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Question 1
Correct
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A 12-year-old overweight boy attends surgery with his father. He complains of left knee pain for several weeks, worse when having to participate in sports at school. Examination reveals a normal left knee with good range of motion; left hip flexion causes obligatory external rotation.
Which of the following is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE)
Explanation:Slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE) is a common hip disorder in adolescence that occurs when the proximal femoral growth plate weakens, causing displacement of the femoral epiphysis. This can be caused by various factors, with obesity being the most common risk factor. Patients often present with knee or groin pain, and the affected leg may be externally rotated with limited internal rotation and abduction. Chondromalacia patellae, Osgood-Schlatter disease, osteochondritis dissecans, and patellar subluxation are other possible causes of knee pain, but hip examination would be expected to be normal in these conditions. It is important to examine the hip joint in children presenting with knee pain, as it could be due to hip pathology such as SUFE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old pregnant woman comes to you with complaints of weakness in her right hand and tingling and paraesthesia in the lateral three digits. You notice that the sensory symptoms are replicated when you flex her wrist passively and hold it in that position. Can you identify the name of this sign?
Your Answer: Tinel's sign
Correct Answer: Phalen's sign
Explanation:The patient has symptoms of median nerve palsy, which can be caused by carpal tunnel syndrome, a known risk factor during pregnancy. Tinel’s sign and Phalen’s sign can reproduce the symptoms, and Froment’s sign is associated with ulnar nerve palsies.
Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. Patients with this condition typically experience pain or pins and needles in their thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even ascend proximally. Patients often shake their hand to obtain relief, especially at night.
During an examination, doctors may observe weakness of thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence (not the hypothenar). Tapping on the affected area may cause paraesthesia, which is known as Tinel’s sign. Flexion of the wrist may also cause symptoms, which is known as Phalen’s sign.
Carpal tunnel syndrome can be caused by a variety of factors, including idiopathic reasons, pregnancy, oedema (such as heart failure), lunate fracture, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may show prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves.
Treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome may include a 6-week trial of conservative treatments, such as corticosteroid injections and wrist splints at night. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression (flexor retinaculum division) may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 3
Correct
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A 28-year-old administrative assistant complains of pain on the thumb side of her left wrist, persisting for the past week. She also notices that her left wrist seems more swollen than her right. During the examination, she experiences discomfort over her radial styloid when her thumb is forcefully flexed.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Tenosynovitis
Explanation:The patient is positive for Finkelstein test, indicating De Quervain’s tenosynovitis. This condition causes pain over the radial styloid when the thumb is forcefully abducted or flexed. Unlike De Quervain’s tenosynovitis, rheumatoid arthritis affects both sides of the body. Mallet thumb is an injury that causes the thumb to bend towards the palm. Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by compression of the median nerve and results in numbness and tingling in the thumb, index, and middle fingers. Osteoarthritis is a degenerative condition that primarily affects the elderly due to mechanical wear and tear.
De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is a condition that commonly affects women between the ages of 30 and 50. It occurs when the sheath containing the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons becomes inflamed. The condition is characterized by pain on the radial side of the wrist, tenderness over the radial styloid process, and pain when the thumb is abducted against resistance. A positive Finkelstein’s test, in which the thumb is pulled in ulnar deviation and longitudinal traction, can also indicate the presence of tenosynovitis.
Treatment for De Quervain’s tenosynovitis typically involves analgesia, steroid injections, and immobilization with a thumb splint (spica). In some cases, surgical treatment may be necessary. With proper diagnosis and treatment, most patients are able to recover from this condition and resume their normal activities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which X-ray alteration is not linked to osteoarthritis?
Your Answer: Subchondral cysts
Correct Answer: Periarticular erosions
Explanation:X-Ray Changes in Osteoarthritis
Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease that affects millions of people worldwide. One of the most common diagnostic tools used to identify osteoarthritis is an X-ray. X-ray changes in osteoarthritis are characterized by the acronym LOSS, which stands for loss of joint space, osteophytes forming at joint margins, subchondral sclerosis, and subchondral cysts.
Loss of joint space refers to the narrowing of the space between the bones in a joint. This occurs as the cartilage that cushions the joint wears away, causing the bones to rub against each other. Osteophytes are bony growths that form at the edges of the joint. These growths can cause pain and limit joint movement. Subchondral sclerosis is a hardening of the bone beneath the cartilage. This occurs as the bone tries to compensate for the loss of cartilage. Subchondral cysts are fluid-filled sacs that form in the bone beneath the cartilage. These cysts can cause pain and further damage to the joint.
In summary, X-ray changes in osteoarthritis are characterized by LOSS: loss of joint space, osteophytes forming at joint margins, subchondral sclerosis, and subchondral cysts. These changes can help doctors diagnose and monitor the progression of osteoarthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 5
Correct
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A 32-year-old intravenous drug user presents to the emergency department with fever, bilateral leg weakness, and back pain. The medical team suspects a spinal epidural abscess. What imaging test is necessary to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: MRI whole spine
Explanation:When there is suspicion of a spinal epidural abscess, a complete MRI of the spine is necessary to detect any skip lesions.
To accurately diagnose a spinal epidural abscess, a full spine MRI is essential. Neither plain x-rays nor CT scans can effectively identify the abscess. It is necessary to scan the entire spine, not just the suspected area, as there may be multiple separate abscesses that are not connected. The MRI should be requested and performed as soon as possible.
Understanding Spinal Epidural Abscess
A spinal epidural abscess (SEA) is a serious condition that occurs when pus collects in the spinal epidural space, which is the area surrounding the spinal cord. This condition requires immediate medical attention to prevent further damage to the spinal cord. SEA can be caused by bacteria that enters the spinal epidural space through contiguous spread from adjacent structures, haematogenous spread from concomitant infection, or direct infection. Patients with immunosuppression are at a higher risk of developing SEA. The most common causative micro-organism is Staphylococcus aureus. Symptoms of SEA include fever, back pain, and focal neurological deficits according to the segment of the cord affected.
To diagnose SEA, doctors may perform blood tests, blood cultures, and an infection screen. An MRI of the whole spine is necessary to identify the extent of the abscess. If the primary source of infection is not clear, further investigations may be required, such as echocardiography and dental x-rays. Treatment for SEA involves a long-term course of antibiotics, which may be refined based on culture results. Patients with large or compressive abscesses, significant or progressive neurological deficits, or those who are not responding to antibiotics alone may require surgical evacuation of the abscess.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 6
Correct
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A 48-year-old man presents with a painful erythematous fluctuant swelling over the posterior elbow. There is no history of trauma. He is in good health and has full range of motion at the elbow.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Olecranon bursitis
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest olecranon bursitis, which is inflammation of the bursa over the olecranon process. This can be caused by trauma or may be idiopathic. The patient reports a posterior swelling at the elbow, which is tender and fluctuant. Management includes NSAIDs, RICE, and a compression bandage. If septic bursitis is suspected, antibiotics may be necessary. Golfer’s elbow, gout, and septic joint are less likely diagnoses. Tennis elbow, which is more common than golfer’s elbow, is characterized by pain in the lateral elbow and tenderness over the lateral epicondyle, but is not associated with a posterior swelling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 7
Correct
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A 20-year-old runner has approached you for advice after being diagnosed with a stress fracture in her left tibia. She is seeking guidance on how to reduce her risk of future stress fractures. What are the risk factors that athletic females are most susceptible to when it comes to developing stress fractures?
Your Answer: Inadequate calorie intake, menstrual irregularities and increased or new exercise intensity
Explanation:Women with low calorie intake or menstrual irregularities who increase their exercise are at risk of stress fractures due to the female athlete triad, which includes excessive exercise, reduced bone mineral density, and eating disorders or inadequate calorie intake. It is important to discuss eating habits and menstrual cycles when treating women with a history of stress fractures.
Stress fractures are small hairline fractures that can occur due to repetitive activity and loading of normal bone. Although they can be painful, they are typically not displaced and do not cause surrounding soft tissue injury. In some cases, stress fractures may present late, and callus formation may be visible on radiographs. Treatment for stress fractures may vary depending on the severity of the injury. In cases where the injury is associated with severe pain and presents at an earlier stage, immobilization may be necessary. However, injuries that present later may not require formal immobilization and can be treated with tailored immobilization specific to the site of injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 8
Correct
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You are a foundation year two doctor in general practice. Eighteen days ago you reviewed a twenty-three-year-old complaining of posterior heel pain with morning pain and stiffness. He has a past medical history of asthma and anxiety. The symptoms are exacerbated with activity. You advised him to rest and take simple analgesia, however, his symptoms have not eased. He is anxious to step up his treatment.
What is the next management option?Your Answer: Physio
Explanation:The recommended approach for managing Achilles tendonitis is to advise the patient to rest, take NSAIDs, and seek physiotherapy if symptoms persist beyond 7 days. However, it is important to note that ibuprofen should be avoided in patients with asthma. Simply reiterating the need for rest may not address the patient’s desire for more aggressive treatment options. Referring the patient to orthopaedics would not be appropriate, but a referral to rheumatology may be considered if the symptoms do not improve. While steroids may provide some benefit, the evidence is mixed and injecting them directly into the tendon can increase the risk of tendon rupture.
Achilles tendon disorders are a common cause of pain in the back of the heel. These disorders can include tendinopathy, partial tears, and complete ruptures of the Achilles tendon. Certain factors, such as the use of quinolone antibiotics and high cholesterol levels, can increase the risk of developing these disorders. Symptoms of Achilles tendinopathy typically include gradual onset of pain that worsens with activity, as well as morning stiffness. Treatment for this condition usually involves pain relief, reducing activities that exacerbate the pain, and performing calf muscle eccentric exercises.
In contrast, an Achilles tendon rupture is a more serious condition that requires immediate medical attention. This type of injury is often caused by sudden, forceful movements during sports or running. Symptoms of an Achilles tendon rupture include an audible popping sound, sudden and severe pain in the calf or ankle, and an inability to walk or continue the activity. To help diagnose an Achilles tendon rupture, doctors may use Simmond’s triad, which involves examining the foot for abnormal angles and feeling for a gap in the tendon. Ultrasound is typically the first imaging test used to confirm a diagnosis of Achilles tendon rupture. If a rupture is suspected, it is important to seek medical attention from an orthopaedic specialist as soon as possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old soccer player comes to you with complaints of shoulder and lower back pain. He reports that his back has been getting stiffer over the past few months and has worsened. During the examination, you find out that he is also experiencing enthesitis of the Achilles tendon. You suspect a particular diagnosis and want to confirm it. What antigen's presence would confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HLA-B27
Explanation:Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female patient complains of gradual tingling and numbness in her right hand's 4th and 5th fingers. The symptoms were occasional at first, but now they are persistent. She observes that the discomfort intensifies when she rests her right elbow on a surface. She remembers hitting her elbow against a door a while back. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cubital tunnel syndrome
Explanation:Cubital tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the ulnar nerve is compressed, resulting in tingling and numbness in the fourth and fifth fingers.
The correct answer is cubital tunnel syndrome. The ulnar nerve passes through the cubital tunnel, and when it is compressed, it can cause the symptoms described, such as tingling and numbness in the fourth and fifth fingers. Treatment for this condition may involve conservative measures, but surgery may be necessary in some cases.
Carpal tunnel syndrome, on the other hand, is caused by compression of the median nerve at the wrist, leading to pain and tingling in the hand and wrist, rather than specific fingers.
De Quervain’s tenosynovitis presents differently, with pain occurring during movement of the thumb and wrist, and the radial styloid may become thickened and hardened.
Medial epicondylitis, or golfer’s elbow, causes pain in the medial elbow area, near the cubital tunnel, but it is a tendinopathy rather than nerve compression. The pain is localized to the affected area.
Understanding Cubital Tunnel Syndrome
Cubital tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the ulnar nerve is compressed as it passes through the cubital tunnel. This can cause a range of symptoms, including tingling and numbness in the fourth and fifth fingers, which may start off intermittent but eventually become constant. Over time, patients may also experience weakness and muscle wasting. Pain is often worse when leaning on the affected elbow, and there may be a history of osteoarthritis or prior trauma to the area.
Diagnosis of cubital tunnel syndrome is usually made based on clinical features, although nerve conduction studies may be used in selected cases. Management of the condition typically involves avoiding aggravating activities, undergoing physiotherapy, and receiving steroid injections. In cases where these measures are not effective, surgery may be necessary. By understanding the symptoms and treatment options for cubital tunnel syndrome, patients can take steps to manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to the Emergency Department after experiencing fever and passing seven loose, bloody stools per day for the past 48 hours. The patient is diagnosed with a severe flare-up of ulcerative colitis. Additionally, he has a known anaphylactic allergy to aspirin. Considering his medical history, which medication should be approached with the most caution when treating this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sulfasalazine
Explanation:Sulfasalazine: A DMARD for Inflammatory Arthritis and Bowel Disease
Sulfasalazine is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage inflammatory arthritis, particularly rheumatoid arthritis, as well as inflammatory bowel disease. This medication is a prodrug for 5-ASA, which works by reducing neutrophil chemotaxis and suppressing the proliferation of lymphocytes and pro-inflammatory cytokines.
However, caution should be exercised when using sulfasalazine in patients with G6PD deficiency or those who are allergic to aspirin or sulphonamides due to the risk of cross-sensitivity. Adverse effects of sulfasalazine may include oligospermia, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, pneumonitis/lung fibrosis, myelosuppression, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and the potential to color tears and stain contact lenses.
Despite these potential side effects, sulfasalazine is considered safe to use during pregnancy and breastfeeding, making it a viable option for women who require treatment for inflammatory arthritis or bowel disease. Overall, sulfasalazine is an effective DMARD that can help manage the symptoms of these conditions and improve patients’ quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man with psoriatic arthritis presents with a severely painful red eye. The pain has been affecting his sleep for a few days. On examination, his visual acuity is normal but there is inflammation of the scleral, episcleral and conjunctival vessels. Both pupils are equal and react normally to light. There is no blanching of the episcleral vessels when 2.5% phenylephrine is applied to the eye.
Which of the following is this patient most likely to be suffering from?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Scleritis
Explanation:Differentiating Ocular Inflammatory Conditions: Symptoms and Treatment
Scleritis: A severe inflammation of the sclera, often associated with underlying inflammatory conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis. Symptoms include severe eye pain, watering, photophobia, and affected visual acuity. Treatment requires systemic medication such as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, corticosteroids, or immunosuppressants.
Sjögren Syndrome: An association of dry eye and/or dry mouth with rheumatoid arthritis or other connective-tissue disorders. Pain is not a feature, but conjunctival hyperemia may be present.
Anterior Uveitis: Inflammation of the iris with or without ciliary body involvement, often seen in patients with inflammatory bowel disease or ankylosing spondylitis. Symptoms include an acutely painful red eye with photophobia and a small, irregular, poorly reactive pupil.
Conjunctivitis: Inflammation of the conjunctival vessels, causing sore red eyes with a sticky discharge. Pain is not a feature, and scleral and episcleral vessels are not affected. Often caused by bacterial or viral infections or irritants/allergens, it is usually self-limiting but may require topical antibiotics.
Episcleritis: A mild inflammation of the episclera, often seen as an extra-articular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis. Symptoms include mild eye irritation, redness, and sometimes photophobia. Application of 2.5% phenylephrine causes episcleral vessels to blanch, distinguishing it from scleritis. Visual acuity is unaffected, and it is usually self-limiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents with back pain that shoots down her right leg, which she experienced suddenly while picking up her child. During examination, she can only raise her right leg to 30 degrees due to shooting pains down her leg. There is reduced sensation on the dorsum of her right foot, especially around the big toe, and weak foot dorsiflexion. The ankle and knee reflexes seem intact, and a diagnosis of disc prolapse is suspected. Which nerve root is most likely affected?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: L5
Explanation:The characteristics of a L5 lesion include the absence of dorsiflexion in the foot and a lack of sensation on the top of the foot.
Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features
A prolapsed lumbar disc is a common cause of lower back pain that can lead to neurological deficits. It is characterized by clear dermatomal leg pain, which is usually worse than the back pain. The pain is often aggravated when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, L3 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, L4 nerve root compression can lead to sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.
The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain. It involves analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. According to NICE, the first-line treatment for back pain without sciatica symptoms is NSAIDs +/- proton pump inhibitors, rather than neuropathic analgesia. If the symptoms persist after 4-6 weeks, referral for consideration of MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 14
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a patient who is experiencing hip discomfort. Do you suspect osteoarthritis as the diagnosis? If so, what signs or symptoms would warrant additional testing for a different diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Morning stiffness lasting 4 hours
Explanation:If morning stiffness persists for more than 2 hours, it could be a sign of inflammatory arthritis and should be investigated further.
Osteoarthritis (OA) of the hip is a prevalent condition, with the knee being the only joint more commonly affected. It is particularly prevalent in older individuals, and women are twice as likely to develop it. Obesity and developmental dysplasia of the hip are also risk factors. The condition is characterized by chronic groin pain that is exacerbated by exercise and relieved by rest. However, if the pain is present at rest, at night, or in the morning for more than two hours, it may indicate an alternative cause. The Oxford Hip Score is a widely used tool to assess the severity of the condition.
If the symptoms are typical, a clinical diagnosis can be made. Otherwise, plain x-rays are the first-line investigation. Management of OA of the hip includes oral analgesia and intra-articular injections, which provide short-term relief. However, total hip replacement is the definitive treatment.
Total hip replacement is a common operation in the developed world, but it is not without risks. Perioperative complications include venous thromboembolism, intraoperative fracture, nerve injury, surgical site infection, and leg length discrepancy. Postoperatively, posterior dislocation may occur during extremes of hip flexion, presenting with a clunk, pain, and inability to weight bear. Aseptic loosening is the most common reason for revision, and prosthetic joint infection is also a potential complication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old construction worker visits his GP complaining of elbow swelling that has been present for three weeks. He reports that it started gradually and has no known triggers. The area is painful and warm to the touch, but he has no swelling in other parts of his body and feels generally well. The patient has a history of well-managed rheumatoid arthritis and is taking methotrexate, but has no other medical conditions. During the examination, the doctor detects a tender, soft, fluctuant mass on the back of the patient's elbow. Based on these findings, what is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Olecranon bursitis
Explanation:Understanding Olecranon Bursitis
Olecranon bursitis is a condition that occurs when the olecranon bursa, a fluid-filled sac located over the olecranon process at the proximal end of the ulna, becomes inflamed. This bursa serves to reduce friction between the elbow joint and the surrounding soft tissues. Inflammation can be caused by trauma, infection, or systemic conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis or gout. It is also commonly known as student’s elbow due to the repetitive mild trauma of leaning on a desk using the elbows. The condition can be categorized as septic or non-septic depending on whether an infection is present.
The condition is more common in men and typically presents between the ages of 30 and 60. Causes of olecranon bursitis include repetitive trauma, direct trauma, infection, gout, rheumatoid arthritis, and idiopathic reasons. Patients with non-septic olecranon bursitis typically present with swelling over the olecranon process, while some may also experience tenderness and erythema over the bursa. Patients with septic bursitis are more likely to have pain and fever.
Signs of olecranon bursitis include swelling over the posterior aspect of the elbow, tenderness on palpation of the swollen area, redness and warmth of the overlying skin, fever, skin abrasion overlying the bursa, effusions in other joints if associated with rheumatoid arthritis, and tophi if associated with gout. Movement at the elbow joint should be painless until the swollen bursa is compressed in full flexion.
Investigations are not always needed if a clinical diagnosis can be made and there is no concern about septic arthritis. However, if septic bursitis is suspected, aspiration of bursal fluid for microscopy and culture is essential. Purulent fluid suggests infection, while straw-colored bursal fluid favors a non-infective cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents with malaise, fever, backache and joint pains of 1-week duration. On examination, arthritis is present asymmetrically in the lower limbs, involving the knees and metatarsophalangeal (MTP) and toe joints. An eye examination reveals conjunctival congestion, and there is a vesicular crusting lesion on his left sole. Investigations reveal an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of 60 mm/h (normal <20 mm/h) and C-reactive protein (CRP) of 50 u/l (normal <5 u/l). Rheumatoid factor is negative and HLA-B27 positive.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate diagnosis from the list below. Select ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Reactive arthritis is a type of joint inflammation that occurs after an infection, often caused by dysentery or a sexually transmitted infection. It is more common in men who have the HLA-B27 gene. Reactive arthritis is part of a group of diseases called spondyloarthropathies, which also includes ankylosing spondylitis, psoriatic arthritis, enteropathic arthritis, and undifferentiated arthritis. Unlike rheumatoid arthritis, reactive arthritis is not associated with rheumatoid factor. Symptoms of reactive arthritis include sudden, asymmetrical lower limb joint pain, which can occur a few days to weeks after the initial infection. Enthesitis, or inflammation where tendons and ligaments attach to bones, is also common and can cause plantar fasciitis or Achilles tendonitis. In some cases, reactive arthritis can also cause back pain and inflammation of the sacroiliac joint, as well as a sterile conjunctivitis. Treatment involves addressing the initial infection and may include medications such as sulfasalazine or methotrexate for relapsing cases. It is important to trace and treat sexual partners if necessary. Gout, rheumatoid arthritis, psoriatic arthritis, and ankylosing spondylitis are other types of joint inflammation that have different symptoms and causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of swelling, pain and stiffness in her fingers on both hands for the past few weeks. During examination, she is found to be afebrile and her fingers are generally swollen and sausage-shaped. Her nails are also pitted with onycholysis.
What is the most probable diagnosis for her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Psoriatic arthritis
Explanation:Differentiating Types of Arthritis: A Brief Overview
Arthritis is a common condition that affects millions of people worldwide. However, not all types of arthritis are the same. Here is a brief overview of some of the most common types of arthritis and how they differ from each other.
Psoriatic Arthritis: This type of arthritis is often seen in people with psoriasis and is characterized by painful, swollen joints. Dactylitis, or swelling of the whole digit causing ‘sausage-shaped’ fingers or toes, is a common feature. Nail changes, such as pitting and onycholysis, are also associated with psoriatic arthritis.
Gonococcal Arthritis: This is a type of septic arthritis caused by the sexually transmitted infection Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It typically presents with fever, a rash, and an acutely swollen joint, but there is no nail involvement.
Osteoarthritis (OA): This is a disease of synovial joints in which there is a loss of cartilage. It is uncommon for OA to be diagnosed in anyone under the age of 45. Dactylitis and nail changes are not associated with OA.
Reactive Arthritis: This is a sterile arthritis occurring following an infection, usually either an acute gastrointestinal or sexually transmitted infection. The clinical features of dactylitis and nail changes described in this case are not associated with reactive arthritis.
Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA): This is an inflammatory condition that tends to affect the small joints of the hands but can affect any synovial joint. Nail changes are not usually associated with RA, and general swelling of the whole digit (dactylitis) is not a typical feature.
In conclusion, understanding the different types of arthritis and their unique features is important for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has a history of depression and is currently taking citalopram. Despite returning from a recent trip to Italy, she complains of feeling fatigued all the time. During the examination, you notice a slightly raised red rash on the bridge of her nose and cheeks. Although she complains of having 'stiff joints,' you find no evidence of arthritis. You order some basic blood tests:
Hb 12.5 g/dl
Platelets 135 * 109/l
WBC 3.5 * 109/l
Na+ 140 mmol/l
K+ 4.2 mmol/l
Urea 3.2 mmol/l
Creatinine 80 µmol/l
Free T4 11.8 pmol/l
TSH 1.30 mu/l
CRP 8 mg/l
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus
Explanation:The presence of a malar rash, arthralgia, lethargy, and a history of mental health issues suggest a possible diagnosis of SLE. It is important to note that the CRP levels are usually within normal range in SLE, unlike the ESR.
Understanding Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. It is more common in women and people of Afro-Caribbean origin, and typically presents in early adulthood. The general features of SLE include fatigue, fever, mouth ulcers, and lymphadenopathy.
SLE can also affect the skin, causing a malar (butterfly) rash that spares the nasolabial folds, discoid rash in sun-exposed areas, photosensitivity, Raynaud’s phenomenon, livedo reticularis, and non-scarring alopecia. Musculoskeletal symptoms include arthralgia and non-erosive arthritis.
Cardiovascular manifestations of SLE include pericarditis and myocarditis, while respiratory symptoms may include pleurisy and fibrosing alveolitis. Renal involvement can lead to proteinuria and glomerulonephritis, with diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis being the most common type.
Finally, neuropsychiatric symptoms of SLE may include anxiety and depression, as well as more severe manifestations such as psychosis and seizures. Understanding the various features of SLE is important for early diagnosis and management of this complex autoimmune disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a risk factor for developing osteoporosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Obesity
Explanation:An elevated risk of developing osteoporosis is linked to low body mass, not obesity.
Understanding the Causes of Osteoporosis
Osteoporosis is a condition that affects the bones, making them weak and brittle. It is more common in women and older adults, with the prevalence increasing significantly in women over the age of 80. However, there are many other risk factors and secondary causes of osteoporosis that should be considered. Some of the most important risk factors include a history of glucocorticoid use, rheumatoid arthritis, alcohol excess, parental hip fracture, low body mass index, and smoking. Other risk factors include a sedentary lifestyle, premature menopause, certain ethnicities, and endocrine disorders such as hyperthyroidism and diabetes mellitus.
There are also medications that may worsen osteoporosis, such as SSRIs, antiepileptics, and proton pump inhibitors. If a patient is diagnosed with osteoporosis or has a fragility fracture, further investigations may be necessary to identify the cause and assess the risk of subsequent fractures. Recommended investigations include blood tests, bone densitometry, and other procedures as indicated. It is important to identify the cause of osteoporosis and contributory factors in order to select the most appropriate form of treatment. As a minimum, all patients should have a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, bone profile, CRP, and thyroid function tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old female presents to her GP with a 4-week history of bilateral shoulder pain. She also experiences stiffness in her shoulders in the morning which improves throughout the day. She reports feeling generally fatigued. No other joints are affected. The patient has a history of osteoarthritis in her left knee.
During examination, the patient's observations are normal. There is no swelling or redness in the shoulders, and she has a full range of motion bilaterally. Upper limb power is 5/5 bilaterally with normal sensation.
Based on the patient's history and examination, what is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms are suggestive of polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR), which is a common inflammatory condition in older adults. The sudden onset of pain and stiffness in the shoulders and hips, along with systemic symptoms such as fatigue and anorexia, are typical of PMR. Osteoarthritis, fibromyalgia, hypothyroidism, and adhesive capsulitis are less likely diagnoses, as they do not typically present with acute onset of symptoms or systemic involvement. However, it is important to rule out hypothyroidism by checking thyroid function. Frozen shoulder may cause shoulder pain and stiffness, but it is usually associated with restricted range of motion and does not typically cause systemic symptoms.
Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arteritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.
To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman complains of long-standing issues with her hands, but lately, she has been experiencing pain in the joints of her fingers and difficulty opening jars. She has also observed a lump on the dorsal, distal part of her left index finger. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Herberden's node
Explanation:Nodal osteoarthritis is the usual cause of osteoarthritis in the hands, resulting from genetic factors. This type of arthritis leads to the development of Heberden’s nodes, which is swelling in the distal interphalangeal joints, and Bouchard’s nodes, which is swelling in the proximal interphalangeal joints. These nodes do not require any treatment. Pyogenic granuloma is a lesion that appears as a bright red or blood-crusted area, often following trauma, and is more common in children. A ganglion is a cystic lesion that occurs in the joint or synovial sheath of a tendon, most commonly in the wrist. A sebaceous cyst is a mobile, round cyst with a central punctum.
Clinical Diagnosis of Osteoarthritis
Osteoarthritis can be diagnosed clinically without the need for investigations, according to NICE guidelines. This means that a doctor can diagnose the condition based on the patient’s symptoms and physical examination alone. The guidelines state that if a patient is over 45 years old and experiences pain during exercise, but does not have morning stiffness or morning stiffness lasting more than 30 minutes, they can be diagnosed with osteoarthritis.
This approach to diagnosis is based on the fact that osteoarthritis is a degenerative condition that affects the joints, causing pain and stiffness. The symptoms tend to develop gradually over time, and are often worse after periods of inactivity or overuse. By focusing on the patient’s symptoms and history, doctors can make an accurate diagnosis and start treatment as soon as possible.
Overall, the clinical diagnosis of osteoarthritis is a simple and effective way to identify the condition in patients who meet the criteria. It allows for prompt treatment and management of symptoms, which can improve the patient’s quality of life and prevent further joint damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with ankle pain following a football injury. He is able to bear weight, experiences pain below his lateral malleolus, and has no tenderness in the bone. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give analgesia and review in 1 hour before discharge with advice
Explanation:Understanding the Ottawa Ankle Rules: Managing Foot and Ankle Injuries
Foot and ankle injuries are common, but it can be difficult to determine whether a patient has sustained a sprain or a fracture. The Ottawa ankle rules are a set of guidelines that can help clinicians decide whether a patient with foot or ankle pain requires radiographs to diagnose a possible fracture. By following these rules, unnecessary radiographs can be reduced by 25%.
When managing foot and ankle injuries, it is important to understand the Ottawa ankle rules and how they apply to each patient. If a patient does not meet the criteria for an ankle radiograph, simple analgesia and advice on managing a soft tissue injury may be sufficient. However, if a patient does meet the criteria, a radiograph may be necessary to diagnose a possible fracture.
By understanding and applying the Ottawa ankle rules, clinicians can provide appropriate and effective management for foot and ankle injuries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female comes to your clinic after experiencing recurrent miscarriages and no successful pregnancies. She has been referred to you for further evaluation. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results were obtained:
- APTT: 42 (normal range: 27-35)
- Platelets: 95 (normal range: 150-400)
- PT: 12 seconds (normal range: 11-14)
What could be the possible reason for these abnormalities?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome
Explanation:Antiphospholipid syndrome is characterized by an elevated APTT and normal PT, and can lead to thrombocytopenia. AITP only causes a decrease in platelets, while vWD and hemophilia A only affect the APTT. Although unfractionated heparin can prolong the APTT, low platelets are a rare long-term side effect and are unlikely to be the cause of her repeated miscarriages.
Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thromboses, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or as a secondary condition to other diseases, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome can cause a paradoxical increase in the APTT. This is due to an ex-vivo reaction of the lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade. Other features of this condition include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension.
Antiphospholipid syndrome can also be associated with other autoimmune disorders, lymphoproliferative disorders, and, rarely, phenothiazines. Management of this condition is based on EULAR guidelines. Primary thromboprophylaxis involves low-dose aspirin, while secondary thromboprophylaxis depends on the type of thromboembolic event. Initial venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and low-dose aspirin. Arterial thrombosis should be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents with sudden onset of pain in his right elbow and left Achilles tendon. He reports dysuria, conjunctivitis, and fever, and recently returned from a trip to the Far East where he had unprotected sex. He has also developed macules and pustules on his hands. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Reactive arthritis is a type of arthritis that occurs after an infection, typically dysentery or a sexually transmitted disease. It affects 1-2% of patients who have had these infections, with Salmonella, Shigella, and Yersinia causing diarrheal illness that can lead to reactive arthritis, and Chlamydia trichomonas and Ureaplasma urealyticum causing STDs. Those who are HLA-B27-positive are at a higher risk of developing reactive arthritis. Symptoms include acute, asymmetrical lower limb arthritis, enthesitis causing plantar fasciitis or Achilles tendinosis, and back pain from sacroiliitis and spondylosis. Other symptoms may include acute anterior uveitis, circinate balanitis, keratoderma blenorrhagia, nail dystrophy, mouth ulcers, and bilateral conjunctivitis. The classic triad of conjunctivitis, urethritis, and arthritis may also be present. In this scenario, the patient’s symptoms and history of unprotected sexual intercourse suggest reactive arthritis as the correct diagnosis. Other potential diagnoses, such as UTI, HIV, psoriatic arthritis, and syphilitic arthritis, can be ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms and history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Treatment of an acute attack of gout with allopurinol may result in which of the following?
Select the SINGLE result from the list below.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Exacerbation and prolongation of the attack
Explanation:To effectively treat gout, it is important to understand the proper use of allopurinol. Starting prophylactic treatment with allopurinol should be delayed until 1-2 weeks after the inflammation has settled to avoid exacerbating and prolonging the attack. It may take several weeks to reduce uric acid levels to normal, and the dose should be titrated every few weeks until sUA levels are below 300 mmol/l. It is not recommended to start allopurinol during an acute attack, as it is unlikely to lead to complete remission of symptoms. Allopurinol use is not associated with an increased risk of acute pyelonephritis, but renal impairment may occur if the starting dose is too high. In mild cases, self-care may be considered, but if drug treatment is necessary, NSAIDs or colchicine can be prescribed. It is important to measure the baseline sUA level and consider prophylaxis in high-risk patients. When starting allopurinol, a low dose of NSAID or colchicine should be co-prescribed for at least 1 month to prevent acute attacks of gout.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 26
Incorrect
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You are conducting an infant assessment. What are the clinical manifestations of a clubfoot?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inverted + plantar flexed foot which is not passively correctable
Explanation:Talipes Equinovarus: A Common Foot Deformity in Newborns
Talipes equinovarus, also known as club foot, is a foot deformity characterized by an inward turning and plantar flexed foot. It is a common condition that affects 1 in 1,000 newborns, with a higher incidence in males. In about 50% of cases, the deformity is present in both feet. While the cause of talipes equinovarus is often unknown, it can be associated with conditions such as spina bifida, cerebral palsy, and oligohydramnios.
Diagnosis of talipes equinovarus is typically made during the newborn exam, and imaging is not usually necessary. The deformity is not passively correctable, and the diagnosis is based on clinical examination.
In recent years, there has been a shift towards conservative management of talipes equinovarus, with the Ponseti method being the preferred approach. This method involves manipulation and progressive casting of the foot, starting soon after birth. The deformity is usually corrected within 6-10 weeks, and an Achilles tenotomy may be required in some cases. Night-time braces are then used until the child is 4 years old to prevent relapse, which occurs in about 15% of cases.
Overall, talipes equinovarus is a common foot deformity in newborns that can be effectively managed with conservative methods such as the Ponseti method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a severe throbbing headache on the left side of his head. He has been experiencing this pain for approximately 5-6 days without any apparent cause. He denies any visual disturbances or weakness in his limbs. Upon examination, there are no notable neurological findings. The left side of his head is sensitive to touch, but he cannot recall any falls. What is the crucial first step in managing this probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give high-dose oral prednisolone
Explanation:Understanding Temporal Arteritis
Temporal arteritis is a type of large vessel vasculitis that often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR). It is characterized by changes in the affected artery that skip certain sections while damaging others. This condition typically affects individuals who are over 60 years old and has a rapid onset, usually occurring in less than a month. The most common symptoms include headache and jaw claudication, while vision testing is a crucial investigation for all patients.
Temporal arteritis can lead to various ocular complications, with anterior ischemic optic neuropathy being the most common. This results from the occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Patients may experience temporary visual loss or even permanent visual loss, which is the most feared complication of this condition. Other symptoms may include diplopia, tender and palpable temporal artery, and features of PMR such as aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.
To diagnose temporal arteritis, doctors may look for raised inflammatory markers such as an ESR of over 50 mm/hr or elevated CRP levels. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed to check for skip lesions. Urgent high-dose glucocorticoids should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected, and an ophthalmologist should review patients with visual symptoms on the same day. Treatment may also involve bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin, although the evidence supporting the latter is weak.
In summary, temporal arteritis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent irreversible visual damage. Patients who experience symptoms such as headache, jaw claudication, and visual disturbances should seek medical attention immediately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman presents to you with complaints of persistent fatigue that has been ongoing for years. She reports that her fatigue has worsened in the past month and has prevented her from going to work. Despite conducting a thorough tiredness screen, all results have come back negative. The patient has been researching online and asks if you think she may have fibromyalgia or chronic fatigue syndrome. What is the minimum duration of symptoms required for a diagnosis of chronic fatigue syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4 months
Explanation:Before diagnosing chronic fatigue syndrome, other potential causes of fatigue must be ruled out through a comprehensive tiredness screen. This should include blood tests such as FBC, ESR/CRP, U&E, Cr, and eGFR, LFTs and Ca2+, TFTs, random blood glucose, anti-endomysial antibody test (to exclude coeliac disease), CK, and ferritin.
Understanding Chronic Fatigue Syndrome
Chronic fatigue syndrome is a condition that is diagnosed after at least four months of disabling fatigue that affects mental and physical function more than 50% of the time, in the absence of other diseases that may explain the symptoms. It is more common in females, and past psychiatric history has not been shown to be a risk factor. The central feature of chronic fatigue syndrome is fatigue, but other recognized features include sleep problems, muscle and joint pains, headaches, painful lymph nodes without enlargement, sore throat, cognitive dysfunction, physical or mental exertion that makes symptoms worse, general malaise or ‘flu-like’ symptoms, dizziness, nausea, and palpitations.
To diagnose chronic fatigue syndrome, a large number of screening blood tests are carried out to exclude other pathology, such as FBC, U&E, LFT, glucose, TFT, ESR, CRP, calcium, CK, ferritin, coeliac screening, and urinalysis. The management of chronic fatigue syndrome includes cognitive behavior therapy, graded exercise therapy, pacing, low-dose amitriptyline for poor sleep, and referral to a pain management clinic if pain is a predominant feature. Cognitive behavior therapy is very effective, with a number needed to treat of 2. Graded exercise therapy is a formal supervised program, not advice to go to the gym. Pacing involves organizing activities to avoid tiring. Children and young people have a better prognosis than adults.
In summary, chronic fatigue syndrome is a debilitating condition that affects both mental and physical function. It is more common in females and is diagnosed after at least four months of disabling fatigue. The management of chronic fatigue syndrome includes cognitive behavior therapy, graded exercise therapy, pacing, low-dose amitriptyline for poor sleep, and referral to a pain management clinic if pain is a predominant feature. Children and young people have a better prognosis than adults.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman comes in with worries about her elbow pain after spending the weekend painting her house. During examination, there is noticeable pain around the lateral epicondyle, leading to a possible diagnosis of lateral epicondylitis. Which of the following movements would typically exacerbate the pain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Resisted wrist extension with the elbow extended
Explanation:Lateral epicondylitis is aggravated when the wrist is extended or supinated against resistance while the elbow is extended.
Understanding Lateral Epicondylitis
Lateral epicondylitis, commonly known as tennis elbow, is a condition that often occurs after engaging in activities that the body is not accustomed to, such as painting or playing tennis. It is most prevalent in individuals aged 45-55 years and typically affects the dominant arm. The primary symptom of this condition is pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle. The pain is often exacerbated by wrist extension against resistance with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended. Episodes of lateral epicondylitis can last between 6 months and 2 years, with patients experiencing acute pain for 6-12 weeks.
To manage lateral epicondylitis, it is essential to avoid muscle overload and engage in simple analgesia. Steroid injections and physiotherapy are also viable options for managing the condition. By understanding the symptoms and management options for lateral epicondylitis, individuals can take the necessary steps to alleviate pain and discomfort associated with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man suffers an Achilles tendon rupture while playing basketball. He has never had any medical issues related to his muscles or bones. He recently began taking antibiotics for an infection and has been on them for the past week. What type of antibiotic is he likely taking?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:New-onset Achilles tendon disorders, including tendinitis and tendon rupture, are likely caused by ciprofloxacin, a medication with important side effects to consider.
Achilles tendon disorders are a common cause of pain in the back of the heel. These disorders can include tendinopathy, partial tears, and complete ruptures of the Achilles tendon. Certain factors, such as the use of quinolone antibiotics and high cholesterol levels, can increase the risk of developing these disorders. Symptoms of Achilles tendinopathy typically include gradual onset of pain that worsens with activity, as well as morning stiffness. Treatment for this condition usually involves pain relief, reducing activities that exacerbate the pain, and performing calf muscle eccentric exercises.
In contrast, an Achilles tendon rupture is a more serious condition that requires immediate medical attention. This type of injury is often caused by sudden, forceful movements during sports or running. Symptoms of an Achilles tendon rupture include an audible popping sound, sudden and severe pain in the calf or ankle, and an inability to walk or continue the activity. To help diagnose an Achilles tendon rupture, doctors may use Simmond’s triad, which involves examining the foot for abnormal angles and feeling for a gap in the tendon. Ultrasound is typically the first imaging test used to confirm a diagnosis of Achilles tendon rupture. If a rupture is suspected, it is important to seek medical attention from an orthopaedic specialist as soon as possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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