-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 6-year-old boy arrives at the Emergency Department with a high fever, difficulty breathing, severe sore throat, and drooling of saliva. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Call the ear, nose and throat (ENT) surgeon/senior anaesthetist to secure her airway
Explanation:Managing Acute Epiglottitis: Prioritizing Airway Security
Acute epiglottitis is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention to secure the patient’s airway. While medical therapies and investigations are important, the priority should be given to securing the airway via endo-/nasotracheal intubation or tracheostomy guided by a senior anaesthetist and ENT surgeon. Oral instrumentation is contraindicated until the airway has been secured. Lateral neck X-ray may be useful in diagnosing less acute presentations, but in this case, the child requires intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics and admission to an Intensive Therapy Unit/High-dependency Unit bed in the hospital. Intubating a child with acute epiglottitis can be challenging and should only be undertaken by an experienced anaesthetist.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
At what developmental stage would a child have the ability to briefly sit while leaning forward on their hands, grasp a cube and transfer it from hand to hand, babble, but not yet wave goodbye or use their finger and thumb to grasp objects?
Your Answer: 7 months
Explanation:Developmental Milestones at 7 Months
At 7 months, babies reach several developmental milestones. They are able to sit without support, which means they can sit up straight and maintain their balance without falling over. They also start to reach for objects with a sweeping motion, using their arms to grab things that catch their attention. Additionally, they begin to imitate speech sounds, such as babbling and making noises with their mouths.
Half of babies at this age can combine syllables into wordlike sounds, which is an important step towards language development. They may start to say simple words like mama or dada and understand the meaning behind them. Finally, many babies begin to crawl or lunge forward, which is a major milestone in their physical development. Overall, 7 months is an exciting time for babies as they continue to grow and develop new skills.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 5-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department with a rash. Her parents deny any trauma and have no history with social services. She recently had a cold which resolved on its own.
The child has no medical history and was born at term through vaginal delivery. She has met all developmental milestones and is up-to-date with her vaccinations.
During examination, a petechial rash is observed on the child's legs. She appears healthy without other signs of bleeding.
Her blood tests show:
Hb 140 g/L Female: (120-160)
Platelets 25 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 8.0 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
What is the recommended course of action?Your Answer: Oral corticosteroid
Correct Answer: None
Explanation:It is important to advise patients to avoid any trauma as it can impact the resolution of ITP, whether or not treatment is administered. Administering oral corticosteroids is not recommended as it is not necessary for a child who is not actively bleeding and the platelet count will typically recover on its own. Similarly, IV corticosteroids should not be used as they pose unnecessary risks for a child who will likely recover without the need for non-specific immunosuppressants. IV immunoglobulin is also not a suitable option as the child is not exhibiting any signs of active or previous bleeding and their platelet count is sufficient.
Understanding Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP) in Children
Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a condition where the immune system attacks the platelets, leading to a decrease in their count. This condition is more common in children and is usually acute, often following an infection or vaccination. The antibodies produced by the immune system target the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa or Ib-V-IX complex, causing a type II hypersensitivity reaction.
The symptoms of ITP in children include bruising, a petechial or purpuric rash, and less commonly, bleeding from the nose or gums. A full blood count is usually sufficient to diagnose ITP, and a bone marrow examination is only necessary if there are atypical features.
In most cases, ITP resolves on its own within six months, without any treatment. However, if the platelet count is very low or there is significant bleeding, treatment options such as oral or IV corticosteroids, IV immunoglobulins, or platelet transfusions may be necessary. It is also advisable to avoid activities that may result in trauma, such as team sports. Understanding ITP in children is crucial for prompt diagnosis and management of this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A mother brings her 3-year-old daughter to surgery. For the past three weeks, she has been complaining of an itchy bottom. She is otherwise well and clinical examination including that of the perianal area is unremarkable. What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Hygiene measures + single dose mebendazole repeated after 2 weeks for all the family
Correct Answer: Hygiene measures + single dose mebendazole for all the family
Explanation:It is recommended to treat household contacts of patients with threadworms, even if they do not show any symptoms. Referral to the child protection officer is not necessary for an itchy bottom, as it is a common symptom of threadworms.
Threadworm Infestation in Children
Threadworm infestation, caused by Enterobius vermicularis or pinworms, is a common occurrence among children in the UK. The infestation happens when eggs present in the environment are ingested. In most cases, threadworm infestation is asymptomatic, but some possible symptoms include perianal itching, especially at night, and vulval symptoms in girls. Diagnosis can be made by applying Sellotape to the perianal area and sending it to the laboratory for microscopy to see the eggs. However, most patients are treated empirically, and this approach is supported in the CKS guidelines.
The CKS recommends a combination of anthelmintic with hygiene measures for all members of the household. Mebendazole is the first-line treatment for children over six months old, and a single dose is given unless the infestation persists. It is essential to treat all members of the household to prevent re-infection. Proper hygiene measures, such as washing hands regularly, keeping fingernails short, and washing clothes and bedding at high temperatures, can also help prevent the spread of threadworm infestation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 4-year-old patient is brought to the GP by their mother due to a high fever and sore throat. Upon examination, the child appears comfortable but feverish, with a rash on both arms that is more pronounced in the cubital fossas. The lesions are rough and erythematosus in texture, and the throat and tongue are both red in color. The child has no prior medical history. What is the appropriate course of action for this case?
Your Answer: Prescribe oral penicillin V for 10 days
Explanation:The recommended treatment for scarlet fever in patients who do not require hospitalization and have no penicillin allergy is a 10-day course of oral penicillin V. This condition is characterized by symptoms such as fever, sore throat, strawberry tongue, and a rash that is more prominent in the cubital fossas. Scarlet fever is caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, and if left untreated, it can lead to complications such as otitis media and rheumatic fever. Administering varicella-zoster immunoglobulin is not appropriate for this condition. Prescribing analgesia and asking the patient to return in 5 days for review is also not recommended, as antibiotics should be given as soon as possible to prevent complications. Oral azithromycin for 5 days is not the first-line treatment for scarlet fever, and co-amoxiclav is not indicated for this condition.
Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more prevalent in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease spreads through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges, especially during sneezing and coughing. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, nausea/vomiting, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. The rash has a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture and desquamation occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes.
To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be initiated immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves administering oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Although usually a mild illness, scarlet fever may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, or necrotizing fasciitis, which may present acutely with life-threatening illness.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A three-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with a high fever of 39ºC that has persisted for the past five days. The parents are worried as they have noticed redness in the child's eyes, swelling in the neck, and a new rash.
During the examination, the child is found to have a widespread maculopapular rash and bilateral conjunctivitis. Additionally, there is unilateral cervical lymphadenopathy, cracked and erythematosus lips, and a strawberry tongue.
What is the initial treatment that should be given to this three-year-old child?Your Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Kawasaki disease is a systemic vasculitis that typically affects children under the age of 5. Symptoms include a fever lasting over 5 days, bilateral non-purulent conjunctivitis, a rash, mucosal erythema with a strawberry tongue, and unilateral cervical lymphadenopathy. In some cases, swelling of the hands and feet can occur, followed by desquamation in the second week. If left untreated, up to one-quarter of patients can develop coronary aneurysms. The main goal of treatment is to reduce the risk of cardiac complications. In the UK, the standard treatment is intravenous immunoglobulin and high dose aspirin, despite the fact that aspirin is usually contraindicated in children. Benzylpenicillin is not indicated in the treatment of Kawasaki disease. Conservative management is also not appropriate, as specific treatment is required to reduce inflammation and prevent the risk of coronary complications. Corticosteroids may be used as a second-line treatment if the patient does not respond to intravenous immunoglobulins.
Understanding Kawasaki Disease
Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.
Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.
Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 14-year-old girl is brought into paediatric casualty with decreased level of consciousness. She has no past medical history. Her 7-year-old sister was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Family history is also otherwise unremarkable. Urgent arterial blood gas analysis reveals a surprising finding of blood glucose level of 2.1 mmol/l. This is confirmed on urgent formal blood glucose testing. She is transferred to the hospital’s high dependency unit (HDU) for monitoring and treatment. Blood tests taken shortly after admission reveal elevated insulin and low C-peptide levels.
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Factitious hypoglycaemia
Explanation:Understanding Factitious Hypoglycaemia and Differential Diagnosis
Factitious hypoglycaemia is a condition where an individual deliberately induces hypoglycaemia by using insulin or oral hypoglycaemic agents. In contrast to endogenous insulin, synthetic insulin does not contain C-peptide as part of its formulation. Therefore, elevated insulin with an inappropriately low C-peptide level indicates exogenous insulin administration. This condition is often associated with psychological factors, and the individual may be seeking attention or sympathy.
Differential diagnosis includes type 1 diabetes mellitus, which presents with hyperglycaemia rather than hypoglycaemia. Familial insulinoma syndrome is a rare condition that leads to elevated C-peptide levels. Maturity onset diabetes of the young is another subset of diabetes that presents with hyperglycaemia. Insulinoma, on the other hand, presents with hypoglycaemia, elevated insulin, and elevated C-peptide levels.
It is crucial to differentiate factitious hypoglycaemia from other conditions to provide appropriate treatment and support for the individual. A thorough medical evaluation and psychological assessment may be necessary to determine the underlying cause of the condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
As the F2 in the paediatric clinic, a mother comes in with concerns about her 7-month-old daughter. She shows you a video on her phone of the baby crying, stopping abruptly, drawing her chin into her chest, throwing her arms out, relaxing, and then starting to cry again. This cycle is repeated around 10 times over the course of the minute-long video. The mother also mentions that the child has been referred to the community paediatric clinic due to a slight delay in reaching developmental milestones. What is the most appropriate test for you to order to help confirm your diagnosis?
Your Answer: EEG
Explanation:The child’s distress pattern can help differentiate between infantile spasms and colic. Additionally, the child’s history suggests developmental delay and infantile spasms, making an abdominal x-ray unnecessary. An EEG is necessary to check for hypsarrhythmia, commonly found in West’s syndrome, while genetic testing and MRI of the head and spine are not required.
Understanding Infantile Colic
Infantile colic is a common condition that affects infants under three months old. It is characterized by excessive crying and pulling up of the legs, which is often worse in the evening. This condition affects up to 20% of infants, and its cause is unknown.
Despite its prevalence, there is no known cure for infantile colic. However, there are some remedies that parents can try to alleviate the symptoms. NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries advise against the use of simethicone or lactase drops, such as Infacol® and Colief®, respectively. These remedies have not been proven to be effective in treating infantile colic.
Parents can try other methods to soothe their baby, such as holding them close, rocking them gently, or using a pacifier. Some parents also find that white noise or music can help calm their baby. It is important to remember that infantile colic is a temporary condition that usually resolves on its own by the time the baby is three to four months old.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 4-month-old boy is being seen by his GP for an undescended testi. During the NIPE at birth, his right testi was found to be undescended. On examination today, only one testi is palpated in the scrotum. The patient is referred to the surgeons for further evaluation. What potential complication is this patient at an elevated risk of experiencing if the undescended testi is not addressed?
Your Answer: Testicular torsion
Explanation:Undescended testicles can lead to testicular torsion, infertility, and testicular cancer if left untreated. It is recommended to wait up to three months for spontaneous descent, but intervention should occur by six months of age. Femoral hernias are rare in childhood, but undescended testicles may increase the risk of an inguinal hernia. Hydroceles are common at birth and resolve on their own, without known association to undescended testicles. While orchitis can occur in an undescended testis, there is no increased risk of orchitis due to lack of descent.
Undescended Testis: Causes, Complications, and Management
Undescended testis is a condition that affects around 2-3% of male infants born at term, but it is more common in preterm babies. Bilateral undescended testes occur in about 25% of cases. This condition can lead to complications such as infertility, torsion, testicular cancer, and psychological issues.
To manage unilateral undescended testis, NICE CKS recommends considering referral from around 3 months of age, with the baby ideally seeing a urological surgeon before 6 months of age. Orchidopexy, a surgical procedure, is typically performed at around 1 year of age, although surgical practices may vary.
For bilateral undescended testes, it is crucial to have the child reviewed by a senior paediatrician within 24 hours as they may require urgent endocrine or genetic investigation. Proper management of undescended testis is essential to prevent complications and ensure the child’s overall health and well-being.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following statements regarding cow's milk protein intolerance/allergy in toddlers is true?
Your Answer: Around 1-2% of infants are affected
Correct Answer: The majority of cases resolve before the age of 5 years
Explanation:Understanding Cow’s Milk Protein Intolerance/Allergy
Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects around 3-6% of children, typically presenting in the first 3 months of life in formula-fed infants. Both immediate and delayed reactions can occur, with CMPA used for immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms include regurgitation, vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms, wheeze, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis. Diagnosis is often clinical, with investigations including skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein.
Management for formula-fed infants includes using extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk as the first-line replacement formula for mild-moderate symptoms and amino acid-based formula (AAF) for severe CMPA or if no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants are also intolerant to soya milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should eliminate cow’s milk protein from their diet and consider prescribing calcium supplements to prevent deficiency. eHF milk can be used when breastfeeding stops until at least 6 months and up to 12 months of age.
The prognosis for CMPI is usually good, with most children becoming milk tolerant by the age of 3-5 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur. It is important to refer infants with severe symptoms to a pediatrician for management. Understanding CMPI/CMPA and its management can help parents and healthcare providers provide appropriate care for affected children.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
A 4-day-old male infant is presenting with progressive abdominal distension. He has not had a bowel movement since birth. Digital rectal examination results in the expulsion of explosive feces. No additional information is obtained from abdominal examination or blood tests.
What is the conclusive measure for diagnosis?Your Answer: Suction-assisted full-thickness rectal biopsies
Explanation:Diagnostic Procedures for Hirschsprung’s Disease
Hirschsprung’s disease is a rare condition that causes functional intestinal obstruction due to the absence of ganglion cells in the distal colon. Diagnosis of this condition requires specific diagnostic procedures. One such procedure is suction-assisted full-thickness rectal biopsies, which demonstrate the lack of ganglion cells in Auerbach’s plexus. Other diagnostic procedures, such as contrast-enhanced CT scans, ultrasound of the hernial orifices, upper GI fluoroscopy studies, and sigmoidoscopy with rectal mucosal biopsies, are not as effective in diagnosing Hirschsprung’s disease. It is important to accurately diagnose this condition to ensure appropriate treatment and management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 7-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her mother. The mother reports that her daughter has been running a fever for the past 5 days and has been acting differently. Despite giving her paracetamol, the fever has not subsided.
During the examination, the girl presents with cracked, bright red lips, conjunctival injection, palpable lymph nodes in the cervical area, and redness on the palms of her hands and soles of her feet.
What medication should be given based on the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Benzylpenicillin
Correct Answer: High-dose aspirin
Explanation:Kawasaki disease requires the use of high-dose aspirin, despite it being generally not recommended for children due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome. This is because the child presents with a persistent fever lasting more than 5 days, along with other characteristic symptoms such as injected conjunctiva, swollen mucosal linings around the mouth, and red, swollen hands and feet. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also recommended for treatment.
Benzylpenicillin (penicillin G) is not indicated for this child as they do not exhibit symptoms of meningitis or endocarditis. Ibuprofen is also not appropriate for Kawasaki disease, as it is typically used for other conditions such as juvenile idiopathic arthritis and soft-tissue injuries. Low-dose aspirin may be given to low-risk patients who present more than 10 days after symptom onset and have normal ESR/CRP results and initial echocardiogram results.Understanding Kawasaki Disease
Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.
Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.
Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 10-year-old girl presents to the Emergency department with complaints of hip and knee pain following a minor fall from her bike. Upon examination, her knee appears normal but there is limited range of motion at the hip joint. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Septic arthritis
Correct Answer: Slipped upper femoral epiphysis
Explanation:Slipped Upper Femoral Epiphysis: Symptoms and Risk Factors
Slipped upper femoral epiphysis is a condition that commonly affects obese adolescent boys with a positive family history. It is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head from the femoral neck, which can lead to a range of symptoms.
The most common symptoms of slipped upper femoral epiphysis include an externally rotated hip and antalgic gait, decreased internal rotation, thigh atrophy (depending on the chronicity of symptoms), and hip, thigh, and knee pain.
It is important to note that 25% of cases are bilateral, meaning that both hips may be affected. This condition can be particularly debilitating for young people, as it can limit their mobility and cause significant discomfort.
Overall, it is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors and symptoms of slipped upper femoral epiphysis, as early diagnosis and treatment can help to prevent further complications and improve outcomes for patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old man presents with visual impairment and is diagnosed with Leber's optic atrophy. Considering the mitochondrial inheritance pattern of this disorder, which of the following family members is at the highest risk of being affected?
Your Answer: Son
Correct Answer: Sister
Explanation:Mitochondrial diseases are inherited maternally, meaning that if a mother has the condition, all of her children will also inherit it. As a result, her sister will also be affected.
Mitochondrial Diseases: Inheritance and Histology
Mitochondrial diseases are caused by mutations in the small amount of double-stranded DNA present in the mitochondria. This DNA encodes protein components of the respiratory chain and some special types of RNA. Mitochondrial inheritance has unique characteristics, including inheritance only via the maternal line and none of the children of an affected male inheriting the disease. However, all of the children of an affected female will inherit the disease. These diseases generally encode rare neurological diseases and have a poor genotype-phenotype correlation due to heteroplasmy, where different mitochondrial populations exist within a tissue or cell.
Histologically, muscle biopsy shows red, ragged fibers due to an increased number of mitochondria. Some examples of mitochondrial diseases include Leber’s optic atrophy, MELAS syndrome (mitochondrial encephalomyopathy lactic acidosis and stroke-like episodes), MERRF syndrome (myoclonus epilepsy with ragged-red fibers), Kearns-Sayre syndrome (onset in patients < 20 years old, external ophthalmoplegia, retinitis pigmentosa, and ptosis may be seen), and sensorineural hearing loss.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
A 22-year-old woman brings her 8-week-old baby to an emergency GP appointment. The mother reports that her baby is extremely fussy in the evenings, crying incessantly and pulling up their legs. The baby was delivered vaginally at full term and is exclusively breastfed. The baby's weight is normal and there are no other health concerns. Upon examination, everything appears to be normal. What course of action would you suggest?
Your Answer: Reassurance and support
Explanation:Understanding Infantile Colic
Infantile colic is a common condition that affects infants under three months old. It is characterized by excessive crying and pulling up of the legs, which is often worse in the evening. This condition affects up to 20% of infants, and its cause is unknown.
Despite its prevalence, there is no known cure for infantile colic. However, there are some remedies that parents can try to alleviate the symptoms. NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries advise against the use of simethicone or lactase drops, such as Infacol® and Colief®, respectively. These remedies have not been proven to be effective in treating infantile colic.
Parents can try other methods to soothe their baby, such as holding them close, rocking them gently, or using a pacifier. Some parents also find that white noise or music can help calm their baby. It is important to remember that infantile colic is a temporary condition that usually resolves on its own by the time the baby is three to four months old.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A ten-year-old boy with a history of asthma and eczema visits the urgent GP clinic due to a cough. Upon entering the room, he appears to be in good health and is able to speak in complete sentences. His oxygen saturation level is 97% in air, peak expiratory flow is 60% of expected, heart rate is 115/min, and respiratory rate is 28/min. During chest examination, widespread wheezing is observed. What is the appropriate course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: Oral prednisolone and salbutamol as required
Correct Answer: Oral prednisolone and salbutamol via a spacer: one puff every 30-60 seconds to a maximum of 10 puffs
Explanation:His respiratory rate and heart rate are both within normal limits, with a respiratory rate of less than 30 breaths per minute and a heart rate of less than 125 beats per minute. The appropriate treatment for his asthma attack is oral prednisolone and salbutamol via a spacer, with one puff administered every 30-60 seconds up to a maximum of 10 puffs. It is important to administer steroid therapy to all children experiencing an asthma attack. The use of high flow oxygen and a salbutamol nebuliser is not necessary, as his SP02 is already at 97%.
Managing Acute Asthma Attacks in Children
When it comes to managing acute asthma attacks in children, it is important to assess the severity of the attack and take appropriate action. For children between the ages of 2 and 5, those with severe or life-threatening asthma should be immediately transferred to the hospital. For moderate attacks, children should have a SpO2 level above 92% and no clinical features of severe asthma. However, for severe attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, be too breathless to talk or feed, have a heart rate above 140/min, and use accessory neck muscles. For life-threatening attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, agitation, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.
For children over the age of 5, it is recommended to attempt to measure PEF in all cases. For moderate attacks, children should have a SpO2 level above 92%, a PEF level above 50% best or predicted, and no clinical features of severe asthma. For severe attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level between 33-50% best or predicted, and be unable to complete sentences in one breath or too breathless to talk or feed. For life-threatening attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level below 33% best or predicted, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.
For children with mild to moderate acute asthma, bronchodilator therapy should be given via a beta-2 agonist and spacer (or close-fitting mask for children under 3 years old). One puff should be given every 30-60 seconds up to a maximum of 10 puffs. If symptoms are not controlled, the beta-2 agonist should be repeated and the child should be referred to the hospital. Steroid therapy should also be given to all children with an asthma exacerbation for 3-5 days, with the usual prednisolone dose varying based on age and weight.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
You come across an 11-year-old boy with asthma who has been using a salbutamol inhaler for the past year. He reports needing it when he plays sports outside, especially in colder weather. His mother is worried as he has been using it more frequently in the last 6 months and has had to use it at night. She has also noticed that he sometimes wakes up coughing and his wheezing is worse in the morning. On average, he uses his inhaler 3-4 times a week. After examining the patient and finding no abnormalities, what would be the most appropriate next step to step up his treatment?
Your Answer: Start a leukotriene receptor antagonist and a paediatric moderate-dose inhaled corticosteroid
Correct Answer: Start a paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroid
Explanation:Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines
Asthma management in children has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. The new guidelines for children aged 5-16 are similar to those for adults, with a stepwise approach for treatment. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonist (SABA) is recommended. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is used. Leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is added if symptoms still persist, followed by long-acting beta agonist (LABA) if necessary. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is used as a combination of ICS and LABA for daily maintenance therapy and symptom relief. For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis. The stepwise approach is similar to that for older children, with an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS before adding LTRA. If symptoms persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.
It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment for well-controlled asthma patients simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. The definitions of low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for adults and children. For children, <= 200 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is considered a paediatric low dose, 200-400 micrograms is a moderate dose, and > 400 micrograms is a high dose. Overall, the new NICE guidelines provide a clear and concise approach to managing asthma in children.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 13-year-old boy was hospitalized due to a two-week history of high-grade fever and bleeding gums. Upon examination of his peripheral blood, multiple blasts were observed, some of which displayed Auer rods. Which congenital condition is most strongly linked to this presentation?
Your Answer: Gardner syndrome
Correct Answer: Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)
Explanation:Congenital syndromes associated with acute myeloblastic leukemia
Acute myeloblastic leukemia (AML) can be associated with various congenital syndromes, including severe congenital neutropenia (Kostmann syndrome), Bloom syndrome, Fanconi anemia, Diamond-Blackfan syndrome, neurofibromatosis type 1, and Li Fraumeni syndrome. However, Gardner syndrome, or familial colorectal polyposis, is not linked to AML. Trisomy 18 (Edward syndrome) is a chromosomal abnormality that has a poor prognosis but is not typically associated with AML. Klinefelter syndrome, a genetic disorder characterized by an extra X chromosome in males, may increase the risk of breast cancer and germ cell tumors, but the evidence for an association with AML is inconclusive. Haemophilia, a bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency in clotting factors, does not predispose to AML or mucosal bleeding.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman delivers a male infant who presents with low muscle tone and is later diagnosed with Down's syndrome. Which of the following features is the least probable in this case?
Your Answer: Epicanthic folds
Correct Answer: Rocker-bottom feet
Explanation:Understanding the features of Down’s syndrome is crucial for clinical practice and final examinations. The correct answer to this question is option 4. While rocker-bottom feet are a characteristic of trisomy 18 or Edward’s syndrome, they are not typically observed in individuals with Down’s syndrome.
Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is characterized by various clinical features. These features include an upslanting of the palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in the iris, a protruding tongue, small low-set ears, and a round or flat face. Additionally, individuals with Down’s syndrome may have a flat occiput, a single palmar crease, and a pronounced sandal gap between their big and first toe. Hypotonia, congenital heart defects, duodenal atresia, and Hirschsprung’s disease are also common in individuals with Down’s syndrome.
Cardiac complications are also prevalent in individuals with Down’s syndrome, with multiple cardiac problems potentially present. The most common cardiac defect is the endocardial cushion defect, also known as atrioventricular septal canal defects, which affects 40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Other cardiac defects include ventricular septal defect, secundum atrial septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, and isolated patent ductus arteriosus.
Later complications of Down’s syndrome include subfertility, learning difficulties, short stature, repeated respiratory infections, hearing impairment from glue ear, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s disease, and atlantoaxial instability. Males with Down’s syndrome are almost always infertile due to impaired spermatogenesis, while females are usually subfertile and have an increased incidence of problems with pregnancy and labour.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A mother presents with her 3-month-old baby boy to ask advice about his failed newborn hearing screening. Further tests were normal; however, she has been advised to seek medical advice if she has any concerns about his hearing in the future. Which one of the following would warrant referral for a further hearing test?
Your Answer: Speaking 6–20 words by the age of one year
Correct Answer: Not babbling or imitating sounds by the age of nine months old
Explanation:Developmental Milestones for Language Acquisition in Children
Language acquisition is an important developmental milestone in children. Here are some key markers to look out for:
– Not babbling or imitating sounds by the age of nine months old: If a baby is not babbling or imitating sounds by this age, it could be a sign of a social, cognitive, speech, or hearing problem. A full developmental assessment would be necessary to ensure there are no other areas of delay.
– Putting two words together by the age of 18 months old: By this age, a child should be using 50+ words and be able to put two words together. If not, a full developmental assessment would be necessary to ensure there are no other areas of delay.
– More than 200 spoken words by the age of two years: A 30-month-old child should be using 200+ words. If not, a full developmental assessment would be necessary to ensure there are no other areas of delay.
– Not responding to his own name by the age of six months old: By the age of one year, a child should respond to their own name. If not, a full developmental assessment would be necessary to ensure there are no other areas of delay.
– Speaking 6-20 words by the age of one year: By the age of one, a child should be using 6-20 words. If not, a full developmental assessment would be necessary to ensure there are no other areas of delay.
It is important to monitor a child’s language development and seek professional help if there are any concerns. Early intervention can make a significant difference in a child’s language acquisition and overall development.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 5-year-old boy visited his doctor last week due to recurring nosebleeds and bruises on his sides. Upon examination, his clotting was found to be prolonged. The following are his test results, along with the normal ranges for a 5-year-old:
- Hemoglobin: 80g/l (115-135)
- Platelets: 100 * 109/l (150-450)
- White blood cells: 10.0 * 109/l (5.0-17.0)
- Neutrophils: 1.0 * 109/l (1.5-8.5)
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: EBV infection
Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
Explanation:Leukaemia is the most probable diagnosis given the presence of epistaxis and bruising, along with anaemia and low platelets. The prolonged prothrombin time and low platelets suggest disseminated intravascular coagulation, which is consistent with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. Acute myeloid leukaemia is unlikely due to the patient’s age. The normal white blood cell count rules out a chronic infection. Aplastic anaemia and myelodysplasia would not account for the symptoms of epistaxis and bruising.
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that commonly affects children and accounts for 80% of childhood leukaemias. It is most prevalent in children between the ages of 2-5 years, with boys being slightly more affected than girls. Symptoms of ALL can be divided into those caused by bone marrow failure, such as anaemia, neutropaenia, and thrombocytopenia, and other features like bone pain, splenomegaly, and hepatomegaly. Fever is also present in up to 50% of new cases, which may indicate an infection or a constitutional symptom. Testicular swelling may also occur.
There are three types of ALL: common ALL, T-cell ALL, and B-cell ALL. Common ALL is the most common type, accounting for 75% of cases, and is characterized by the presence of CD10 and a pre-B phenotype. Poor prognostic factors for ALL include age less than 2 years or greater than 10 years, a white blood cell count greater than 20 * 109/l at diagnosis, T or B cell surface markers, non-Caucasian ethnicity, and male sex.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 4-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department with a fever, poor feeding, and cough. The infant has received all routine vaccinations. Upon examination, the baby is alert and responsive, but there is increased work of breathing. Coarse crackles and a wheeze can be heard throughout the chest. The infant's heart sounds and ECG are normal, and a lumbar puncture is performed and reported as unremarkable. However, one hour later, the patient experiences a cardiac arrest. What is the most probable underlying cause of this arrest?
Your Answer: Congenital cardiac disease
Correct Answer: Bronchiolitis
Explanation:The most frequent reason for children’s cardiac arrest is respiratory issues, with bronchiolitis being the most common cause. Bronchiolitis is characterized by symptoms such as cough, fever, and poor feeding, as well as physical examination findings like wheezing, crackles, and increased respiratory effort. Congenital cardiac disease is an incorrect option since the patient has normal cardiac findings and ECG. Croup is also an incorrect option as it causes a distinct barking noise and is more prevalent in children aged 6 months to 2 years. Meningitis is another incorrect option as it typically results in an unwell infant with a fever and rapid breathing, but the analysis of cerebrospinal fluid would show abnormalities, which is not the case for this patient.
Paediatric Basic Life Support Guidelines
Paediatric basic life support guidelines were updated in 2015 by the Resuscitation Council. Lay rescuers should use a compression:ventilation ratio of 30:2 for children under 1 year and between 1 year and puberty, a child is defined. If there are two or more rescuers, a ratio of 15:2 should be used.
The algorithm for paediatric basic life support starts with checking if the child is unresponsive and shouting for help. The airway should be opened, and breathing should be checked by looking, listening, and feeling for breaths. If the child is not breathing, five rescue breaths should be given, and signs of circulation should be checked.
For infants, the brachial or femoral pulse should be used, while children should use the femoral pulse. Chest compressions should be performed at a ratio of 15:2, with a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute for both infants and children. The depth of compressions should be at least one-third of the anterior-posterior dimension of the chest, which is approximately 4 cm for an infant and 5 cm for a child.
In children, the lower half of the sternum should be compressed, while in infants, a two-thumb encircling technique should be used for chest compressions. These guidelines are crucial for anyone who may need to perform basic life support on a child, and it is essential to follow them carefully to ensure the best possible outcome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 6-month-old girl is not gaining weight and has had repeated chest infections since birth. During examination, she appears weak and undernourished. A continuous murmur is heard most prominently under the left clavicle upon auscultation of the precordium. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pulmonary stenosis
Correct Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus
Explanation:The conditions that can cause poor weight gain and recurrent infections have similar symptoms, but the type of murmur heard can help differentiate between them. A continuous murmur is associated with Patent ductus, while Pulmonary stenosis presents with a systolic murmur. The symptoms described rule out an innocent murmur, which is a normal sound heard during circulation and disappears with age. ASD’s have a fixed split S2 sound due to increased venous return overloading the right ventricle during inspiration, delaying closure of the pulmonary valve. VSD is associated with a pansystolic murmur.
Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.
The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 4-year-old child was admitted with a high fever, cervical lymph node enlargement, conjunctival congestion, redness of lips and palms, and desquamation of fingertips. Upon examination, erythema of the oral cavity was observed. Blood tests showed a hemoglobin level of 110 g/l and a platelet count of 450,000. The symptoms resolved after two weeks, but during the third week, the child unexpectedly passed away. An autopsy revealed vasculitis of the coronary arteries and aneurysm formation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Scarlet fever
Correct Answer: Kawasaki’s disease
Explanation:Understanding Kawasaki’s Disease and Differential Diagnosis
Kawasaki disease, also known as mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome, is a multisystem disease that primarily affects children under the age of 5. It is characterized by fever, cervical adenitis, and changes in the skin and mucous membranes. While generally benign and self-limited, it can lead to coronary artery aneurysms in 25% of cases and has a case-fatality rate of 0.5-2.8%. Treatment with high-dose intravenous globulin and aspirin has been shown to be effective in reducing the prevalence of coronary artery abnormalities.
When considering a differential diagnosis, it is important to distinguish Kawasaki disease from other conditions with similar symptoms. Scarlet fever, rheumatic fever, diphtheria, and Marfan syndrome can all present with fever and cardiovascular involvement, but each has distinct clinical features and underlying pathophysiologic mechanisms. Careful evaluation and diagnosis are essential for appropriate treatment and management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 25
Correct
-
A 14-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with symptoms of a cold. She has been experiencing a fever, runny nose, headache, and a dry cough for a few days. Despite taking paracetamol and ibuprofen, her temperature has not gone down, which worries her mother. The patient is alert, comfortable, and well-hydrated. During the examination, her temperature is 38.9ºC, heart rate is 110 bpm, blood pressure is 90/70 mmHg, and respiratory rate is 26 breaths per minute. Her chest is clear, throat is slightly red, and there are no signs of tonsillitis. Otoscopy shows no abnormalities, and her ears are non-tender. There are no rashes, photophobia, or neck stiffness. What is the appropriate management for this patient?
Your Answer: Initiate sepsis six protocol
Explanation:Children over the age of 12 have vital signs similar to adults. However, if a child presents with symptoms of sepsis, such as a high temperature, elevated heart rate, low blood pressure, and increased respiratory rate, it is important to initiate the sepsis six protocol and conduct further investigations to determine the source of infection. In such cases, it is not appropriate to send the child home or administer additional doses of antipyretics. Aspirin should not be given to children due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome. Broad-spectrum IV antibiotics should be administered if there is a suspected bacterial infection causing sepsis.
Age-appropriate Vital Signs for Children
Paediatric vital signs vary depending on the age of the child. The table below provides age-appropriate ranges for heart rate and respiratory rate. For children under one year old, a heart rate of 110-160 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of 30-40 breaths per minute is considered normal. For children between the ages of one and two, a heart rate of 100-150 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of 25-35 breaths per minute is normal. Children between the ages of two and five should have a heart rate of 90-140 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of 25-30 breaths per minute. For children between the ages of five and twelve, a heart rate of 80-120 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of 20-25 breaths per minute is normal. Finally, for children over the age of twelve, a heart rate of 60-100 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of 15-20 breaths per minute is considered normal. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these age-appropriate vital sign ranges in order to properly assess the health of children.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A newborn baby, delivered via C-section at term, has been diagnosed with a ventricular septal defect (VSD) and is being reviewed by cardiology. The mother is feeling anxious and wants to know what risks her son may face. What is the high-risk factor associated with VSD in newborns?
Your Answer: Carotid dissection
Correct Answer: Endocarditis
Explanation:Patients with VSD may require surgical intervention if their defect causes haemodynamic instability, while those with small shunts may not require treatment. However, all patients with VSD are at an increased risk of developing endocarditis, with a rate of 2.4 cases per 1000 patients per year. While pulmonary hypertension is common in patients with VSD, they are not at a higher risk of developing essential hypertension. Although VSD is associated with aneurysms of the ventricular septum, there is no known link to aortic aneurysms, carotid dissection, or papillary muscle atrophy.
Congenital heart disease can be categorized into two types: acyanotic and cyanotic. Acyanotic heart diseases are more common and include ventricular septal defects (VSD), atrial septal defect (ASD), patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), coarctation of the aorta, and aortic valve stenosis. VSD is the most common acyanotic heart disease, accounting for 30% of cases. ASDs are less common than VSDs, but they are more frequently diagnosed in adult patients as they tend to present later. On the other hand, cyanotic heart diseases are less common and include tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries (TGA), and tricuspid atresia. Fallot’s is more common than TGA, but TGA is the more common lesion at birth as patients with Fallot’s generally present at around 1-2 months. The presence of cyanosis in pulmonary valve stenosis depends on the severity and any other coexistent defects.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 4-month-old is brought to the emergency department with a suspected UTI and responds well to antibiotics within 48 hours. An ultrasound may be necessary to determine if this is a typical or atypical UTI. What is the most common indicator of an atypical UTI?
Your Answer: Raised white cell count
Correct Answer: Poor urine flow
Explanation:If an infant under 6 months shows signs of an atypical UTI, it is important to schedule an ultrasound scan during their acute admission. Atypical UTI may be indicated by symptoms such as poor urine flow, an abdominal or bladder mass, raised creatinine, septicaemia, failure to respond to appropriate antibiotics within 48 hours, or infection with non-E. coli organisms. However, raised white blood cells alone do not necessarily indicate septicaemia, and abdominal pain is a common symptom of UTI but does not necessarily indicate an atypical UTI.
Urinary tract infections (UTI) are more common in boys until 3 months of age, after which the incidence is substantially higher in girls. Presentation in childhood depends on age, with infants showing poor feeding, vomiting, and irritability, younger children showing abdominal pain, fever, and dysuria, and older children showing dysuria, frequency, and haematuria. NICE guidelines recommend checking urine samples in children with symptoms or signs suggestive of a UTI, unexplained fever of 38°C or higher, or an alternative site of infection but who remain unwell. Urine collection should be done through clean catch or urine collection pads, and invasive methods should only be used if non-invasive methods are not possible. Management includes referral to a paediatrician for infants less than 3 months old, admission to hospital for children aged more than 3 months old with an upper UTI, and oral antibiotics for 3-10 days for children aged more than 3 months old with a lower UTI. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not given after the first UTI but should be considered with recurrent UTIs.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 33-year-old mother, gravida 4, arrives in labor without any prenatal care. During delivery, the infant is born with the intestines protruding from the abdomen, but there is a peritoneal covering safeguarding it. What is the best approach to managing the protruding bowel?
Your Answer: Cover in cling-film and surgically correct within first 5 days of life
Correct Answer: Staged closure starting immediately with completion at 6-12 months
Explanation:Exomphalos and gastroschisis are two types of abdominal wall defects. Exomphalos, also known as omphalocele, is usually detected before birth, but some cases may go unnoticed. On the other hand, gastroschisis requires urgent correction as it involves abdominal contents being outside the body without a peritoneal covering. To protect the bowel, cling-film is used until the surgery can be performed. After the operation, the child may require TPN for a few weeks as the intestinal function normalizes.
When it comes to repairing omphalocele, a gradual approach is often preferred, especially for larger defects. This is because returning the abdominal contents too quickly can cause respiratory complications or an inability to close the abdomen, which can be fatal. Therefore, a staged repair allows the pulmonary system to adapt to the increased abdominal contents over a period of 6-12 months. Unlike gastroschisis, there is no need for cling-film covering in omphalocele as the peritoneum already protects the bowel.
Gastroschisis and exomphalos are both types of congenital visceral malformations. Gastroschisis refers to a defect in the anterior abdominal wall located just beside the umbilical cord. In contrast, exomphalos, also known as omphalocoele, involves the protrusion of abdominal contents through the anterior abdominal wall, which are covered by an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum.
When it comes to managing gastroschisis, vaginal delivery may be attempted, but newborns should be taken to the operating theatre as soon as possible after delivery, ideally within four hours. As for exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to reduce the risk of sac rupture. In cases where primary closure is difficult due to lack of space or high intra-abdominal pressure, a staged repair may be undertaken. This involves allowing the sac to granulate and epithelialise over several weeks or months, forming a shell. As the infant grows, the sac contents will eventually fit within the abdominal cavity, at which point the shell can be removed and the abdomen closed.
Overall, both gastroschisis and exomphalos require careful management to ensure the best possible outcome for the newborn. By understanding the differences between these two conditions and the appropriate steps to take, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support to both the infant and their family.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 24-hour-old newborn, born at 35 weeks to a healthy mother, is currently being examined on the ward. The baby appears to be in good health on initial inspection and the mother has not reported any concerns thus far. During the examination, the doctor observes a large volume, collapsing pulse, a heaving apex beat, and a left subclavicular thrill. On auscultation of heart sounds, the doctor detects a continuous 'machinery-like' murmur. An urgent echocardiogram is ordered by the doctor, which confirms their suspected diagnosis. No other abnormalities or defects are detected on the echo.
What would be the most appropriate initial management, given the findings and likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Arrange an urgent surgical opinion
Correct Answer: Give indomethacin to the neonate
Explanation:The probable diagnosis based on the examination findings is pulmonary ductus arteriosus (PDA), which is characterized by a ‘machinery-like’ murmur. The recommended treatment for this condition is the administration of indomethacin or ibuprofen, which inhibits prostaglandin production and promotes duct closure. The use of prostaglandin E1 is not appropriate in this case, as it would keep the duct open. Referral for routine or urgent surgery is also not necessary, as no other congenital heart defects were found on the echocardiogram. Monitoring and repeating echocardiograms alone are not sufficient and medical intervention is required for closure of the duct.
Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.
The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 5-day-old boy who was diagnosed prenatally with Down's syndrome and born at 39 weeks gestation is brought to the hospital with complaints of bilious vomiting and abdominal distension. He has not passed meconium yet.
What is the probable diagnosis for this infant?Your Answer: Necrotising enterocolitis
Correct Answer: Hirschsprung's disease
Explanation:Delayed passage or failure to pass meconium is a typical indication of Hirschsprung’s disease, which often manifests shortly after birth. Other symptoms include a swollen belly, vomiting of bile, fatigue, and dehydration. This condition is more prevalent in males and is linked to Down’s syndrome.
Understanding Hirschsprung’s Disease
Hirschsprung’s disease is a rare condition that affects 1 in 5,000 births. It is caused by a developmental failure of the parasympathetic Auerbach and Meissner plexuses, resulting in an aganglionic segment of bowel. This leads to uncoordinated peristalsis and functional obstruction, which can present as constipation and abdominal distension in older children or failure to pass meconium in the neonatal period.
Hirschsprung’s disease is three times more common in males and is associated with Down’s syndrome. Diagnosis is made through a rectal biopsy, which is considered the gold standard. Treatment involves initial rectal washouts or bowel irrigation, followed by surgery to remove the affected segment of the colon.
In summary, Hirschsprung’s disease is a rare condition that can cause significant gastrointestinal symptoms. It is important to consider this condition as a differential diagnosis in childhood constipation, especially in male patients or those with Down’s syndrome. Early diagnosis and treatment can improve outcomes and prevent complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)