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Question 1
Correct
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A 25-year-old trans woman visits her primary care physician after experiencing a sexual assault by a coworker at her workplace two weeks ago. She has been suffering from persistent flashbacks, nightmares, and dissociation since the incident, which has affected her sleep and caused her to take a two-week leave from work. What would be the optimal initial treatment for her likely diagnosis, if it were readily accessible?
Your Answer: Trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy
Explanation:For individuals experiencing distressing symptoms following a traumatic event, such as the woman in this scenario, trauma-focused cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) should be the first-line treatment for acute stress disorders. This type of therapy involves a highly trained therapist exploring the thoughts surrounding the traumatic event and linking them to behaviours or symptoms that may be developing as a result. The goal is to give control back to the individual over their thoughts and behaviours.
Counselling is not appropriate for acute stress disorders, as it involves a counsellor listening and empathising with the individual, but taking less control over the conversation than a therapist would. Counselling may even be harmful, as it may exacerbate negative thoughts by exploring the trauma in an uncontrolled way.
Eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing therapy is not appropriate for acute stress disorders, as it is the first-line treatment for post-traumatic stress disorder, which cannot be diagnosed until 4 weeks after the event. This type of therapy involves reprocessing thoughts of the trauma with the goal of eventually letting them go.
Interpersonal therapy is not appropriate for acute stress disorders, as it is intended to address longer-term, deep-rooted thoughts related to relationships with others.
Mindfulness-based cognitive therapy is not appropriate for acute stress disorders, as there is no evidence that mindfulness alone is enough to deal with severe reactions to trauma.
Acute stress disorder is a condition that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. It is characterized by symptoms such as intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. These symptoms can include flashbacks, nightmares, feeling disconnected from reality, and being hypervigilant.
To manage acute stress disorder, trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is typically the first-line treatment. This type of therapy helps individuals process their traumatic experiences and develop coping strategies. In some cases, benzodiazepines may be used to alleviate acute symptoms such as agitation and sleep disturbance. However, caution must be taken when using these medications due to their addictive potential and potential negative impact on adaptation. Overall, early intervention and appropriate treatment can help individuals recover from acute stress disorder and prevent the development of more chronic conditions such as PTSD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 2
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman comes in seeking advice on contraception. She has recently entered a new relationship and has been using barrier methods of contraception, but would like to explore other options for convenience. Her periods have become irregular over the past year, but she is otherwise healthy with a history of mild hypertension that is managed with ramipril. She does not drink but is a smoker, consuming around 20 cigarettes per day. What would be the most suitable form of contraception for this patient?
Your Answer: Progesterone-only pill (POP)
Explanation:The progesterone-only pill (POP) is a suitable contraceptive option for this patient, especially since she is over 35 years old and a smoker. Other options to consider include the copper intrauterine device (IUD), the levonorgestrel IUS, and sterilization. Natural family planning may not be effective due to the patient’s irregular periods, which could be a sign of approaching menopause. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is not a contraceptive and therefore not recommended. Even though the patient is approaching menopause, she is still having periods, so contraception is still necessary. The combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is not advisable due to the patient’s age and smoking status, but the POP or implant could be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 3
Correct
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What is the dermatological condition that is linked to neurofibromatosis type 1?
Your Answer: Café au lait spots
Explanation:Neurofibromatosis Type 1 and Type 2
Neurofibromatosis is a genetic disorder that affects the 17th chromosome and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. There are two types of neurofibromatosis: type 1 and type 2. Type 1 is also known as von Recklinghausen’s disease and is characterized by flat, light-brown skin lesions called café au lait spots, axillary freckling, small purple-colored lesions called dermal neurofibromas, nodular neurofibromas that can cause paraesthesia when compressed, and Lisch nodules on the iris. Complications of type 1 neurofibromatosis include nerve compression, phaeochromocytoma, mild learning disability, and epilepsy.
Type 2 neurofibromatosis is much rarer than type 1 and also demonstrates autosomal dominant inheritance. In addition to café au lait spots, individuals with type 2 may also develop vestibular schwannomas (acoustic neuromas) and premature cataracts. It is important to note that while both types of neurofibromatosis share some similarities, they also have distinct differences in their clinical presentation and associated complications. these differences can aid in accurate diagnosis and management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents to a spirometry clinic with a history of progressive dyspnea on exertion over the past six months, particularly when hurrying or walking uphill. What spirometry result would indicate a possible diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease in this patient?
Your Answer: FEV1: > 80% predicted, FEV1/FVC ratio: > 0.70
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Interpreting Spirometry Results: Understanding FEV1 and FEV1/FVC Ratio
Spirometry is a common diagnostic test used to assess lung function. It measures the amount of air that can be exhaled forcefully and quickly after taking a deep breath. Two important measurements obtained from spirometry are the forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) and the ratio of FEV1 to forced vital capacity (FVC).
Identifying an obstructive disease pattern
In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), the airways are obstructed, resulting in a reduced FEV1. However, the lung volume is relatively normal, and therefore the FVC will be near normal too. COPD is diagnosed as an FEV1 < 80% predicted and an FEV1/FVC < 0.70. Understanding the clinical scenario While an FEV1 < 30% predicted and an FEV1/FVC < 0.70 indicate an obstructive picture, it is important to refer to the clinical scenario. Shortness of breath on mild exertion, particularly walking up hills or when hurrying, is likely to relate to an FEV1 between 50-80%, defined by NICE as moderate airflow obstruction. Differentiating between obstructive and restrictive lung patterns An FVC < 80% expected value is indicative of a restrictive lung pattern. In COPD, the FVC is usually preserved or increased, hence the FEV1/FVC ratio decreases. An FEV1 of <0.30 indicates severe COPD, but it is not possible to have an FEV1/FVC ratio of > 0.70 with an FEV1 this low in COPD. It is important to note, however, that in patterns of restrictive lung disease, you can have a reduced FEV1 with a normal FEV1/FVC ratio.
Conclusion
Interpreting spirometry results requires an understanding of FEV1 and FEV1/FVC ratio. Identifying an obstructive disease pattern, understanding the clinical scenario, and differentiating between obstructive and restrictive lung patterns are crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents to clinic for review. His recent echocardiogram showed no changes in the dilation of his aortic sinuses or mitral valve prolapse. Upon examination, he is tall with pectus excavatum and arachnodactyly. Which protein defect is primarily responsible for his condition?
Your Answer: Type IV collagen
Correct Answer: Fibrillin
Explanation:The underlying cause of Marfan syndrome is a genetic mutation in the fibrillin-1 protein, which plays a crucial role as a substrate for elastin.
Understanding Marfan’s Syndrome
Marfan’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue in the body. It is caused by a defect in the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15, which codes for the protein fibrillin-1. This disorder is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, meaning that a person only needs to inherit one copy of the defective gene from one parent to develop the condition. Marfan’s syndrome affects approximately 1 in 3,000 people.
The features of Marfan’s syndrome include a tall stature with an arm span to height ratio greater than 1.05, a high-arched palate, arachnodactyly (long, slender fingers), pectus excavatum (sunken chest), pes planus (flat feet), and scoliosis (curvature of the spine). In addition, individuals with Marfan syndrome may experience cardiovascular problems such as dilation of the aortic sinuses, mitral valve prolapse, and aortic aneurysm. They may also have lung issues such as repeated pneumothoraces. Eye problems are also common, including upwards lens dislocation, blue sclera, and myopia. Finally, dural ectasia, or ballooning of the dural sac at the lumbosacral level, may also occur.
In the past, the life expectancy of individuals with Marfan syndrome was around 40-50 years. However, with regular echocardiography monitoring and the use of beta-blockers and ACE inhibitors, this has improved significantly in recent years. Despite these improvements, aortic dissection and other cardiovascular problems remain the leading cause of death in individuals with Marfan syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of fatigue. She has a history of primary hypothyroidism and is currently on a daily dose of 150 micrograms of thyroxine. What is the most effective test for evaluating the adequacy of thyroid hormone replacement in primary hypothyroidism?
Your Answer: Thyroid binding globulin
Correct Answer: TSH
Explanation:The Significance of Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone in Assessing Thyroid Status
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is a highly sensitive indicator of thyroid status. A normal TSH result indicates that thyroid hormone replacement is adequate and that the individual is in a state of euthyroidism. On the other hand, an elevated TSH level with normal thyroid hormone concentrations may suggest poor compliance with medication, while a suppressed TSH level with normal high thyroxine (T4) levels may indicate over-replacement. Therefore, TSH plays a crucial role in assessing thyroid function and ensuring appropriate management of thyroid disorders. Proper interpretation of TSH results can guide clinicians in making informed decisions regarding medication dosages and treatment plans.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 7
Correct
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You are assisting in the anaesthesia of an 80-year-old man for a plastics procedure. He is having a large basal cell carcinoma removed from his nose. He has a history of ischaemic heart disease, having had three stents placed 2 years ago. He is otherwise healthy and still able to walk to the shops. His preoperative electrocardiogram (ECG) showed sinus rhythm. During the procedure, his heart rate suddenly increases to 175 bpm with a narrow complex, and you cannot see P waves on the monitor. You are having difficulty obtaining a blood pressure reading but are able to palpate a radial pulse with a systolic pressure of 75 mmHg. The surgeons have been using lidocaine with adrenaline around the surgical site. What is the next best course of action?
Your Answer: 100% O2, synchronised cardioversion, 150-J biphasic shock
Explanation:Treatment Options for a Patient with Narrow-Complex Tachycardia and Low Blood Pressure
When a patient with a history of ischaemic heart disease presents with a narrow-complex tachycardia and low blood pressure, it is likely that they have gone into fast atrial fibrillation. In this case, the first step in resuscitation should be a synchronised direct current (DC) cardioversion with a 150-J biphasic shock. Administering 100% oxygen, a 500 ml Hartmann bolus, and 0.5 mg metaraminol may help increase the patient’s blood pressure, but it does not address the underlying cause of their haemodynamic instability.
Amiodarone 300 mg stat is recommended for patients with narrow-complex tachycardia and haemodynamic instability. However, administering 10 mmol magnesium sulphate is not the first-line treatment for tachycardia unless the patient has torsades de pointes.
Lastly, administering Intralipid® as per guideline for local anaesthetic toxicity is unlikely to be the main source of the patient’s hypotension and does not address their narrow-complex tachycardia. Therefore, it is important to prioritize the synchronised cardioversion and amiodarone administration in this patient’s treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about bariatric surgery?
Your Answer: Indicated in patients with a BMI less than 35 kg/m2
Correct Answer: Reduces cardiovascular mortality
Explanation:Bariatric Surgery for Obesity: Benefits, Risks, and Complications
Bariatric surgery is the most effective and long-lasting intervention for obesity, providing significant weight loss and resolution of associated health problems. The Swedish Obesity Study found that bariatric surgery reduced cardiovascular events and mortality rates for up to 15 years compared to standard care. While adolescents face social, psychological, and developmental challenges, they are not excluded from surgery, and some hospitals offer specialized programs for younger patients. Candidates for surgery typically have a body mass index (BMI) of 40 or higher, or a BMI of 35 or higher with serious co-morbidities such as sleep apnea or type 2 diabetes.
Post-operative mortality rates range from 0.1-2%, and the risk of complications is similar to other major abdominal surgeries. However, if complications do occur, there is a higher likelihood of intervention. The specific complications depend on the type of procedure used. For laparoscopic adjustable gastric band surgery, complications may include band slippage, erosion, infection, pouch dilation, band/tubing leak, and megaoesophagus. For laparoscopic roux en y gastric bypass, complications may include stomal stenosis, internal hernia, and malnutrition. For laparoscopic sleeve gastrectomy, complications may include reflux, staple line leak, sleeve dilation, and weight gain. It is important for patients to understand the potential risks and benefits of bariatric surgery before making a decision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 9-month-old infant is experiencing feeding difficulties accompanied by a cough and wheeze, leading to a diagnosis of bronchiolitis. What is a triggering factor that can cause a more severe episode of bronchiolitis, rather than just an increased likelihood of developing the condition?
Your Answer: Fragile X syndrome
Correct Answer: Underlying congenital heart disease
Explanation:Bronchiolitis can be more severe in individuals with congenital heart disease, particularly those with a ventricular septal defect. Fragile X is not associated with increased severity, but Down’s syndrome has been linked to worse episodes. Formula milk feeding is a risk factor for bronchiolitis, but does not affect the severity of the disease once contracted. While bronchiolitis is most common in infants aged 3-6 months, this age range is not indicative of a more severe episode. However, infants younger than 12 weeks are at higher risk. Being born at term is not a risk factor, but premature birth is associated with more severe episodes.
Bronchiolitis is a condition where the bronchioles become inflamed, and it is most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). This virus is responsible for 75-80% of cases, with other causes including mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is most prevalent in infants under one year old, with 90% of cases occurring in those aged 1-9 months. The condition is more serious in premature babies, those with congenital heart disease or cystic fibrosis. Symptoms include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Hospital admission is often necessary due to feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea.
Immediate referral is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referral if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration. Immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV, and management is largely supportive. Humidified oxygen is given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently low, and nasogastric feeding may be necessary if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth. Suction may also be used for excessive upper airway secretions. NICE released guidelines on bronchiolitis in 2015 for more information.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 10
Correct
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A 50-year-old man presents with a swollen knee. Upon examination, the knee appears red, hot, and has limited range of motion. The patient has no history of prior surgeries and no significant medical history. What is the most suitable test to rule out a septic joint?
Your Answer: Joint aspiration
Explanation:Diagnosis of Joint Sepsis and Acute Gout
When diagnosing joint sepsis or acute gout, it is important to note that a neutrophilia may not always be present. Additionally, serum uric acid levels can be normal, low, or high in both conditions. While x-rays may show advanced sepsis with bony destruction, they are not always sensitive enough to detect early stages of the condition. An MRI is more sensitive, but the gold standard for diagnosis is joint aspiration. However, it is important to note that joint aspiration should not be performed outside of a theatre if the patient has a prosthetic joint. Proper diagnosis is crucial in order to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male comes to you with a complaint of sudden vision loss. He denies any previous symptoms or head injury and reports no pain. Upon conducting a fundoscopy, you observe significant retinal haemorrhages. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Posterior vitreous detachment
Correct Answer: Central retinal vein occlusion
Explanation:Understanding Central Retinal Vein Occlusion
Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) is a possible cause of sudden, painless loss of vision. It is more common in older individuals and those with hypertension, cardiovascular disease, glaucoma, or polycythemia. The condition is characterized by a sudden reduction or loss of visual acuity, usually affecting only one eye. Fundoscopy reveals widespread hyperemia and severe retinal hemorrhages, which are often described as a stormy sunset.
Branch retinal vein occlusion (BRVO) is a similar condition that affects a smaller area of the fundus. It occurs when a vein in the distal retinal venous system is blocked, usually at arteriovenous crossings.
Most patients with CRVO are managed conservatively, but treatment may be necessary in some cases. For instance, intravitreal anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) agents may be used to manage macular edema, while laser photocoagulation may be necessary to treat retinal neovascularization.
Overall, understanding the risk factors, features, and management options for CRVO is essential for prompt diagnosis and appropriate treatment. Proper management can help prevent further vision loss and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with four miscarriages. She has an uneventful pregnancy until the second trimester where she miscarries. The patient has no significant past medical history and has never had any surgery to the abdomen or female reproductive tract. She has a younger brother with learning difficulties and microcephaly. Her husband is fit and healthy as well, and he has no significant family history.
What is the most likely cause of the recurrent miscarriages?Your Answer: Reciprocal translocation of chromosomes
Correct Answer: Down syndrome (Trisomy 21)
Explanation:Genetic Conditions and Their Likelihood in a 37-Year-Old Woman’s Family
A 37-year-old woman is concerned about her family’s history of genetic conditions. Trisomy 21, also known as Down syndrome, is the most common chromosomal translocation and occurs mainly via nondisjunction. The risk of having a child with Down syndrome increases significantly as the maternal age increases, which is a concern for this woman. Reciprocal translocations are usually harmless but may lead to miscarriages and chromosomal abnormalities. It is unlikely that this woman has had four consecutive unbalanced translocations. Trisomy 18, also known as Edwards syndrome, is unlikely as less than 1% of children live past the age of 10 years. Fragile X syndrome is a X-linked condition that causes learning disability and seizures, but does not result in microcephaly. Mutation of the cystic fibrosis gene is an autosomal recessive condition that affects the respiratory system and can cause diabetes and infertility in men. Understanding the likelihood of these genetic conditions in her family can help the woman make informed decisions about her reproductive health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visits her physician with concerns about her pregnancy. She is currently 12 weeks pregnant and has been taking folic acid for four months prior to conception. She is curious if she needs to take iron supplements like her friends did during their pregnancies. The doctor orders blood tests to determine if this is necessary.
Hemoglobin: 112g/L (normal range: 115 - 160)
Platelets: 326 * 10^9/L (normal range: 150 - 400)
White blood cells: 4.2 * 10^9/L (normal range: 4.0 - 11.0)
What is the appropriate cut-off for hemoglobin levels to decide when to start treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Haemoglobin less than 115 g/L
Correct Answer: Haemoglobin less than 110 g/L
Explanation:A cut-off of 110 g/L should be used in the first trimester to determine if iron supplementation is necessary. This is because pregnancy causes a high-volume, low-pressure state which can dilute the blood and lower haemoglobin levels. Therefore, a lower cut-off is used compared to the canonical 115 g/L. In women after delivery, the cut-off is haemoglobin lower than 100 g/L, while in women during the second and third trimesters, it is haemoglobin lower than 105 g/L. Haemoglobin lower than 115 g/L is the cut-off for non-pregnant women, while haemoglobin lower than 120 g/L is never used as a cut-off for iron replacement therapy as it is within the normal range.
During pregnancy, women are checked for anaemia twice – once at the initial booking visit (usually around 8-10 weeks) and again at 28 weeks. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has set specific cut-off levels to determine if a pregnant woman requires oral iron therapy. These levels are less than 110 g/L in the first trimester, less than 105 g/L in the second and third trimesters, and less than 100 g/L postpartum.
If a woman’s iron levels fall below these cut-offs, she will be prescribed oral ferrous sulfate or ferrous fumarate. It is important to continue this treatment for at least three months after the iron deficiency has been corrected to allow the body to replenish its iron stores. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help ensure that pregnant women receive the appropriate care to prevent and manage anaemia during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 14
Correct
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A 25-year-old female presents to her GP after testing positive on a urine pregnancy test, suspecting she is 4-5 weeks pregnant. She expresses concern about the possibility of having an ectopic pregnancy, having recently heard about a friend's experience. Her medical records indicate that she had an IUS removed 8 months ago and was treated for Chlamydia infection 5 years ago. During a gynaecology appointment 2 months ago, a cervical ectropion was identified after a 3 cm simple ovarian cyst was detected on ultrasound. The patient also admits to excessive drinking at a party two nights ago, having previously consumed a bottle of wine per week. Which aspect of this patient's medical history could increase her risk?
Your Answer: Previous Chlamydia infection
Explanation:Pelvic inflammatory disease can raise the likelihood of an ectopic pregnancy occurring.
If a patient has a history of Chlamydia, it may have caused pelvic inflammatory disease before being diagnosed. Chlamydia can cause scarring of the fallopian tubes, subfertility, and an increased risk of ectopic pregnancy. Any condition that slows the egg’s movement to the uterus can lead to a higher risk of ectopic pregnancy.
While drinking excessively during pregnancy is not recommended due to the risk of neural tube defects and foetal alcohol syndrome, it is not linked to ectopic pregnancy. However, smoking is believed to increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy, highlighting the importance of asking about social history when advising patients who want to conceive.
A history of cervical ectropion is not a risk factor for ectopic pregnancy, but it can make a patient more prone to bleeding during pregnancy.
The previous use of an IUS will not increase the risk of an ectopic pregnancy. However, conceiving while an IUS is in place will raise the risk of this happening. This is due to the effect of slowing the ovum’s transit to the uterus.
A simple ovarian cyst will not increase the risk of an ectopic pregnancy. Large ovarian cysts can cause ovarian torsion, but a 3 cm cyst is not a cause for concern, and the patient does not have any signs or symptoms of ovarian torsion or ectopic pregnancy.
Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy: Incidence and Risk Factors
Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tubes. This condition is a serious medical emergency that requires immediate attention. According to epidemiological studies, ectopic pregnancy occurs in approximately 0.5% of all pregnancies.
Several risk factors can increase the likelihood of ectopic pregnancy. These include damage to the fallopian tubes due to pelvic inflammatory disease or surgery, a history of previous ectopic pregnancy, endometriosis, the use of intrauterine contraceptive devices (IUCDs), and the progesterone-only pill. In vitro fertilization (IVF) also increases the risk of ectopic pregnancy, with approximately 3% of IVF pregnancies resulting in ectopic implantation.
It is important to note that any factor that slows down the passage of the fertilized egg to the uterus can increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy. Early detection and prompt treatment are crucial in managing this condition and preventing serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl arrives at the emergency department with severe wheezing and shortness of breath. She is struggling to speak in full sentences and her peak expiratory flow rate is 320 l/min (45% of normal). Her oxygen saturation levels are at 92%. Her pCO2 is 4.8 kPa.
What is the most concerning finding from the above information?Your Answer: Oxygen saturations
Correct Answer: pCO2 (kPa)
Explanation:Assessing Acute Asthma Attacks in Children
When assessing the severity of asthma attacks in children, the 2016 BTS/SIGN guidelines recommend using specific criteria. These criteria can help determine whether the attack is severe or life-threatening. For a severe attack, the child may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level between 33-50% of their best or predicted, and may be too breathless to talk or feed. Additionally, their heart rate may be over 125 (for children over 5 years old) or over 140 (for children between 1-5 years old), and their respiratory rate may be over 30 breaths per minute (for children over 5 years old) or over 40 (for children between 1-5 years old). They may also be using accessory neck muscles to breathe.
For a life-threatening attack, the child may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level below 33% of their best or predicted, and may have a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, agitation, altered consciousness, or cyanosis. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these criteria and to take appropriate action to manage the child’s asthma attack. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help ensure that children with asthma receive the appropriate care and treatment they need during an acute attack.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 16
Correct
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A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of intense pain around his left eye and vomiting. Upon examination, his left eye appears red and there is a noticeable decrease in visual acuity. What is the best initial course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: Refer immediately to hospital
Explanation:Glaucoma is a group of disorders that cause optic neuropathy due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). However, not all patients with raised IOP have glaucoma, and vice versa. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in IOP due to impaired aqueous outflow. Factors that increase the risk of AACG include hypermetropia, pupillary dilation, and lens growth associated with age. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, halos around lights, and a hard, red-eye. Management of AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Emergency medical treatment is necessary to lower the IOP, followed by definitive surgical treatment once the acute attack has subsided.
There are no specific guidelines for the initial medical treatment of AACG, but a combination of eye drops may be used, including a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist. Intravenous acetazolamide may also be administered to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management of AACG involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a small hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humour to flow to the angle. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if symptoms of AACG are present to prevent permanent vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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What factor is linked to a higher likelihood of developing hepatocellular carcinoma?
Your Answer: Epstein-Barr virus
Correct Answer: Hepatitis C
Explanation:Risk of Hepatocellular Carcinoma in Cirrhosis Patients with Hepatitis C
Cirrhosis patients with hepatitis C have a 2% chance of developing hepatocellular carcinoma. This means that out of 100 people with cirrhosis caused by hepatitis C, two of them will develop liver cancer. It is important for these patients to receive regular screenings and follow-up care to detect any signs of cancer early on. Early detection can improve the chances of successful treatment and increase the likelihood of survival. Therefore, it is crucial for individuals with cirrhosis from hepatitis C to work closely with their healthcare providers to manage their condition and reduce their risk of developing hepatocellular carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old unemployed man visits his GP seeking assistance with his heroin addiction. He has been using heroin for more than a year after a friend suggested trying the drug after a night out. As a result, he has frequently used heroin. He has lost his job, ended his long-term relationship, and is currently sleeping on his friend's couch.
A few months ago, he attempted to quit because he wanted to turn his life around, but he found the withdrawal symptoms too difficult to handle and ended up using heroin again. He is eager to try and quit drugs, but he feels he cannot do it without some form of assistance.
Which of the following can be used for substitution therapy in opioid-dependent patients?Your Answer: Naltrexone
Correct Answer: Methadone
Explanation:Medications for Opioid Dependence and Withdrawal
Opioid dependence can be treated with medications under medical supervision. Methadone and buprenorphine are two options that can be used to substitute for illicit opioids. Buprenorphine should be given when the patient is experiencing withdrawal symptoms. Benzodiazepines like lorazepam and diazepam are used to treat withdrawal symptoms but not as a substitute for opioids. Lofexidine is also used to treat withdrawal symptoms. Naltrexone, an opioid antagonist, can be used to sustain abstinence in consenting patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 19
Correct
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A 67-year-old woman comes to the ED complaining of instability and pain in her right hip. She reports that the pain extends to her knee and is exacerbated by weight-bearing, but she is still able to walk and bear weight. She underwent a total hip replacement 19 months ago for an intracapsular femoral neck fracture. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Aseptic loosening of the hip replacement
Explanation:The most common reason for revision of total hip replacements is aseptic loosening, which can cause pain in the hip or groin area that may radiate down to the knee. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head is not a possible complication in this case as the patient has already undergone a total hip replacement. IT band syndrome is unlikely as the patient’s history does not suggest regular strenuous physical activity. Infection of the replacement is an acute complication that would not typically present 18 months after surgery. A periprosthetic fracture would result in reduced range of motion and inability to bear weight, which is not the case for this patient.
Osteoarthritis (OA) of the hip is a prevalent condition, with the knee being the only joint more commonly affected. It is particularly prevalent in older individuals, and women are twice as likely to develop it. Obesity and developmental dysplasia of the hip are also risk factors. The condition is characterized by chronic groin pain that is exacerbated by exercise and relieved by rest. However, if the pain is present at rest, at night, or in the morning for more than two hours, it may indicate an alternative cause. The Oxford Hip Score is a widely used tool to assess the severity of the condition.
If the symptoms are typical, a clinical diagnosis can be made. Otherwise, plain x-rays are the first-line investigation. Management of OA of the hip includes oral analgesia and intra-articular injections, which provide short-term relief. However, total hip replacement is the definitive treatment.
Total hip replacement is a common operation in the developed world, but it is not without risks. Perioperative complications include venous thromboembolism, intraoperative fracture, nerve injury, surgical site infection, and leg length discrepancy. Postoperatively, posterior dislocation may occur during extremes of hip flexion, presenting with a clunk, pain, and inability to weight bear. Aseptic loosening is the most common reason for revision, and prosthetic joint infection is also a potential complication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 20
Correct
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A 67-year-old male complains of swelling in both ankles. He reports no difficulty in breathing. Upon examining his chest, no abnormalities were found. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, diabetes, and angina. Which medication is the most probable culprit for his symptoms?
Your Answer: Amlodipine
Explanation:Verapamil is less likely to cause ankle swelling compared to dihydropyridines such as amlodipine.
Ankle swelling is a known side effect of amlodipine, which belongs to the dihydropyridine class of calcium channel blockers. On the other hand, verapamil is less likely to cause this side effect.
Metformin and empagliflozin, commonly used in diabetes management, are not associated with ankle oedema. However, thiazolidinediones like pioglitazone are known to cause fluid retention.
Furosemide, a loop diuretic, is often prescribed to treat ankle oedema caused by fluid overload.
Understanding Calcium Channel Blockers
Calcium channel blockers are medications primarily used to manage cardiovascular diseases. These blockers target voltage-gated calcium channels present in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle cells. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these three areas, making it crucial to differentiate their uses and actions.
Verapamil is an example of a calcium channel blocker used to manage angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. However, it is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Verapamil may also cause side effects such as heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.
Diltiazem is another calcium channel blocker used to manage angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Diltiazem may cause side effects such as hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.
On the other hand, dihydropyridines such as nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are calcium channel blockers used to manage hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. These blockers affect the peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, resulting in no worsening of heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter-acting dihydropyridines such as nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia and side effects such as flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.
In summary, understanding the different types of calcium channel blockers and their effects on the body is crucial in managing cardiovascular diseases. It is also important to note the potential side effects and cautions when prescribing these medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of painful eye movements and swelling in his left eye. He has a history of chronic sinusitis but is otherwise healthy. Upon examination, his left eye is completely swollen shut with significant eyelid swelling and redness that extends from his cheekbone to his eyebrow. When the eye is opened manually, there is chemosis. What is the best initial treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Immediate CT head
Correct Answer: Intravenous antibiotics
Explanation:Hospital admission for IV antibiotics is necessary for patients with orbital cellulitis due to the risk of intracranial spread and cavernous sinus thrombosis. This patient’s condition requires urgent treatment with IV antibiotics to prevent further complications and preserve their vision. Orbital cellulitis is classified according to Chandler’s classification, with preseptal cellulitis being the mildest form and cavernous sinus thrombosis being the most severe. Signs of orbital cellulitis include painful and restricted eye movements, reduced visual acuity and fields, abnormal pupillary responses, and the presence of chemosis and proptosis. IV antibiotics are the primary treatment for orbital cellulitis, and if there is evidence of intracranial spread or abscess, external drainage or neurosurgical intervention may be necessary. While a CT head is important to assess the extent of spread, treatment with antibiotics should not be delayed. Ophthalmology review is also crucial in managing orbital cellulitis, and patients are typically managed jointly by ENT and ophthalmology. Oral antibiotics are not appropriate for this infection, and IV administration is recommended.
Understanding Orbital Cellulitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Orbital cellulitis is a serious infection that affects the fat and muscles behind the orbital septum within the orbit, but not the globe. It is commonly caused by upper respiratory tract infections that spread from the sinuses and can lead to a high mortality rate. On the other hand, periorbital cellulitis is a less severe infection that occurs in the superficial tissues anterior to the orbital septum. However, it can progress to orbital cellulitis if left untreated.
Risk factors for orbital cellulitis include childhood, previous sinus infections, lack of Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccination, recent eyelid infections or insect bites, and ear or facial infections. Symptoms of orbital cellulitis include redness and swelling around the eye, severe ocular pain, visual disturbance, proptosis, ophthalmoplegia, eyelid edema, and ptosis. In rare cases, meningeal involvement can cause drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting.
To differentiate between orbital and preseptal cellulitis, doctors look for reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and ophthalmoplegia, which are not consistent with preseptal cellulitis. Full blood count and clinical examination involving complete ophthalmological assessment are necessary to determine the severity of the infection. CT with contrast can also help identify inflammation of the orbital tissues deep to the septum and sinusitis. Blood culture and microbiological swab are also necessary to determine the organism causing the infection.
Management of orbital cellulitis requires hospital admission for IV antibiotics. It is a medical emergency that requires urgent senior review. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and reduce the risk of mortality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman has been diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia and prescribed clozapine for the past three months. She is due for a review appointment and has had regular blood tests. What is the primary abnormality she is at risk for?
Your Answer: Decreased leukocytes
Explanation:Monitoring of FBC is crucial in patients taking clozapine due to the potential life-threatening side effect of agranulocytosis/neutropenia. This condition is characterized by a significant decrease in white blood cell count, particularly neutrophils. Therefore, a decrease in leukocytes will be observed in the blood test results. Clozapine is commonly used in the treatment of schizophrenia that is resistant to other therapies.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.
Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 23
Correct
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A 78-year-old man collapsed during a routine hospital visit and was quickly assessed. He presented with homonymous hemianopia, significant weakness in his right arm and leg, and a new speech impairment. A CT head scan was urgently performed and confirmed the diagnosis of an ischemic stroke. What CT head results would be indicative of this condition?
Your Answer: Hyperdense middle cerebral artery (MCA) sign
Explanation:A hyperdense middle cerebral artery (MCA) sign may be observed on CT in cases of acute ischaemic stroke, typically appearing immediately after symptom onset. This is in contrast to changes in the parenchyma, which tend to develop as the ischaemia within the tissue becomes established. An acute subdural haematoma can be identified on a CT head scan by the presence of a crescent-shaped hyperdense extra-axial collection adjacent to the frontal lobe. Raised intracranial pressure can be detected on a CT head scan by the effacement of the cerebral ventricles and loss of grey-white matter differentiation. The presence of hyperdense material in the cerebral sulci and basal cisterns is indicative of subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) on a CT head scan.
Assessment and Investigations for Stroke
Whilst diagnosing a stroke may be straightforward in some cases, it can be challenging when symptoms are vague. The FAST screening tool, which stands for Face/Arms/Speech/Time, is a well-known tool used by the general public to identify stroke symptoms. However, medical professionals use a validated tool called the ROSIER score, recommended by the Royal College of Physicians. The ROSIER score assesses for loss of consciousness or syncope, seizure activity, and new, acute onset of asymmetric facial, arm, or leg weakness, speech disturbance, or visual field defect. A score of greater than zero indicates a likely stroke.
When investigating suspected stroke, a non-contrast CT head scan is the first line radiological investigation. The key question to answer is whether the stroke is ischaemic or haemorrhagic, as this determines the appropriate management. Ischaemic strokes may show areas of low density in the grey and white matter of the territory, while haemorrhagic strokes typically show areas of hyperdense material surrounded by low density. It is important to identify the type of stroke promptly, as thrombolysis and thrombectomy play an increasing role in acute stroke management. In rare cases, a third pathology such as a tumour may also be detected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Mrs Johnson is a 79-year-old lady who has been admitted with a urinary tract infection. She has a past medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), for which she takes inhalers. Her abbreviated mental test score (AMTS) was 8/10 on admission. A midstream urine sample was sent for microbiology and the report indicates a pure growth of Escherichia coli sensitive to trimethoprim and co-amoxiclav. After receiving 48 hours of intravenous co-amoxiclav, she is now on appropriate oral antibiotic therapy.
You are called to the ward at 0100 h as Mrs Johnson is increasingly agitated and confused. She now has an AMTS of 2/10 and is refusing to stay in bed. Her vital signs are normal, and respiratory, cardiovascular, abdominal and neurological examinations reveal some fine crepitations at both lung bases, but no other abnormality. Her Glasgow Coma Score (GCS) is 14.
What is the most appropriate next management option?Your Answer: Arrange a full septic screen, including chest X-ray, repeat urinalysis, inflammatory markers and blood cultures
Correct Answer: Advise nursing in a well-lit environment with frequent reassurance and reorientation
Explanation:Managing Acute Delirium in Mrs Smith: Nursing in a Well-Lit Environment with Frequent Reassurance and Reorientation
Acute delirium is a common condition that can be caused by various factors, including sepsis, metabolic problems, hypoxia, intracranial vascular insults, and toxins. When assessing a patient with acute delirium, it is crucial to exclude life-threatening or reversible causes through a thorough history, clinical examination, and appropriate investigations.
In the case of Mrs Smith, who has new confusion with preserved consciousness, there is no evidence of acute clinical illness, and she is receiving appropriate treatment for a urinary tract infection. Therefore, the most appropriate management is to nurse her in a well-lit environment with frequent reassurance and reorientation. Sedating medication, such as lorazepam or haloperidol, should only be considered as a last resort if the patient is at risk of harm due to delirium.
It is not necessary to arrange an urgent CT head or a full septic screen unless there are specific indications. Instead, optimizing the patient’s environment can help resolve delirium and improve outcomes. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage acute delirium in patients like Mrs Smith.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old Caucasian man presents with a 3-month history of diarrhoea, fatigue, and weight loss. He denies any history of alcohol or drug abuse. He frequently travels to southern India for work. Laboratory tests show mixed macrocytic anaemia with low levels of serum folate and vitamin B12. Stool examination is negative for ova and parasites. A small bowel biopsy reveals predominant mononuclear infiltration and villous destruction throughout the small intestine. What intervention is most likely to improve his symptoms?
Your Answer: Double-strength trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole
Correct Answer: Broad spectrum antibiotics like tetracycline and folate
Explanation:Treatment Options for Tropical Sprue: Broad Spectrum Antibiotics and Folate Supplementation
Tropical sprue is a condition commonly seen in individuals visiting or residing in tropical countries, particularly in southern India. It is characterized by chronic diarrhea, weight loss, and deficiencies in vitamin B12 and folate. Stool examination typically shows no evidence of ova and parasites, while small intestinal biopsy reveals mononuclear cell infiltration and less villous atrophy throughout the intestine.
The recommended treatment for tropical sprue involves the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics, such as tetracyclines, along with folate supplementation. This approach has been shown to effectively reverse the changes in the small intestine associated with the condition.
Other treatment options, such as antihelminthic drugs, are not effective in treating tropical sprue. Similarly, pancreatic enzyme replacement is not indicated in this condition.
It is important to note that tropical sprue should not be confused with coeliac disease, which is treated with a gluten-free diet. In coeliac disease, small intestinal biopsy typically shows severe villous atrophy and mononuclear cell infiltration in the proximal portion of the small bowel.
Finally, double-strength trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole is used in the treatment of Whipple’s disease, which is characterized by PAS-positive macrophages in the lamina propria of the small intestine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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How can suxamethonium be described accurately?
Your Answer: Is a non-depolarising muscle relaxant
Correct Answer: May cause bradycardia
Explanation:Suxamethonium: A Depolarising Muscle Relaxant
Suxamethonium is a type of muscle relaxant that causes muscular fasciculations after being injected intravenously. It quickly induces neuromuscular paralysis, but recovery is spontaneous once it is metabolized by the enzyme pseudo or plasma cholinesterase, which is produced in the liver. However, certain pesticides and drugs, such as ecothiopate iodide, can inhibit cholinesterase activity and prolong the effects of suxamethonium. Additionally, reduced levels of plasma cholinesterase can be caused by liver disease, malnutrition, and pregnancy, while genetically determined abnormal enzymes can also lead to a prolonged action of suxamethonium. It’s important to note that neostigmine and other anticholinesterase drugs do not serve as reversal agents and can actually potentiate the neuromuscular block caused by suxamethonium.
When administering suxamethonium, it’s important to be aware that bradycardia (a slow heart rate) may occur in children after the first dose and in adults after repeated doses. Premedication with atropine should be considered to prevent this. It’s also crucial to note that suxamethonium is a potent trigger of both anaphylaxis and malignant hyperpyrexia, with the incidence of anaphylaxis being highest with rocuronium, atracurium, and suxamethonium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthetics & ITU
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman presents to the Neurology Clinic with a complaint of droopy eyelids that have been present for the past 6 months. She reports experiencing intermittent double vision that varies in severity. She has also noticed difficulty swallowing her food at times. Upon examination, she displays mild weakness in eyelid closure bilaterally and mild lower facial weakness. Additionally, there is mild weakness in neck flexion and bilateral shoulder abduction. Reflexes are normal throughout, and the remainder of the examination is unremarkable. Electromyography is performed, revealing a 30% decrease in the compound motor action potential (CMAP) upon repetitive nerve stimulation (right abductor pollicis brevis muscle). Single-fibre electromyography shows normal fibre density and jitter. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Guillain–Barré syndrome
Correct Answer: Autoimmune myasthenia gravis
Explanation:Differentiating Myasthenia Gravis from Other Neuromuscular Disorders
Myasthenia gravis (MG) is an autoimmune disorder that causes muscle weakness and fatigue. It occurs when antibodies block the acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction, leading to impaired muscle function. This can be detected through electromyographic testing, which measures fatigability. However, other neuromuscular disorders can present with similar symptoms, making diagnosis challenging.
Congenital myasthenia gravis is a rare form that occurs in infants born to myasthenic mothers. Guillain-Barré syndrome, although typically presenting with ophthalmoplegia, can also cause muscle weakness and reflex abnormalities. Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome is caused by autoantibodies to voltage-gated calcium channels and is characterized by absent reflexes. Polymyalgia rheumatica, an inflammatory disorder of the soft tissues, can cause pain and weakness in the shoulder girdle but does not affect nerve conduction or facial muscles.
Therefore, a thorough evaluation and diagnostic testing are necessary to differentiate MG from other neuromuscular disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old male undergoes a Hartmann's procedure for a sigmoid cancer. On day 2 post-op, nurses are concerned as his colostomy has not passed any wind or stool yet and he is complaining of increasing bloatedness. You review the patient and witness him vomit profusely.
What is the appropriate management for this common postoperative complication?Your Answer: Discuss with the surgical registrar to take the patient back to theatre
Correct Answer: Place the patient nil by mouth and insert a nasogastric tube
Explanation:Post-operative ileus is a frequent complication that occurs after colorectal surgery as a result of the manipulation of the bowel during the operation. The management of this condition is typically conservative, involving the insertion of a nasogastric tube to relieve symptoms by decompressing the stomach and advising the patient to refrain from eating or drinking anything. The reintroduction of fluids and a light diet should be done gradually and based on the patient’s clinical condition.
Complications can occur in all types of surgery and require vigilance in their detection. Anticipating likely complications and appropriate avoidance can minimize their occurrence. Understanding the anatomy of a surgical field will allow appreciation of local and systemic complications that may occur. Physiological and biochemical derangements may also occur, and appropriate diagnostic modalities should be utilized. Safe and timely intervention is the guiding principle for managing complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old man has been experiencing stiffness in both hands, wrists and ankles for over a year. After undergoing serological testing and radiological imaging, he was diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. His rheumatologist has decided to start him on methotrexate therapy. He has a medical history that includes gout, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), diabetes, and stage 2 chronic kidney disease.
What should be done before beginning methotrexate treatment?Your Answer: FBC, LFTs, TFTs, ECG and spirometry
Correct Answer: FBC, LFTs, urea and electrolytes (U&Es), eGFR, chest X-ray and spirometry
Explanation:Recommended Pre-Treatment Tests for Methotrexate Therapy in a Patient with COPD
Methotrexate therapy requires several pre-treatment tests to ensure patient safety and monitor potential adverse effects. For a patient with COPD, the following tests are recommended: full blood count (FBC), liver function tests (LFTs), urea and electrolytes (U&Es), estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR), chest X-ray, and spirometry. These tests will help determine baseline values, monitor for bone marrow suppression, renal failure, hepatotoxicity, and interstitial pulmonary fibrosis. While an electrocardiogram (ECG) and thyroid function tests (TFTs) are not specifically required, spirometry should be performed to assess lung function in a patient with COPD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A patient who has been on peritoneal dialysis for three weeks has reported that despite instilling a full 2 litre bag of fluid, he only gets 1.9 litres back. Additionally, he has noticed swelling in his abdomen and tenderness upon palpation. What could be the probable cause of these issues?
Your Answer: Catheter kinking
Correct Answer: Leak from catheter site
Explanation:Common Issues with Peritoneal Dialysis Catheters
Leakage is a common issue with peritoneal dialysis catheters, especially in patients who have had previous abdominal surgery. It can be noticed as fluid leaking around the exit site or causing mild swelling. Reducing fluid volumes may help, but catheter repair or replacement may be necessary. If patients show signs of fluid overload, a higher concentration of osmotic agent may be required. Catheter malposition is often painful and occurs early after insertion. Constipation is the most common cause of outflow obstruction, which tends to be consistent or worsening. Kinking of the catheter also occurs early after insertion and can cause problems with fluid inflow and outflow. Proper management of these issues is important for the success of peritoneal dialysis treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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