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  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old woman reports a gradual onset of numbness and tingling that extends...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman reports a gradual onset of numbness and tingling that extends from her heel to the first three toes over the past six months. She experiences increased symptoms when pressure is applied to the area behind the medial malleolus for thirty seconds.

      Which foot movement is likely to worsen this patient's discomfort?

      Your Answer: Plantarflexion of the foot

      Explanation:

      The structures that pass behind the medial malleolus can be remembered using the mnemonic Tom, Dick and Very Nervous Harry which stands for Tibialis posterior, flexor Digitorum longus, posterior tibial Artery, posterior tibial Vein, tibial Nerve and flexor Hallucis longus.

      The patient in this case is experiencing tarsal tunnel syndrome which is characterized by numbness and tingling along the distribution of the posterior tibial nerve. Tinel’s test, which involves tapping on the area behind the medial malleolus, can help diagnose nerve compression.

      The abductor hallucis muscle is responsible for abducting the big toe and its tendon does not pass through the tarsal tunnel. Dorsiflexion of the foot is primarily performed by the tibialis anterior muscle, while the tibialis posterior tendon runs through the tarsal tunnel. Extension of the big toe is performed by the extensor hallucis brevis and longus muscles, while extension of the toes is primarily performed by the extensor digitorum longus muscle. The big toe can be extended independently from the other toes due to the action of the extensor hallucis muscles.

      Anatomy of the Ankle Joint

      The ankle joint is a type of synovial joint that is made up of the tibia and fibula superiorly and the talus inferiorly. It is supported by several ligaments, including the deltoid ligament, lateral collateral ligament, and talofibular ligaments. The calcaneofibular ligament is separate from the fibrous capsule of the joint, while the two talofibular ligaments are fused with it. The syndesmosis is composed of the antero-inferior tibiofibular ligament, postero-inferior tibiofibular ligament, inferior transverse tibiofibular ligament, and interosseous ligament.

      The ankle joint allows for plantar flexion and dorsiflexion movements, with a range of 55 and 35 degrees, respectively. Inversion and eversion movements occur at the level of the sub talar joint. The ankle joint is innervated by branches of the deep peroneal and tibial nerves.

      Reference:
      Golano P et al. Anatomy of the ankle ligaments: a pictorial essay. Knee Surg Sports Traumatol Arthrosc. 2010 May;18(5):557-69.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 2 - A 46-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department after falling while walking her...

    Correct

    • A 46-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department after falling while walking her dog. She explains that she stumbled on the pavement and landed on her left hand, with her hands taking the brunt of the fall.

      During the examination, the doctor notices tenderness over the anatomical snuffbox and telescoping of the left thumb. What other structure is in danger of being harmed, considering the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Radial artery

      Explanation:

      The anatomical snuffbox contains the radial artery and is a common site for scaphoid fractures. The scaphoid bone forms the floor of the snuffbox and the radial artery provides its blood supply. Missing a scaphoid fracture can lead to avascular necrosis. Other structures such as the flexor pollicis longus tendon, median nerve, pisiform bone, and ulnar artery do not lie within the snuffbox.

      The Anatomical Snuffbox: A Triangle on the Wrist

      The anatomical snuffbox is a triangular depression located on the lateral aspect of the wrist. It is bordered by tendons of the extensor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis, and abductor pollicis longus muscles, as well as the styloid process of the radius. The floor of the snuffbox is formed by the trapezium and scaphoid bones. The apex of the triangle is located distally, while the posterior border is formed by the tendon of the extensor pollicis longus. The radial artery runs through the snuffbox, making it an important landmark for medical professionals.

      In summary, the anatomical snuffbox is a small triangular area on the wrist that is bordered by tendons and bones. It is an important landmark for medical professionals due to the presence of the radial artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 3 - A 68-year-old man presents to an orthopedic surgeon with a two-month history of...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man presents to an orthopedic surgeon with a two-month history of dull pain in his left knee that is worse at night and unresponsive to over-the-counter pain relievers. Both knees appear normal with no swelling, tendon or ligament abnormalities, and no limited range of motion. The patient has a history of Paget disease of the bone and takes alendronic acid. The orthopedic surgeon notes a Codman triangle on knee X-ray due to periosteum elevation. What is the most likely condition affecting this patient?

      Your Answer: Osteosarcoma

      Explanation:

      The presence of a Codman triangle on an X-ray is a strong indication of osteosarcoma, a bone tumor that can cause night pain and is unresponsive to analgesics. This condition is often associated with Paget disease of the bone, which increases the risk of developing osteosarcoma. Giant cell tumor is another bone tumor that can occur in young adults and has a characteristic ‘soap bubble’ appearance on X-ray. Osteochondroma is a common benign bone tumor that can rarely transform into a malignant chondrosarcoma. Osteoarthritis is a painful joint condition caused by mechanical destruction of the cartilage, often worsened by factors such as obesity and age. Treatment options for osteoarthritis include pain relief medication and joint replacement surgery.

      Types of Bone Tumours

      Benign and malignant bone tumours are two types of bone tumours. Benign bone tumours are non-cancerous and do not spread to other parts of the body. Osteoma is a benign overgrowth of bone that usually occurs on the skull and is associated with Gardner’s syndrome. Osteochondroma, the most common benign bone tumour, is a cartilage-capped bony projection on the external surface of a bone. Giant cell tumour is a tumour of multinucleated giant cells within a fibrous stroma that occurs most frequently in the epiphyses of long bones.

      Malignant bone tumours are cancerous and can spread to other parts of the body. Osteosarcoma is the most common primary malignant bone tumour that mainly affects children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the metaphyseal region of long bones prior to epiphyseal closure. Ewing’s sarcoma is a small round blue cell tumour that mainly affects children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the pelvis and long bones and is associated with t(11;22) translocation. Chondrosarcoma is a malignant tumour of cartilage that most commonly affects the axial skeleton and is more common in middle-age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 4 - A 48-year-old male visits his GP with blister-like skin alterations that have been...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old male visits his GP with blister-like skin alterations that have been bothering him for a few months on his body and inside his mouth. Upon biopsy, it is revealed that there are intra-epithelial blisters containing acantholytic keratinocytes.

      What skin condition is known to present with these features?

      Your Answer: Actinic keratosis

      Correct Answer: Pemphigus vulgaris

      Explanation:

      Pemphigus vulgaris is likely the condition that a middle-aged man with acantholytic keratinocytes and involvement of the mouth (mucous membranes) would present with. This is because this condition is characterised by intra-epithelial blisters containing acantholytic keratinocytes.

      Bullous pemphigoid, on the other hand, is characterised by damage to the hemidesmosomes and infiltration of white blood cells such as lymphocytes into the affected area. It does not demonstrate acantholytic keratinocytes and does not affect mucous membranes like the mouth.

      Actinic keratosis does not cause blistering, and bullous impetigo typically affects babies.

      Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune condition that occurs when the body’s immune system attacks desmoglein 3, a type of cell adhesion molecule found in epithelial cells. This disease is more prevalent in the Ashkenazi Jewish population. The most common symptom is mucosal ulceration, which can be the first sign of the disease. Oral involvement is seen in 50-70% of patients. Skin blistering is also a common symptom, with easily ruptured vesicles and bullae. These lesions are typically painful but not itchy and may appear months after the initial mucosal symptoms. Nikolsky’s sign is a characteristic feature of pemphigus vulgaris, where bullae spread following the application of horizontal, tangential pressure to the skin. Biopsy results often show acantholysis.

      The first-line treatment for pemphigus vulgaris is steroids, which help to reduce inflammation and suppress the immune system. Immunosuppressants may also be used to manage the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old man comes to the doctor complaining of difficulty with bowel movements....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man comes to the doctor complaining of difficulty with bowel movements. He reports having a good appetite and drinking enough fluids. He denies experiencing weight loss, night sweats, or fevers. The patient has a history of rhinitis and indigestion. He takes two medications regularly, but he cannot recall their names. Additionally, he has a learning disability.

      Which of the following medications could be responsible for his constipation?

      Your Answer: Cephalosporins

      Correct Answer: Chlorphenamine

      Explanation:

      Antihistamines for Allergic Rhinitis and Urticaria

      Antihistamines, specifically H1 inhibitors, are effective in treating allergic rhinitis and urticaria. Sedating antihistamines like chlorpheniramine have antimuscarinic properties that can cause dry mouth and urinary retention. On the other hand, non-sedating antihistamines like loratadine and cetirizine are less likely to cause drowsiness. However, there is some evidence that cetirizine may still cause some level of drowsiness compared to other non-sedating antihistamines. Overall, antihistamines are a valuable treatment option for those suffering from allergic rhinitis and urticaria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 6 - A patient with a history of multiple deep vein thromboses presents with pain...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with a history of multiple deep vein thromboses presents with pain around the medial side of their leg. On examination, venous eczema, lipodermatosclerosis, and overlying erythema are noted around the medial malleolus.

      What is the most appropriate first-line treatment for this condition in a slightly older patient?

      Your Answer: Surgical debridgement

      Correct Answer: Four-layer compression bandaging

      Explanation:

      Venous ulcers typically develop in the gaiter region, specifically around the medial malleolus. The ankle-brachial pressure index and venous duplex ultrasound are diagnostic tools used to investigate ulcers, not treat them. The primary conservative treatment for venous ulcers is four-layer compression bandaging. If conservative measures fail, surgical debridgement may be considered. There is limited evidence supporting the use of intermittent pneumatic compression devices for venous ulcers.

      Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly found above the medial malleolus. To determine the cause of non-healing ulcers, it is important to conduct an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) test. A normal ABPI value is between 0.9 to 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. However, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease due to arterial calcification, especially in diabetic patients.

      The most effective treatment for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, specifically four-layer bandaging. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate of venous ulcers. While there is some evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, there is little evidence to suggest the benefit of hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 7 - A histopathologist receives multiple muscle tissue specimens and wants to identify the muscle...

    Incorrect

    • A histopathologist receives multiple muscle tissue specimens and wants to identify the muscle type based on the presence of nuclei. Which muscle type has a single nucleus located centrally along the muscle fiber?

      Your Answer: Cardiac and skeletal muscle

      Correct Answer: Cardiac and smooth muscle

      Explanation:

      There are three categories of muscle: skeletal, cardiac, and smooth.

      The Process of Muscle Contraction

      Muscle contraction is a complex process that involves several steps. It begins with an action potential reaching the neuromuscular junction, which causes a calcium ion influx through voltage-gated calcium channels. This influx leads to the release of acetylcholine into the extracellular space, which activates nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, triggering an action potential. The action potential then spreads through the T-tubules, activating L-type voltage-dependent calcium channels in the T-tubule membrane, which are close to calcium-release channels in the adjacent sarcoplasmic reticulum. This causes the sarcoplasmic reticulum to release calcium, which binds to troponin C, causing a conformational change that allows tropomyosin to move, unblocking the binding sites. Myosin then binds to the newly released binding site, releasing ADP and pulling the Z bands towards each other. ATP binds to myosin, releasing actin.

      The components involved in muscle contraction include the sarcomere, which is the basic unit of muscles that gives skeletal and cardiac muscles their striated appearance. The I-band is the zone of thin filaments that is not superimposed by thick filaments, while the A-band contains the entire length of a single thick filament. The H-zone is the zone of the thick filaments that is not superimposed by the thin filaments, and the M-line is in the middle of the sarcomere, cross-linking myosin. The sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium ion in response to depolarization, while actin is the thin filaments that transmit the forces generated by myosin to the ends of the muscle. Myosin is the thick filaments that bind to the thin filament, while titin connects the Z-line to the thick filament, altering the structure of tropomyosin. Tropomyosin covers the myosin-binding sites on actin, while troponin-C binds with calcium ions. The T-tubule is an invagination of the sarcoplasmic reticulum that helps co-ordinate muscular contraction.

      There are two types of skeletal muscle fibres: type I and type II. Type I fibres have a slow contraction time, are red in colour due to the presence of myoglobin, and are used for sustained force. They have a high mitochondrial density and use triglycerides as

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a complaint of right...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a complaint of right arm pain. He reports that the pain started abruptly while lifting weights at the gym and that his arm feels weaker than usual.

      Upon performing an ultrasound of the upper arm, a distal biceps tendon tear is identified.

      Which specific movement is expected to be impacted by this injury?

      Your Answer: Supination and elbow flexion

      Explanation:

      The biceps brachii is mainly responsible for supination and elbow flexion. If the tendon associated with this muscle is torn, it can affect these movements.

      External rotation is primarily performed by the infraspinatus and teres minor muscles, not the biceps brachii.

      The teres major muscle, not the biceps brachii, is responsible for internal rotation.

      Pronation is performed by the pronator quadratus and pronator teres muscles, while elbow flexion is performed by the triceps muscle. Therefore, these actions are not associated with the biceps brachii.

      Shoulder abduction involves muscles such as the supraspinatus and deltoid, but it does not involve the biceps brachii.

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 9 - A young woman presents with the inability to extend her wrist. Examination confirms...

    Correct

    • A young woman presents with the inability to extend her wrist. Examination confirms this and is consistent with a 'wrist drop'. Which nerve has most likely been affected?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      If the radial nerve is damaged, it can lead to wrist drop because it is responsible for innervating the extensor muscles that help extend the hand against gravity. This symptom is unique to radial nerve damage and is not seen with any of the other nerves listed.

      Damage to the axillary nerve would affect the deltoid muscle and cause problems with arm abduction.

      Impaired biceps brachii muscle function and arm flexion would result from damage to the musculocutaneous nerve.

      Damage to the ulnar nerve would cause weakness in the lateral two fingers, resulting in a claw-like appearance.

      Paralysis of the thenar muscles due to damage to the median nerve would lead to an inability to abduct and oppose the thumb.

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 10 - A 57-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department by ambulance following a car...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department by ambulance following a car accident. Upon examination, it is observed that his hip is in flexion, abduction, and external rotation. An X-ray reveals that the right femoral head is larger than the left and is positioned medially to the acetabulum. No fractures or skin lesions are detected. The patient undergoes closed reduction with traction while under sedation. Later, during a physiotherapy evaluation, it is discovered that he is unable to adduct his thigh. What nerve is most likely to have been damaged?

      Your Answer: Obturator nerve

      Explanation:

      If a patient is unable to adduct their thigh after an anterior hip dislocation, it is likely due to damage to the obturator nerve. This nerve supplies the hip adductor muscles and sensation to the medial thigh. In contrast, damage to the femoral nerve would result in an inability to flex the hip or extend the knee, making it an unlikely cause for this specific symptom. Compression of the inferior gluteal nerve can cause piriformis syndrome, while compression of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve can lead to meralgia paresthetica, but neither of these would affect the patient’s ability to adduct their leg. Damage to the superior gluteal nerve would result in a positive Trendelenburg’s sign.

      Lower limb anatomy is an important topic that often appears in examinations. One aspect of this topic is the nerves that control motor and sensory functions in the lower limb. The femoral nerve controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and provides sensation to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. It is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds. The obturator nerve controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. It can be injured in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh provides sensory function to the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh, and can be compressed near the ASIS, resulting in a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion, and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. It is not commonly injured as it is deep and well protected, but can be affected by popliteal lacerations or posterior knee dislocation. The common peroneal nerve controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and can be injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and can be injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. The inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation, and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve can result in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as difficulty jumping or climbing stairs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 11 - A 35-year-old male patient visits his doctor complaining of scaly and erythematous lesions...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male patient visits his doctor complaining of scaly and erythematous lesions on the extensor surfaces of his knees and elbow. He reports that his skin condition worsens due to lithium, which he takes for bipolar disorder. Additionally, he experiences joint pain and nail ridging.

      What is the probable diagnosis, and which histological characteristic is pathognomonic?

      Your Answer: Increased sebum secretion

      Correct Answer: Neutrophil infiltration of the stratum corneum

      Explanation:

      Psoriasis is characterized by the infiltration of neutrophils into the stratum corneum. This is suggested by the skin changes on the extensor surfaces, which are exacerbated by lithium. Bullous pemphigoid is associated with the destruction of hemidesmosomes, while pemphigus vulgaris is linked to damage to desmoglein. Acne vulgaris is characterized by follicular hyperkeratosis and increased sebum production.

      Psoriasis: A Chronic Skin Disorder with Various Subtypes and Complications

      Psoriasis is a prevalent chronic skin disorder that affects around 2% of the population. It is characterized by red, scaly patches on the skin, but it is now known that patients with psoriasis are at an increased risk of arthritis and cardiovascular disease. The pathophysiology of psoriasis is multifactorial and not yet fully understood. It is associated with genetic factors such as HLA-B13, -B17, and -Cw6, and abnormal T cell activity that stimulates keratinocyte proliferation. Environmental factors such as skin trauma, stress, streptococcal infection, and sunlight exposure can worsen, trigger, or improve psoriasis.

      There are several recognized subtypes of psoriasis, including plaque psoriasis, flexural psoriasis, guttate psoriasis, and pustular psoriasis. Each subtype has its own unique characteristics and affects different areas of the body. Psoriasis can also cause nail signs such as pitting and onycholysis, as well as arthritis.

      Complications of psoriasis include psoriatic arthropathy, metabolic syndrome, cardiovascular disease, venous thromboembolism, and psychological distress. It is important for patients with psoriasis to receive proper management and treatment to prevent these complications and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 12 - Which muscle is responsible for causing flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of...

    Correct

    • Which muscle is responsible for causing flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the middle finger?

      Your Answer: Flexor digitorum profundus

      Explanation:

      The flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor digitorum profundus muscles are accountable for inducing flexion. The tendons of the superficialis muscle attach to the bases of the middle phalanges, while the tendons of the profundus muscle attach to the bases of the distal phalanges. Both tendons are responsible for flexing the wrist, MCP, and PIP joints, but only the tendons of the profundus muscle are responsible for flexing the DIP joints.

      Anatomy of the Hand: Fascia, Compartments, and Tendons

      The hand is composed of bones, muscles, and tendons that work together to perform various functions. The bones of the hand include eight carpal bones, five metacarpals, and 14 phalanges. The intrinsic muscles of the hand include the interossei, which are supplied by the ulnar nerve, and the lumbricals, which flex the metacarpophalangeal joints and extend the interphalangeal joint. The thenar eminence contains the abductor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis, and flexor pollicis brevis, while the hypothenar eminence contains the opponens digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi brevis, and abductor digiti minimi.

      The fascia of the palm is thin over the thenar and hypothenar eminences but relatively thick elsewhere. The palmar aponeurosis covers the soft tissues and overlies the flexor tendons. The palmar fascia is continuous with the antebrachial fascia and the fascia of the dorsum of the hand. The hand is divided into compartments by fibrous septa, with the thenar compartment lying lateral to the lateral septum, the hypothenar compartment lying medial to the medial septum, and the central compartment containing the flexor tendons and their sheaths, the lumbricals, the superficial palmar arterial arch, and the digital vessels and nerves. The deepest muscular plane is the adductor compartment, which contains adductor pollicis.

      The tendons of the flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) and flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) enter the common flexor sheath deep to the flexor retinaculum. The tendons enter the central compartment of the hand and fan out to their respective digital synovial sheaths. The fibrous digital sheaths contain the flexor tendons and their synovial sheaths, extending from the heads of the metacarpals to the base of the distal phalanges.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 13 - A runner presents to the emergency department with intense leg discomfort. He had...

    Correct

    • A runner presents to the emergency department with intense leg discomfort. He had neglected to warm up and participated in a 200m sprint race. As he neared the finish line, he felt pain in the back of his thigh. The pain has intensified and is now focused on the outer part of the knee. The runner is incapable of bending his knee. Which structure has sustained damage?

      Your Answer: Biceps femoris tendon

      Explanation:

      Sports that involve sudden bending of the knee, such as sprinting, often result in injuries to the biceps femoris, particularly if the athlete has not properly warmed up. The most frequent type of injury is avulsion, which occurs at the point where the long head connects to the ischial tuberosity. Compared to the other hamstrings, the biceps femoris is more prone to injury.

      The Biceps Femoris Muscle

      The biceps femoris is a muscle located in the posterior upper thigh and is part of the hamstring group of muscles. It consists of two heads: the long head and the short head. The long head originates from the ischial tuberosity and inserts into the fibular head. Its actions include knee flexion, lateral rotation of the tibia, and extension of the hip. It is innervated by the tibial division of the sciatic nerve and supplied by the profunda femoris artery, inferior gluteal artery, and the superior muscular branches of the popliteal artery.

      On the other hand, the short head originates from the lateral lip of the linea aspera and the lateral supracondylar ridge of the femur. It also inserts into the fibular head and is responsible for knee flexion and lateral rotation of the tibia. It is innervated by the common peroneal division of the sciatic nerve and supplied by the same arteries as the long head.

      Understanding the anatomy and function of the biceps femoris muscle is important in the diagnosis and treatment of injuries and conditions affecting the posterior thigh.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 14 - Sophie, a 27-year-old female, is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance after...

    Correct

    • Sophie, a 27-year-old female, is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance after being involved in a car accident. Upon examination, it is discovered that she has a surgical neck fracture of the humerus on X-ray.

      What is the structure that is most commonly at risk of damage with a surgical neck fracture of the humerus?

      Your Answer: Axillary nerve

      Explanation:

      The most frequently occurring nerve injury in a surgical neck fracture of the humerus is damage to the axillary nerve. The radial nerve is at risk of injury in a mid shaft fracture of the humerus, as it passes through the radial groove. A supracondylar fracture of the humerus increases the likelihood of injury to the brachial artery, which can lead to volkmaan’s ischemic contractures.

      The humerus is a long bone that runs from the shoulder blade to the elbow joint. It is mostly covered by muscle but can be felt throughout its length. The head of the humerus is a smooth, rounded surface that connects to the body of the bone through the anatomical neck. The surgical neck, located below the head and tubercles, is the most common site of fracture. The greater and lesser tubercles are prominences on the upper end of the bone, with the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons inserted into the greater tubercle. The intertubercular groove runs between the two tubercles and holds the biceps tendon. The posterior surface of the body has a spiral groove for the radial nerve and brachial vessels. The lower end of the humerus is wide and flattened, with the trochlea, coronoid fossa, and olecranon fossa located on the distal edge. The medial epicondyle is prominent and has a sulcus for the ulnar nerve and collateral vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 15 - A 23-year-old man is stabbed in the chest at the level of the...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old man is stabbed in the chest at the level of the junction between the sternum and manubrium. What is the structure that is most vulnerable?

      Your Answer: Aortic arch

      Explanation:

      The aortic arch can be located at the Angle of Louis (Manubriosternal angle) on the surface. The oesophagus is situated at the back and is less susceptible to damage.

      The sternal angle is a significant anatomical landmark located at the level of the upper sternum and manubrium. It is characterized by several structures, including the upper part of the manubrium, left brachiocephalic vein, brachiocephalic artery, left common carotid, left subclavian artery, lower part of the manubrium, and costal cartilages of the 2nd ribs. Additionally, the sternal angle marks the transition point between the superior and inferior mediastinum, and is also associated with the arch of the aorta, tracheal bifurcation, union of the azygos vein and superior vena cava, and the crossing of the thoracic duct to the midline. Overall, the sternal angle is a crucial anatomical structure that serves as a reference point for various medical procedures and diagnoses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 16 - Which of the following statements regarding psoriasis is inaccurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding psoriasis is inaccurate?

      Your Answer: Psoriatic arthropathy may occur prior to the development of skin lesions

      Correct Answer: Mediated by type 2 helper T cells

      Explanation:

      Psoriasis is caused by type 1 helper T cells that participate in the cellular immune response, as opposed to type 2 helper T cells.

      Psoriasis: A Chronic Skin Disorder with Various Subtypes and Complications

      Psoriasis is a prevalent chronic skin disorder that affects around 2% of the population. It is characterized by red, scaly patches on the skin, but it is now known that patients with psoriasis are at an increased risk of arthritis and cardiovascular disease. The pathophysiology of psoriasis is multifactorial and not yet fully understood. It is associated with genetic factors such as HLA-B13, -B17, and -Cw6, and abnormal T cell activity that stimulates keratinocyte proliferation. Environmental factors such as skin trauma, stress, streptococcal infection, and sunlight exposure can worsen, trigger, or improve psoriasis.

      There are several recognized subtypes of psoriasis, including plaque psoriasis, flexural psoriasis, guttate psoriasis, and pustular psoriasis. Each subtype has its own unique characteristics and affects different areas of the body. Psoriasis can also cause nail signs such as pitting and onycholysis, as well as arthritis.

      Complications of psoriasis include psoriatic arthropathy, metabolic syndrome, cardiovascular disease, venous thromboembolism, and psychological distress. It is important for patients with psoriasis to receive proper management and treatment to prevent these complications and improve their quality of life.

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      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 17 - A 70-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of a severe throbbing headache...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of a severe throbbing headache on one side of his head. He reports that it started two weeks ago and has now progressed to affect his vision. Additionally, he experiences discomfort in his jaw while chewing, which has made it difficult for him to eat. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and is currently taking ramipril.

      During the examination, the GP notes a tender temporal artery that is palpable. Fundoscopy reveals a swollen pale optic disc with blurred margins.

      Which artery is responsible for the patient's visual symptoms?

      Your Answer: Temporal artery

      Correct Answer: Posterior ciliary artery

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is posterior ciliary artery. When a patient presents with temporal arteritis, they may experience a headache, jaw claudication, and visual symptoms that can progress to anterior ischemic optic neuropathy. This occurs due to occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, which is a branch of the ophthalmic artery. When this artery is blocked, it can result in retinal ischemia and necrosis, leading to visual loss.

      The answer of anterior ciliary artery is incorrect because it does not have a direct supply to the retina. Instead, it supplies the conjunctiva, sclera, and rectus muscles. Therefore, it would not show a pale swollen optic disc on fundoscopy, which suggests retinal ischemia.

      Central retinal artery is also an incorrect answer because it is not typically affected in temporal arteritis. When this artery is occluded, it results in a cherry red spot on fundoscopy without associated mastication symptoms.

      Finally, the lacrimal artery is an incorrect answer because it supplies the lacrimal gland, conjunctiva, and eyelids, but not the retina. Therefore, it would not show a pale optic disc on fundoscopy.

      Temporal arteritis is a type of large vessel vasculitis that often occurs in patients over the age of 60 and is commonly associated with polymyalgia rheumatica. This condition is characterized by changes in the affected artery that skip certain sections while damaging others. Symptoms of temporal arteritis include headache, jaw claudication, and visual disturbances, with anterior ischemic optic neuropathy being the most common ocular complication. A tender, palpable temporal artery is also often present, and around 50% of patients may experience symptoms of PMR, such as muscle aches and morning stiffness.

      To diagnose temporal arteritis, doctors will typically look for elevated inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr or elevated CRP levels. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed to confirm the diagnosis, with skip lesions often being present. Treatment for temporal arteritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is typically used, while IV methylprednisolone is usually given if there is evolving visual loss. Patients with visual symptoms should be seen by an ophthalmologist on the same day, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin, although the evidence supporting the latter is weak.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 18 - A 56-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of numbness and tingling in...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of numbness and tingling in his thumb, middle, and index fingers for the past 8 months. This is beginning to interfere with his work as a financial analyst. He has a history of hypothyroidism for which he takes 100 micrograms of thyroxine daily.

      Which nerves are involved in this condition?

      Your Answer: Median nerve

      Explanation:

      To identify the affected nerve, it is crucial to accurately diagnose the underlying condition. The patient’s symptoms, such as numbness and tingling in the thumb and middle finger (and possibly the radial half of the ring finger), suggest carpal tunnel syndrome. Additionally, the patient’s occupation involving computer use and hypothyroidism are risk factors for this condition.

      Carpal tunnel syndrome occurs when the median nerve is compressed at the carpal tunnel as it passes through the wrist.

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. This can cause pain and pins and needles sensations in the thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even travel up the arm. Patients may shake their hand to alleviate the discomfort, especially at night. During an examination, weakness in thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence may be observed. Tapping on the affected area may also cause paraesthesia, and flexing the wrist can trigger symptoms.

      There are several potential causes of carpal tunnel syndrome, including idiopathic factors, pregnancy, oedema, lunate fractures, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may reveal prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves. Treatment options may include a six-week trial of conservative measures such as wrist splints at night or corticosteroid injections. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression may be necessary, which involves dividing the flexor retinaculum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 19 - A 28-year-old man presents with worsening back pain and stiffness and is referred...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man presents with worsening back pain and stiffness and is referred to the rheumatology team. Following investigations, he is diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis. Despite initial treatments with naproxen and etoricoxib, his symptoms persist. After discussion at a multidisciplinary team meeting, a trial of golimumab is recommended. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: Tumour necrosis factor alpha antagonist

      Explanation:

      Golimumab is classified as a TNF alpha antagonist, which inhibits the action of tumour necrosis factor. It is prescribed for the treatment of ankylosing spondylitis and is administered subcutaneously every four weeks. Rituximab is an example of a CD20 antagonist, used for the management of rheumatoid arthritis and certain types of blood cancer. CD38 antagonists, such as daratumumab, are being studied in clinical trials and are currently used for the treatment of multiple myeloma. Anakinra is an interleukin-1 inhibitor used for rheumatoid arthritis, while secukinumab is an interleukin-17A inhibitor licensed for the treatment of ankylosing spondylitis under specialist use.

      Understanding Tumour Necrosis Factor and its Inhibitors

      Tumour necrosis factor (TNF) is a cytokine that plays a crucial role in the immune system. It is mainly secreted by macrophages and has various effects on the immune system, such as activating macrophages and neutrophils, acting as a costimulator for T cell activation, and mediating the body’s response to Gram-negative septicaemia. TNF also has anti-tumour effects and binds to both the p55 and p75 receptor, inducing apoptosis and activating NFkB.

      TNF has endothelial effects, including increased expression of selectins and production of platelet activating factor, IL-1, and prostaglandins. It also promotes the proliferation of fibroblasts and their production of protease and collagenase. TNF inhibitors are used to treat inflammatory conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis and Crohn’s disease. Examples of TNF inhibitors include infliximab, etanercept, adalimumab, and golimumab.

      Infliximab is also used to treat active Crohn’s disease unresponsive to steroids. However, TNF blockers can have adverse effects such as reactivation of latent tuberculosis and demyelination. Understanding TNF and its inhibitors is crucial in the treatment of various inflammatory conditions.

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      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 20 - Which one of the following structures does not pass anterior to the lateral...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following structures does not pass anterior to the lateral malleolus?

      Your Answer: Tibialis anterior

      Correct Answer: Peroneus brevis

      Explanation:

      The lateral malleolus is located posterior to the path of the peroneus brevis.

      Anatomy of the Lateral Malleolus

      The lateral malleolus is a bony prominence on the outer side of the ankle joint. Posterior to the lateral malleolus and superficial to the superior peroneal retinaculum are the sural nerve and short saphenous vein. These structures are important for sensation and blood flow to the lower leg and foot.

      On the other hand, posterior to the lateral malleolus and deep to the superior peroneal retinaculum are the peroneus longus and peroneus brevis tendons. These tendons are responsible for ankle stability and movement.

      Additionally, the calcaneofibular ligament is attached at the lateral malleolus. This ligament is important for maintaining the stability of the ankle joint and preventing excessive lateral movement.

      Understanding the anatomy of the lateral malleolus is crucial for diagnosing and treating ankle injuries and conditions. Proper care and management of these structures can help prevent long-term complications and improve overall ankle function.

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      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 21 - A 20-year-old man comes to the GP complaining of loss of sensation on...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old man comes to the GP complaining of loss of sensation on the lateral side of his right forearm after lifting weights. During the examination, the GP observes a decrease in the biceps reflex on the right arm.

      What nerve roots are likely to be affected in this case?

      Your Answer: C5, C6

      Explanation:

      The biceps muscle is innervated by the nerve roots C5 and C6. Based on the patient’s history, it is likely that these nerves have been injured. The biceps reflex specifically tests the function of the C5 nerve root. Additionally, damage to the C6 nerve root can result in a loss of sensation in the lateral forearm.

      Anatomy of the Vertebral Column

      The vertebral column is composed of 33 vertebrae, which are divided into four regions: cervical, thoracic, lumbar, and sacral. The cervical region has seven vertebrae, the thoracic region has twelve, the lumbar region has five, and the sacral region has five. However, the spinal cord segmental levels do not always correspond to the vertebral segments. For example, the C8 cord is located at the C7 vertebrae, and the T12 cord is situated at the T8 vertebrae.

      The cervical vertebrae are located in the neck and are responsible for controlling the muscles of the upper extremities. The C3 cord contains the phrenic nucleus, which controls the diaphragm. The thoracic vertebrae are defined by those that have a rib and control the intercostal muscles and associated dermatomes. The lumbosacral vertebrae are located in the lower back and control the hip and leg muscles, as well as the buttocks and anal regions.

      The spinal cord ends at the L1-L2 vertebral level, and below this level is a spray of spinal roots called the cauda equina. Injuries below L2 represent injuries to spinal roots rather than the spinal cord proper. Understanding the anatomy of the vertebral column is essential for diagnosing and treating spinal cord injuries and other related conditions.

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      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 22 - A woman is undergoing excision of a sub mandibular gland. During the procedure,...

    Correct

    • A woman is undergoing excision of a sub mandibular gland. During the procedure, a vessel is damaged that is located between the gland and the mandible. What is the most probable identity of this vessel?

      Your Answer: Facial artery

      Explanation:

      Stone formation is favored by the thick consistency of submandibular gland secretions. Additionally, the majority of stones are visible on radiographs. During gland removal surgery, the facial artery is typically tied off as it runs between the gland and mandible. The lingual artery may also be encountered later in the procedure when Wharton’s duct is being moved.

      Anatomy of the Submandibular Gland

      The submandibular gland is located beneath the mandible and is surrounded by the superficial platysma, deep fascia, and mandible. It is also in close proximity to various structures such as the submandibular lymph nodes, facial vein, marginal mandibular nerve, cervical branch of the facial nerve, deep facial artery, mylohyoid muscle, hyoglossus muscle, lingual nerve, submandibular ganglion, and hypoglossal nerve.

      The submandibular duct, also known as Wharton’s duct, is responsible for draining saliva from the gland. It opens laterally to the lingual frenulum on the anterior floor of the mouth and is approximately 5 cm in length. The lingual nerve wraps around the duct, and as it passes forward, it crosses medial to the nerve to lie above it before crossing back, lateral to it, to reach a position below the nerve.

      The submandibular gland receives sympathetic innervation from the superior cervical ganglion and parasympathetic innervation from the submandibular ganglion via the lingual nerve. Its arterial supply comes from a branch of the facial artery, which passes through the gland to groove its deep surface before emerging onto the face by passing between the gland and the mandible. The anterior facial vein provides venous drainage, and the gland’s lymphatic drainage goes to the deep cervical and jugular chains of nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 23 - Liam is a 5-year-old boy playing outside in the park on his scooter....

    Correct

    • Liam is a 5-year-old boy playing outside in the park on his scooter. He accidentally falls off his scooter and scrapes his elbow, causing a small amount of bleeding. After a few days, a scab forms and eventually falls off, leaving the skin healed. What is the outermost layer of the epidermis?

      Your Answer: Stratum corneum

      Explanation:

      The epidermis comprises five distinct layers that consist of various cell types and perform different functions. These layers, listed from outermost to innermost, are the stratum corneum, stratum lucidum*, and stratum granulosum.

      The Layers of the Epidermis

      The epidermis is the outermost layer of the skin and is made up of a stratified squamous epithelium with a basal lamina underneath. It can be divided into five layers, each with its own unique characteristics. The first layer is the stratum corneum, which is made up of flat, dead, scale-like cells filled with keratin. These cells are continually shed and replaced with new ones. The second layer, the stratum lucidum, is only present in thick skin and is a clear layer. The third layer, the stratum granulosum, is where cells form links with their neighbors. The fourth layer, the stratum spinosum, is the thickest layer of the epidermis and is where squamous cells begin keratin synthesis. Finally, the fifth layer is the stratum germinativum, which is the basement membrane and is made up of a single layer of columnar epithelial cells. This layer gives rise to keratinocytes and contains melanocytes. Understanding the layers of the epidermis is important for understanding the structure and function of the skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 24 - A 50-year-old woman presents with painful tingling in her fingers and relief when...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with painful tingling in her fingers and relief when hanging her arm over the side of the bed. She exhibits a positive Tinel's sign at the wrist. What is the most probable factor contributing to her diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Explanation:

      The patient has been diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome, which is often caused by rheumatological disorders. During the clinical examination, it is important to look for signs of rheumatoid arthritis, such as rheumatoid nodules, vasculitic lesions, and arthritis in the metacarpophalangeal joints.

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. This can cause pain and pins and needles sensations in the thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even travel up the arm. Patients may shake their hand to alleviate the discomfort, especially at night. During an examination, weakness in thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence may be observed. Tapping on the affected area may also cause paraesthesia, and flexing the wrist can trigger symptoms.

      There are several potential causes of carpal tunnel syndrome, including idiopathic factors, pregnancy, oedema, lunate fractures, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may reveal prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves. Treatment options may include a six-week trial of conservative measures such as wrist splints at night or corticosteroid injections. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression may be necessary, which involves dividing the flexor retinaculum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      31.7
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  • Question 25 - A 25-year-old woman visits the clinic with a rash on her right ankle....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman visits the clinic with a rash on her right ankle. She suspects it was triggered by a new anklet gifted by her friend. What category of hypersensitivity response does this fall under?

      Your Answer: Type 3

      Correct Answer: Type 4

      Explanation:

      The Gell and Coombs classification divides hypersensitivity reactions into four types. Type 1 is immediate and IgE mediated, type 2 is mediated by IgG and IgM causing cell death, type 3 is mediated by immune complexes, and type 4 is delayed and mediated by T lymphocytes causing contact dermatitis. Examples of each type include allergic rhinitis, Goodpasture syndrome, and rheumatoid arthritis. Nickel is a common cause of contact dermatitis.

      Understanding Contact Dermatitis

      Contact dermatitis is a skin condition that can be caused by two main types of reactions. The first type is irritant contact dermatitis, which is a non-allergic reaction that occurs due to exposure to weak acids or alkalis, such as detergents. This type of dermatitis is commonly seen on the hands and is characterized by erythema, but crusting and vesicles are rare.

      The second type of contact dermatitis is allergic contact dermatitis, which is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction. This type of dermatitis is uncommon and is often seen on the head following hair dyes. It presents as an acute weeping eczema that predominantly affects the margins of the hairline rather than the hairy scalp itself. Topical treatment with a potent steroid is indicated for this type of dermatitis.

      Cement is a frequent cause of contact dermatitis. The alkaline nature of cement may cause an irritant contact dermatitis, while the dichromates in cement can also cause an allergic contact dermatitis. It is important to understand the different types of contact dermatitis and their causes to effectively manage and treat this condition.

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      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 26 - Which nerve is in danger during removal of the submandibular gland? ...

    Correct

    • Which nerve is in danger during removal of the submandibular gland?

      Your Answer: Marginal mandibular nerve

      Explanation:

      The depressor anguli oris and depressor labii inferioris muscles are supplied by the marginal mandibular nerve, which is located beneath the platysma muscle. Damage to this nerve can result in facial asymmetry and drooling.

      Anatomy of the Submandibular Gland

      The submandibular gland is located beneath the mandible and is surrounded by the superficial platysma, deep fascia, and mandible. It is also in close proximity to various structures such as the submandibular lymph nodes, facial vein, marginal mandibular nerve, cervical branch of the facial nerve, deep facial artery, mylohyoid muscle, hyoglossus muscle, lingual nerve, submandibular ganglion, and hypoglossal nerve.

      The submandibular duct, also known as Wharton’s duct, is responsible for draining saliva from the gland. It opens laterally to the lingual frenulum on the anterior floor of the mouth and is approximately 5 cm in length. The lingual nerve wraps around the duct, and as it passes forward, it crosses medial to the nerve to lie above it before crossing back, lateral to it, to reach a position below the nerve.

      The submandibular gland receives sympathetic innervation from the superior cervical ganglion and parasympathetic innervation from the submandibular ganglion via the lingual nerve. Its arterial supply comes from a branch of the facial artery, which passes through the gland to groove its deep surface before emerging onto the face by passing between the gland and the mandible. The anterior facial vein provides venous drainage, and the gland’s lymphatic drainage goes to the deep cervical and jugular chains of nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 27 - A fifteen-year-old comes in with a swollen, red, and tender first metatarsophalangeal joint....

    Correct

    • A fifteen-year-old comes in with a swollen, red, and tender first metatarsophalangeal joint. After diagnosis and treatment for gout, he confesses to having experienced three previous episodes. What medical condition is linked to gout?

      Your Answer: Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

      Explanation:

      Gout is commonly associated with Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, an inherited enzyme deficiency also known as ‘juvenile gout’. This condition is also characterized by self-injuring behavior, cognitive impairment, and nervous system impairment. However, juvenile idiopathic arthritis and osteoarthritis, which also cause joint pain and swelling, are not strongly linked to gout. On the other hand, pseudogout is associated with hyperparathyroidism.

      Predisposing Factors for Gout

      Gout is a type of synovitis caused by the accumulation of monosodium urate monohydrate in the synovium. This condition is triggered by chronic hyperuricaemia, which is characterized by uric acid levels exceeding 0.45 mmol/l. There are two main factors that contribute to the development of hyperuricaemia: decreased excretion of uric acid and increased production of uric acid.

      Decreased excretion of uric acid can be caused by various factors, including the use of diuretics, chronic kidney disease, and lead toxicity. On the other hand, increased production of uric acid can be triggered by myeloproliferative/lymphoproliferative disorders, cytotoxic drugs, and severe psoriasis.

      In rare cases, gout can also be caused by genetic disorders such as Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, which is characterized by hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase (HGPRTase) deficiency. This condition is x-linked recessive, which means it is only seen in boys. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is associated with gout, renal failure, neurological deficits, learning difficulties, and self-mutilation.

      It is worth noting that aspirin in low doses (75-150mg) is not believed to have a significant impact on plasma urate levels. Therefore, the British Society for Rheumatology recommends that it should be continued if necessary for cardiovascular prophylaxis.

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      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 28 - You are the physician attending to a 32-year-old expectant mother who is experiencing...

    Correct

    • You are the physician attending to a 32-year-old expectant mother who is experiencing discomfort in her thumb and index finger. She reports paraesthesia in the palmar region of her thumb and index finger, which worsens at night.

      What nerve is likely to be impacted?

      Your Answer: Median

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing pins and needles and pain in the thumb and index finger, which worsens at night. These symptoms are indicative of carpal tunnel syndrome, which occurs when the median nerve is compressed due to increased pressure in the carpal tunnel. The distribution of the patient’s symptoms aligns with the area supplied by the median nerve.

      The inferior lateral cutaneous nerve does not innervate the thumb and index finger, so it cannot explain the patient’s symptoms. Damage to the musculocutaneous nerve would cause weakness in the upper arm flexors and impaired sensation in the lateral forearm, but not in the thumb and index finger.

      The radial nerve is responsible for wrist extension, and damage to it would result in wrist drop and altered sensation in the dorsum of the hand. The ulnar nerve causes clawing of the hand and paraesthesia in the medial two fingers when damaged, which is not consistent with the patient’s symptoms.

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 29 - During a hip examination, Sarah, a 65-year-old female, is found to have a...

    Incorrect

    • During a hip examination, Sarah, a 65-year-old female, is found to have a positive trendelenburg's sign. When she stands on only her left leg, her right pelvis drops.

      Which muscles are affected in Sarah?

      Your Answer: Right gluteus medius and gluteus minimus

      Correct Answer: Left gluteus medius and gluteus minimus

      Explanation:

      The superior gluteal nerve is responsible for innervating the gluteus minimus and gluteus medius muscles. These muscles are involved in the abduction and medial rotation of the lower limb, as well as preventing pelvic drop of the opposing limb. For instance, when standing on only the right leg, the right gluteus minimus and gluteus medius muscles stabilize the pelvis. However, if the right superior gluteal nerve is damaged, the right gluteus minimus and gluteus medius muscles will not receive innervation, resulting in a lack of stability when standing on the right leg and causing the left pelvis to drop. On the other hand, the inferior gluteal nerve innervates the gluteus maximus muscles, which primarily functions as the main extensor of the thigh and also performs lateral rotation.

      The Trendelenburg Test: Assessing Gluteal Nerve Function

      The Trendelenburg test is a diagnostic tool used to assess the function of the superior gluteal nerve. This nerve is responsible for the contraction of the gluteus medius muscle, which is essential for maintaining balance and stability while standing on one leg.

      When the superior gluteal nerve is injured or damaged, the gluteus medius muscle is weakened, resulting in a compensatory shift of the body towards the unaffected side. This shift is characterized by a gravitational shift, which causes the body to be supported on the unaffected limb.

      To perform the Trendelenburg test, the patient is asked to stand on one leg while the physician observes the position of the pelvis. In a healthy individual, the gluteus medius muscle contracts as soon as the contralateral leg leaves the floor, preventing the pelvis from dipping towards the unsupported side. However, in a person with paralysis of the superior gluteal nerve, the pelvis on the unsupported side descends, indicating that the gluteus medius on the affected side is weak or non-functional. This is known as a positive Trendelenburg test.

      It is important to note that the Trendelenburg test is also used in vascular investigations to determine the presence of saphenofemoral incompetence. In this case, tourniquets are placed around the upper thigh to assess blood flow. However, in the context of assessing gluteal nerve function, the Trendelenburg test is a valuable tool for diagnosing and treating motor deficits and gait abnormalities.

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      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 30 - A 47-year-old woman is having a total thyroidectomy for a very large goitre....

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman is having a total thyroidectomy for a very large goitre. The surgical team considers dividing the infrahyoid strap muscles to improve access. Where should the division of these muscles take place?

      Your Answer: At the point of their insertion

      Correct Answer: In their upper half

      Explanation:

      If surgery requires the division of the strap muscles, it is recommended to divide them in their upper half as their nerve supply from the ansa cervicalis enters in their lower half.

      The Anterior Triangle of the Neck: Boundaries and Contents

      The anterior triangle of the neck is a region that is bounded by the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, the lower border of the mandible, and the anterior midline. It is further divided into three sub-triangles by the digastric muscle and the omohyoid muscle. The muscular triangle contains the neck strap muscles, while the carotid triangle contains the carotid sheath, which houses the common carotid artery, the vagus nerve, and the internal jugular vein. The submandibular triangle, located below the digastric muscle, contains the submandibular gland, submandibular nodes, facial vessels, hypoglossal nerve, and other structures.

      The digastric muscle, which separates the submandibular triangle from the muscular triangle, is innervated by two different nerves. The anterior belly of the digastric muscle is supplied by the mylohyoid nerve, while the posterior belly is supplied by the facial nerve.

      Overall, the anterior triangle of the neck is an important anatomical region that contains many vital structures, including blood vessels, nerves, and glands. Understanding the boundaries and contents of this region is essential for medical professionals who work in this area.

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      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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