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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents to the general practitioner (GP) with hypertension which fails to fall into the normal range after three successive measurements at the practice nurse. These were 155/92 mmHg, 158/96 mmHg and 154/94 mmHg. He has a past history of some urinary tract infections as a child. The GP arranges some routine blood tests.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 139 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.4 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 201 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 187 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
USS Left kidney 8.4 cm and appears scarred.
Right kidney 10.3 cm
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Renal artery stenosis
Correct Answer: Chronic reflux nephropathy
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a 25-Year-Old Man with Renal Issues
Upon reviewing the history and test results of a 25-year-old man with renal issues, several potential diagnoses can be considered. Chronic reflux nephropathy appears to be the most likely diagnosis, given the patient’s history of urinary tract infections as a child, ultrasound scan results, and elevated creatinine levels. Further testing, such as renal tract computed tomography and a voiding cystourethrogram, can confirm this diagnosis.
Essential hypertension, while a risk factor for reno-vascular disease, would not explain the patient’s creatinine rise or asymmetrical kidneys. Renal artery stenosis, while potentially causing a unilaterally reduced kidney size, is rare in young patients and does not fit with the patient’s history of urinary tract infections. White coat hypertension, which is a transient rise in blood pressure in a medical setting, would not explain the patient’s creatinine rise or reduced kidney size and scarring.
IgA nephropathy, which typically presents with haematuria following an upper respiratory or other infection, does not fit with the patient’s history of urinary tract infections or lack of haematuria. Therefore, chronic reflux nephropathy remains the most likely diagnosis for this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman with a history of type II diabetes comes in for her yearly check-up. Her most recent early morning urinary albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) is 4 mg/mmol (normal for women: < 3.5 mg/mmol). What should be the target blood pressure for managing her diabetic nephropathy?
Your Answer: 140/80 mmHg
Correct Answer: 130/80 mmHg
Explanation:Blood Pressure Targets for Patients with Diabetes
Blood pressure targets vary depending on the type of diabetes and the presence of co-morbidities. For patients with type II diabetes and signs of end-organ damage, the target is 130/80 mmHg. Ideal blood pressure for most people is between 90/60 mmHg and 120/80 mmHg. Patients with type I diabetes without albuminuria or > 2 features of metabolic syndrome have a target of 135/85 mmHg. Type II diabetics without signs of end-organ damage have a target of 140/80 mmHg. For patients over 80 years old, the target is 150/90 mmHg. It is important for patients with diabetes to work with their healthcare provider to determine their individual blood pressure target.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital feeling generally unwell. She has also developed a fever and diffuse erythematous rash over the last few days. Urinalysis is positive for blood and protein, and blood tests show raised eosinophils and creatinine. Her General Practitioner started her on a new medication two weeks ago, but she cannot remember the name or what it was for.
Which of the following drugs would be safe to continue at present, given the suspected diagnosis?Your Answer: Diclofenac
Correct Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:Drug-Induced Acute Tubulointerstitial Nephritis: Common Culprits and Management Options
Acute tubulointerstitial nephritis is a condition characterized by fever, rash, and abnormalities on urinalysis. It can be caused by various drugs, including non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), beta-lactam antibiotics, allopurinol, and proton pump inhibitors (PPIs). In this case, the patient’s raised eosinophil count suggests drug-induced acute tubulointerstitial nephritis.
Prednisolone, a steroid commonly used to manage this condition, is safe to continue. However, NSAIDs like diclofenac should be stopped as they can inhibit prostaglandins that maintain the glomerular filtration rate. Allopurinol may also need to be withdrawn to determine if it is contributing to the symptoms. Beta-lactam antibiotics like amoxicillin are another common cause and may need to be stopped. PPIs like omeprazole are a relatively rare but known trigger and should be withdrawn promptly. It is important to remember that steroids should not be suddenly stopped in most patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A patient with chronic kidney disease has a creatinine of 350 μmol/l and has persistent proteinuria.
Which one of the following drugs is most likely of benefit to his renal prognosis?Your Answer: Doxazosin
Correct Answer: Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
Explanation:Treatment Options for Proteinuria and Renal Prognosis
Proteinuria, the presence of excess protein in the urine, can be a sign of kidney damage or disease. Patients with proteinuria of any cause are at increased cardiovascular risk and require attention to modifiable risk factors such as smoking and hyperlipidemia. However, the renal prognosis can improve with the use of angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, which are known to be effective in treating proteinuria. Aspirin and clopidogrel are not considered effective in improving renal outcomes for proteinuria. Blood pressure control is crucial in improving renal outcomes, and doxazosin may be useful in the right context. Methotrexate is not a recommended treatment option for proteinuria. Overall, ACE inhibitors remain the most effective treatment option for improving renal prognosis in patients with proteinuria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman presents for review of her chronic kidney disease.
Her investigation results show:
Investigation Result Normal range
Calcium 1.70 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
Potassium 6 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Phosphate 2.5 mmol/l 0.70–1.40 mmol/l
Urea 80 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 400 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
What is the mechanism for the low calcium?Your Answer: Increased tubular loss of calcium
Correct Answer: Reduced vitamin D hydroxylation
Explanation:This patient has hypocalcaemia due to chronic renal failure, which reduces the production of calcitriol, the active form of vitamin D that plays a crucial role in calcium absorption. Calcitriol increases the permeability of tight junctions in the small intestine, allowing for the absorption of calcium through both passive and active pathways. In the active pathway, calcitriol stimulates the production of calbindin, which helps transport calcium into the enteral cells. However, in chronic kidney disease, the hydroxylation of calcidiol to calcitriol is impaired, leading to reduced calcium absorption and hypocalcaemia. Other potential causes of hypocalcaemia, such as increased tubular loss of calcium or a parathyroid tumour, have been ruled out in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus and recently diagnosed with CKD stage G3a (GFR 45 ml/min/1.73 m2) is seen by her GP. The GP notes that the patient has a BP of 152/90 mmHg, which is persistently elevated on two further readings taken on separate occasions by the practice nurse. The patient has no past history of hypertension. What is the most appropriate management for the patient's hypertension?
Your Answer: Dietary modification and exercise advice
Correct Answer: Lisinopril
Explanation:Management of Hypertension in Chronic Kidney Disease
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) requires careful management of hypertension to slow the progression of renal disease. The recommended first-line treatment for hypertension in CKD is angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEis), which should maintain systolic BP < 140 mmHg and diastolic BP < 90 mmHg. Before starting ACEi treatment, serum potassium concentrations and estimated glomerular filtration rate (GFR) should be measured and monitored regularly. While ACEis and angiotensin receptor antagonists (ARBs) may be used as first-line treatments, they should not be used concurrently due to the risk of hyperkalaemia and hypotension. Potassium-sparing diuretics, such as amiloride, should also be avoided in renal impairment due to the risk of hyperkalaemia. In addition to medication, dietary modification and exercise advice can also help manage hypertension in CKD patients. If hypertension is not controlled with an ACEi or ARB alone, thiazide diuretics like bendroflumethiazide may be added as second-line therapy. Overall, careful management of hypertension is crucial in CKD patients to slow the progression of renal disease and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with haematuria and haemoptysis. His vital signs are heart rate 88 bpm, blood pressure 170/110 mmHg, respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute, and temperature 37.8 °C. Urinalysis shows protein and red cell casts. Serum testing reveals antibodies to the glomerular basement membrane. A renal biopsy is conducted.
What is the probable finding in the renal biopsy?Your Answer: Splitting of the basement membrane
Correct Answer: Linear immunofluorescence
Explanation:Different Renal Pathologies and their Histological Features
Nephritic syndrome is a condition characterized by proteinuria, haematuria, and hypertension. Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies suggest hypersensitivity angiitis (Goodpasture’s syndrome) as the underlying cause. In hypersensitivity angiitis, crescents are seen on light microscopy of a renal biopsy specimen. Immunofluorescence shows linear IgG deposits along the basement membrane.
Diffuse membranous glomerulonephritis is characterized by ‘wire looping’ of capillaries. Hereditary nephritis (Alport syndrome) shows splitting of the basement membrane and is associated with deafness. Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, typically seen in children, shows a ‘lumpy bumpy’ appearance of the glomeruli. Immunoglobulin A (IgA) nephropathy is characterized by immune complex deposition in the basement membrane.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 8
Correct
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A 52-year-old man with an acute kidney injury has developed fluid overload and treatment has been initiated. An ABCDE assessment is performed, and the findings are below:
Airway Patent, speaking but confused in conversation
Breathing Respiratory rate (RR) 24/min, SaO2 96% on 4 litres of O2/min, bibasal crackles heard on auscultation in the lower zones (up to mid-zones on admission)
Circulation Heart rate (HR) 112 bpm, blood pressure (BP) 107/68 mmHg, heart sounds disturbed by a friction rub, ECG shows sinus tachycardia
Disability Pupils equal and reactive to light, normal upper and lower limb neurology, Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) 14 (E4 V4 M6)
Exposure Temperature 36.8°C
On initial bloods, the C-reactive protein (CRP) is within normal limits.
The results of initial arterial blood gas and serum urea and electrolytes are shown below:
Investigation Result Normal value
pH 7.28 7.35–7.45
pO2 10.7 kPa > 11 kPa
pCO2 5.7 kPa 4.5–6.0 kPa
Bicarbonate 20 mmol/l 22–26 mmol/l
Lactate 1.8 mmol/l < 2 mmol/l
Urea 53 mmol/l 2.5–7.8 mmol/l
Creatinine 729 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Which one of the following is an indication for urgent dialysis in this patient?Your Answer: Urea of 53 mmol/l
Explanation:A raised urea level of 53 mmol/l, along with an audible friction rub on heart auscultation and reduced Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS), suggests uraemic pericarditis and uraemic encephalopathy respectively. Urgent dialysis is necessary if symptoms or complications occur due to uraemia. Hyperkalaemia with a K+ level >6.5, refractory to medical therapies, or associated with ECG changes, requires urgent dialysis. Life-threatening hyperkalaemia should be treated with medical therapies such as calcium gluconate, insulin-dextrose, and salbutamol. Metabolic acidaemia with a pH <7.1, refractory to medical therapies, is an indication for dialysis. Creatinine levels do not indicate when dialysis is required. Bibasal crackles may represent pulmonary oedema due to fluid overload, but if they respond to medical treatment, urgent dialysis is not necessary. However, if they are refractory to medical therapy, dialysis may be warranted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old piano teacher presented to the Emergency Department with an acute kidney injury (AKI) and was referred to the renal team for urgent haemodialysis. Which of the following is not a reason for immediate dialysis?
Your Answer: Furosemide-resistant fluid overload
Correct Answer: Alkalosis
Explanation:Indications for Urgent Dialysis in Renal Failure Patients
Dialysis is a life-saving treatment for patients with renal failure. Urgent dialysis is required in certain situations to prevent serious complications. Acidosis, not alkalosis, is an urgent indication for dialysis. Pulmonary edema caused by furosemide-resistant fluid overload is another indication for urgent dialysis. Severe hyperkalemia, with potassium levels greater than 6.5 mmol/l or less if electrocardiographic changes are apparent, is also an indication for dialysis. Severe uraemia, with symptoms such as vomiting, encephalopathy, and urea levels greater than 60 mmol/l, requires urgent dialysis. Uraemic pericarditis is another indication for urgent dialysis. It is important to recognize these indications and initiate dialysis promptly to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old writer presents to his routine follow up at the Nephrology Clinic complaining of numbness and tingling sensation of his right fingers. This worsens when he types for more than an hour and slightly improves when he stops typing. He suffers from diabetes mellitus and end-stage kidney disease and has been on regular haemodialysis via brachiocephalic fistula on his right antecubital fossa. On examination, his right radial artery is palpable and he has reduced sensation in all his right fingers, predominantly affecting the fingertips. The numbness does not worsen with tapping over the wrist nor with forced flexion of his wrists. His capillary refill time over his right fingers is prolonged to three seconds.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Radial nerve palsy
Correct Answer: Fistula steal syndrome
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Numbness in a Patient with Arteriovenous Fistula
Fistula Steal Syndrome, Carpal Tunnel Syndrome, and Diabetic Neuropathy are Possible Causes of Numbness in a Patient with Arteriovenous Fistula
Arteriovenous fistula is a common procedure for patients undergoing hemodialysis. However, up to 20% of patients may develop complications such as fistula steal syndrome, which occurs when the segment of artery distal to the fistula is narrowed, leading to reduced arterial blood flow to the limb extremities. This can cause numbness and worsening of symptoms on usage of the hands.
Other possible causes of numbness in this patient include carpal tunnel syndrome, which is a common complication among patients on long-term renal replacement therapy due to protein deposition in the carpal tunnel, and diabetic neuropathy, which is a common complication of chronic diabetes mellitus. However, the loss of sensation in peripheral neuropathy in diabetic patients is symmetrical in nature, commonly following a glove and stocking pattern.
Radial nerve palsy and ulnar styloid fracture are less likely causes of numbness in this patient, as they typically present with muscle weakness and a history of trauma, respectively. A thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying cause of numbness in patients with arteriovenous fistula.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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