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Question 1
Correct
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What is the definition of a pathogenic microbe?
Your Answer: Has the ability to cause disease
Explanation:Pathogenic Organisms
A pathogenic organism has the potential to cause disease, but it does not necessarily mean that it will cause harm. The ability to cause illness depends on the environment in which the organism is present. For instance, Staphylococcus epidermidis is a harmless organism that lives on the skin without causing any harm. However, if it enters a sterile site, it can cause infections such as bone prosthesis infection.
The environment plays a crucial role in determining whether an organism is pathogenic or not. Modifying the environment can cause a previously harmless organism to become pathogenic. For example, Cryptococcus is not a pathogenic organism in a patient with a healthy immune system. However, in an immunocompromised patient, it can cause meningitis.
In conclusion, describing an organism as pathogenic refers to its potential to cause illness. The environment plays a significant role in determining whether an organism is pathogenic or not. Therefore, it is essential to understand the environment in which an organism is present to determine its pathogenicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy from East Africa visits his GP with his mother, reporting a painful right ear, fever, and vomiting that have been present for two days. During otoscopy, the doctor observes an inflamed and bulging tympanic membrane with loss of the light reflex. The patient has a medical history of sickle cell anaemia and underwent a splenectomy last year due to frequent splenic sequestration crisis. What is the probable organism responsible for this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae
Explanation:The Importance of the Spleen in Protecting Against Encapsulated Organisms
The spleen plays a crucial role in protecting the body against encapsulated organisms such as Haemophilus influenzae and Streptococcus pneumoniae. These organisms are coated with a polysaccharide matrix that makes them difficult for the immune system to recognize and attack. The spleen provides an environment where these organisms undergo a process called oponisation, which involves coating them with molecules such as C3b that highlight them for phagocytosis by macrophages.
When a patient’s spleen is removed, they become susceptible to infection with encapsulated organisms. This is because they are no longer able to oponise these organisms and make them visible to the immune system. In such cases, Haemophilus influenzae is the most likely cause of acute otitis media, a condition that causes inflammation of the middle ear.
It is important to monitor patients who have had their spleens removed for overwhelming post-splenectomy sepsis and to provide them with lifetime vaccination against encapsulated organisms. Rhinovirus is not the cause of acute otitis media in this case, and Staphylococcus aureus is less likely to be the causative organism than Haemophilus influenzae. Burkholderia cepacia is also an unlikely cause, as it is more commonly associated with cystic fibrosis and lung infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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What is the structure utilized by bacteria to penetrate dense mucus?
Your Answer: Microvilli
Correct Answer: Flagella
Explanation:Cell Surface Projections
Flagella, fimbriae, and pili are all types of cell surface projections found in bacteria. Flagella are composed of flagellin and have a motor pump at the base that propels the filamentous structure to allow bacteria to move. This movement is important for bacteria such as Helicobacter pylori to penetrate through gastric mucus. Fimbriae and pili are short projections that aid in attachment. They can be used to attach to an epithelial layer, which increases virulence, or to attach to other bacteria, which facilitates the exchange of genetic material.
In contrast, microvilli are cell surface projections found on the apical surfaces of human epithelial cells, such as enterocytes. They increase the surface area for absorption, allowing for more efficient nutrient uptake. Overall, these cell surface projections play important roles in bacterial movement, attachment, and nutrient absorption in human cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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What is the obligate intracellular pathogen that can cause respiratory and genital tract infections?
Your Answer: Neisseria species
Correct Answer: Chlamydia species
Explanation:The obligate intracellular pathogen that can cause respiratory and genital tract infections is Chlamydia trachomatis.
Chlamydia trachomatis is a bacterium that can cause a variety of infections in humans, including respiratory infections such as pneumonia and genital tract infections such as urethritis, cervicitis, and pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). It is transmitted through sexual contact and can also be transmitted from mother to newborn during childbirth, leading to neonatal conjunctivitis and pneumonia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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By what means do viruses enter human cells?
Your Answer: Inject genomic material through cell membrane
Correct Answer: Specific surface protein-protein interaction
Explanation:How Viruses Enter Cells
Viruses have specific proteins on their surface that bind to cell surface proteins, allowing them to enter the cell and release their genomic material. Sometimes, the viral genomic material is injected through a protein channel, while the capsid remains outside the cell. In other cases, the entire virus enters the cell. Viruses only cause membrane lysis when they have multiplied inside cells and kill them to release viral particles.
The viral envelope is formed when virus particles bud off from cells, taking some membrane with them. While it can play a role in permitting viral entry, a protein-protein interaction must still occur for the capsid and genome to enter. Viruses are too large to pass through cell membrane pores.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 6
Correct
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What is the name of the antibiotic that is both bacteriocidal, induces liver enzymes, and inhibits bacterial nucleic acid synthesis, and is commonly used to treat TB?
Your Answer: Rifampicin
Explanation:Treatment of Tuberculosis with Antibiotics
Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that is treated with a combination of antibiotics. The initial treatment typically involves four antibiotics: ethambutol, isoniazid, rifampicin, and pyrazinamide. Rifampicin works by blocking mRNA synthesis at mRNA polymerase, which inhibits protein synthesis. However, it is known to induce CYP450 enzymes and can cause hepatotoxicity as a side-effect. Isoniazid inhibits the production of mycolic acids, which are essential components of the bacterial cell wall. Its side-effects include neuropathy, which can be reduced by taking pyridoxine, and hepatotoxicity. Ethambutol is bacteriocidal and acts against cell wall formation. However, it has a particular side-effect of retinopathy. Pyrazinamide is predominantly bacteriostatic and was thought to act by inhibiting fatty acid synthase, although there is debate over the exact mechanism. Streptomycin is often used as a second line therapy and works by blocking the 30s subunit, which inhibits protein synthesis.
Overall, the combination of these antibiotics is effective in treating tuberculosis, although they can have side-effects that need to be monitored. It is important to follow the prescribed treatment regimen and complete the full course of antibiotics to ensure that the infection is fully treated and to prevent the development of antibiotic resistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with a prolonged period of feeling unwell and is diagnosed with subacute bacterial endocarditis. She had a history of rheumatic fever during childhood.
Which of the following clinical signs is not typically reported in this condition?Your Answer: Janeway lesions
Correct Answer: Spider naevi
Explanation:Symptoms of Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis
Subacute bacterial endocarditis is a condition that typically manifests after a prolonged period of feeling unwell. The symptoms of this condition are varied and can include Janeway lesions, Osler nodes, Roth spots, splinter hemorrhages, petechiae, finger clubbing, and microscopic hematuria. Finger clubbing is also a symptom of other cardiac conditions such as cyanotic congenital cardiac disease and atrial myxoma.
Janeway lesions are painless, small, red spots that appear on the palms and soles of the feet. Osler nodes are painful, red nodules that appear on the fingers and toes. Roth spots are small, white spots that appear on the retina of the eye. Splinter hemorrhages are small, red or brown lines that appear under the nails. Petechiae are small, red or purple spots that appear on the skin. Finger clubbing is a condition in which the fingers become enlarged and the nails curve around the fingertips. Microscopic hematuria is the presence of blood in the urine that can only be detected under a microscope.
In conclusion, subacute bacterial endocarditis can present with a range of symptoms that can be easily confused with other cardiac conditions. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms are present, especially if they persist or worsen over time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 8
Correct
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Can you provide a definition for fungal mycelium?
Your Answer: Interconnecting mesh of hyphae
Explanation:The Structure and Reproduction of Fungi
Fungi are composed of hyphae, which are Multinucleated cells that are only partially separated from each other by septae. These cellular structures contain multiple membrane-bound nuclei and all other organelles, including vacuoles. Hyphae grow at their tips, branch, and connect with other hyphae to form a mesh called the fungal mycelium. While some fungi reproduce only asexually, most also demonstrate a form of sexual reproduction that involves the combination of two haploid structures, such as a hyphae and a spore.
There are some fungi that exist as single cells, but they do not form a mycelium. Patients at risk of fungal infections include those on prolonged immunosuppression, prolonged steroid treatment, prolonged neutropenia, or those with congenital or acquired immunodeficiency disorders. Unlike plants, fungi do not have an organized system for transporting water. The fungal cell wall is different in composition from bacterial and plant cell walls, but it is still referred to with the same term.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 9
Correct
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What is the enzyme that enables aerobic bacteria to survive in the presence of oxygen without succumbing to 'oxygen toxicity'?
Your Answer: Superoxide dismutase
Explanation:Bacterial Survival in the Presence of Oxygen
Bacteria can be categorized into two types: aerobic and anaerobic. Anaerobic bacteria cannot survive in the presence of oxygen due to the formation of oxygen radicals that damage intracellular structures. On the other hand, aerobic bacteria have high levels of the enzyme superoxide dismutase, which breaks down the superoxide anion and prevents oxidative damage. Additionally, aerobic bacteria have several other similar enzymes that protect against oxygen radical-induced injury.
Anaerobic bacteria generate ATP in an oxygen-independent process, such as fermentation of long-chain fatty acids. Facultative anaerobic bacteria prefer an anaerobic environment but have sufficiently high levels of anti-oxidant enzymes that they can survive in an aerobic environment.
Carbonic anhydrase is an enzyme that converts water and carbon dioxide into H+ and HCO3−. Coenzyme Q is part of the electron transport chain, while lactate dehydrogenase converts pyruvate into lactate. NADPH oxidase is used in the ‘respiratory burst’ to generate toxic oxygen radicals.
In summary, the survival of bacteria in the presence of oxygen depends on their ability to protect against oxygen radicals. Aerobic bacteria have high levels of protective enzymes, while anaerobic bacteria generate ATP in an oxygen-independent process. Facultative anaerobic bacteria can survive in both environments due to their high levels of anti-oxidant enzymes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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In fungal cell walls, which molecule is present in a notably high concentration?
Your Answer: Cellulose
Correct Answer: Chitin
Explanation:Differences in Cell Wall Composition between Fungi and Bacteria
Fungi and bacteria both have cell walls, but the composition of their cell walls differs. While bacterial cell walls contain lipopolysaccharide in Gram negative bacteria and lipoteichoic acid in Gram positive bacteria, fungal cell walls contain chitin and glucans. These polysaccharides are not found in bacterial cell walls, which do not contain cellulose like plant cell walls do.
Peptidoglycan is a major structural component of Gram positive cell walls and a minor component of Gram negative cell walls. This compound is responsible for the ability of Gram positive cells to stain dark purple and Gram negative cells to stain pink. Peptidoglycan binds crystal violet, which is used in the Gram staining process. Overall, the differences in cell wall composition between fungi and bacteria contribute to their distinct characteristics and functions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 11
Correct
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What characteristic is shared by all fungi but not all bacteria?
Your Answer: Membrane-bound nucleus
Explanation:Differences between Fungi and Bacteria
Fungi and bacteria are two types of microorganisms that have distinct differences in their cellular structure and genetic makeup. Fungi are eukaryotic organisms, meaning they have a membrane-bound nucleus that contains their genetic material. On the other hand, bacteria are prokaryotic and lack a nucleus. Instead, they have a nucleoid, which is a collection of genetic material that is not membrane-bound.
Both fungi and bacteria have cell walls, but the composition of these walls differs. Fungal cell walls contain chitin, which is not present in bacterial or plant cell walls. Additionally, while both types of microorganisms have endoplasmic reticulum and ribosomes, the ribosomes in bacteria are smaller than those in eukaryotes.
Another difference between fungi and bacteria is the presence of plasmids. Bacteria have plasmids, which are circular rings of DNA that can be transmitted between organisms. Fungi, however, do not have plasmids.
In summary, while fungi and bacteria share some similarities in their cellular structure, they have distinct differences in their genetic makeup and composition of their cell walls.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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What is the name of the zoonotic organism that can lead to the development of a rash, meningitis, arthritis, and neuropathies?
Your Answer: Coxiella burnetii
Correct Answer: Borrelia burgdorferi
Explanation:Lyme Disease and Other Tick-Borne Illnesses
Lyme disease is a type of tick-borne illness that is caused by a zoonotic organism called Borrelia burgdorferi. This disease typically develops in three stages, with the first stage characterized by a rash that appears at the site of the tick bite. This rash is often referred to as erythema migrans and has a distinctive bulls eye appearance with central clearing. During the second stage of the disease, patients may develop carditis, lymphocytic meningitis, or neuropathies, including bilateral VII palsy. In the third stage, patients may experience a range of vague symptoms, such as malaise, fatigue, and arthralgia or arthritis. Most patients remember the tick bite, which can help with diagnosis.
Lyme disease is typically diagnosed using serology for Borrelia and is treated with tetracycline. Other tick-borne illnesses include cat scratch fever, which is caused by Bartonella henselae and is characterized by lymphadenopathy with pyrexia. Brucella and Coxiella can cause brucellosis and Q-fever, respectively, which can lead to fever of unknown origin with arthritis. Finally, Yersinia pestis is the cause of bubonic plague. these different tick-borne illnesses and their symptoms can help with early diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 13
Correct
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What is the organism that causes the majority of cases of epiglottitis in children who receive vaccinations in the UK?
Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae type B
Explanation:Common Bacterial Infections in Children
Epiglottitis is a serious infection of the epiglottis that can be life-threatening. It is usually caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B (HiB) and is characterized by symptoms such as sepsis, stridor, and airway obstruction. Early and controlled intubation is crucial in managing this condition. Fortunately, the introduction of HiB vaccination in the UK has significantly reduced the incidence of epiglottitis, making it a rare condition.
Botulism is another bacterial infection that affects children. It is caused by the anaerobic C. botulinum, which produces a toxin that causes paralysis. Unlike HiB, there is no vaccine available for botulism.
Diphtheria, a severe pharyngitis that causes massive swelling of the neck, is now rare in the UK. The vaccination schedule includes C. diphtheriae, which is the bacteria that causes this condition.
Moraxella is a bacterial infection that causes respiratory tract and ear infections. Children are not vaccinated against it.
Staph. aureus is another bacterial infection that affects children. It causes cellulitis and wound infections, among others. However, there is no vaccine available for this condition.
In summary, while some bacterial infections such as epiglottitis and diphtheria have become rare in the UK due to vaccination, others such as botulism, Moraxella, and Staph. aureus still pose a risk to children. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention promptly if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 25-year old male who recently returned from central Africa is experiencing high fever and enlargement of the liver and spleen. He has not taken any medication within the past month. What type of organism is the probable cause of his infection?
Your Answer: Bacterium
Correct Answer: Protozoa
Explanation:Malaria Transmission and Life Cycle
Malaria is a disease caused by a protozoan called Plasmodium falciparum. The most likely diagnosis for someone who has recently travelled to a high-risk malaria region and has not been taking any antimalarial prophylaxis is malaria. However, leishmaniasis should also be considered if blood tests are negative for malaria.
Mosquitoes are the carriers of malaria. They inject the disease in the form of schizonts from their salivary glands into the human bloodstream. These schizonts then migrate to the liver where they invade hepatocytes and multiply as merozoites. After a while, the hepatocytes rupture and the merozoites invade red blood cells in the bloodstream. In these cells, they undergo replication as trophozoites.
At this stage, gametocytes can also be produced, which are taken up by feeding mosquitoes. In the mosquito midgut, gametocytes fuse to form an oocyst. Schizonts bud off from the oocyst to reside in the mosquito salivary glands. This completes the life cycle of malaria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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What causes the 'eclipse phase' during the life-cycle of a virus?
Your Answer: Uncontrolled viraemia due to lack of immune response
Correct Answer: Initial viral entry into cells
Explanation:The Eclipse Phase of Viral Life-Cycle
The initial entry of viruses into cells is known as the eclipse phase of the viral life-cycle. When a person is infected with a virus, they receive an inoculating dose, some of which enters the bloodstream, causing viraemia. The inoculating viruses then enter cells to undergo replication, causing the viral load in venous blood to fall. This is because the virions are now intracellular.
After replication, the virions bud-off cells or cause host cell lysis, spilling into the blood and causing the viral count to rise again. In some viral infections, such as hepatitis B, there may be a phase of immune tolerance where the immune system does not respond to the virus. This allows for very high levels of viraemia without almost any host cell damage. However, the immune system will eventually recognize the presence of the virus and enter an immune responsive phase, leading to viral clearance and a decrease in viraemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 16
Correct
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What is the most common group of bacteria responsible for causing urinary tract infections?
Your Answer: Facultative anaerobic Gram negative bacteria
Explanation:The causes of urinary tract infections (UTIs) are a common health problem that affects millions of people worldwide. Escherichia coli is the most common cause of UTIs, which is a type of Gram-negative rod that can survive with or without oxygen. UTIs can be classified into two categories: uncomplicated and complicated.
Uncomplicated UTIs occur in individuals with normal urinary tracts and without recent surgery or recurrent infections. On the other hand, complicated UTIs occur in patients with structural abnormalities, recent urological surgery, or other reasons for abnormal infectious organisms.
The majority of uncomplicated UTIs are caused by Escherichia coli, followed by Proteus species and other bacteria. In contrast, complicated UTIs are mostly caused by Proteus species, followed by Escherichia coli and other bacteria such as Klebsiella sp.
All of these bacteria are Gram-negative, facultative anaerobic rods that can cause a range of symptoms, including pain, burning, and frequent urination. In summary, the causes of UTIs is crucial for effective diagnosis and treatment.
While Escherichia coli is the most common cause of uncomplicated UTIs, Proteus species are more likely to cause complicated UTIs. By identifying the type of bacteria responsible for the infection, healthcare providers can prescribe the appropriate antibiotics and prevent the development of antibiotic resistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 17
Correct
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What role does clavulanic acid play in co-amoxiclav?
Your Answer: Inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes
Explanation:Antibiotics and their Mechanisms of Action
Amoxicillin is an antibiotic that belongs to the penicillin family. It has some resistance against penicillinase enzymes, but it is susceptible to beta-lactamase enzymes, which is a common bacterial resistance mechanism. To increase its resistance to breakdown and broaden its spectrum of activity, clavulanic acid is given in combination with amoxicillin, particularly against Gram-negative organisms. Compared to penicillin V, amoxicillin has better oral bioavailability. However, it has relatively poor bone penetration, which requires long courses of IV antibiotics for bone infections. Some oral antibiotics, such as linezolid and clindamycin, have slightly better bone penetration.
DNA gyrase, also known as topoisomerase II, is an enzyme that helps to hold DNA in place during replication. Fluoroquinolones, such as ciprofloxacin, target DNA gyrase as their mechanism of action. There are several antibiotics that target cell wall synthesis, including penicillins, cephalosporins, and carbapenems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 18
Correct
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What is the classification of Streptococcus agalactiae?
Your Answer: Beta-haemolytic Group B
Explanation:Gram Positive Bacteria Classification
Gram positive bacteria can be categorized into two main groups: rods (bacilli) and spheres (cocci). The Gram positive rods include Clostridium, Bacillus, Listeria, and Corynebacterium. On the other hand, the Gram positive cocci can be either staphylococcal or Streptococcal. Staphylococcal bacteria are catalase-positive and grow in clusters, while Streptococcal bacteria are catalase-negative and grow in chains.
Streptococci are further divided into three groups based on their ability to haemolyse blood agar. Alpha-haemolytic bacteria have partial haemolysis and a green color on blood agar. Examples of alpha-haemolytic bacteria include Strep. pneumoniae and the Viridans streptococci, which includes S. mutans. Beta-haemolytic bacteria have complete haemolysis and are subdivided by Lancefield antigen. Group A includes Strep. pyogenes, which is an upper respiratory tract pathogen, while Group B includes S. agalactiae, which causes neonatal sepsis and meningitis, and maternal chorioamnionitis. Non-haemolytic bacteria, also known as gamma-haemolytic, include enterococci such as E. faecalis and peptostreptococcus, which are anaerobes.
In summary, Gram positive bacteria can be classified into rods and spheres, with further subdivisions based on their haemolytic abilities and antigenic properties. these classifications is important in identifying and treating bacterial infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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What type of cell is found in higher quantities in the blood sample of an individual who has a viral infection?
Your Answer: Neutrophils
Correct Answer: Lymphocytes
Explanation:Blood Cell Types and Their Presence in Various Disorders
Lymphocytes are a type of blood cell that can be found in higher numbers during viral infections. Eosinophils, on the other hand, are present in response to allergies, drug reactions, or infections caused by flatworms and strongyloides. Monocytes are another type of blood cell that can be found in disorders such as EBV infection, CMML, and other atypical infections. Neutrophils are present in bacterial infections or in disorders such as CML or AML where their more immature blastoid form is seen. Lastly, platelets can be increased in infections, iron deficiency, or myeloproliferative disorders.
In summary, different types of blood cells can indicate various disorders or infections. By analyzing the presence of these cells in the blood, doctors can better diagnose and treat patients. It is important to note that the presence of these cells alone is not enough to make a diagnosis, and further testing may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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What is the name of the bacterium that produces toxins and causes food poisoning with vomiting as the main symptom, specifically from rice consumption?
Your Answer: Campylobacter jejuni
Correct Answer: Bacillus cereus
Explanation:Bacterial Causes of Food Poisoning
Food poisoning can be caused by various bacteria, including Bacillus cereus, Staphylococcus aureus, Campylobacter, Yersinia, and E. coli. Bacillus cereus is known for secreting an exotoxin into rice, particularly rice that has been kept warm for a long time, causing vomiting within 1-6 hours of ingestion. Staphylococcus aureus, on the other hand, tends to infect meat and eggs and causes similar symptoms.
Campylobacter, Yersinia, and E. coli, on the other hand, cause diarrhea (with or without vomiting) after an incubation period of 1-4 days. While all three can cause bloody diarrhea, it is less common with Campylobacter and does not occur with all strains of E. coli. In most cases, these infections resolve on their own without the need for antibiotics. However, if the diarrhea persists, Campylobacter may be treated with a macrolide.
Overall, it is important to be aware of the various bacterial causes of food poisoning and take necessary precautions to prevent contamination and ensure safe food consumption.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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