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Question 1
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic with creamy nipple discharge. She had a mammogram screening a year ago which was normal. She smokes 10 cigarettes per day. Upon examination, there were no alarming findings. A repeat mammogram was conducted and no abnormalities were detected. Although she is concerned about the possibility of a tumor, she is not bothered by the discharge itself. Her serum prolactin level is provided below.
Prolactin 200 mIU/L (<600)
What is the most probable diagnosis and what would be the best initial treatment?Your Answer: Reassurance
Explanation:Duct ectasia does not require any specific treatment. However, lumpectomy may be used to treat breast masses if they meet certain criteria such as being small-sized and peripheral, and taking into account the patient’s preference. Mastectomy may be necessary for malignant breast masses if lumpectomy is not suitable. In young women with duct ectasia, microdochectomy may be performed if the condition is causing discomfort. It is also used to treat intraductal papilloma.
Understanding Duct Ectasia
Duct ectasia is a condition that affects the terminal breast ducts located within 3 cm of the nipple. It is a common condition that becomes more prevalent as women age. The condition is characterized by the dilation and shortening of the ducts, which can cause nipple retraction and creamy nipple discharge. It is important to note that duct ectasia can be mistaken for periductal mastitis, which is more common in younger women who smoke. Periductal mastitis typically presents with infections around the periareolar or subareolar areas and may recur.
When dealing with troublesome nipple discharge, treatment options may include microdochectomy for younger patients or total duct excision for older patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old driver is admitted with a left-sided facial droop, dysphasia and dysarthria. His symptoms slowly improve and he is very keen to get back to work as he is self-employed.
Following a stroke, what is the minimum time that patients are advised not to drive a car for?Your Answer: 6 months
Correct Answer: 4 weeks
Explanation:Driving Restrictions After Stroke or TIA
After experiencing a transient ischaemic attack (TIA) or stroke, it is important to be aware of the driving restrictions set by the DVLA. For at least 4 weeks, patients should not drive a car or motorbike. If the patient drives a lorry or bus, they must not drive for 1 year and must notify the DVLA. After 1 month of satisfactory clinical recovery, drivers of cars may resume driving, but lorry and bus drivers must wait for 1 year before relicensing may be considered. Functional cardiac testing and medical reports may be required. Following stroke or single TIA, a person may not drive a car for 2 weeks, but can resume driving after 1 month if there has been a satisfactory recovery. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure safe driving and prevent further health complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old is brought to the Emergency Department after being found at home on the floor by her daughter. Her daughter tried to rouse her but had no response. She has a laceration to her head and her daughter believes she may have had a fall. You notice she has a sudden decrease in consciousness in the department. You are unable to get the patient to make any vocalisation. When you apply supraorbital pressure, she briefly opens her eyes and withdraws from the pain.
Which one of the following is the best immediate management option for this patient?Your Answer: Urgent CT brain scan
Correct Answer: Insert Guedel airway
Explanation:Management of a Patient with Low Glasgow Coma Scale Score
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in patients. A patient with a GCS score below 8 requires urgent referral to critical care or the anaesthetist on-call for appropriate management. In this case, the patient has a GCS score of 7 (E2, V1, M4) and needs immediate attention.
Airway management is the top priority in patients with a low GCS score. The patient may need invasive ventilation if they lose the capacity to maintain their own airway. Once the airway is secured, a referral to the neurosurgical registrar may be necessary, and investigations such as a CT brain scan should be carried out to determine the cause of the low GCS score.
A neurological observation chart is also needed to detect any deteriorating central nervous system function. A medication review can be done once the patient is stabilised and an intracranial bleed has been ruled out. This will help identify medications that could cause a fall and stop unnecessary medication.
In summary, a patient with a low GCS score requires urgent attention to secure their airway, determine the cause of the low score, and monitor for any neurological deterioration. A medication review can be done once the patient is stable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 4
Correct
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Which hormone is responsible for the excess in Cushing's disease?
Your Answer: Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)
Explanation:Cushing’s Disease
Cushing’s disease is a condition characterized by excessive cortisol production due to adrenal hyperfunction caused by an overproduction of ACTH from a pituitary corticotrophin adenoma. This results in both adrenal glands producing more cortisol and cortisol precursors. It is important to differentiate between primary and secondary hypercortisolaemia, which can be done by measuring ACTH levels in the blood. If ACTH levels are not suppressed, it indicates secondary hypercortisolaemia, which is driven by either pituitary or ectopic ACTH production. the underlying cause of hypercortisolaemia is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan for individuals with Cushing’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old individual is brought to the medical team on call due to fever, neck stiffness, and altered Glasgow coma scale. The medical team suspects acute bacterial meningitis.
What would be the most suitable antibiotic option for this patient?Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Correct Answer: Cefotaxime
Explanation:Empirical Antibiotic Treatment for Acute Bacterial Meningitis
Patients aged 16-50 years presenting with acute bacterial meningitis are most likely infected with Neisseria meningitidis or Streptococcus pneumoniae. The most appropriate empirical antibiotic choice for this age group is cefotaxime alone. However, if the patient has been outside the UK recently or has had multiple courses of antibiotics in the last 3 months, vancomycin may be added due to the increase in penicillin-resistant pneumococci worldwide.
For infants over 3 months old up to adults of 50 years old, cefotaxime is the preferred antibiotic. If the patient is under 3 months or over 50 years old, amoxicillin is added to cover for Listeria monocytogenes meningitis, although this is rare. Ceftriaxone can be used instead of cefotaxime.
Once the results of culture and sensitivity are available, the antibiotic choice can be modified for optimal treatment. Benzylpenicillin is usually first line, but it is not an option in this case. It is important to choose the appropriate antibiotic treatment to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 6
Correct
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You are working in the emergency department when a patient with gross swelling of the tongue and lips following a bee-sting is brought in. The patient is haemodynamically compromised and showing signs of airway compromise, and you diagnose them with anaphylaxis. What is the correct life-saving treatment?
Your Answer: Adrenaline 0.5mg IM
Explanation:Adrenaline Administration for Anaphylaxis: Dosage and Route
Anaphylaxis is a life-threatening condition that requires swift treatment with adrenaline. The recommended initial dose is 0.5mg injected intramuscularly in the upper outer thigh. If symptoms do not improve, additional 0.5mg doses can be given every 5 minutes as needed. It is important to seek senior support, including a specialist in airway management, for further management.
Supplementary treatment with IV hydrocortisone and chlorphenamine can be helpful, but they do not address the airway compromise associated with anaphylaxis. Patients with a history of anaphylaxis should carry an adrenaline auto-injector, such as the EpiPen, although two may be needed for optimal dosing.
Intravenous adrenaline at a dose of 1 mg is reserved for cardiac arrest. The dose of 0.1 mg IV is incorrect for anaphylaxis, and intravenous administration of 0.5mg may cause cardiac tachyarrhythmias and should only be given by a specialist. While a total dose of 1 mg may be needed, the starting dose for IM administration should be 0.5mg, repeated as necessary. Proper administration of adrenaline is crucial in the management of anaphylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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What is the correct information regarding the storage requirements and lifespan of blood products?
Your Answer: Fresh frozen plasma is stored at −30°C for 12 months
Correct Answer: Fresh frozen plasma is stored at −25°C for up to 36 months
Explanation:Storage Guidelines for Blood Products
Blood products such as fresh frozen plasma, red cells, and platelets have specific storage guidelines to ensure their safety and efficacy. Fresh frozen plasma can be stored for up to 36 months at a temperature of −25°C. On the other hand, red cells are stored at a temperature of 4°C for a maximum of 35 days, while platelets are stored at a temperature of 22°C for up to 5 days on a platelet shaker/agitator.
These guidelines are important to follow to maintain the quality of blood products and prevent any adverse reactions in patients who receive them. It is crucial to store blood products at the appropriate temperature and for the recommended duration to ensure their effectiveness when used in transfusions. Healthcare professionals should be aware of these guidelines and ensure that they are followed to provide safe and effective blood transfusions to patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old construction worker comes to you with a puncture wound that got contaminated with rusted metal while working on a construction site. You want to know if he needs protection against tetanus and find out that he received 5 doses of tetanus vaccine in the past, with the last dose being 6 years ago. What is the recommended course of action for tetanus treatment in this case?
Your Answer: Requires both a booster vaccine and immunoglobulin
Correct Answer: No booster vaccine or immunoglobulin required
Explanation:If the patient has received all 5 doses of tetanus vaccine and the last dose was administered less than 10 years ago, they do not need a booster vaccine or immunoglobulins, regardless of the severity of the wound.
In case the last vaccine was administered more than 10 years ago, a booster vaccine would be required for a lower risk wound.
For a high-risk wound or if the vaccination status is unknown, both a booster vaccine and immunoglobulin would be necessary.
Currently, there is no need for two consecutive booster vaccines.
Tetanus Vaccination and Management of Wounds
The tetanus vaccine is a purified toxin that is given as part of a combined vaccine. In the UK, it is given as part of the routine immunisation schedule at 2, 3, and 4 months, 3-5 years, and 13-18 years, providing a total of 5 doses for long-term protection against tetanus.
When managing wounds, the first step is to classify them as clean, tetanus-prone, or high-risk tetanus-prone. Clean wounds are less than 6 hours old and have negligible tissue damage, while tetanus-prone wounds include puncture-type injuries acquired in a contaminated environment or wounds containing foreign bodies. High-risk tetanus-prone wounds include wounds or burns with systemic sepsis, certain animal bites and scratches, heavy contamination with material likely to contain tetanus spores, wounds or burns with extensive devitalised tissue, and wounds or burns that require surgical intervention.
If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose less than 10 years ago, no vaccine or tetanus immunoglobulin is required regardless of the wound severity. If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose more than 10 years ago, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required for tetanus-prone wounds, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for high-risk wounds. If the vaccination history is incomplete or unknown, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required regardless of the wound severity, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for tetanus-prone and high-risk wounds.
Overall, proper vaccination and wound management are crucial in preventing tetanus infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman is currently admitted to orthopaedics after breaking her femur in a road traffic accident. Two days later, she develops a fever of 38.3ºC and becomes breathless. She is also confused and has retinal haemorrhages on fundoscopy. After conducting an A-E assessment and ruling out any rashes, a chest X-ray is performed and comes back normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Osteomyelitis
Correct Answer: Fat embolism
Explanation:Understanding Fat Embolism: Diagnosis, Clinical Features, and Treatment
Fat embolism is a medical condition that occurs when fat globules enter the bloodstream and obstruct blood vessels. This condition is commonly seen in patients with long bone fractures, particularly in the femur and tibia. The diagnosis of fat embolism is based on clinical features, including respiratory symptoms such as tachypnea, dyspnea, and hypoxia, as well as dermatological symptoms such as a red or brown petechial rash. CNS symptoms such as confusion and agitation may also be present. Imaging may not always show vascular occlusion, but a ground glass appearance may be seen at the periphery.
Prompt fixation of long bone fractures is crucial in the treatment of fat embolism. However, there is some debate regarding the benefit versus risk of medullary reaming in femoral shaft or tibial fractures in terms of increasing the risk of fat embolism. DVT prophylaxis and general supportive care are also important in the management of this condition. While fat embolism can be a serious and potentially life-threatening condition, prompt diagnosis and treatment can improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man has been referred for investigation of Peutz-Jegher syndrome due to his family history. His grandmother passed away at the age of 30 from colonic carcinoma associated with the syndrome. What is the most probable mode of inheritance for Peutz-Jegher syndrome?
Your Answer: Autosomal recessive
Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant
Explanation:Peutz-Jegher Syndrome: A Genetic Disorder with Pigmentation and Bowel Abnormalities
Peutz-Jegher syndrome is a genetic disorder that is characterized by the presence of perioral pigmentation and multiple hamartomas in the bowel. Initially, it was believed that these hamartomas did not increase the risk of developing cancer. However, recent studies have shown that individuals with Peutz-Jegher syndrome are at an increased risk of developing various types of cancer, including breast, colon, and pancreatic cancer. This condition is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, which means that a person only needs to inherit one copy of the mutated gene from one parent to develop the disorder. Regular screening and surveillance are recommended for individuals with Peutz-Jegher syndrome to detect any potential cancerous growths early on.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 11
Correct
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A 65-year-old male is scheduled for a routine appendectomy due to recurrent appendicitis. He has a history of hypertension but is otherwise healthy. As part of his pre-operative evaluation, what is his ASA classification?
Your Answer: Type III
Explanation:Knowing a patient’s ASA score is crucial for assessing their risk during surgery, both in written and clinical exams. Patients with end stage renal disease who receive regular dialysis are classified as ASA III, indicating a severe systemic disease.
The American Society of Anaesthesiologists (ASA) classification is a system used to categorize patients based on their overall health status and the potential risks associated with administering anesthesia. There are six different classifications, ranging from ASA I (a normal healthy patient) to ASA VI (a declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes).
ASA II patients have mild systemic disease, but without any significant functional limitations. Examples of mild diseases include current smoking, social alcohol drinking, pregnancy, obesity, and well-controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension. ASA III patients have severe systemic disease and substantive functional limitations, with one or more moderate to severe diseases. Examples include poorly controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension, COPD, morbid obesity, active hepatitis, alcohol dependence or abuse, implanted pacemaker, moderate reduction of ejection fraction, End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis, history of myocardial infarction, and cerebrovascular accidents.
ASA IV patients have severe systemic disease that poses a constant threat to life, such as recent myocardial infarction or cerebrovascular accidents, ongoing cardiac ischemia or severe valve dysfunction, severe reduction of ejection fraction, sepsis, DIC, ARD, or ESRD not undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis. ASA V patients are moribund and not expected to survive without the operation, such as ruptured abdominal or thoracic aneurysm, massive trauma, intracranial bleed with mass effect, ischaemic bowel in the face of significant cardiac pathology, or multiple organ/system dysfunction. Finally, ASA VI patients are declared brain-dead and their organs are being removed for donor purposes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 12
Correct
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A 24-year-old primigravida is brought to the Emergency Department by her husband at 33 weeks of gestation after experiencing a generalised tonic–clonic seizure. Examination reveals blood pressure of 160/90 mmHg, temperature of 37 °C and 2+ pitting oedema in the lower extremities. She appears lethargic but responds to simple commands. What is the definitive treatment for this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Immediate delivery
Explanation:Eclampsia: Symptoms and Treatment
Eclampsia is a serious medical condition that can occur during pregnancy, characterized by pre-eclampsia and seizure activity. Symptoms may include hypertension, proteinuria, mental status changes, and blurred vision. Immediate delivery is the only definitive treatment for eclampsia, but magnesium can be given to reduce the risk of seizures in women with severe pre-eclampsia who are delivering within 24 hours. Eclampsia is more common in younger women with their first pregnancy and those with underlying vascular disorders. Hydralazine can be used to manage hypertension in pregnant women, but it is not the definitive treatment for eclampsia. Conservative management, such as salt and water restriction, bed rest, and close monitoring of blood pressure, is not appropriate for patients with eclampsia and associated seizure and mental state changes. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated during pregnancy, and labetalol is the first-line antihypertensive in pregnancy. Diazepam and magnesium sulfate can reduce seizures in eclampsia, but they are not the definitive treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 13
Correct
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A parent brings her 5-year-old son into surgery as she suspects he may have head lice. Which of the following statements about head lice is false?
Your Answer: Children should be excluded from school until treatment has been started
Explanation:It is not recommended to exclude children from school due to head lice.
Understanding Head Lice
Head lice, also known as pediculosis capitis or ‘nits’, is a common condition in children caused by a parasitic insect called Pediculus capitis. These small insects live only on humans and feed on our blood. The eggs are glued to the hair close to the scalp and hatch in 7 to 10 days. Nits are the empty egg shells and are found further along the hair shaft as they grow out.
Head lice are spread by direct head-to-head contact and tend to be more common in children who play closely together. They cannot jump, fly, or swim. When newly infected, cases have no symptoms, but itching and scratching on the scalp occur 2 to 3 weeks after infection. There is no incubation period.
To diagnose head lice, fine-toothed combing of wet or dry hair is necessary. Treatment is only indicated if living lice are found. A choice of treatments should be offered, including malathion, wet combing, dimeticone, isopropyl myristate, and cyclomethicone. Household contacts of patients with head lice do not need to be treated unless they are also affected. School exclusion is not advised for children with head lice.
Understanding head lice is important to prevent its spread and manage the condition effectively. By knowing the symptoms, diagnosis, and management, we can take necessary precautions and seek appropriate treatment when needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 14
Correct
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A nursing student faints in the dissection room, falling straight backwards and hitting her head hard on the floor. She admits that she had no breakfast prior to attending dissection, and a well-meaning technician gives her a piece of chocolate. She complains that the chocolate tastes funny and vomits afterwards. Formal neurological assessment reveals anosmia, and computerised tomography (CT) of the head and neck reveals an anterior base of skull fracture affecting the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone.
What is the level of interruption to the olfactory pathway likely to be in a nursing student?Your Answer: The first-order sensory neurones
Explanation:The Olfactory Pathway: Neuronal Path and Potential Disruptions
The olfactory pathway is responsible for our sense of smell and is composed of several neuronal structures. The first-order sensory neurones begin at the olfactory receptors in the nasal cavity and pass through the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone to synapse with second-order neurones at the olfactory bulb. A fracture of the cribriform plate can disrupt these first-order neurones, leading to anosmia and a loss of taste sensation. However, the olfactory bulb is supported and protected by the ethmoid bone, making it less likely to be affected by the fracture. The second-order neurones arise in the olfactory bulb and form the olfactory tract, which divides into medial and lateral branches. The lateral branch terminates in the piriform cortex of the frontal lobe, which is further from the ethmoid bone and less likely to be disrupted. Understanding the neuronal path of the olfactory pathway can help identify potential disruptions and their effects on our sense of smell and taste.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 15
Correct
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A 63-year-old, non-smoking woman without previous cardiac history, has a total cholesterol of 9.0 mmol/l. She is overweight and has sleep apnoea. On examination you notice her skin is particularly dry and there appears to be some evidence of hair loss. Her blood pressure is 140/95 mmHg and pulse rate 60 bpm.
What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Check her thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free thyroxine (T4) level
Explanation:Diagnostic and Treatment Options for a Patient with High Cholesterol
When a patient presents with symptoms such as dry skin, hair loss, obesity, sleep apnea, hypertension, and slow pulse, it is important to consider hypothyroidism as a possible cause. To confirm this diagnosis, checking the patient’s thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free thyroxine (T4) levels is recommended. Hypothyroidism can also cause dyslipidemia, which may be the underlying cause of the patient’s high cholesterol levels. Therefore, treating the hypothyroidism should be the initial step, and if cholesterol levels remain high, prescribing a statin may be appropriate.
It is also important to consider the possibility of familial hypercholesterolemia, especially if the patient’s cholesterol levels are very high (≥8 mmol/l). In this case, screening family members for raised cholesterol may be necessary if cholesterol levels do not decrease with l-thyroxine treatment.
While diabetes can increase the risk of thyroid disorders, checking the patient’s fasting blood glucose level may not be necessary initially. Additionally, measuring 24-hour urinary free cortisol is not recommended as the patient’s symptoms do not suggest Cushing syndrome as the diagnosis.
In summary, considering hypothyroidism as a possible cause of high cholesterol levels and checking TSH and T4 levels should be the initial step in diagnosis. Treating the underlying cause and prescribing a statin if necessary can help manage the patient’s cholesterol levels. Screening family members for familial hypercholesterolemia may also be necessary.
Diagnostic and Treatment Options for High Cholesterol in Patients with Suspected Hypothyroidism
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old moderately obese man is brought to the Emergency Department with complaints of severe chest pain and shortness of breath. Upon physical examination, a pericardial tamponade is suspected and confirmed by an electrocardiogram (ECG) showing total electrical alternans and an echocardiogram revealing pericardial effusion. Which jugular vein is typically the most reliable indicator of central venous pressure (CVP)?
Your Answer: Right anterior
Correct Answer: Right internal
Explanation:The Best Vein for Measuring Central Venous Pressure
Pericardial tamponade can lead to compression of the heart by the pericardium, resulting in decreased intracardiac diastolic pressure and reduced blood flow to the right atrium. This can cause distension of the jugular veins, making the right internal jugular vein the best vein for measuring central venous pressure (CVP). Unlike the right external vein, which joins the right internal vein at an oblique angle, the right internal vein has a straight continuation with the right brachiocephalic vein and the superior vena cava, making CVP measurement more accurate. On the other hand, the left internal jugular vein makes an oblique union with the left brachiocephalic vein and the external jugular veins, making it a less reliable indicator of CVP. Similarly, the left external vein also joins the left internal vein at an oblique angle, making CVP reading less reliable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old married shop assistant presents to the Emergency Department with a presumed seizure, where her hands and feet shook and she bit her tongue. This is the second such event in the past 6 months and she was due to see a neurologist in a month’s time. Computed tomography (CT) brain was normal. Electroencephalogram (EEG) was normal, albeit not performed during the ‘seizure’ activity. Her doctor believes she has epilepsy and is keen to commence anticonvulsive therapy. She is sexually active and uses only condoms for protection.
Which one of the following drugs would be most suitable for this particular patient?Your Answer: Sodium valproate
Correct Answer: Lamotrigine
Explanation:Antiepileptic Medications and Pregnancy: Considerations for Women of Childbearing Age
When it comes to treating epilepsy in women of childbearing age, there are important considerations to keep in mind. Lamotrigine is a good choice for monotherapy, but it can worsen myoclonic seizures. Levetiracetam is preferred for myoclonic seizures, while carbamazepine has an increased risk of birth defects. Sodium valproate is the first-line agent for adults with generalized epilepsy, but it has been linked to neural tube defects in babies. Phenytoin is no longer used as a first-line treatment, but may be used in emergency situations. Clinicians should be aware of these risks and consult resources like the UK Epilepsy and Pregnancy Registry to make informed decisions about treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 38-year-old man weighing 100 kg was pulled from a house fire. He was intubated by the HEMS team at the scene for airway compromise (nasal soot, singed facial hair and a change in voice). He has sustained full-thickness burns to his face, anterior torso and full legs. The specialist registrar (SPR) has asked you to calculate this man’s fluids requirements for the first 24 hours.
Which of the following is the correct volume to the nearest litre?Your Answer: 27 litres
Explanation:Understanding the Parkland Formula for Fluid Resuscitation in Burns Patients
The Parkland formula is a widely used method for estimating the amount of fluid required for a burns patient in the first 24 hours. This formula takes into account the patient’s weight and the percentage of their body that has been burned, which is determined using the Wallace Rule of Nines.
Once the percentage of burn has been calculated, the fluid volume needed is determined by multiplying the weight of the patient in kilograms by four and then multiplying that by the percentage of burn. For example, a patient who weighs 100 kg and has a 67% burn would require 26,800 ml or 27 litres of fluid in the first 24 hours.
It is important to note that half of the fluid is given over the first 8 hours, with the remaining half given over the next 16 hours. Additionally, the fluid should be warmed and urine output should be carefully monitored to ensure that the patient is receiving adequate hydration.
In conclusion, understanding the Parkland formula is crucial for healthcare professionals who are treating burns patients. By accurately calculating the amount of fluid needed, healthcare providers can help prevent complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Plastics
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Question 19
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman comes in for her 6-week postpartum check-up. She did not breastfeed and had a normal delivery. She wants to begin using contraception but is worried about any potential delay in her ability to conceive again within the next 1-2 years. What factor is most likely to cause a delay in her return to normal fertility?
Your Answer: Progesterone only injectable contraception
Explanation:Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera
Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.
However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.
It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 20
Correct
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A 45-year-old man with a history of alcohol abuse is admitted to the hospital with alcohol intoxication. During his admission, it was noted that he has mild hypomagnesemia. The hospital's protocol suggests oral magnesium replacement for patients with mild hypomagnesemia. What is the typical adverse effect of using this type of replacement therapy?
Your Answer: Diarrhoea
Explanation:Magnesium salts are known to cause diarrhoea, which is a major side effect that limits the dosage. ACE inhibitors like ramipril can cause angioedema, which is rapid swelling of the skin or mucosa, typically affecting the face and throat. Constipation is a possible side effect of certain medications, including anticholinergics, opiates, and iron tablets. Beta-blockers like bisoprolol can lead to erectile dysfunction. The primary cause of oedema induced by calcium channel blockers is the increased capillary hydrostatic pressure resulting from greater dilation of precapillary vessels compared to post-capillary vessels.
Understanding Hypomagnesaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Hypomagnesaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of magnesium in the blood. There are several causes of this condition, including the use of certain drugs such as diuretics and proton pump inhibitors, total parenteral nutrition, and chronic or acute diarrhoea. Alcohol consumption, hypokalaemia, hypercalcaemia, and metabolic disorders like Gitelman’s and Bartter’s can also lead to hypomagnesaemia. The symptoms of this condition may be similar to those of hypocalcaemia, including paraesthesia, tetany, seizures, and arrhythmias.
When the magnesium level drops below 0.4 mmol/L or when there are symptoms of tetany, arrhythmias, or seizures, intravenous magnesium replacement is commonly given. An example regime would be 40 mmol of magnesium sulphate over 24 hours. For magnesium levels above 0.4 mmol/L, oral magnesium salts are prescribed in divided doses of 10-20 mmol per day. However, diarrhoea can occur with oral magnesium salts. It is important to note that hypomagnesaemia can exacerbate digoxin toxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old Romanian smoker presents with a 3-month history of cough productive of blood-tinged sputum, fever, night sweats and weight loss. At presentation he is haemodynamically stable, has a fever of 37.7°C and appears cachectic. On examination, there are coarse crepitations in the right upper zone of lung. Chest radiograph reveals patchy, non-specific increased upper zone interstitial markings bilaterally together with a well-defined round opacity with a central lucency in the right upper zone and bilateral enlarged hila.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Klebsiella pneumonia
Correct Answer: Tuberculosis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Subacute Presentation of Pulmonary Symptoms
Tuberculosis is a growing concern, particularly in Eastern European countries where multi-drug resistant strains are on the rise. The initial infection can occur anywhere in the body, but often affects the lung apices and forms a scarred granuloma. Latent bacteria can cause reinfection years later, leading to post-primary TB. Diagnosis is based on identifying acid-fast bacilli in sputum. Treatment involves a 6-month regimen of antibiotics. Staphylococcal and Klebsiella pneumonia can also present with pneumonia symptoms and cavitating lesions, but patients would be expected to be very ill with signs of sepsis. Squamous cell bronchial carcinoma is a possibility but less likely in this case. Primary pulmonary lymphoma is rare and typically occurs in HIV positive individuals, with atypical presentation and radiographic findings. Contact screening is essential for TB.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 22
Correct
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A 14-year-old boy is suspected of suffering from insulin-dependent diabetes. He undergoes a glucose tolerance test following an overnight fast.
Which of the following results would most likely confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer: A peak of plasma glucose occurring between 1 and 2 h that stays high
Explanation:Interpreting Glucose Levels in Insulin-Dependent Diabetes
Insulin-dependent diabetes is a condition that affects the body’s ability to regulate glucose levels. When interpreting glucose levels in insulin-dependent diabetes, there are several key factors to consider.
One important factor is the peak of plasma glucose that occurs between 1 and 2 hours after glucose ingestion. In normal individuals, this peak is typically sharper and occurs earlier than in insulin-dependent diabetics. In diabetics, the plasma glucose remains elevated throughout the 4-hour test period.
Another factor to consider is the presence or absence of an overshoot in the decline of plasma glucose at 3.5 hours. This overshoot, which is seen in normal individuals but not in diabetics, is a result of a pulse of insulin secretion.
A plasma glucose level of 4 mmol/l at zero time is unlikely in a diabetic patient, as they typically have high basal glucose levels. Similarly, a glucose concentration of 5.2 mmol/l at 4 hours is not expected in insulin-dependent diabetics, as their plasma glucose levels remain elevated throughout the test period.
Finally, it is important to consider the HbA1c level, which reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months. In a diabetic patient who has been untreated for several weeks, the HbA1c would likely be elevated.
Overall, interpreting glucose levels in insulin-dependent diabetes requires careful consideration of multiple factors to accurately assess the patient’s condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 35-year-old homeless man with known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of headache, neck stiffness, and photophobia for the past 3 weeks. He is unsure if he has had fevers but has experienced chills. He has a history of intravenous drug abuse and hepatitis C. On examination, he appears uncomfortable and avoids light. A lumbar puncture is performed, and India ink highlights several round, thickly encapsulated organisms in his cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
What is the expected CSF finding pattern in this case?Your Answer: Opening pressure: increased; lymphocyte-predominant; protein: increased; glucose: normal/decreased
Explanation:CSF Profiles in Meningitis: Characteristics and Causes
Meningitis is a serious condition that affects the protective membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis is an important diagnostic tool for identifying the cause of meningitis. Here are some common CSF profiles seen in meningitis and their corresponding causes:
1. Cryptococcus meningitis: Increased opening pressure, lymphocyte-predominant, increased protein, normal/decreased glucose. This is a fungal meningitis commonly seen in immunocompromised individuals.
2. Non-specific meningitis: Normal opening pressure, neutrophil-predominant, decreased protein, increased glucose. This CSF profile is not characteristic of any particular cause of meningitis.
3. Aseptic meningitis: Normal opening pressure, normal cells, normal protein, normal glucose. This is a viral meningitis that typically has a milder presentation than bacterial meningitis.
4. Viral meningitis: Normal opening pressure, lymphocyte-predominant, normal protein, normal glucose. This is a common cause of meningitis and is usually self-limiting.
5. Bacterial meningitis: Increased opening pressure, neutrophil-predominant, increased protein, decreased glucose. This is a medical emergency that requires prompt treatment with antibiotics.
In summary, CSF analysis is an important tool for diagnosing meningitis and identifying its underlying cause. Understanding the characteristic CSF profiles of different types of meningitis can help guide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old patient presents to you seeking advice on hormonal contraception. She reports occasional condom use and has no regular partners. Her last menstrual period was two weeks ago. She has a history of menorrhagia and mild cerebral palsy affecting her lower limbs, which requires her to use a wheelchair for mobility. She is going on vacation in two days and wants a contraceptive that will start working immediately. She prefers not to have an intrauterine method of contraception. What is the most appropriate contraceptive option for her?
Your Answer: Intrauterine system (hormonal coil)
Correct Answer: Progesterone-only pill
Explanation:The patient needs a fast-acting contraceptive method. The intrauterine device (IUD) is the quickest, but it’s not recommended due to the patient’s history of menorrhagia. The patient also prefers not to have intrauterine contraception, making the IUS and IUD less suitable. The next fastest option is the progesterone-only pill (POP), which becomes effective within 2 days if started mid-cycle. Therefore, the POP is the best choice for this patient. The combined oral contraceptive pill (COC) is not recommended due to the patient’s wheelchair use, and the IUS, contraceptive injection, and implant all take 7 days to become effective.
Counselling for Women Considering the progesterone-Only Pill
Women who are considering taking the progesterone-only pill (POP) should receive counselling on various aspects of the medication. One of the most common potential adverse effects is irregular vaginal bleeding. When starting the POP, immediate protection is provided if it is commenced up to and including day 5 of the cycle. If it is started later, additional contraceptive methods such as condoms should be used for the first 2 days. If switching from a combined oral contraceptive (COC), immediate protection is provided if the POP is continued directly from the end of a pill packet.
It is important to take the POP at the same time every day, without a pill-free break, unlike the COC. If a pill is missed by less than 3 hours, it should be taken as normal. If it is missed by more than 3 hours, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible, and extra precautions such as condoms should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours. Diarrhoea and vomiting do not affect the POP, but assuming pills have been missed and following the above guidelines is recommended. Antibiotics have no effect on the POP, unless they alter the P450 enzyme system, such as rifampicin. Liver enzyme inducers may reduce the effectiveness of the POP.
In addition to these specific guidelines, women should also have a discussion on sexually transmitted infections (STIs) when considering the POP. It is important for women to receive comprehensive counselling on the POP to ensure they are aware of its potential effects and how to use it effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of fever and pain in his perineum and scrotum. He has been experiencing dysuria and urinary frequency for the past three days. Upon examination, he appears stable and does not show any signs of sepsis. The digital rectal examination reveals a tender, boggy prostate. The patient is given appropriate treatment and discharged.
A week later, the patient visits his GP. He has been symptom-free for two days but is concerned about his risk of developing prostate cancer, especially since his father had it. He requests a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test to ensure that he is cancer-free. The patient does not exercise regularly, has not had a digital rectal examination since his hospital visit, and ejaculated 24 hours ago. What should the GP do in this situation?Your Answer: Explain risks and benefits, perform a digital rectal examination then measure his PSA
Correct Answer: Explain risks and benefits, wait for a month then measure his PSA
Explanation:PSA measurement should be postponed for a month after prostatitis. It is crucial to be aware of the factors that can affect PSA levels, such as vigorous exercise, ejaculation, and digital rectal examination, which can all increase PSA levels. Therefore, measurement should be delayed for at least 48 hours after any of these activities. The clinical description at the beginning indicates acute prostatitis, which elevates PSA levels. As a result, PSA measurement should be postponed for at least a month after prostatitis. It is also important to note that while there is no national screening program for prostate cancer, it is still acceptable and common to measure PSA levels when a patient requests it. However, patients should be informed about the risk of false positives and negatives and the potential consequences before doing so.
Understanding PSA Testing for Prostate Cancer
Prostate specific antigen (PSA) is an enzyme produced by the prostate gland, and it has become an important marker for prostate cancer. However, there is still much debate about its usefulness as a screening tool. The NHS Prostate Cancer Risk Management Programme (PCRMP) has published guidelines on how to handle requests for PSA testing in asymptomatic men. The National Screening Committee has decided not to introduce a prostate cancer screening programme yet, but rather allow men to make an informed choice.
Age-adjusted upper limits for PSA have been recommended by the PCRMP, with levels varying depending on age. PSA levels may also be raised by other factors such as benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), prostatitis, urinary tract infection, ejaculation, vigorous exercise, urinary retention, and instrumentation of the urinary tract. However, PSA testing has poor specificity and sensitivity, with around 33% of men with a PSA of 4-10 ng/ml found to have prostate cancer, and around 20% of men with prostate cancer having a normal PSA.
Various methods are used to try and add greater meaning to a PSA level, including age-adjusted upper limits and monitoring changes in PSA level over time. However, the debate continues about the usefulness of PSA testing as a screening tool for prostate cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man, who had surgery for a bowel tumour 4 days ago, is now experiencing shortness of breath.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Surgical emphysema
Correct Answer: Pulmonary embolism
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of breathlessness after major surgery
Breathlessness is a common symptom after major surgery, and its differential diagnosis includes several potentially serious conditions. Among them, pulmonary embolism is a frequent and life-threatening complication that can be prevented with appropriate measures. These include the use of thromboembolic deterrent stockings, pneumatic calf compression, and low-molecular-weight heparin at prophylactic doses. Other risk factors for pulmonary embolism in this setting include recent surgery, immobility, and active malignancy. Computed tomography pulmonary angiogram is the preferred test to confirm a clinical suspicion of pulmonary embolism.
Acute bronchitis is another possible cause of post-operative chest infections, but in this case, the history suggests a higher likelihood of pulmonary embolism, which should be investigated promptly. A massive pulmonary embolism is the most common preventable cause of death in hospitalized, bed-bound patients.
Myocardial infarction is less likely to present with breathlessness as the main symptom, as chest pain is more typical. Pulmonary edema can also cause breathlessness, but in this case, the risk factors for pulmonary embolism make it a more plausible diagnosis.
Surgical emphysema, which is the accumulation of air in the subcutaneous tissues, is an unlikely diagnosis in this case, as it usually results from penetrating trauma and does not typically cause breathlessness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 27
Correct
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A 30-year-old single mother comes to you with a breast lump. She is concerned because her mother passed away from breast cancer at the age of 50. Upon examination, she appears healthy and the lump is smooth, about 2 cm in size, easily movable, and not attached to the skin or underlying muscle. You cannot feel any masses in the axilla. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Fibroadenoma
Explanation:Fibroadenoma is a benign tumor commonly found in the female breast, usually occurring during the reproductive period of life and peaking at 20-24 years of age. They are often multiple and can affect both breasts. Fibroadenomas develop in breast lobules and consist of fibrous and epithelial tissue. The epithelium of the fibroadenoma is sensitive to hormones and may slightly increase in size during the late phase of each menstrual cycle. During pregnancy, lactational changes or inflammation may cause an increase in size, leading to a fibroadenoma that mimics carcinoma. However, regression typically occurs after menopause.
Fat necrosis can present as a painless, palpable mass with surrounding skin changes or as hyperdensity or calcifications on mammograms. It is more common in larger, fatty breasts in obese women and often occurs after trauma or surgery. It is a self-limiting condition and requires no further treatment once diagnosed.
Fibrocystic change is a hormonal condition that affects women aged 20-50, causing nodularity and varying degrees of pain and tenderness in the breast. Symptoms are most severe about a week before menstruation and decrease when it starts. Treatment involves analgesia and a well-fitting bra.
Carcinoma in situ is less likely in younger women, as breast cancer typically presents with irregular contours, skin changes, nipple discharge, and a family history of breast cancer or genetic mutations. However, any breast lump should undergo full triple assessment, including history and examination, imaging, and histological examination.
Breast cysts are common in perimenopausal women aged 35-50 and often present as tender lumps. They cannot be reliably distinguished from solid tumors on clinical examination and may regress spontaneously or after aspiration. If the lump persists or the aspirate is blood stained, referral for triple assessment is recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Breast
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A radiologist examines the ankle and foot X-rays of an elderly man with a suspected ankle fracture. A fracture of the talus is noted, with the fracture line interrupting the subtalar joint.
With which of the following bones does the talus articulate at the subtalar joint?Your Answer: Tibia
Correct Answer: Calcaneus
Explanation:Articulations of the Talus Bone in the Foot
The talus bone is a key component of the foot, connecting to several other bones through various joints. Here are the articulations of the talus bone in the foot:
Subtalar Joint with Calcaneus
The subtalar joint connects the talus bone to the calcaneus bone. This joint allows for inversion and eversion of the foot.Talocalcaneonavicular Joint with Calcaneus and Navicular
The talocalcaneonavicular joint is a ball-and-socket joint that connects the talus bone to the calcaneus and navicular bones. The plantar calcaneonavicular ligament completes this joint, connecting the sustentaculum tali of the calcaneus to the plantar surface of the navicular bone.Medial Malleoli of Tibia
The talus bone also articulates with the medial malleoli of the tibia bone. This joint allows for dorsiflexion and plantarflexion of the foot.Lateral Malleoli of Fibula
The lateral malleoli of the fibula bone also articulate with the talus bone. This joint allows for lateral stability of the ankle.No Direct Articulation with Lateral Cuneiform
The talus bone does not directly articulate with the lateral cuneiform bone. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 29
Correct
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A 70-year-old man with a history of chronic cardiac failure with reduced ventricular systolic function presents with recent onset of increasing breathlessness, and worsening peripheral oedema and lethargy. He is currently taking ramipril and bisoprolol alongside occasional paracetamol.
What is the most appropriate long-term management?Your Answer: Addition of spironolactone
Explanation:For the management of heart failure, first line options include ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and aldosterone antagonists. In this case, the patient was already on a beta-blocker and an ACE inhibitor which had been effective. The addition of an aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone would be the best option as it prevents fluid retention and reduces pressure on the heart. Ivabradine is a specialist intervention that should only be considered after trying all other recommended options. Addition of furosemide would only provide symptomatic relief. Insertion of an implantable cardiac defibrillator device is a late-stage intervention. Encouraging regular exercise and a healthy diet is important but does not directly address the patient’s clinical deterioration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman is scheduled for surgery to remove her appendix. She has a history of asthma since the age of 16 and is currently taking a high dose inhaled corticosteroid and theophylline. Despite this, she experiences breathlessness and uses her reliever several times a week. She has been to the emergency department twice in the past year due to asthma attacks. Her most recent peak flow measurement was 70%. She does not smoke or drink alcohol.
As a medical assistant, you are asked by the anesthesiologist to determine the ASA grade for this patient.Your Answer: 2
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:The American Society of Anaesthesiologists (ASA) classification is a system used to categorize patients based on their overall health status and the potential risks associated with administering anesthesia. There are six different classifications, ranging from ASA I (a normal healthy patient) to ASA VI (a declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes).
ASA II patients have mild systemic disease, but without any significant functional limitations. Examples of mild diseases include current smoking, social alcohol drinking, pregnancy, obesity, and well-controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension. ASA III patients have severe systemic disease and substantive functional limitations, with one or more moderate to severe diseases. Examples include poorly controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension, COPD, morbid obesity, active hepatitis, alcohol dependence or abuse, implanted pacemaker, moderate reduction of ejection fraction, End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis, history of myocardial infarction, and cerebrovascular accidents.
ASA IV patients have severe systemic disease that poses a constant threat to life, such as recent myocardial infarction or cerebrovascular accidents, ongoing cardiac ischemia or severe valve dysfunction, severe reduction of ejection fraction, sepsis, DIC, ARD, or ESRD not undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis. ASA V patients are moribund and not expected to survive without the operation, such as ruptured abdominal or thoracic aneurysm, massive trauma, intracranial bleed with mass effect, ischaemic bowel in the face of significant cardiac pathology, or multiple organ/system dysfunction. Finally, ASA VI patients are declared brain-dead and their organs are being removed for donor purposes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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