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  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of chest pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of chest pain and difficulty breathing. He had been hospitalized four weeks ago for acute coronary syndrome and was discharged on bisoprolol, simvastatin, aspirin, and ramipril. During the examination, a narrow complex tachycardia is observed. What is the absolute contraindication in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Magnesium sulphate

      Correct Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      Verapamil and Beta Blockers: A Dangerous Combination

      Verapamil is a type of medication that blocks calcium channels in the heart, leading to a decrease in cardiac output and a slower heart rate. However, it also has negative effects on the heart’s ability to contract, making it a highly negatively inotropic drug. Additionally, it may impair the conduction of electrical signals between the atria and ventricles of the heart.

      According to the British National Formulary (BNF), verapamil should not be given to patients who are already taking beta blockers. This is because the combination of these two drugs can lead to dangerously low blood pressure and even asystole, a condition where the heart stops beating altogether.

      Therefore, it is important for healthcare professionals to carefully consider a patient’s medication history before prescribing verapamil. If a patient is already taking beta blockers, alternative treatments should be considered to avoid the potentially life-threatening consequences of combining these two drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old law student complains that she cannot fall asleep until 0330 h....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old law student complains that she cannot fall asleep until 0330 h. She sleeps through morning classes, frequently waking up at about 1100 h.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Delayed sleep phase syndrome

      Explanation:

      Common Sleep Disorders and Their Symptoms

      Sleep disorders can have a significant impact on a person’s quality of life. Here are some of the most common sleep disorders and their symptoms:

      1. Delayed Sleep Phase Syndrome: This syndrome causes a person’s circadian cycle to run longer than 24 hours, leading to a tendency to fall asleep later and later.

      2. Advanced Sleep Phase Syndrome: Patients with this syndrome tend to fall asleep too early and wake up too early.

      3. Myoclonus: Nocturnal myoclonus, or periodic limb movement disorder, causes twitching or kicking of the lower extremities during sleep, leading to momentary arousals.

      4. Narcolepsy: This dyssomnia causes a person to suddenly fall asleep involuntarily at inappropriate times.

      5. Sleep Apnoea: This disorder causes a person to stop breathing during sleep, putting stress on the circulatory system.

      It’s important to seek medical attention if you suspect you have a sleep disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 3 - You are the surgical FY1 discussing with a patient in her 50s about...

    Incorrect

    • You are the surgical FY1 discussing with a patient in her 50s about her upcoming vaginal hysterectomy with antero-posterior repair. What is a potential long-term complication of this procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vaginal vault prolapse

      Explanation:

      Long-Term Complications of Vaginal Hysterectomy

      Vaginal hysterectomy with antero-posterior repair is a common surgical procedure for women. However, it may lead to long-term complications such as enterocoele and vaginal vault prolapse. These conditions occur when the pelvic organs shift and push against the vaginal wall, causing discomfort and pain. While urinary retention may occur immediately after the surgery, it is not typically a chronic complication.

      It is important for women who undergo vaginal hysterectomy to be aware of these potential complications and to discuss them with their healthcare provider. Regular check-ups and pelvic exams can help detect any issues early on and prevent further complications. Additionally, women can take steps to reduce their risk of developing these conditions by maintaining a healthy weight, avoiding heavy lifting, and practicing pelvic floor exercises. By being proactive and informed, women can minimize the impact of long-term complications and enjoy a better quality of life after surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 4 - A 10-year-old girl has been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. This condition...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl has been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. This condition is associated with defective β cells in the pancreatic islets of Langerhans.
      With which kind of capillary are the pancreatic islets of Langerhans closely associated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fenestrated

      Explanation:

      Capillaries can be classified into different types based on their structure and function. Fenestrated capillaries have pores that allow for the rapid passage of large molecules such as insulin. These are found in endocrine organs like the pancreas, thyroid, and adrenal cortex. Discontinuous capillaries, with or without fenestrations, have wide gaps between endothelial cells and are commonly found in the liver, bone marrow, and spleen. These gaps allow for the passage of large molecules from the organ into the bloodstream. Continuous capillaries have tightly joined endothelial cells and are found in the central nervous system, skeletal muscle, and lungs. The term sinusoid is an imprecise descriptor of capillaries, as it can refer to both discontinuous and fenestrated capillaries. In the liver, sinusoids are lined by discontinuous endothelium with fenestrations in some areas and none in others. In the bone marrow, discontinuous capillaries (sinusoids) allow for the passage of mature blood cells into circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 5 - A 67-year-old woman is admitted to the surgical ward after undergoing a laparotomy...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman is admitted to the surgical ward after undergoing a laparotomy for small bowel obstruction. She is currently on patient controlled analgesia with morphine. The nursing staff reports that she has a decreased level of consciousness and a respiratory rate of 5 breaths per minute. While attending to her, she experiences a respiratory arrest. What is the appropriate treatment for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 400 microgram bolus of naloxone

      Explanation:

      To treat the respiratory arrest caused by opioid toxicity, the patient should receive a 400 microgram bolus of naloxone. It is crucial to keep in mind that naloxone half-life is short, so additional doses may be necessary.

      The management of overdoses and poisonings involves specific treatments for each toxin. For paracetamol overdose, activated charcoal is recommended if ingested within an hour, followed by N-acetylcysteine or liver transplantation if necessary. Salicylate overdose can be managed with urinary alkalinization using IV bicarbonate or haemodialysis. Opioid/opiate overdose can be treated with naloxone, while benzodiazepine overdose can be treated with flumazenil in severe cases. Tricyclic antidepressant overdose may require IV bicarbonate to reduce the risk of seizures and arrhythmias, but class 1a and class Ic antiarrhythmics should be avoided. Lithium toxicity may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline or haemodialysis in severe cases. Warfarin overdose can be treated with vitamin K or prothrombin complex, while heparin overdose can be treated with protamine sulphate. Beta-blocker overdose may require atropine or glucagon. Ethylene glycol poisoning can be managed with fomepizole or ethanol, while methanol poisoning can be treated with the same. Organophosphate insecticide poisoning can be treated with atropine, and digoxin overdose can be treated with digoxin-specific antibody fragments. Iron overdose can be managed with desferrioxamine, and lead poisoning can be treated with dimercaprol or calcium edetate. Carbon monoxide poisoning can be managed with 100% oxygen or hyperbaric oxygen, while cyanide poisoning can be treated with hydroxocobalamin or a combination of amyl nitrite, sodium nitrite, and sodium thiosulfate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 6 - A 46-year-old man comes in for a follow-up visit after beginning rate control...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old man comes in for a follow-up visit after beginning rate control therapy for his atrial fibrillation. He reports no instances of palpitations, dizziness, or fainting. During the examination, his pulse is irregularly irregular with a heart rate of 82 beats per minute. He feels that his atrial fibrillation is well-managed, but he has noticed a change in his bowel movements since starting the treatment and has experienced difficulty passing stools. What is the most probable rate control medication he is taking?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      Verapamil is known to induce constipation as a side effect.

      Constipation is a common side effect of calcium channel blockers. Verapamil, one of the two calcium channel blockers used for controlling heart rate in atrial fibrillation, is more likely to cause constipation. NICE guidelines suggest that individuals who start taking verapamil should consume more fiber and increase their water intake to counteract this side effect. Calcium channel blockers cause constipation by relaxing smooth muscles, which inadvertently relaxes the muscles of the gut, leading to reduced motility. Although diltiazem may also cause constipation, it is less common than with verapamil.

      Understanding Calcium Channel Blockers

      Calcium channel blockers are medications primarily used to manage cardiovascular diseases. These blockers target voltage-gated calcium channels present in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle cells. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these three areas, making it crucial to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is an example of a calcium channel blocker used to manage angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. However, it is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Verapamil may also cause side effects such as heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is another calcium channel blocker used to manage angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Diltiazem may cause side effects such as hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      On the other hand, dihydropyridines such as nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are calcium channel blockers used to manage hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. These blockers affect the peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, resulting in no worsening of heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter-acting dihydropyridines such as nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia and side effects such as flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      In summary, understanding the different types of calcium channel blockers and their effects on the body is crucial in managing cardiovascular diseases. It is also important to note the potential side effects and cautions when prescribing these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 7 - A 38-year-old man from Somalia presents at your general practice surgery as a...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man from Somalia presents at your general practice surgery as a temporary resident. He has noticed some lumps on the back of his neck recently. He reports having a productive cough for the last 3 months, but no haemoptysis. He has lost 3 kg in weight in the last month. He is a non-smoker and lives with six others in a flat. His chest X-ray shows several large calcified, cavitating lesions bilaterally.
      What is the GOLD standard investigation for active disease, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sputum culture

      Explanation:

      The patient in question has several risk factors for tuberculosis (TB), including being from an ethnic minority and living in overcrowded accommodation. The presence of symptoms and chest X-ray findings of bilateral large calcified, cavitating lesions strongly suggest a diagnosis of TB. The gold standard investigation for TB is to send at least three spontaneous sputum samples for culture and microscopy, including one early morning sample. Treatment should be initiated without waiting for culture results if clinical symptoms and signs of TB are present. Treatment involves a 6-month course of antibiotics, with the first 2 months consisting of isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol, followed by 4 months of isoniazid and rifampicin. Even if culture results are negative, the full course of antibiotics should be completed. Public health must be notified of the diagnosis for contact tracing and surveillance. Pulmonary function testing is useful for assessing the severity of lung disease but is not used in the diagnosis of TB. Tissue biopsy is not recommended as the gold standard investigation for TB, but may be useful in some cases of extrapulmonary TB. The tuberculin skin test is used to determine if a patient has ever been exposed to TB, but is not the gold standard investigation for active TB. Interferon-γ release assays measure a person’s immune reactivity to TB and can suggest the likelihood of M tuberculosis infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 8 - Among cancers, certain types are linked to specific genetic mutations that act as...

    Incorrect

    • Among cancers, certain types are linked to specific genetic mutations that act as 'drivers'. For a 34-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with left-sided renal cell carcinoma, a pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor, and retinal haemangioblastomas, which gene is most likely to have a germline mutation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: VHL

      Explanation:

      Genes and Cancer: An Overview of VHL, BRCA, APC, EGFR, and MEN1

      Cancer is a complex disease that can be caused by a variety of factors, including genetic mutations. In this article, we will provide an overview of five genes that have been linked to different types of cancer: VHL, BRCA, APC, EGFR, and MEN1.

      VHL Syndrome

      VHL syndrome is a rare autosomal dominant condition associated with benign and malignant tumour formation on various organs of the body. It is caused by mutations in the VHL gene, found on the short arm of chromosome 3 and codes for the VHL protein, a tumour suppressor protein. VHL syndrome is associated with central nervous system and retinal haemangioblastomas, renal cysts and renal cell carcinoma, phaeochromocytoma, pancreatic cysts/tumours, and liver cysts.

      BRCA Genes

      The BRCA-1 gene (located on the long arm of chromosome 17) and BRCA2 gene (located on the long arm of chromosome 13) code for tumour suppressor proteins. Mutations in these two genes are linked with breast, ovarian, and prostate cancers.

      APC Gene

      The APC gene found on the long arm of chromosome 5 codes for the APC protein, a tumour suppressor protein. Mutations in the APC gene are associated with familial adenomatous polyposis, desmoid tumours, and primary macronodular adrenal hyperplasia.

      EGFR Gene

      The EGFR gene, located on the short arm of chromosome 7, codes for a protein called the epidermal growth factor receptor. Mutations in the EGFR gene have been linked to lung cancer, typically adenocarcinomas.

      MEN1 Gene

      The MEN1 gene, located on the long arm of chromosome 11, codes for menin protein, a tumour suppressor. Mutations in the MEN1 gene have been linked to multiple endocrine neoplasia (type 1), parathyroid adenomas, pancreatic tumours, bronchial carcinoids, and familial isolated hyperparathyroidism.

      In conclusion, understanding the role of these genes in cancer can help with early detection, prevention, and treatment of various types of cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 9 - A 4-year-old girl with cerebral palsy comes to the GP with her father...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl with cerebral palsy comes to the GP with her father for a check-up. Upon examination, she has a delay in her overall development. She is not yet able to walk or crawl, but she can use her fingers to pick up objects and is happily playing with toys during the visit. She can say a few words, such as mom and dad. During the examination, you notice some bruises on her abdomen, left elbow, and right forearm. Her father explains that these bruises are due to her clumsiness and he is concerned that she will continue to hurt herself. He mentions that her mother had a similar condition that required oral steroids and wonders if his daughter has developed the same condition.

      What is the next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Same-day paediatric assessment

      Explanation:

      Immediate paediatric assessment is necessary for a non-mobile infant with multiple bruises, as this could indicate non-accidental injury. Bruising near the trunk, cheeks, ears, or buttocks should also be considered red flags. Coagulation screen and coagulopathy testing may be performed later, but the priority is to assess for potential abuse. Oral prednisolone is not first-line for children with immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) and reassurance and discharge are not appropriate in this situation.

      Recognizing Child Abuse: Signs and Symptoms

      Child abuse is a serious issue that can have long-lasting effects on a child’s physical and emotional well-being. It is important to be able to recognize the signs and symptoms of child abuse in order to intervene and protect the child. One possible indicator of abuse is when a child discloses abuse themselves. However, there are other factors that may point towards abuse, such as an inconsistent story with injuries, repeated visits to A&E departments, delayed presentation, and a frightened, withdrawn appearance known as frozen watchfulness.

      Physical presentations of child abuse can also be a sign of abuse. These may include bruising, fractures (especially metaphyseal, posterior rib fractures, or multiple fractures at different stages of healing), torn frenulum (such as from forcing a bottle into a child’s mouth), burns or scalds, failure to thrive, and sexually transmitted infections like Chlamydia, gonorrhoeae, and Trichomonas. It is important to be aware of these signs and symptoms and to report any concerns to the appropriate authorities to ensure the safety and well-being of the child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old female presents with a three month history of headaches, shoulder pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female presents with a three month history of headaches, shoulder pain and weight loss. Over this time she has lost approximately 6 kg in weight.

      She describes early morning stiffness of the shoulders. Also, she has become aware of frontal headaches and has noticed tenderness of the scalp particularly when she combs her hair. She has little in her past medical history, she is a lifelong non-smoker and takes no medication.

      During examination, she appears to be in good health with a blood pressure of 126/88 mmHg and a BMI of 23.4. Neurological examination is normal though she is tender over the shoulders and scalp.

      Which of the following investigations would you select for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

      Explanation:

      Temporal arthritis/Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Unknown Aetiology

      This condition, which is of unknown aetiology, typically affects the elderly and is associated with inflammation of the extracranial arteries. It is characterized by weight loss, proximal muscle stiffness and tenderness, headaches, and scalp tenderness. Elevated inflammatory markers, particularly erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C reactive protein, are usually associated with it. Temporal arthritis may also be diagnosed through biopsy of the inflamed temporal artery, although false negatives may occur as the disease may patchily affect the artery.

      It is important to recognize and treat the disease early to reduce morbidity and prevent blindness due to involvement of the optic arteries with retinal ischemia. The condition usually rapidly improves with steroid therapy, and the disease may be monitored through reduction of ESR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 11 - A 4-week-old infant, born at term, presents to the Emergency Department with persistent...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-week-old infant, born at term, presents to the Emergency Department with persistent jaundice since birth, pale stools and dark urine. The infant is currently being breastfed.
      What is the most probable reason for this infant's jaundice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Biliary atresia

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Jaundice in Infants

      Jaundice in newborns that lasts for more than two weeks is considered pathological and requires medical attention. In this case, the infant is exhibiting signs of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, which is characterized by jaundice with pale stools and dark urine. This is indicative of biliary atresia, a condition that affects the liver and bile ducts.

      Cystic fibrosis is another condition that may present in infants with recurrent respiratory infections, but it is not associated with jaundice. Cholelithiasis, or gallstones, is a common cause of obstructive jaundice, but it is more prevalent in middle-aged individuals. Breastfeeding jaundice occurs due to suboptimal milk intake, but it does not cause conjugated hyperbilirubinemia.

      Physiological jaundice is common in infants and typically lasts for 1-2 weeks. However, if jaundice persists for more than two weeks, it is considered pathological and requires medical attention. It is important to understand the various causes of jaundice in infants to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 12 - A 33-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant arrives at the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant arrives at the emergency department with painless vaginal bleeding. She had her second baby three years ago, which was delivered via a c-section, but otherwise was a normal pregnancy. Upon obstetric examination, her uterus was non-tender, however, her baby was in breech presentation. The foetal heart rate was also normal, and she denied experiencing any contractions during the bleeding episode. What is the recommended next investigation for the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Understanding Placenta Praevia

      Placenta praevia is a condition where the placenta is located wholly or partially in the lower uterine segment. It is a relatively rare condition, with only 5% of women having a low-lying placenta when scanned at 16-20 weeks gestation. However, the incidence at delivery is only 0.5%, as most placentas tend to rise away from the cervix.

      There are several factors associated with placenta praevia, including multiparity, multiple pregnancy, and embryos implanting on a lower segment scar from a previous caesarean section. Clinical features of placenta praevia include shock in proportion to visible loss, no pain, a non-tender uterus, abnormal lie and presentation, and a usually normal fetal heart. Coagulation problems are rare, and small bleeds may occur before larger ones.

      Diagnosis of placenta praevia should not involve digital vaginal examination before an ultrasound, as this may provoke severe haemorrhage. The condition is often picked up on routine 20-week abdominal ultrasounds, but the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommends the use of transvaginal ultrasound for improved accuracy and safety. Placenta praevia is classified into four grades, with grade IV being the most severe, where the placenta completely covers the internal os.

      In summary, placenta praevia is a rare condition that can have serious consequences if not diagnosed and managed appropriately. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the associated factors and clinical features, and to use appropriate diagnostic methods for accurate grading and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 13 - A client's family purchases the ward a box of chocolates but presents you...

    Incorrect

    • A client's family purchases the ward a box of chocolates but presents you with a separate card containing a £50 voucher for all your assistance. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give the voucher back to the family and thank them

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Actions for Accepting Monetary Gifts from Patients’ Families

      It is common for patients’ families to express gratitude towards healthcare professionals for their services. However, accepting monetary gifts can raise ethical concerns and is generally frowned upon by other staff members. Here are some appropriate actions to take when faced with such situations:

      Appropriate Actions for Accepting Monetary Gifts from Patients’ Families

      1. Give the voucher back to the family and thank them. This is the most appropriate action as it avoids any ethical concerns and maintains the professional relationship between the healthcare professional and the patient’s family.

      2. Share the voucher with the ward. While it may seem like a good idea to share the gift with colleagues, it is still not recommended to accept monetary gifts. It is best to return the gift to the family.

      3. Say nothing, you deserve it. This is not an appropriate action as accepting monetary gifts can create ethical concerns and impact the doctor-patient relationship.

      4. Donate the voucher to charity. While donating the gift to charity may seem like a good idea, it is still not recommended to accept monetary gifts. It is best to return the gift to the family.

      5. Ask the family for a bigger voucher, as £50 is not enough. This is highly unprofessional and should never be considered. Accepting monetary gifts of any amount is not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
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  • Question 14 - A 31-year-old woman arrives at the obstetric department in the initial stages of...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman arrives at the obstetric department in the initial stages of labour. She is 36+4 weeks pregnant and has been experiencing polyhydramnios during this pregnancy. During examination, the foetal head is palpable on the right side of the maternal pelvis, while the buttocks are palpable on the left side. The amniotic sac remains intact. What is the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer external cephalic version

      Explanation:

      The recommended course of action for a patient in early labour with a transverse foetal lie and intact amniotic sac is to offer external cephalic version (ECV) before considering other management options. Conservative management is not appropriate as it poses a high risk of maternal and foetal death. Offering an elective caesarean section is also not the first choice, as ECV should be attempted first. An immediate caesarean section is not necessary if there are no contraindications to ECV.

      Understanding Transverse Lie in Foetal Presentation

      Foetal lie refers to the position of the foetus in relation to the longitudinal axis of the uterus. There are three types of foetal lie: longitudinal, oblique, and transverse. Transverse lie is a rare abnormal foetal presentation where the foetal longitudinal axis is perpendicular to the long axis of the uterus. This means that the foetal head is on the lateral side of the pelvis, and the buttocks are opposite. Transverse lie is more common in women who have had previous pregnancies, have fibroids or other pelvic tumours, are pregnant with twins or triplets, have prematurity, polyhydramnios, or foetal abnormalities.

      Transverse lie can be detected during routine antenatal appointments through abdominal examination or ultrasound scan. Complications of transverse lie include preterm rupture membranes, cord-prolapse, and compound presentation. Management options for transverse lie depend on the gestational age of the foetus. Before 36 weeks gestation, no management is required as most foetuses will spontaneously move into longitudinal lie during pregnancy. After 36 weeks gestation, active management through external cephalic version (ECV) or elective caesarian section is necessary. ECV should be offered to all women who would like a vaginal delivery, while caesarian section is the management for women who opt for it or if ECV is unsuccessful or contraindicated. The decision to perform caesarian section over ECV will depend on various factors, including the risks to the mother and foetus, the patient’s preference, and co-morbidities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 15 - A 36-year-old G5P2 woman comes to antenatal clinic at 35+2 gestation with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old G5P2 woman comes to antenatal clinic at 35+2 gestation with a history of uneventful pregnancy except for moderate morning sickness in the first trimester. She reports several minor symptoms. What symptoms would require further investigation and raise concern?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dysuria

      Explanation:

      While many symptoms experienced during pregnancy are normal and not a cause for concern, it is important to be aware of symptoms that may indicate a medical issue, such as dysuria.

      Dysuria, or painful urination, can be a sign of a urinary tract infection (UTI), which should be treated promptly during any stage of pregnancy. UTIs have been linked to premature birth, as the inflammation caused by the infection can irritate the cervix and trigger preterm labor.

      Fatigue during pregnancy is a common experience and can have multiple causes. In the third trimester, it is considered normal. Lower back pain is also a common symptom, caused by the hormone relaxin increasing laxity in the sacroiliac joints and the added mechanical strain of pregnancy.

      Nausea and vomiting are most commonly experienced in the first trimester, but can still occur throughout pregnancy and are generally considered normal.

      Minor Symptoms of Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, women may experience minor symptoms that are common and not usually a cause for concern. These symptoms may include nausea and vomiting, tiredness, and musculoskeletal pains. Nausea and vomiting, commonly known as morning sickness, can occur at any time of the day and may last throughout the first trimester. Tiredness is also a common symptom, especially during the first and third trimesters. Musculoskeletal pains, such as back pain and pelvic pain, may also occur due to the changes in the body’s structure and weight distribution. While these symptoms may be uncomfortable, they are typically manageable and can be relieved with rest, exercise, and proper nutrition. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider if these symptoms become severe or persistent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 16 - A 55-year-old, previously healthy man, receives percutaneous intervention for coronary disease as an...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old, previously healthy man, receives percutaneous intervention for coronary disease as an outpatient. He is prescribed secondary preventive and symptomatic medications upon discharge. However, a few days after starting the new medications, he develops itchy raised bumps on his upper limbs and trunk. There is no involvement of mucosa and he is otherwise well. His symptoms improve with antihistamine. Which medication is the most likely cause of his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Aspirin is a frequent trigger of urticaria, a skin condition that this patient has developed. While there are several medications that can cause urticaria, aspirin is one of the most common culprits. The exact mechanism behind this reaction is not fully understood, but it is believed that aspirin alters the metabolism of arachidonic acid, leading to an increase in cysteinyl leukotriene instead of prostaglandin. Cysteinyl leukotriene can directly affect blood vessels and cause histamine release, resulting in the characteristic symptoms of urticaria.

      Unlike aspirin, calcium channel blockers (CaCB), such as amlodipine, are not typically associated with urticaria. In fact, some CaCBs, like nifedipine, have been tested as a potential treatment for chronic idiopathic urticaria and have shown positive results.

      Beta-blockers, including bisoprolol, are known to worsen certain skin conditions that have skin features, such as systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and Raynaud’s syndrome, but they are not commonly linked to urticaria.

      Furosemide is known to cause certain skin conditions, such as eczema, bullous eruption, and, in rare cases, Steven-Johnson’s syndrome, but it is not a known trigger of urticaria.

      Urticaria, also known as hives, can be caused by various drugs. Some of the most common drugs that cause urticaria include aspirin, penicillins, NSAIDs, and opiates. These drugs can trigger an allergic reaction in the body, leading to the development of hives. It is important to note that not everyone who takes these drugs will experience urticaria, and the severity of the reaction can vary from person to person.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old man visits the renal clinic eight weeks after a successful renal...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits the renal clinic eight weeks after a successful renal transplant. He has some inquiries about his immunosuppression. The consultant explains that the typical regimen for renal transplant patients involves the use of an induction agent initially, followed by a combination of a calcineurin inhibitor, antimetabolite, and steroids. This combination is intended to prevent rejection of the transplanted kidney. Can you identify the agent that acts as a purine analogue to disrupt DNA synthesis and induce apoptosis in rapidly dividing cells?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Azathioprine

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms of Action of Immunosuppressive Drugs

      Azathioprine and mycophenolate mofetil are two immunosuppressive drugs that interrupt DNA synthesis and act as antimetabolites. However, they achieve this through different mechanisms. Mycophenolate indirectly inhibits purine synthesis by blocking inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase, while azathioprine is a pro-drug that is metabolized to 6-mercaptopurine, which is inserted into the DNA sequence instead of a purine. This triggers apoptosis by recognizing it as a mismatch.

      Basiliximab is an anti-CD25 monoclonal antibody that blocks T cell proliferation by inhibiting CD25, the alpha chain of the IL-2 receptor. On the other hand, sirolimus inhibits mTOR, the mammalian target of rapamycin, which is a protein kinase that promotes T cell proliferation and survival downstream of IL-2 signaling. Finally, tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor that reduces the activation of NFAT, a transcription factor that promotes IL-2 production. Since IL-2 is the main cytokine that drives T cell proliferation, tacrolimus effectively suppresses the immune response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 18 - A 75-year-old woman is admitted to a medical ward and the medical team...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman is admitted to a medical ward and the medical team is concerned about her mental health in addition to her urgent medical needs. The patient is refusing treatment and insisting on leaving. The team suspects that she may be mentally incapacitated and unable to make an informed decision. Under which section of the Mental Health Act (MHA) can they legally detain her in England and Wales?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Section 5 (2)

      Explanation:

      Section 5 (2) of the MHA allows a doctor to detain a patient for up to 72 hours for assessment. This can be used for both informal patients in mental health hospitals and general hospitals. During this time, the patient is assessed by an approved mental health professional and a doctor with Section 12 approval. The patient can refuse treatment, but it can be given in their best interests or in an emergency. Section 2 and 3 can only be used if they are the least restrictive method for treatment and allow for detention for up to 28 days and 6 months, respectively. Section 135 allows police to remove a person from their home for assessment, while Section 136 allows for the removal of an apparently mentally disordered person from a public place to a place of safety for assessment. Since the patient in this scenario is already in hospital, neither Section 135 nor Section 136 would apply.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 19 - A 23-year-old male visits his GP complaining of natal cleft pain, along with...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old male visits his GP complaining of natal cleft pain, along with purulent and bloody discharge from the area. He also has a fever. This is not the first time he has experienced these symptoms, as he has had similar episodes over the past three years. Typically, the symptoms resolve on their own, but return after a period of being asymptomatic. However, he underwent incision and drainage for his condition six months ago, and the symptoms have returned once again. What is the most effective treatment option for this individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pilonidal cystectomy

      Explanation:

      The patient likely has pilonidal disease, causing recurrent pain and discharge in the natal cleft. Surgery is the definitive management, while antibiotics and incision and drainage may provide temporary relief. Maintaining personal hygiene and hair removal can prevent future recurrences.

      Understanding Pilonidal Disease

      Pilonidal disease is a common condition that affects the upper part of the natal cleft of the buttocks. It is more prevalent in men and usually occurs around the age of 20 years. The disease is believed to develop when hair debris accumulates in intergluteal pores, which become stretched when a person sits or bends. Over time, this can lead to the formation of sinuses, with more hairs becoming trapped within the sinus. The sinus opening is lined by squamous epithelium, but most of its wall consists of granulation tissue.

      When acute inflammation occurs, pilonidal disease typically presents as a sinus, causing severe pain, purulent discharge, and a fluctuant swelling at the site. Patients may experience cycles of being asymptomatic and periods of pain and discharge from the sinus. Asymptomatic patients can be managed conservatively, with a focus on local hygiene. Symptomatic patients may require incision and drainage if the disease is acute, allowing the wound to close by secondary intention. Surgical options, including excision of the pits and obliteration of the underlying cavity, may be necessary for chronic or recurrent cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 20 - A 45-year-old woman presented with abdominal swelling, pain and constipation for 5 days....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presented with abdominal swelling, pain and constipation for 5 days. She also complained of generalised aches and pains and feelings of thirst. She had recently been diagnosed with metastatic breast cancer which had recurred. She has a past medical history of irritable bowel syndrome and hypothyroidism. Her regular medications include paracetamol and thyroxine. Her general practitioner (GP) had started her on codeine yesterday. On examination, she appeared dehydrated and had a soft, but mildly distended, abdomen. Thyroid function tested 2 weeks ago was normal.
      What is the most likely cause of her presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypercalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Hypercalcaemia is a medical emergency that can occur in patients with cancer, especially those with metastatic cancer and osteolytic lesions. Breast, lung, and multiple myeloma are the most common cancers that cause hypercalcaemia. Symptoms include lethargy, anorexia, nausea, constipation, dehydration, polyuria, polydipsia, renal stones, confusion, and generalised aches. Treatment involves intravenous fluid resuscitation and bisphosphonates. Codeine can cause constipation, but if it lasts for more than five days, it may not be the cause. Hypothyroidism and irritable bowel syndrome can also lead to constipation, but the patient’s thyroid function test is normal, and there are no other symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome. Malignant bowel obstruction causes absolute constipation, a distended abdomen, and vomiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 21 - A 28-year-old man presents with an acutely red right eye. He also has...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents with an acutely red right eye. He also has dull aching pain affecting the eye, and he is photosensitive, with light severely worsening the pain in the eye. There is no mucopurulent discharge and he has mild blurring of vision. The left eye is not affected. Other past history of note includes intermittent diarrhoea, which he says looked bloody on a couple of occasions, but he put this down to food poisoning. On examination, his blood pressure is 125/72 mmHg; he looks thin, with a body mass index of 19.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 119 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 8.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 204 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 35 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      Sodium (Na+) 141 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 130 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Intraocular pressure: reduced in the affected eye, with numerous cells seen within the aqueous.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior uveitis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Red, Painful Eye with Photophobia: Anterior Uveitis

      Anterior uveitis is a possible diagnosis for a patient presenting with a red, painful eye and photophobia. The condition can be idiopathic or associated with systemic inflammatory diseases, such as ulcerative colitis. The presence of inflammatory cells in the aqueous is a hallmark of anterior uveitis. Treatment typically involves cyclopentolate for ocular pain relief and corticosteroids to reduce inflammation. Tapering of corticosteroid therapy is guided by the degree of clinical response.

      Other potential diagnoses, such as conjunctivitis and herpetic ulcer, can be ruled out based on the absence of certain symptoms and risk factors. Acute glaucoma is also unlikely as intraocular pressures are low in anterior uveitis, whereas they would be expected to be raised in acute glaucoma. Anterior scleritis is another possibility, but it is less likely in this case as the examination findings do not mention intense redness of the anterior sclera.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 22 - A 55-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of tingling in both hands...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of tingling in both hands that began a month ago and has been progressively worsening. He has no significant medical history. During the examination, you observe that the man has large hands, widely spaced teeth, and a prominent brow. You suspect that he may have acromegaly.
      What is the most suitable initial investigation for acromegaly?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum IGF1 levels

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Acromegaly: Serum IGF1 Levels, CT/MRI Head, and Visual Field Testing

      Acromegaly is a condition caused by excess growth hormone (GH) production, often from a pituitary macroadenoma. To diagnose acromegaly, insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF1) levels are measured instead of GH levels, as IGF1 has a longer half-life and is more stable in the blood. If IGF1 levels are high, a glucose tolerance test is used to confirm the diagnosis. CT scans of the head are not as sensitive as MRI scans for investigating pituitary tumors, which are a common cause of acromegaly. Visual field testing is also important to assess whether a pituitary tumor is compressing the optic chiasm, but it is not specific to acromegaly and is part of the physical exam.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 23 - A 21-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department 50 minutes after intentionally overdosing...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department 50 minutes after intentionally overdosing on aspirin. He weighs 65 kg and ingested 25 tablets, each containing 250 mg. Despite the overdose, his vital signs are currently stable. What is the recommended initial course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give oral activated charcoal

      Explanation:

      Activated charcoal is the recommended treatment for an aspirin overdose within the first hour of ingestion. In this case, the patient has ingested 9 grams of aspirin, which is considered an overdose as it exceeds 125 mg/kg. Giving activated charcoal should be done alongside an A to E approach. Symptoms of aspirin overdose may include tinnitus, nausea, vomiting, sweating, confusion, drowsiness, and seizures. Haemodialysis is not the first step in management as it is too early for this option. An ECG and blood gas should be done in the Emergency Department, but they do not address the effects of the aspirin overdose. IV sodium bicarbonate is used for urinary alkalinization and may be used as treatment if the time since ingestion has passed an hour. However, activated charcoal is the first-line treatment within the first hour of ingestion.

      Salicylate overdose can result in a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. The initial effect of salicylates is to stimulate the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the overdose progresses, the direct acid effects of salicylates, combined with acute renal failure, can cause metabolic acidosis. In children, metabolic acidosis tends to be more prominent. Other symptoms of salicylate overdose include tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia, nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.

      The treatment for salicylate overdose involves general measures such as airway, breathing, and circulation support, as well as administering activated charcoal. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can help eliminate aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary. Indications for hemodialysis include a serum concentration of salicylates greater than 700 mg/L, metabolic acidosis that is resistant to treatment, acute renal failure, pulmonary edema, seizures, and coma.

      It is important to note that salicylates can cause the uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation, which leads to decreased adenosine triphosphate production, increased oxygen consumption, and increased carbon dioxide and heat production. Therefore, prompt and appropriate treatment is crucial in managing salicylate overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 24 - A 32-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of lower abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of lower abdominal pain. He reports that the pain began 6 hours ago as a vague discomfort around his belly button, but has since become a sharp pain in the right iliac fossa, which worsens when he walks or coughs. He has lost his appetite and has vomited twice. The examining surgeon suspects that he may have appendicitis.
      Which dermatome level in the spinal cord receives afferent signals from the periumbilical pain in this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T10

      Explanation:

      Sensory Levels and Pain Localization in Appendicitis

      Appendicitis is a common condition that causes inflammation of the appendix. The initial pain associated with this condition is vague and poorly localized, and it is felt in the periumbilical region. However, as the inflammation progresses and the parietal peritoneum adjacent to the appendix becomes inflamed, the pain becomes sharp and localizes to the right iliac fossa.

      The sensory level for visceral afferents from the appendix is at the 10th thoracic segment, which is the same level as the somatic afferents from the anterior abdominal wall in the region of the umbilicus. This is why the initial pain is felt in the periumbilical region.

      The hip girdle and groin area are innervated by the cutaneous dermatome representing L1 spinal cord. However, T6 to T12 affect abdominal and back muscles, and T8 and T12 are not the correct sensory levels for appendicitis pain localization. Understanding the sensory levels and pain localization in appendicitis can aid in its diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 25 - A 56-year-old man presents to his general practitioner with proximal muscle weakness. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents to his general practitioner with proximal muscle weakness. He has noticed difficulty in trying to get up out of a chair. There is a past history of obstructive airways disease and a 35-pack-year cigarette history. On examination, you notice that he has marked weakness of the pelvic and shoulder girdle and decreased tendon reflexes.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      sodium (Na+) 137 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 95 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Haemoglobin 115 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 320 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 80 mm/hr 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      You suspect that he may have an underlying malignancy with a paraneoplastic syndrome. Which of the following is most likely to be associated with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carcinoma of the bronchus

      Explanation:

      Paraneoplastic Syndromes: Neurological Manifestations in Different Types of Cancer

      Lambert-Eaton syndrome is a rare neurological manifestation that affects around 6% of cancer patients, particularly those with bronchial and ovarian tumors. This syndrome is characterized by proximal muscle weakness, impotence, and peripheral neuropathy. The cause of Lambert-Eaton is unknown, but it may be due to anti-tumor antibodies that cross-react with calcium channels involved in neuromuscular function. Resection of the primary tumor or use of immunosuppressive agents may lead to an improvement in symptoms for some patients.

      In contrast, neurological manifestations are rare in colorectal carcinoma, with only a few case reports of patients presenting with neurological symptoms as a paraneoplastic syndrome secondary to colorectal carcinoma. Bronchial carcinoid is more likely to cause endocrine paraneoplastic syndromes, such as Cushing’s syndrome. Renal cell carcinoma is also more likely to cause an endocrine picture rather than neurological manifestations. Similarly, pancreatic tumors are more commonly associated with endocrinological manifestations than neurological presentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 26 - A baby boy born 3 weeks ago has been experiencing persistent jaundice since...

    Incorrect

    • A baby boy born 3 weeks ago has been experiencing persistent jaundice since 72 hours after birth. His parents have observed that he is hesitant to breastfeed and his urine appears dark. During your examination, you confirm that the infant is jaundiced and has an enlarged liver. Upon reviewing his blood work, you find that he has conjugated hyperbilirubinemia. His serum alpha-1 antitrypsin levels and electrophoresis are normal, and the neonatal heel prick test conducted at birth was negative. What is the recommended treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Early surgical treatment

      Explanation:

      Biliary atresia is the primary cause of prolonged jaundice in this infant, which occurs due to an obstruction in the flow of bile within the extrahepatic biliary system. To confirm the diagnosis, bilirubin levels, liver function tests, and abdominal ultrasound are performed, while alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency and cystic fibrosis are excluded as differential diagnoses. The Kasai procedure, a surgical intervention, is the preferred treatment option to restore bile flow and prevent further hepatic damage. Postoperative management may involve IV antibiotics to manage complications such as ascending cholangitis, while ursodeoxycholic acid may be used to augment weight gain and decrease episodes of cholangitis. Optimizing feeds is also important, but not the primary management option in this case, as the heel prick test has excluded CF. Infusion of alpha-1 antitrypsin is not necessary, as the infant’s serum levels are normal.

      Understanding Biliary Atresia in Neonatal Children

      Biliary atresia is a condition that affects the extrahepatic biliary system in neonatal children, resulting in an obstruction in the flow of bile. This condition is more common in females than males and occurs in 1 in every 10,000-15,000 live births. There are three types of biliary atresia, with type 3 being the most common. Patients typically present with jaundice, dark urine, pale stools, and abnormal growth.

      To diagnose biliary atresia, doctors may perform various tests, including serum bilirubin, liver function tests, serum alpha 1-antitrypsin, sweat chloride test, and ultrasound of the biliary tree and liver. Surgical intervention is the only definitive treatment for biliary atresia, and medical intervention includes antibiotic coverage and bile acid enhancers following surgery.

      Complications of biliary atresia include unsuccessful anastomosis formation, progressive liver disease, cirrhosis, and eventual hepatocellular carcinoma. However, the prognosis is good if surgery is successful. In cases where surgery fails, liver transplantation may be required in the first two years of life. Overall, understanding biliary atresia is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management in neonatal children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old construction worker presents with a haematemesis.

    His wife provides a history...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old construction worker presents with a haematemesis.

      His wife provides a history that he has consumed approximately six cans of beer per day together with liberal quantities of whiskey for many years. He has attempted to quit drinking in the past but was unsuccessful.

      Upon examination, he appears distressed and disoriented. His pulse is 110 beats per minute and blood pressure is 112/80 mmHg. He has several spider naevi over his chest. Abdominal examination reveals a distended abdomen with ascites.

      What would be your next course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endoscopy

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Haematemesis in a Patient with Alcohol Abuse

      When a patient with a history of alcohol abuse presents with symptoms of chronic liver disease and sudden haematemesis, the possibility of bleeding oesophageal varices should be considered as the primary diagnosis. However, other potential causes such as peptic ulceration or haemorrhagic gastritis should also be taken into account. To determine the exact cause of the bleeding, an urgent endoscopy should be requested. This procedure will allow for a thorough examination of the gastrointestinal tract and enable the medical team to identify the source of the bleeding. Prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial in managing this potentially life-threatening condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 28 - A 60-year-old man presents with shortness of breath and dizziness. On examination, he...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents with shortness of breath and dizziness. On examination, he has an irregularly irregular pulse.
      Which of the following conditions in his past medical history might be the cause of his presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperthyroidism

      Explanation:

      Common Endocrine Disorders and their Cardiac Manifestations

      Endocrine disorders can have significant effects on the cardiovascular system, including the development of arrhythmias. Atrial fibrillation is a common arrhythmia that can be caused by hyperthyroidism, which should be tested for in patients presenting with this condition. Other signs of thyrotoxicosis include sinus tachycardia, physiological tremor, lid lag, and lid retraction. Graves’ disease, a common cause of hyperthyroidism, can also present with pretibial myxoedema, proptosis, chemosis, and thyroid complex ophthalmoplegia. Mnemonics such as SHIMMERS and ABCD can be used to remember the causes and management of atrial fibrillation.

      Cushing syndrome, hyperparathyroidism, and hypothyroidism can also have cardiac manifestations, although they are not typically associated with arrhythmias. Cushing syndrome is not commonly associated with arrhythmias, while hyperparathyroidism can cause hypercalcemia, leading to non-specific symptoms such as aches and pains, dehydration, fatigue, mood disturbance, constipation, and renal stones. Hypothyroidism, on the other hand, may cause bradycardia and can be caused by various factors such as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, subacute thyroiditis, iodine deficiency, and iatrogenic factors such as post-carbimazole treatment, radio-iodine, thyroidectomy, and certain medications like lithium and amiodarone.

      In summary, endocrine disorders can have significant effects on the cardiovascular system, and it is important to be aware of their potential cardiac manifestations, including arrhythmias. Early detection and management of these conditions can help prevent serious complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 29 - A 32-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of muscle weakness and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of muscle weakness and twitching throughout her body. During the consultation, she also mentions experiencing occasional palpitations, which she had attributed to anxiety and a lack of appetite. The patient has a medical history of Crohn's disease and chronic diarrhea. What is the most probable abnormality that will be detected in her blood test results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low magnesium

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Abnormal Lab Results in a Patient with Crohn’s Disease

      In patients with Crohn’s disease, abnormal lab results can provide valuable information about their condition. In this case, the patient presents with symptoms such as muscle weakness, twitching, irritability, and palpitations. The following lab results were obtained: low magnesium, low haemoglobin, low vitamin D, raised bilirubin, and raised creatinine.

      Low magnesium levels are common in patients with malabsorption or chronic diarrhoea, which is seen in this patient. Although unlikely to be the cause of palpitations, it is important to check magnesium levels in the workup of palpitations. Low haemoglobin levels may occur in patients with Crohn’s disease, but it would not cause the collection of symptoms described here. Low vitamin D is likely to present with generalised muscle and/or bone aches and pains and fatigue, but not muscle twitching. Raised bilirubin levels would be likely to present with jaundice, a change in the colour of urine and/or stool, abdominal pain or nausea. Patients with renal impairment may be asymptomatic or can present with fatigue, nausea, itching, leg swelling, and shortness of breath, but not weakness or twitching. Given the history of Crohn’s disease and chronic diarrhoea, an abnormality linked to malabsorption is more likely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 30 - A 50-year-old male is referred by his GP for an endoscopy due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male is referred by his GP for an endoscopy due to recurrent indigestion. During the procedure, a small duodenal ulcer is discovered and Helicobacter pylori is found to be present. What is the recommended treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Omeprazole, amoxicillin and metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Helicobacter Pylori and Peptic Ulceration

      Helicobacter pylori is a type of bacteria that is classified as a gram negative curved rod. It has been linked to the development of peptic ulceration by inhibiting the processes involved in healing. In fact, up to 90% of patients with duodenal ulceration and 70% of cases of peptic ulceration may be caused by Helicobacter infection.

      To treat this condition, therapy should focus on acid suppression and eradication of Helicobacter. Triple therapy is the most effective treatment, which involves using a proton pump inhibitor like omeprazole along with two antibiotics such as amoxicillin and metronidazole or clarithromycin. This treatment is required for one week, and proton pump therapy should continue thereafter.

      Overall, it is important to address Helicobacter pylori infection in patients with peptic ulceration to promote healing and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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