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Question 1
Correct
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A 14-month-old boy is brought to the children's emergency department by his parents who report loss of consciousness and seizure activity. Paramedics state that he was not seizing when they arrived. He has a temperature of 38.5ºC and has been unwell recently. His other observations are normal. He has no known past medical history.
After investigations, the child is diagnosed with a febrile convulsion. What advice should you give his parents regarding this new diagnosis?Your Answer: Call an ambulance only when a febrile convulsion lasts longer than 5 minutes
Explanation:Febrile convulsions are a common occurrence in young children, with up to 5% of children experiencing them. However, only a small percentage of these children will develop epilepsy. Risk factors for febrile convulsions include a family history of the condition and a background of neurodevelopmental disorder. The use of regular antipyretics has not been proven to decrease the likelihood of febrile convulsions.
Febrile convulsions are seizures caused by fever in children aged 6 months to 5 years. They typically last less than 5 minutes and are most commonly tonic-clonic. There are three types: simple, complex, and febrile status epilepticus. Children who have had a first seizure or any features of a complex seizure should be admitted to pediatrics. Regular antipyretics do not reduce the chance of a febrile seizure occurring. The overall risk of further febrile convulsion is 1 in 3, with risk factors including age of onset, fever duration, family history, and link to epilepsy. Children without risk factors have a 2.5% risk of developing epilepsy, while those with all three features have a much higher risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 2
Correct
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A teenager attends the GP with his mother who is concerned about his height. The GP charts the teenager's height on a growth chart and finds him to be in the 5th percentile. At birth, he was in the 50th percentile. However, the teenager's developmental milestones are normal, and he appears to be content with himself. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this teenager?
Your Answer: Make a referral to the the paediatric outpatients clinic
Explanation:A paediatrician should review children who fall below the 0.4th centile for height. Referral is the appropriate course of action as it is not an urgent matter. While waiting for the review, it is advisable to conduct thyroid function tests and insulin-like growth factor tests on the child.
Understanding Growth and Factors Affecting It
Growth is a significant aspect that distinguishes children from adults. It occurs in three stages: infancy, childhood, and puberty. Several factors affect fetal growth, including environmental, placental, hormonal, and genetic factors. Maternal nutrition and uterine capacity are the most crucial environmental factors that affect fetal growth.
During infancy, nutrition and insulin are the primary drivers of growth. Insulin plays a significant role in fetal growth, as high levels of insulin in a mother with poorly controlled diabetes can result in hypoglycemia and macrosomia in the baby. In childhood, growth hormone and thyroxine drive growth, while in puberty, growth hormone and sex steroids are the primary drivers. Genetic factors are the most important determinant of final adult height.
It is essential to monitor growth regularly to ensure that children are growing at a healthy rate. Infants aged 0-1 years should have at least five weight recordings, while children aged 1-2 years should have at least three weight recordings. Children older than two years should have annual weight recordings. Children below the 2nd centile for height should be reviewed by their GP, while those below the 0.4th centile for height should be reviewed by a paediatrician. Understanding growth and the factors that affect it is crucial for ensuring healthy development in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 3
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman gives birth to a 37-week gestational age male neonate. Within 6 hours after delivery, the neonate shows signs of excessive respiratory efforts and tachypnoea. There is grunting and intercostal retraction. A chest X-ray reveals bilateral pulmonary oedema with a ground-glass appearance. What antenatal examination findings are most likely to have been observed in the mother?
Your Answer: Fasting blood sugar of 14.0 mmol/l
Explanation:The neonate in question has a fasting blood sugar level of 14.0 mmol/l and is suffering from neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS). This is a common condition in premature infants, and those born to diabetic mothers are at an increased risk due to delayed lung maturation. An elevated total thyroxine concentration is a normal response to pregnancy and is not related to NRDS. Maternal hypocalcaemia also has no relation to NRDS. A positive indirect Coombs’ test indicates a risk of Rh isoimmunisation in the fetus, which can lead to complications such as erythroblastosis fetalis and jaundice, but is not directly related to NRDS. Elevated titres of anti-nuclear and anti-SSA antibodies are associated with maternal systemic lupus erythematosus and fetal conduction heart block, but again, this is not directly related to NRDS unless it leads to preterm birth. Overall, prematurity and maternal diabetes are the major risk factors for NRDS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 4
Correct
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You are conducting a routine check-up on a one-month-old infant and notice that the baby has ambiguous genitalia. The parents are understandably upset and want to know what could have caused this. What is the most probable reason for the ambiguous genitalia in this situation?
Your Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Explanation:The most common cause of ambiguous genitalia in newborns is congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Kallman’s syndrome does not result in ambiguous genitalia, as those affected are typically male but have hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, which is usually diagnosed during puberty. Androgen insensitivity syndrome results in individuals who are phenotypically female and do not have ambiguous genitalia. Male pseudohermaphroditism is a rare cause of ambiguous genitalia, with external genitalia typically being female or ambiguous and testes usually present.
During fetal development, the gonads are initially undifferentiated. However, the presence of the sex-determining gene (SRY gene) on the Y chromosome causes the gonads to differentiate into testes. In the absence of this gene (i.e. in a female), the gonads differentiate into ovaries. Ambiguous genitalia in newborns is most commonly caused by congenital adrenal hyperplasia, but can also be caused by true hermaphroditism or maternal ingestion of androgens.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 5
Correct
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Which one of the following statements regarding osteosarcoma is true?
Your Answer: More than 90% of children survive to adulthood
Explanation:Retinoblastoma is a prevalent type of eye cancer that is commonly found in children, with an average age of diagnosis at 18 months. It is caused by a loss of function of the retinoblastoma tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 13, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. About 10% of cases are hereditary. The most common presenting symptom is the absence of red-reflex, which is replaced by a white pupil (leukocoria). Other possible features include strabismus and visual problems.
When it comes to managing retinoblastoma, enucleation is not the only option. Depending on how advanced the tumor is, other treatment options include external beam radiation therapy, chemotherapy, and photocoagulation. The prognosis for retinoblastoma is excellent, with over 90% of patients surviving into adulthood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old known type 1 diabetic presents with vomiting, abdominal pain, and drowsiness. During the examination, you detect a distinct smell of pear drops on her breath. Despite the severity of her condition, she insists on leaving to attend a friend's birthday party. After discussing the potential consequences of leaving, she appears to comprehend the risks and can articulate her decision. However, her parents believe she should remain for treatment. What course of action should you take?
Your Answer: Call security to restrain the patient
Correct Answer: Admit the patient for treatment, seeking legal advice if she continues to refuse treatment
Explanation:This person is below the age of 16 but is considered to have the ability to make decisions. As a result, they have the right to consent to treatment without the need for parental approval. However, if they choose to decline treatment, their best interests must be taken into account. In this case, the patient is suffering from diabetic ketoacidosis, and leaving without treatment would likely result in death. Therefore, it would be reasonable to conclude that it is in their best interests to receive treatment.
According to the General Medical Council’s ethical guidelines, parents cannot override the competent consent of a young person when it comes to treatment that is deemed to be in their best interests. However, if a child lacks the capacity to consent, parental consent can be relied upon. In Scotland, parents are unable to authorize treatment that a competent young person has refused. In England, Wales, and Northern Ireland, the laws regarding parents overriding a young person’s competent refusal are complex.
When a young person refuses treatment, the harm to their rights must be carefully weighed against the benefits of treatment to make decisions that are in their best interests. This is outlined in paragraphs 30-33 of the GMC’s ethical guidance for individuals aged 0-18 years.
Understanding Consent in Children
The issue of consent in children can be complex and confusing. However, there are some general guidelines to follow. If a patient is under 16 years old, they may be able to consent to treatment if they are deemed competent. This is determined by the Fraser guidelines, which were previously known as Gillick competence. However, even if a child is competent, they cannot refuse treatment that is deemed to be in their best interest.
For patients between the ages of 16 and 18, it is generally assumed that they are competent to give consent to treatment. Patients who are 18 years or older can consent to or refuse treatment.
When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years old, the Fraser Guidelines outline specific requirements that must be met. These include ensuring that the young person understands the advice given by the healthcare professional, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to engage in sexual activity with or without treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without treatment. Ultimately, the young person’s best interests must be taken into account when deciding whether to provide contraceptive advice or treatment, with or without parental consent.
In summary, understanding consent in children requires careful consideration of age, competence, and best interests. The Fraser Guidelines provide a useful framework for healthcare professionals to follow when providing treatment and advice to young patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 9-week-old boy is presented to his GP by his parents who are concerned about an undescended testis. The patient was born at term following an uncomplicated pregnancy and birth and has been healthy since birth. On examination, the left testicle is not palpable in the scrotal sac and is unretractable, while the right testicle has fully descended. What is the most suitable next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Routine referral to paediatric surgery
Correct Answer: Review in 1 month
Explanation:If a male child’s testes have not descended by 3 months of age, it is important to refer them for further evaluation. In the case of a 2-month-old child with a unilateral undescended testicle, the appropriate course of action is to review the situation again in 1 month. It is crucial to monitor the child’s condition as undescended testes can increase the risk of testicular cancer and infertility. While there is a chance that the testicle may descend on its own, it is important to ensure that it does so. Reassurance without follow-up would not be appropriate in this case. If the child were over 3 months of age, a routine referral would be necessary, but in this scenario, the child is only 2 months old. An urgent referral is not necessary at this stage. Waiting until the child is 1 year old to review the case would be inappropriate. If the testicle remains undescended by 3 months of age, the child should be referred to paediatric surgery for orchidopexy by 18 months of age.
Undescended Testis: Causes, Complications, and Management
Undescended testis is a condition that affects around 2-3% of male infants born at term, but it is more common in preterm babies. Bilateral undescended testes occur in about 25% of cases. This condition can lead to complications such as infertility, torsion, testicular cancer, and psychological issues.
To manage unilateral undescended testis, NICE CKS recommends considering referral from around 3 months of age, with the baby ideally seeing a urological surgeon before 6 months of age. Orchidopexy, a surgical procedure, is typically performed at around 1 year of age, although surgical practices may vary.
For bilateral undescended testes, it is crucial to have the child reviewed by a senior paediatrician within 24 hours as they may require urgent endocrine or genetic investigation. Proper management of undescended testis is essential to prevent complications and ensure the child’s overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 8
Correct
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A 5-year-old girl comes to the GP with her father. He reports that she has had a fever and a sore throat for the past 3 days and now has a rash all over her trunk and legs. During the examination, the child appears lethargic, flushed, and has a rough-textured erythematosus rash on her trunk and legs. The doctor observes a swollen red tongue and cervical lymphadenopathy during throat examination. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Scarlet Fever
Explanation:The child’s symptoms are consistent with scarlet fever, which is characterized by a sandpaper-like rash, swollen tongue, and lymphadenopathy. Treatment with a 10-day course of penicillin V is recommended, and the child should stay home from school for 24 hours after starting antibiotics. Public health should also be notified. Kawasaki disease, rubella, and parvovirus are unlikely diagnoses based on the child’s presentation.
Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more prevalent in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease spreads through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges, especially during sneezing and coughing. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, nausea/vomiting, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. The rash has a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture and desquamation occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes.
To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be initiated immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves administering oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Although usually a mild illness, scarlet fever may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, or necrotizing fasciitis, which may present acutely with life-threatening illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl is presented to the GP clinic with a flare-up of asthma. Upon examination, she displays bilateral expiratory wheezing but no signs of respiratory distress. Her respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute and PEF is approximately 60% of normal. What is the recommended course of action for steroid treatment?
Your Answer: Double his usual beclomethasone dose
Correct Answer: Oral prednisolone for 3 days
Explanation:According to the 2016 guidelines of the British Thoracic Society, children should be given a specific dose of steroids based on their age. For children under 2 years, the dose should be 10 mg of prednisolone, for those aged 2-5 years, it should be 20 mg, and for those over 5 years, it should be 30-40 mg. Children who are already taking maintenance steroid tablets should receive a maximum dose of 60 mg or 2 mg/kg of prednisolone. If a child vomits after taking the medication, the dose should be repeated, and if they are unable to retain the medication orally, intravenous steroids should be considered. The duration of treatment should be tailored to the number of days required for recovery, and a course of steroids exceeding 14 days does not require tapering.
Managing Acute Asthma Attacks in Children
When it comes to managing acute asthma attacks in children, it is important to assess the severity of the attack and take appropriate action. For children between the ages of 2 and 5, those with severe or life-threatening asthma should be immediately transferred to the hospital. For moderate attacks, children should have a SpO2 level above 92% and no clinical features of severe asthma. However, for severe attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, be too breathless to talk or feed, have a heart rate above 140/min, and use accessory neck muscles. For life-threatening attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, agitation, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.
For children over the age of 5, it is recommended to attempt to measure PEF in all cases. For moderate attacks, children should have a SpO2 level above 92%, a PEF level above 50% best or predicted, and no clinical features of severe asthma. For severe attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level between 33-50% best or predicted, and be unable to complete sentences in one breath or too breathless to talk or feed. For life-threatening attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level below 33% best or predicted, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.
For children with mild to moderate acute asthma, bronchodilator therapy should be given via a beta-2 agonist and spacer (or close-fitting mask for children under 3 years old). One puff should be given every 30-60 seconds up to a maximum of 10 puffs. If symptoms are not controlled, the beta-2 agonist should be repeated and the child should be referred to the hospital. Steroid therapy should also be given to all children with an asthma exacerbation for 3-5 days, with the usual prednisolone dose varying based on age and weight.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman has just had her 34 week check. The patient reported reduced fetal movements 3 days ago, but they are now back to normal. An ultrasound was performed to investigate any potential issues. The obstetrician informs her that a defect in the abdominal wall has been detected and the baby's intestines are outside the body but enclosed in a membrane. Despite this, the baby is healthy. What is the best course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: Give IM corticosteroids immediately
Correct Answer: Plan a caesarean section at 37 weeks
Explanation:If the unborn baby has exomphalos, it is recommended to opt for a caesarean section to minimize the chances of sac rupture. The presence of a membrane containing the abdominal content suggests that the baby is likely to have exomphalos. While vaginal delivery is possible, a caesarean section is the safest delivery option. There is no need for an emergency caesarean section as the baby is not experiencing any distress. Inducing labor for vaginal delivery is not advisable, and a caesarean section is a better option. Additionally, IM corticosteroids are not necessary as there is no risk of premature delivery at present. These steroids are typically used when women are at risk of or experience premature labor.
Gastroschisis and exomphalos are both types of congenital visceral malformations. Gastroschisis refers to a defect in the anterior abdominal wall located just beside the umbilical cord. In contrast, exomphalos, also known as omphalocoele, involves the protrusion of abdominal contents through the anterior abdominal wall, which are covered by an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum.
When it comes to managing gastroschisis, vaginal delivery may be attempted, but newborns should be taken to the operating theatre as soon as possible after delivery, ideally within four hours. As for exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to reduce the risk of sac rupture. In cases where primary closure is difficult due to lack of space or high intra-abdominal pressure, a staged repair may be undertaken. This involves allowing the sac to granulate and epithelialise over several weeks or months, forming a shell. As the infant grows, the sac contents will eventually fit within the abdominal cavity, at which point the shell can be removed and the abdomen closed.
Overall, both gastroschisis and exomphalos require careful management to ensure the best possible outcome for the newborn. By understanding the differences between these two conditions and the appropriate steps to take, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support to both the infant and their family.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 4-week-old infant boy born at 37 weeks gestation by caesarian section is presented to his pediatrician for a routine check-up. The pediatrician observes that the neonate's urethral meatus is situated on the ventral aspect of the penile shaft, instead of the distal glans penis. What other congenital anomaly is this neonate more likely to have?
Your Answer: Posterior urethral valve
Correct Answer: Cryptorchidism
Explanation:Hypospadias is often accompanied by cryptorchidism in neonates, indicating a potential issue with embryological urogenital migration that may be linked to endocrine disruptions during pregnancy, such as low serum androgens. Imperforate anus, obstructive uropathy with a patent urachus, and posterior urethral valve are not associated with hypospadias and would present with different symptoms or complications.
Understanding Hypospadias: A Congenital Abnormality of the Penis
Hypospadias is a condition that affects approximately 3 out of 1,000 male infants. It is a congenital abnormality of the penis that is usually identified during the newborn baby check. However, if missed, parents may notice an abnormal urine stream. This condition is characterized by a ventral urethral meatus, a hooded prepuce, and chordee in more severe forms. The urethral meatus may open more proximally in the more severe variants, but 75% of the openings are distally located. There appears to be a significant genetic element, with further male children having a risk of around 5-15%.
Hypospadias most commonly occurs as an isolated disorder, but it can also be associated with other conditions such as cryptorchidism (present in 10%) and inguinal hernia. Once hypospadias has been identified, infants should be referred to specialist services. Corrective surgery is typically performed when the child is around 12 months of age. It is essential that the child is not circumcised prior to the surgery as the foreskin may be used in the corrective procedure. In boys with very distal disease, no treatment may be needed. Understanding hypospadias is important for parents and healthcare providers to ensure proper management and treatment of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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You are evaluating the growth of a 6-week-old infant. Her length is at the 35th percentile, weight at the 42nd percentile, and head circumference at the 4th percentile. What is the probable reason for her microcephaly?
Your Answer: Thalassaemia
Correct Answer: Foetal alcohol syndrome
Explanation:Microcephaly is often linked to foetal alcohol syndrome, which also presents with other physical characteristics such as a smooth philtrum, hypoplastic upper lip, and epicanthic folds. Conditions like Thalassaemia, Turner’s syndrome, and cerebral palsy do not typically impact head size, while Achondroplasia is associated with macrocephaly and frontal bossing, not microcephaly. Recognizing the distinct physical features of congenital conditions is crucial for both exams and accurate diagnosis.
Understanding Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
Fetal alcohol syndrome is a condition that occurs when a pregnant woman consumes alcohol, which can lead to various physical and mental abnormalities in the developing fetus. At birth, the baby may exhibit symptoms of alcohol withdrawal, such as irritability, hypotonia, and tremors.
The features of fetal alcohol syndrome include a short palpebral fissure, a thin vermillion border or hypoplastic upper lip, a smooth or absent philtrum, learning difficulties, microcephaly, growth retardation, epicanthic folds, and cardiac malformations. These physical characteristics can vary in severity and may affect the child’s overall health and development.
It is important for pregnant women to avoid alcohol consumption to prevent fetal alcohol syndrome and other potential complications. Early diagnosis and intervention can also help improve outcomes for children with fetal alcohol syndrome. By understanding the risks and consequences of alcohol use during pregnancy, we can work towards promoting healthier pregnancies and better outcomes for children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents at 16+4 weeks gestation for amniocentesis due to a high-risk combined screening test, which revealed trisomy 21. What is a potential late complication associated with this condition?
Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot
Correct Answer: Alzheimer's disease
Explanation:Alzheimer’s disease is a late complication of Down syndrome. This is due to the extra copy of chromosome 21 that people with Down syndrome are born with, which produces an excess of amyloid precursor protein (APP). The buildup of beta-amyloid plaques in the brain, caused by too much APP protein, is a major risk factor for developing Alzheimer’s disease. By the age of 40, most people with Down syndrome have these plaques, as well as tau tangles, which further increase the risk of developing Alzheimer’s disease.
Chronic myeloid leukemia is not a late complication of Down syndrome, but acute lymphoblastic leukemia is. Symptoms of ALL may include frequent infections, bleeding, night sweats, bone and joint pain, and easy bruising.
Hirschsprung disease is a birth defect that can occur in babies with Down syndrome, but it is considered an early complication. It results from missing nerve cells in parts of the large intestine, causing severe constipation and sometimes intestinal obstruction.
Hypothyroidism is another late complication of Down syndrome, often caused by an autoimmune reaction. Hyperthyroidism is rare in people with Down syndrome.
Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is characterized by various clinical features. These features include an upslanting of the palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in the iris, a protruding tongue, small low-set ears, and a round or flat face. Additionally, individuals with Down’s syndrome may have a flat occiput, a single palmar crease, and a pronounced sandal gap between their big and first toe. Hypotonia, congenital heart defects, duodenal atresia, and Hirschsprung’s disease are also common in individuals with Down’s syndrome.
Cardiac complications are also prevalent in individuals with Down’s syndrome, with multiple cardiac problems potentially present. The most common cardiac defect is the endocardial cushion defect, also known as atrioventricular septal canal defects, which affects 40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Other cardiac defects include ventricular septal defect, secundum atrial septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, and isolated patent ductus arteriosus.
Later complications of Down’s syndrome include subfertility, learning difficulties, short stature, repeated respiratory infections, hearing impairment from glue ear, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s disease, and atlantoaxial instability. Males with Down’s syndrome are almost always infertile due to impaired spermatogenesis, while females are usually subfertile and have an increased incidence of problems with pregnancy and labour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl from Manchester is presented to the emergency room by her father with complaints of abdominal discomfort for the past 48 hours. Upon examination, there is a suspicion of appendicitis and a recommendation for hospitalization is made. However, the patient refuses to be admitted as she has a concert to attend tonight. Despite being fully informed of the potential consequences of untreated appendicitis, she insists on leaving. What is the best course of action in this scenario?
Your Answer: A psychiatric opinion is mandatory before further management
Correct Answer: His mother may overrule his wishes
Explanation:In England and Wales, a child can provide consent for treatment, but cannot decline it. The demonstration of capacity, as per the Fraser guidelines, is not a significant factor.
Guidelines for Obtaining Consent in Children
The General Medical Council has provided guidelines for obtaining consent in children. According to these guidelines, young people who are 16 years or older can be treated as adults and are presumed to have the capacity to make decisions. However, for children under the age of 16, their ability to understand what is involved determines whether they have the capacity to decide. If a competent child refuses treatment, a person with parental responsibility or the court may authorize investigation or treatment that is in the child’s best interests.
When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years of age, the Fraser Guidelines must be followed. These guidelines state that the young person must understand the professional’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without contraceptive treatment. Additionally, the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent.
Some doctors use the term Fraser competency when referring to contraception and Gillick competency when referring to general issues of consent in children. However, rumors that Victoria Gillick removed her permission to use her name or applied copyright have been debunked. It is important to note that in Scotland, those with parental responsibility cannot authorize procedures that a competent child has refused.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 15
Correct
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Which of the following symptoms is not associated with acute or subacute lead poisoning in infants?
Your Answer: Blue line on the gums
Explanation:Lead Poisoning in Infancy
Lead poisoning in infancy can cause various symptoms such as anaemia, pica, abdominal colic, and encephalopathy. However, the blue line on the gingival margin, which is a characteristic feature of very chronic lead poisoning, is unlikely to occur in infants. Lead poisoning can lead to anaemia due to erythroid hypoplasia and/or haemolysis. Pica and abdominal colic are common symptoms of lead poisoning in infants, while encephalopathy is only seen in severe cases. It is important to be aware of these symptoms and seek medical attention if lead poisoning is suspected in infants. Proper management and treatment can prevent further complications and ensure the child’s well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 16
Correct
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A child is born at 28 weeks gestation and is transferred to the neonatal unit. After a few hours, the child shows signs of nasal flaring, chest wall indrawing, and appears to have jaundice. The observations show a heart rate of 75/min, a respiratory rate of 68/min, and a temperature of 38.2ºC. What is the most common organism responsible for the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Group B streptococcus
Explanation:The leading cause of early-onset neonatal sepsis in the UK is infection by group B streptococcus.
Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management
Neonatal sepsis is a serious bacterial or viral infection in the blood that affects babies within the first 28 days of life. It is categorized into early-onset (EOS) and late-onset (LOS) sepsis, with each category having distinct causes and common presentations. The most common causes of neonatal sepsis are group B streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli, accounting for approximately two-thirds of cases. Premature and low birth weight babies are at higher risk, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy. Symptoms can vary from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.
Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management
Neonatal sepsis is a serious infection that affects newborn babies within the first 28 days of life. It can be caused by a variety of bacteria and viruses, with GBS and E. coli being the most common. Premature and low birth weight babies, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy, are at higher risk. Symptoms can range from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A father brings his 3-month-old daughter into the clinic for her first round of vaccinations. He expresses concerns about the safety of the rotavirus vaccine. Can you provide information about this vaccine to ease his worries?
Your Answer: A second dose will be required when her son reaches 3 years of age
Correct Answer: It is an oral, live attenuated vaccine
Explanation:The vaccine for rotavirus is administered orally and is live attenuated. It is given to infants at two and three months of age, along with other oral vaccines like polio and typhoid. Two doses are necessary, and it is not typically given to three-year-olds. This vaccine is not injected and is not an inactivated toxin, unlike vaccines for tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis.
The Rotavirus Vaccine: A Vital Tool in Preventing Childhood Illness and Mortality
Rotavirus is a significant public health concern, causing high rates of morbidity and hospitalization in developed countries and childhood mortality in developing nations. To combat this, a vaccine was introduced into the NHS immunization program in 2013. This vaccine is an oral, live attenuated vaccine that requires two doses, the first at two months and the second at three months. It is important to note that the first dose should not be given after 14 weeks and six days, and the second dose cannot be given after 23 weeks and six days due to the theoretical risk of intussusception.
The rotavirus vaccine is highly effective, with an estimated efficacy rate of 85-90%. It is predicted to reduce hospitalization rates by 70% and provides long-term protection against rotavirus. This vaccine is a vital tool in preventing childhood illness and mortality, particularly in developing countries where access to healthcare may be limited. By ensuring that children receive the rotavirus vaccine, we can help to protect them from this dangerous and potentially deadly virus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old girl presents to a general practice appointment with her mother complaining of right-sided hip pain and occasional limp for the past month. The patient is feeling well, has no fever, and is in the 90th percentile for weight. She was born via spontaneous vertex vaginal delivery at term and had a normal newborn physical examination. On examination, there is limited range of motion in her right hip. A frog-leg hip x-ray is ordered, which reveals sclerosis of the right upper femoral epiphysis and moderate resorption of the femoral head. What is the most accurate diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: 30% of cases are bilateral
Correct Answer: The condition is 5 times more common in boys
Explanation:Perthes disease is a condition that primarily affects one hip, with only a minority of patients experiencing it in both hips. It is not associated with obesity, unlike slipped capital femoral epiphysis which is more common in overweight children. The management of Perthes disease typically involves conservative measures such as casting or bracing, although surgery may be necessary for older children or those with significant damage to the hip socket. The use of a Pavlik harness is not appropriate for treating Perthes disease, as it is typically used for developmental dysplasia of the hip.
Understanding Perthes’ Disease
Perthes’ disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children, typically between the ages of 4-8 years. It is caused by a lack of blood supply to the femoral head, which leads to bone infarction and avascular necrosis. This condition is more common in boys, with around 10% of cases being bilateral. The symptoms of Perthes’ disease include hip pain, stiffness, reduced range of hip movement, and a limp. Early changes can be seen on an x-ray, such as widening of the joint space, while later changes include decreased femoral head size and flattening.
To diagnose Perthes’ disease, a plain x-ray is usually sufficient. However, if symptoms persist and the x-ray is normal, a technetium bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging may be necessary. If left untreated, Perthes’ disease can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis and premature fusion of the growth plates.
The severity of Perthes’ disease is classified using the Catterall staging system, which ranges from stage 1 (clinical and histological features only) to stage 4 (loss of acetabular integrity). Treatment options include keeping the femoral head within the acetabulum using a cast or braces, observation for children under 6 years old, and surgical management for older children with severe deformities. The prognosis for Perthes’ disease is generally good, with most cases resolving with conservative management. Early diagnosis is key to improving outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 4-month old baby presents with a murmur and cyanosis. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Atrial septal defect
Correct Answer: Fallot's tetralogy
Explanation:Causes of Cyanotic Congenital Cardiac Disease
Cyanotic congenital cardiac disease is a condition that causes a lack of oxygen in the body, resulting in a blue or purple discoloration of the skin. The most common cause of this condition that does not present in the first few days of life is Fallot’s tetralogy. However, transposition of the great arteries is almost as common, but it presents in the first few days. Other causes of cyanotic congenital cardiac disease include tricuspid atresia, single ventricle, and transposition of the great vessels. As the condition progresses, Eisenmenger’s syndrome may develop due to the switch to right to left flow associated with deteriorating VSD. It is important to identify and treat these conditions early to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A female infant is presenting with dyspnea and cyanosis. The mother attempted to feed her but noticed milk coming out of her nose and difficulty breathing during feeding. Upon examination, the infant was found to be tachypneic and tachycardic with intercostal recession. A bulge was observed on the praecordium and an early systolic murmur was heard along the left sternal edge. The chest x-ray revealed cardiomegaly, a loss of the normal thymus shadow, and a right aortic notch. Blood tests were normal except for low corrected serum calcium. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot
Correct Answer: DiGeorge syndrome
Explanation:DiGeorge Syndrome
DiGeorge syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by a deletion of chromosomal region 22q11.2. It affects around 1 in 3000 live births and is characterized by a spectrum of disorders. The poor migration of neural crest cells to the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches is thought to be the cause of the midline abnormalities found in DiGeorge syndrome. These abnormalities include cardiac defects, abnormal facies, thymic hypoplasia, and hypocalcemia.
Characteristic facies develop as the child grows and include high broad noses, low set ears, small teeth, and narrow eyes. Other systems may also be affected, and cognitive and psychiatric problems are common but variable. Around 80% of patients have an associated cardiac defect, often of a conotruncal variety. Tetralogy of Fallot is also found, as are other defects such as ventricular septal defects and atrial septal defects.
The diagnosis of DiGeorge syndrome can be difficult, but clinical features consistent with the diagnosis include abnormalities of heart sounds and features of cardiac failure or cyanosis. The chest x-ray helps with the diagnosis, and an echocardiogram and possibly high resolution contrast CT imaging would be helpful in these cases. The above example has a persistent truncus arteriosus, which is a failure to separate the aorta and the main pulmonary artery. This can lead to dyspnea, cyanosis, and cardiac failure.
In summary, DiGeorge syndrome is a complex disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. Early diagnosis and management are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with episodes of cyanosis during physical activity. He was born at term via normal vaginal delivery, without complications during pregnancy. The child has been healthy, but recently started experiencing bluish skin during physical activity.
After examination, the child is diagnosed with Fallot's tetralogy.
What is a common association with a patient diagnosed with Fallot's tetralogy?Your Answer: Atrial septal defect (ASD)
Correct Answer: Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
Explanation:Common Heart Conditions and Their Characteristics
Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD), Pulmonary Stenosis, Right Ventricular Outflow Tract (RVOT) Obstruction, Right Ventricular Hypertrophy, and Overriding of the VSD by the Aorta are all characteristics of Fallot’s Tetralogy, the most common form of cyanotic congenital heart disease. This condition presents with cyanotic episodes, typically at 1-2 months of age. Atrial Septal Defect (ASD) is not associated with Fallot’s Tetralogy. Pulmonary Regurgitation is not seen in Fallot’s Tetralogy, but rather Pulmonary Stenosis. A Continuous Murmur throughout Systole and Diastole is a characteristic of Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA). Hypoplastic Right Ventricle is not associated with Fallot’s Tetralogy, but rather Right Ventricular Hypertrophy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What is the initial indication of puberty in males?
Your Answer: Height spurt
Correct Answer: Increase in testicular volume
Explanation:Puberty: Normal Changes in Males and Females
Puberty is a natural process that marks the transition from childhood to adulthood. In males, the first sign of puberty is testicular growth, which typically occurs around the age of 12. A testicular volume greater than 4 ml indicates the onset of puberty. The maximum height spurt for males occurs at the age of 14.
For females, the first sign of puberty is breast development, which typically occurs around the age of 11.5. The height spurt for females reaches its maximum early in puberty, at the age of 12, before menarche. Menarche, the onset of menstruation, typically occurs at the age of 13.
Following menarche, there is only a small increase of about 4% in height. It is important to note that normal changes in puberty may include gynaecomastia in boys, asymmetrical breast growth in girls, and diffuse enlargement of the thyroid gland. These changes are a natural part of the process and should not cause alarm. Understanding the normal changes that occur during puberty can help individuals navigate this important stage of development with confidence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl comes to the GP with a sudden onset of limp. She appears to be in good health. During the examination, she displays an antalgic gait. An MRI scan reveals decreased blood flow to the left hip, leading the doctor to suspect Perthes' disease. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Surgical repair
Correct Answer: Observation
Explanation:Perthes’ disease has a favorable prognosis when it presents before the age of 6, and observation is the only necessary treatment. This question confirms the diagnosis of Perthes’ disease through MRI, which shows reduced blood flow to the hip joint and causes hip pain and limping. Surgical intervention is only necessary for children over the age of 6. Septic arthritis, which requires treatment with flucloxacillin, is not the diagnosis in this case as the patient is not showing systemic symptoms. The use of a Pavlik harness is reserved for developmental dysplasia of the hip.
Understanding Perthes’ Disease
Perthes’ disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children, typically between the ages of 4-8 years. It is caused by a lack of blood supply to the femoral head, which leads to bone infarction and avascular necrosis. This condition is more common in boys, with around 10% of cases being bilateral. The symptoms of Perthes’ disease include hip pain, stiffness, reduced range of hip movement, and a limp. Early changes can be seen on an x-ray, such as widening of the joint space, while later changes include decreased femoral head size and flattening.
To diagnose Perthes’ disease, a plain x-ray is usually sufficient. However, if symptoms persist and the x-ray is normal, a technetium bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging may be necessary. If left untreated, Perthes’ disease can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis and premature fusion of the growth plates.
The severity of Perthes’ disease is classified using the Catterall staging system, which ranges from stage 1 (clinical and histological features only) to stage 4 (loss of acetabular integrity). Treatment options include keeping the femoral head within the acetabulum using a cast or braces, observation for children under 6 years old, and surgical management for older children with severe deformities. The prognosis for Perthes’ disease is generally good, with most cases resolving with conservative management. Early diagnosis is key to improving outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A loud systolic murmur, which extends into diastole and is ‘machinery-like’ in quality, is found in a toddler at his 18-month check-up. The murmur radiates to the back between the scapulae. His first heart sound is normal; the second sound is obscured by the murmur. He has bounding pulses. His mother reports that he is asymptomatic.
Which of the following is correct of this condition?Your Answer: This condition is due to failure of closure of a fetal vessel derived from the fourth aortic arch
Correct Answer: This condition is likely to occur with increased frequency in those with hyaline membrane disease of the lungs
Explanation:Misconceptions about a Pediatric Cardiac Condition
Clearing Up Misconceptions About a Pediatric Cardiac Condition
There are several misconceptions about a pediatric cardiac condition that need to be addressed. Firstly, the condition is likely to be patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), which can occur more frequently in children with hyaline membrane disease and cyanotic congenital heart conditions. However, it is treatable, with surgical repair required for larger defects.
Secondly, the right recurrent laryngeal nerve hooks around the right subclavian artery, which is not affected by PDA. Thirdly, the condition is not due to failure of closure of a fetal vessel derived from the fourth aortic arch.
Lastly, the underlying diagnosis is not Tetralogy of Fallot, which is a separate condition consisting of pulmonary stenosis, a ventricular septal defect, right ventricular hypertrophy, and an overriding aorta. It is important to clear up these misconceptions to ensure accurate understanding and treatment of this pediatric cardiac condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 25
Correct
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A 4-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father with bruising after a fall. During assessment, it is noted that she has a global developmental delay. She walks with difficulty, has some fine motor skills, and is playing with toys during the consultation. There are bruises on her back, right elbow, and right thigh, at different stages of healing.
Her father reports that these bruises are from her being clumsy for the past few months and he himself once had bruising which required oral steroids and thinks she has developed the same condition.
What would be the most appropriate next step in her management?Your Answer: Immediately contact safeguarding lead
Explanation:The presence of multiple bruises at different stages of healing in an infant who has been brought a few months after the injuries occurred should raise suspicion of non-accidental injury. This is because it is unlikely for a child to have so many bruises from clumsiness alone. A delayed presentation may also suggest non-accidental injury. Therefore, the correct course of action is to immediately contact the safeguarding lead. While coagulation screen and coagulopathy testing may be performed later, they are not the first priority. Similarly, oral prednisolone is not the first-line treatment for children with immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) and is not relevant in this case. The priority is to assess the infant for non-accidental injury.
Recognizing Child Abuse: Signs and Symptoms
Child abuse is a serious issue that can have long-lasting effects on a child’s physical and emotional well-being. It is important to be able to recognize the signs and symptoms of child abuse in order to intervene and protect the child. One possible indicator of abuse is when a child discloses abuse themselves. However, there are other factors that may point towards abuse, such as an inconsistent story with injuries, repeated visits to A&E departments, delayed presentation, and a frightened, withdrawn appearance known as frozen watchfulness.
Physical presentations of child abuse can also be a sign of abuse. These may include bruising, fractures (especially metaphyseal, posterior rib fractures, or multiple fractures at different stages of healing), torn frenulum (such as from forcing a bottle into a child’s mouth), burns or scalds, failure to thrive, and sexually transmitted infections like Chlamydia, gonorrhoeae, and Trichomonas. It is important to be aware of these signs and symptoms and to report any concerns to the appropriate authorities to ensure the safety and well-being of the child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 3-month-old infant with Down's syndrome is presented to the GP by his parents due to their worry about his occasional episodes of turning blue and rapid breathing, especially when he is upset or in pain. These episodes have caused him to faint twice. The parents also mention that he has a congenital heart defect. What is the likely diagnosis based on this history?
Your Answer: Left ventricular hypertrophy
Correct Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot
Explanation:Understanding Tetralogy of Fallot
Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a congenital heart disease that results from the anterior malalignment of the aorticopulmonary septum. It is the most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease, and it typically presents at around 1-2 months, although it may not be detected until the baby is 6 months old. The condition is characterized by four features, including ventricular septal defect (VSD), right ventricular hypertrophy, right ventricular outflow tract obstruction, and overriding aorta. The severity of the right ventricular outflow tract obstruction determines the degree of cyanosis and clinical severity.
Other features of TOF include cyanosis, which may cause episodic hypercyanotic ‘tet’ spells due to near occlusion of the right ventricular outflow tract. These spells are characterized by tachypnea and severe cyanosis that may occasionally result in loss of consciousness. They typically occur when an infant is upset, in pain, or has a fever, and they cause a right-to-left shunt. Additionally, TOF may cause an ejection systolic murmur due to pulmonary stenosis, and a right-sided aortic arch is seen in 25% of patients. Chest x-ray shows a ‘boot-shaped’ heart, while ECG shows right ventricular hypertrophy.
The management of TOF often involves surgical repair, which is usually undertaken in two parts. Cyanotic episodes may be helped by beta-blockers to reduce infundibular spasm. However, it is important to note that at birth, transposition of the great arteries is the more common lesion as patients with TOF generally present at around 1-2 months. Understanding the features and management of TOF is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment for affected infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl presents to your clinic with worries about delayed menarche. Upon taking her medical history, you find no developmental issues. She is currently at the 65th percentile for weight and 5th percentile for height. During the physical examination, you observe a short webbed neck and broad chest. After conducting a karyotype analysis, you discover an abnormality. What is the most prevalent heart condition linked to this clinical presentation?
Your Answer: Mitral valve prolapse
Correct Answer: Bicuspid aortic valve
Explanation:The most frequently observed cardiac defect in individuals with Turner’s syndrome (45 XO) is a bicuspid aortic valve, which is more prevalent than coarctation of the aorta. Additionally, aortic root dilation and coarctation of the aorta are also associated with this condition.
Understanding Turner’s Syndrome
Turner’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is denoted as 45,XO or 45,X.
The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (15%), coarctation of the aorta (5-10%), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is much more common in Turner’s syndrome, and there is also an increased incidence of autoimmune disease (especially autoimmune thyroiditis) and Crohn’s disease.
In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and can cause a range of physical features and health issues. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 28
Correct
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A 2-week-old infant is presented with vomiting, feeding intolerance, and abdominal distension. During examination, it is observed that the nappy contains watery stools with specks of blood. An abdominal X-ray is performed, which shows gas cysts in the bowel wall. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Necrotizing enterocolitis
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis is necrotizing enterocolitis based on the symptoms and the presence of gas cysts in the bowel wall on the abdominal x-ray. While Intussusception can also cause vomiting and abdominal distention, it is typically characterized by rectal bleeding that resembles red currant jelly. Additionally, Intussusception is more common in infants between 3-12 months of age, making it unlikely in a 1-week-old infant. An abdominal x-ray in Intussusception would show intestinal obstruction rather than gas cysts.
Understanding Necrotising Enterocolitis
Necrotising enterocolitis is a serious condition that is responsible for a significant number of premature infant deaths. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as feeding intolerance, abdominal distension, and bloody stools. If left untreated, these symptoms can quickly progress to more severe symptoms such as abdominal discolouration, perforation, and peritonitis.
To diagnose necrotising enterocolitis, doctors often use abdominal x-rays. These x-rays can reveal a number of important indicators of the condition, including dilated bowel loops, bowel wall oedema, and intramural gas. Other signs that may be visible on an x-ray include portal venous gas, pneumoperitoneum resulting from perforation, and air both inside and outside of the bowel wall. In some cases, an x-ray may also reveal air outlining the falciform ligament, which is known as the football sign.
Overall, understanding the symptoms and diagnostic indicators of necrotising enterocolitis is crucial for early detection and treatment of this serious condition. By working closely with healthcare professionals and following recommended screening protocols, parents and caregivers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for premature infants at risk for this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 14 kg 2-year-old girl with a history of vomiting and diarrhea for 4 days is brought to the pediatric emergency department due to increasing fussiness and fatigue. The child has not eaten anything for the past 24 hours and has only been able to tolerate a small amount of fluids. The mother also noticed that the child has been urinating less frequently.
Upon examination, the child appears lethargic and unresponsive. The heart rate is 155 beats per minute (normal range: 90-140/min), respiratory rate is 30 breaths per minute (normal range: 20-30/min), and systolic blood pressure is 88 mmHg (normal range: 80-100 mmHg). The child's temperature is within normal limits.
There are no skin rashes present. The capillary refill time is 3 seconds, and the child's extremities are cold and pale. Skin turgor is decreased, and the mucous membranes are dry. What can you conclude about the hydration status of the girl and how would you manage the patient based on your conclusion?Your Answer: There is early (compensated) shock. Maintenance fluid is sufficient
Correct Answer: There is early (compensated) shock. Urgent fluid resuscitation is needed
Explanation:Managing Diarrhoea and Vomiting in Children
Diarrhoea and vomiting are common in young children, with rotavirus being the most common cause of gastroenteritis in the UK. According to the 2009 NICE guidelines, diarrhoea usually lasts for 5-7 days and stops within 2 weeks, while vomiting usually lasts for 1-2 days and stops within 3 days. When assessing hydration status, NICE recommends using normal, dehydrated, or shocked categories instead of the traditional mild, moderate, or severe categories.
Children younger than 1 year, especially those younger than 6 months, infants who were of low birth weight, and those who have passed six or more diarrhoeal stools in the past 24 hours or vomited three times or more in the past 24 hours are at an increased risk of dehydration. Additionally, children who have not been offered or have not been able to tolerate supplementary fluids before presentation, infants who have stopped breastfeeding during the illness, and those with signs of malnutrition are also at risk.
If clinical shock is suspected, children should be admitted for intravenous rehydration. For children without evidence of dehydration, it is recommended to continue breastfeeding and other milk feeds, encourage fluid intake, and discourage fruit juices and carbonated drinks. If dehydration is suspected, give 50 ml/kg low osmolarity oral rehydration solution (ORS) solution over 4 hours, plus ORS solution for maintenance, often and in small amounts. It is also important to continue breastfeeding and consider supplementing with usual fluids, including milk feeds or water, but not fruit juices or carbonated drinks.
In terms of diagnosis, NICE suggests doing a stool culture in certain situations, such as when septicaemia is suspected, there is blood and/or mucous in the stool, or the child is immunocompromised. A stool culture should also be considered if the child has recently been abroad, the diarrhoea has not improved by day 7, or there is uncertainty about the diagnosis of gastroenteritis. Features suggestive of hypernatraemic dehydration include jittery movements, increased muscle tone, hyperreflexia, convulsions, and drowsiness or coma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A worried father brings his 12-month-old son to the GP because he is worried about his development.
You conduct a developmental evaluation.
What results in the child would be worrisome?Your Answer: Casts bricks
Correct Answer: Picks up objects with a pincer grip, with a preference for the right hand
Explanation:Hand preference before the age of 12 months may indicate a potential issue such as cerebral palsy. It is not typical for a child to strongly favor one hand over the other at this age. However, it is encouraging for a 10-month-old to have a vocabulary of at least three words. It is normal for children to play alone at this age and they are not expected to share toys until they are around 3 years old. It is also normal for children to enjoy casting bricks until they are 18 months old, but if this behavior continues beyond that age, it may be a cause for concern. Finally, independent walking should develop between 9 and 18 months, with 18 months being the age at which parents may want to seek medical advice if their child is not yet walking independently.
Common Developmental Problems and Possible Causes
Developmental problems can manifest in various ways, including referral points such as not smiling at 10 weeks, inability to sit unsupported at 12 months, and failure to walk at 18 months. Fine motor skill problems may also arise, such as abnormal hand preference before 12 months, which could indicate cerebral palsy. Gross motor problems are often caused by a variant of normal, cerebral palsy, or neuromuscular disorders like Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Speech and language problems should always be checked for hearing issues, as they can also be caused by environmental deprivation or general development delay.
It is important to recognize these developmental problems early on and seek appropriate interventions to address them. By doing so, children can receive the necessary support to reach their full potential and overcome any challenges they may face. With proper care and attention, many children with developmental problems can go on to lead happy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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