral to vascular services according to NICE guidance. This condition is usually self-limiting but has a high likelihood of recurrence without treatment. Dermatology is not involved in this condition, and ABPI is usually used in the context of peripheral arterial disease or compression bandaging. Class 2 compression stockings are used in the treatment of varicose veins without complications in primary care.
Understanding Varicose Veins
Varicose veins are enlarged and twisted veins that occur when the valves in the veins become weak or damaged, causing blood to flow backward and pool in the veins. They are most commonly found in the legs and can be caused by various factors such as age, gender, pregnancy, obesity, and genetics. While many people seek treatment for cosmetic reasons, others may experience symptoms such as aching, throbbing, and itching. In severe cases, varicose veins can lead to skin changes, bleeding, superficial thrombophlebitis, and venous ulceration.
To diagnose varicose veins, a venous duplex ultrasound is typically performed to detect retrograde venous flow. Treatment options vary depending on the severity of the condition. Conservative treatments such as leg elevation, weight loss, regular exercise, and compression stockings may be recommended for mild cases. However, patients with significant or troublesome symptoms, skin changes, or a history of bleeding or ulcers may require referral to a specialist for further evaluation and treatment. Possible treatments include endothermal ablation, foam sclerotherapy, or surgery.
In summary, varicose veins are a common condition that can cause discomfort and cosmetic concerns. While many cases do not require intervention, it is important to seek medical attention if symptoms or complications arise. With proper diagnosis and treatment, patients can manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner for a medication consultation. She has recently suffered a non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction. She has no other significant conditions and prior to this event was not taking medication or known to have cardiovascular disease. Her blood pressure is 140/85 mmHg and her fasting cholesterol is 5.2 mmol/l.
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment to reduce the risk of further events?Your Answer: Atenolol and aspirin
Correct Answer: Ramipril, atenolol, aspirin and clopidogrel and atorvastatin
Explanation:Recommended Drug Treatment for Secondary Prevention of Myocardial Infarction
The recommended drug treatment for secondary prevention of myocardial infarction (MI) includes a combination of medications. These medications include a β-blocker, an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, a statin, and dual antiplatelet treatment. Previously, statin treatment was only offered to patients with a cholesterol level of > 5 mmol/l. However, it has been shown that all patients with coronary heart disease benefit from a reduction in total cholesterol and LDL.
β-blockers are estimated to prevent deaths by 12/1000 treated/year, while ACE inhibitors reduce deaths by 5/1000 treated in the first month post-MI. Trials have also shown reduced long-term mortality for all patients. Aspirin should be given indefinitely, and clopidogrel should be given for up to 12 months.
In summary, the recommended drug treatment for secondary prevention of myocardial infarction includes a combination of medications that have been shown to reduce mortality rates. It is important for patients to continue taking these medications as prescribed by their healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the least acknowledged in individuals who are prescribed amiodarone medication?
Your Answer: Peripheral neuropathy
Correct Answer: Gynaecomastia
Explanation:Gynaecomastia can be caused by drugs such as spironolactone, which is the most frequent cause, as well as cimetidine and digoxin.
Adverse Effects and Drug Interactions of Amiodarone
Amiodarone is a medication used to treat irregular heartbeats. However, its use can lead to several adverse effects. One of the most common adverse effects is thyroid dysfunction, which can manifest as either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism. Other adverse effects include corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis or pneumonitis, liver fibrosis or hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, a slate-grey appearance, thrombophlebitis, injection site reactions, bradycardia, and lengthening of the QT interval.
It is also important to note that amiodarone can interact with other medications. For example, it can decrease the metabolism of warfarin, leading to an increased INR. Additionally, it can increase digoxin levels. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor patients closely for adverse effects and drug interactions when using amiodarone. Proper management and monitoring can help minimize the risks associated with this medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner to discuss whether he requires a statin. His brother has encouraged him to book the appointment because ‘everyone in the family takes a statin’, due to familial hypercholesterolaemia. He has no significant medical history and rarely consults with a doctor. His total cholesterol is 8.2 mmol/l.
What is the most appropriate management option?
Your Answer: Refer to lipid clinic in secondary care
Correct Answer: Carry out blood tests for liver, renal and thyroid function, HbA1c and lipid panel
Explanation:Management of Suspected Familial Hypercholesterolaemia
Suspected familial hypercholesterolaemia requires a thorough diagnostic and management approach. The first step is to carry out blood tests for liver, renal, and thyroid function, HbA1c, and lipid panel. Additionally, a full cardiovascular assessment and exclusion of secondary causes of hypercholesterolaemia should be conducted before referral.
QRisk2 scoring is not appropriate in suspected familial hypercholesterolaemia due to the high risk of premature heart disease associated with the condition. Atorvastatin 20 mg is a good choice for primary prevention, but further tests are necessary to establish its suitability for the patient. Atorvastatin 80 mg is often given as secondary prevention, but there is no evidence that this is necessary for the patient from the information provided.
Referral to a lipid clinic in secondary care is imperative for patients with suspected familial hypercholesterolaemia. This condition should be suspected in adults with a total cholesterol >7.5mmol/l and/or a personal or family history of a cardiovascular event before the age of 60 years old. Basic blood tests will provide important diagnostic and management information, ruling out secondary causes of hypercholesterolaemia and assessing the patient’s suitability for treatment with lipid-lowering drugs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a common side effect of amiodarone therapy?
Your Answer: Hypothyroidism
Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:Adverse Effects and Drug Interactions of Amiodarone
Amiodarone is a medication used to treat irregular heartbeats. However, its use can lead to several adverse effects. One of the most common adverse effects is thyroid dysfunction, which can manifest as either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism. Other adverse effects include corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis or pneumonitis, liver fibrosis or hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, a slate-grey appearance, thrombophlebitis, injection site reactions, bradycardia, and lengthening of the QT interval.
It is also important to note that amiodarone can interact with other medications. For example, it can decrease the metabolism of warfarin, leading to an increased INR. Additionally, it can increase digoxin levels. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor patients closely for adverse effects and drug interactions when using amiodarone. Proper management and monitoring can help minimize the risks associated with this medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old male is referred to you from the practice nurse after an ECG shows he is in atrial fibrillation.
When you take a history from him he complains of palpitations and he has also noticed some weight loss over the last two months. On examination, he has an irregularly irregular pulse and displays a fine tremor.
What is the next most appropriate investigation to perform?Your Answer: Full blood count
Correct Answer: Exercise tolerance test
Explanation:Assessing Patients with Atrial Fibrillation
When assessing patients with atrial fibrillation, it is crucial to identify any underlying causes. While some cases may be classified as lone AF, addressing any precipitating factors is the first step in treatment. Hyperthyroidism is a common cause of atrial fibrillation, and checking thyroid function tests is the next appropriate step in diagnosis. Other common causes include heart failure, myocardial infarction/ischemia, mitral valve disease, pneumonia, and alcoholism. Rarer causes include pericarditis, endocarditis, cardiomyopathy, sarcoidosis, and hemochromatosis.
For paroxysmal arrhythmias, a 24-hour ECG can be useful, but in cases of persistent atrial fibrillation, an ECG is not necessary. Exercise tolerance tests are used to investigate and risk-stratify patients with cardiac chest pain. While an echocardiogram is useful in patients with atrial fibrillation to look for valve disease and other structural abnormalities, it is not the next most appropriate investigation in this case. Overall, identifying the underlying cause of atrial fibrillation is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What factors in a patient's medical record could potentially elevate natriuretic peptide levels (such as NT-proBNP) that are utilized to evaluate possible heart failure?
Your Answer: Obesity
Correct Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Explanation:Natriuretic Peptide Levels in Heart Failure Assessment
Natriuretic peptide levels, specifically NT-ProBNP levels, are utilized in the evaluation of heart failure to determine the likelihood of diagnosis and the urgency of any necessary referral. These levels can be influenced by various factors.
Factors that can decrease natriuretic peptide levels include a body mass index over 35 kg/m2, diuretics, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers, beta blockers, and aldosterone antagonists. On the other hand, factors that can increase natriuretic peptide levels include age over 70, left ventricular hypertrophy, myocardial ischaemia, tachycardia, right ventricular overload, hypoxia, pulmonary hypertension, pulmonary embolism, chronic kidney disease with an eGFR less than 60 mL/min/1.73m2, sepsis, COPD, diabetes mellitus, and liver cirrhosis.
It is important to consider these factors when interpreting natriuretic peptide levels in the assessment of heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman who has previously had breast cancer visits her nearby GP clinic complaining of swelling in her left calf for the past two days. Which scoring system should be utilized to evaluate her likelihood of having a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
Your Answer: Marlow score
Correct Answer: Wells score
Explanation:Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines in 2020, recommending the use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. They also recommend the use of DOACs in patients with active cancer, as opposed to low-molecular weight heparin as was previously recommended. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis.
If a patient is suspected of having a DVT, a two-level DVT Wells score should be performed to assess the likelihood of the condition. If a DVT is ‘likely’ (2 points or more), a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan should be carried out within 4 hours. If the result is positive, then a diagnosis of DVT is made and anticoagulant treatment should start. If the result is negative, a D-dimer test should be arranged. If a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan cannot be carried out within 4 hours, a D-dimer test should be performed and interim therapeutic anticoagulation administered whilst waiting for the proximal leg vein ultrasound scan (which should be performed within 24 hours).
The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy. The big change in the 2020 guidelines was the increased use of DOACs. Apixaban or rivaroxaban (both DOACs) should be offered first-line following the diagnosis of a DVT. Instead of using low-molecular weight heparin (LMWH) until the diagnosis is confirmed, NICE now advocate using a DOAC once a diagnosis is suspected, with this continued if the diagnosis is confirmed. If neither apixaban or rivaroxaban are suitable, then either LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban OR LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA, i.e. warfarin) can be used.
All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months. Continuing anticoagulation after this period is partly determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked. If the VTE was provoked, the treatment is typically stopped after the initial 3 months (3 to 6 months for people with active cancer). If the VTE was
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old patient has a cholesterol level of 5.1 mmol/L and a QRISK score of 11%. They lead an active lifestyle and have no significant medical history. What is the best course of action for managing these findings?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Commence atorvastatin
Explanation:Based on the QRISK score, it appears that dietary changes alone may not be enough to lower the risk of cardiovascular disease to a satisfactory level.
Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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