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  • Question 1 - A 27-year-old intravenous drug user presents with a systolic murmur that is most...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old intravenous drug user presents with a systolic murmur that is most audible at the fifth costal cartilage on the left sternal edge. What is the most probable anatomical site of the disease causing the murmur?

      Your Answer: Interventricular septum

      Correct Answer: Tricuspid valve

      Explanation:

      Auscultation of Heart Murmurs and Associated Cardiac Structures

      When listening to heart sounds, the location of the murmur can provide clues about the underlying cardiac structure involved. A pansystolic murmur heard at the left sternal margin at the fifth costal cartilage suggests tricuspid regurgitation, likely caused by infective endocarditis in an intravenous drug user. A ventricular septal defect can be auscultated as a pansystolic murmur, while an atrial septal defect is associated with an ejection systolic murmur and split second heart sound over the pulmonary area. Abnormalities of the mitral valve are heard in the fifth intercostal space at the mid-clavicular line, and the aortic valve can be auscultated at the second intercostal space in the right sternal edge. Understanding the relationship between heart murmurs and associated cardiac structures can aid in diagnosis and management of cardiac conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      74.1
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  • Question 2 - An 81-year-old man with heart failure and depression presents with a sodium level...

    Incorrect

    • An 81-year-old man with heart failure and depression presents with a sodium level of 130. He is currently asymptomatic and his heart failure and depression are well managed. He has mild pitting pedal oedema and is taking ramipril, bisoprolol, simvastatin and citalopram. What is the optimal approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Give oral magnesium supplementation

      Correct Answer: Restrict his fluid input to 1.5 l/day and recheck in 3 days

      Explanation:

      Managing Hyponatraemia: Treatment Options and Considerations

      Hyponatraemia, a condition characterized by low serum sodium levels, requires careful management to avoid potential complications. The first step in treating hyponatraemia is to restrict fluid intake to reverse any dilution and address the underlying cause. Administering saline should only be considered if fluid restriction fails, as treating hyponatraemia too quickly can lead to central pontine myelinolysis.

      In cases where medication may be contributing to hyponatraemia, such as with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), it is important to weigh the benefits and risks of discontinuing the medication. Abruptly stopping SSRIs can cause withdrawal symptoms, and patients should be gradually weaned off over several weeks or months.

      Other treatment options, such as increasing salt intake or administering oral magnesium supplementation, may not be appropriate for all cases of hyponatraemia. It is important to consider the patient’s overall clinical picture and underlying conditions, such as heart failure, before deciding on a course of treatment.

      Overall, managing hyponatraemia requires a careful and individualized approach to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      15.7
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  • Question 3 - A young marine biologist was snorkelling among giant stingrays when the tail (barb)...

    Incorrect

    • A young marine biologist was snorkelling among giant stingrays when the tail (barb) of one of the stingrays suddenly pierced his chest. The tip of the barb pierced the right ventricle and the man instinctively removed it in the water. When he was brought onto the boat, there was absence of heart sounds, reduced cardiac output and engorged jugular veins.

      What was the most likely diagnosis for the young marine biologist who was snorkelling among giant stingrays and had the tail (barb) of one of the stingrays pierce his chest, causing the tip of the barb to pierce the right ventricle? Upon being brought onto the boat, the young man exhibited absence of heart sounds, reduced cardiac output and engorged jugular veins.

      Your Answer: Stroke

      Correct Answer: Cardiac tamponade

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of a patient with chest trauma

      When evaluating a patient with chest trauma, it is important to consider various potential diagnoses based on the clinical presentation and mechanism of injury. Here are some possible explanations for different symptoms:

      – Cardiac tamponade: If a projectile penetrates the fibrous pericardium, blood can accumulate in the pericardial cavity and compress the heart, leading to decreased cardiac output and potential death.
      – Deep vein thrombosis: This condition involves the formation of a blood clot in a deep vein, often in the leg. However, it does not typically cause the symptoms described in this case.
      – Stroke: A stroke occurs when blood flow to the brain is disrupted, usually due to a blockage or rupture of an artery. This is not likely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms.
      – Pulmonary embolism: If a clot from a deep vein thrombosis travels to the lungs and obstructs blood flow, it can cause sudden death. However, given the history of trauma, other possibilities should be considered first.
      – Haemothorax: This refers to the accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity around a lung. While it can cause respiratory distress and chest pain, it does not typically affect jugular veins or heart sounds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 4 - A man in his early 40s comes to you with a rash. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A man in his early 40s comes to you with a rash. Upon examination, you notice that he has eruptive xanthoma. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Familial combined hyperlipidaemia

      Correct Answer: Familial hypertriglyceridaemia

      Explanation:

      Eruptive Xanthoma and its Association with Hypertriglyceridaemia and Diabetes Mellitus

      Eruptive xanthoma is a skin condition that can occur in individuals with hypertriglyceridaemia and uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. Hypertriglyceridaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of triglycerides in the blood, which can be caused by a number of factors including genetics, diet, and lifestyle. Eruptive xanthoma is a type of xanthoma that appears as small, yellowish bumps on the skin, often in clusters.

      Of the conditions listed, familial hypertriglyceridaemia is the most likely to be associated with eruptive xanthoma. This is a genetic condition that causes high levels of triglycerides in the blood, and can lead to a range of health problems including cardiovascular disease. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, which is characterized by high blood sugar levels, can also be a risk factor for eruptive xanthoma.

      It is important for individuals with hypertriglyceridaemia or diabetes mellitus to manage their condition through lifestyle changes and medication, in order to reduce the risk of complications such as eruptive xanthoma. Regular monitoring and treatment can help to prevent the development of this skin condition and other related health problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      85.2
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  • Question 5 - An 85-year-old woman attends her general practice for a medication review. She is...

    Incorrect

    • An 85-year-old woman attends her general practice for a medication review. She is currently taking aspirin, simvastatin, atenolol, captopril and furosemide. The general practitioner (GP) performs an examination and notes an irregular pulse with a rate of 100 bpm. The GP makes a referral to the Cardiology Department with a view to establishing whether this woman’s atrial fibrillation (AF) is permanent or paroxysmal and to obtaining the appropriate treatment for her.
      Which of the following is the most recognised risk factor for the development of AF?

      Your Answer: Obesity

      Correct Answer: Alcohol

      Explanation:

      Understanding Risk Factors for Atrial Fibrillation

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a common cardiac arrhythmia that can lead to palpitations, shortness of breath, and fatigue. It is most commonly associated with alcohol consumption, chest disease, and hyperthyroidism. Other risk factors include hypertension, pericardial disease, congenital heart disease, cardiomyopathy, valvular heart disease, and coronary heart disease. AF can be classified as paroxysmal, persistent, or permanent, and may be diagnosed incidentally through an electrocardiogram (ECG) finding.

      Once diagnosed, management includes investigating with a 12-lead ECG, echocardiogram, and thyroid function tests. The main objectives are rate control, rhythm control, and reducing the risk of thromboembolic disease. Rhythm control can be achieved through electrical cardioversion or drug therapy, while rate control is managed using medications such as digoxin, β-blockers, or rate-limiting calcium antagonists. Warfarin is indicated for patients with risk factors for stroke, and the risk of ischaemic stroke is calculated using the CHADS2vasc scoring system. Novel oral anticoagulants are also available as an alternative to warfarin in certain patients.

      While hyperthyroidism is a recognized risk factor for AF, obesity and smoking are also associated with an increased risk of developing the condition. Pneumothorax, however, is not a recognized risk factor for AF. Understanding these risk factors can help individuals take steps to reduce their risk of developing AF and manage the condition if diagnosed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with sudden onset of palpitations....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with sudden onset of palpitations. Upon examination, her pulse rate is found to be 180 bpm and she appears warm and well perfused. Her blood pressure is 135/80 mmHg, respiratory rate is 20/min, and oxygen saturation is 100% on air. Chest auscultation reveals no signs of cardiac failure, but an ECG shows a narrow complex tachycardia. Despite attempts at carotid massage and Valsalva manoeuvre, the rhythm disturbance persists. What is the appropriate initial management?

      Your Answer: IV magnesium

      Correct Answer: IV adenosine

      Explanation:

      Management of Narrow Complex Supraventricular Tachycardia

      When a patient presents with narrow complex supraventricular tachycardia, the initial management would be to administer IV adenosine, provided there are no contraindications such as asthma. This medication creates a transient conduction delay, which may terminate the tachycardia or slow down the heart rate enough to identify the underlying rhythm. This information is crucial in determining the optimal antiarrhythmic therapy for the patient.

      However, if the patient experiences chest pain, hypotension, SBP <90 mmHg, or evidence of cardiac failure, then DC cardioversion would be necessary. It is important to note that if the patient is not haemodynamically compromised, IV adenosine is the preferred initial management for narrow complex supraventricular tachycardia. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage this condition and provide the best possible care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 7 - A 70-year-old man with a history of chronic cardiac failure with reduced ventricular...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with a history of chronic cardiac failure with reduced ventricular systolic function presents with recent onset of increasing breathlessness, and worsening peripheral oedema and lethargy. He is currently taking ramipril and bisoprolol alongside occasional paracetamol.
      What is the most appropriate long-term management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Addition of spironolactone

      Explanation:

      For the management of heart failure, first line options include ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and aldosterone antagonists. In this case, the patient was already on a beta-blocker and an ACE inhibitor which had been effective. The addition of an aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone would be the best option as it prevents fluid retention and reduces pressure on the heart. Ivabradine is a specialist intervention that should only be considered after trying all other recommended options. Addition of furosemide would only provide symptomatic relief. Insertion of an implantable cardiac defibrillator device is a late-stage intervention. Encouraging regular exercise and a healthy diet is important but does not directly address the patient’s clinical deterioration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 8 - A 55-year-old woman from India visits the general practice clinic, reporting fatigue and...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman from India visits the general practice clinic, reporting fatigue and tiredness after completing household tasks. During the examination, the physician observes periodic involuntary contractions of her left arm and multiple lumps beneath the skin. The doctor inquires about the patient's medical history and asks if she had any childhood illnesses. The patient discloses that she had a severe throat infection in India as a child but did not receive any treatment.
      What is the most frequent abnormality that can be detected by listening to the heart during auscultation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An opening snap after S2, followed by a rumbling mid-diastolic murmur

      Explanation:

      Common Heart Murmurs and their Association with Rheumatic Heart Disease

      Rheumatic heart disease (RHD) is a condition resulting from untreated pharyngitis caused by group A beta-haemolytic streptococcal infection. RHD can lead to heart valve dysfunction, most commonly the mitral valve, resulting in mitral stenosis. The characteristic murmur of mitral stenosis is a mid-diastolic rumbling murmur that follows an opening snap after S2. Aortic stenosis can also be present in RHD but is less prevalent. Other heart murmurs associated with RHD include a high-pitched blowing diastolic decrescendo murmur, which is associated with aortic regurgitation, and a continuous machine-like murmur that is loudest at S2, consistent with patent ductus arteriosus. A late systolic crescendo murmur with a mid-systolic click is seen in mitral valve prolapse. A crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur following an ejection click describes the murmur heard in aortic stenosis. It is important to recognize these murmurs and their association with RHD for proper diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 9 - A man in his early 60s is undergoing treatment for high blood pressure....

    Incorrect

    • A man in his early 60s is undergoing treatment for high blood pressure. During a dental check-up, his dentist informs him that he has gingival hyperplasia. Which medication is the most probable culprit for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nifedipine

      Explanation:

      Drugs Associated with Gingival Hyperplasia

      Gingival hyperplasia is a condition characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue, which can lead to discomfort, difficulty in maintaining oral hygiene, and even tooth loss. There are several drugs that have been associated with this condition, including Phenytoin, Ciclosporin, and Nifedipine. These drugs are commonly used to treat various medical conditions, such as epilepsy, organ transplant rejection, and hypertension.

      According to Medscape, drug-induced gingival hyperplasia is a well-known side effect of these medications. The exact mechanism by which these drugs cause gingival hyperplasia is not fully understood, but it is believed to be related to their effect on the immune system and the production of collagen in the gums.

      It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of this potential side effect when prescribing these medications, and to monitor patients for any signs of gingival hyperplasia. Patients who are taking these drugs should also be advised to maintain good oral hygiene and to visit their dentist regularly for check-ups and cleanings.

      In summary, Phenytoin, Ciclosporin, and Nifedipine are drugs that have been associated with gingival hyperplasia. Healthcare providers should be aware of this potential side effect and monitor patients accordingly, while patients should maintain good oral hygiene and visit their dentist regularly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 10 - During a Cardiology Ward round, a 69-year-old woman with worsening shortness of breath...

    Incorrect

    • During a Cardiology Ward round, a 69-year-old woman with worsening shortness of breath on minimal exertion is examined by a medical student. While checking the patient's jugular venous pressure (JVP), the student observes that the patient has giant v-waves. What is the most probable cause of a large JVP v-wave (giant v-wave)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Lachmann test

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of gastroenteritis. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of gastroenteritis. He has experienced severe cramps in his left calf and has vomited five times in the last 24 hours. Blood tests reveal hypokalaemia, and an electrocardiogram (ECG) is performed. Which ECG change is most commonly linked to hypokalaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prominent U waves

      Explanation:

      ECG Changes Associated with Hypo- and Hyperkalaemia

      Hypokalaemia, or low levels of potassium in the blood, can cause various changes in an electrocardiogram (ECG). One of the most prominent changes is the appearance of U waves, which follow T waves and usually have the same direction. Hypokalaemia can also cause increased amplitude and width of P waves, prolonged PR interval, T wave flattening and inversion, ST depression, and Q-T prolongation in severe cases.

      On the other hand, hyperkalaemia, or high levels of potassium in the blood, can cause peaked T waves, which represent ventricular repolarisation. Hyperkalaemia is also associated with widening of the QRS complex, which can lead to life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias. Flattening of P waves and prolonged PR interval are other ECG changes seen in hyperkalaemia.

      It is important to note that some of these ECG changes can overlap between hypo- and hyperkalaemia, such as prolonged PR interval. Therefore, other clinical and laboratory findings should be considered to determine the underlying cause of the ECG changes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 12 - A 50-year-old patient with hypertension arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of central...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old patient with hypertension arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of central chest pain that feels heavy. The pain does not radiate, and there are no other risk factors for atherosclerosis. Upon examination, the patient's vital signs are normal, including pulse, temperature, and oxygen saturation. The patient appears sweaty, but cardiovascular and respiratory exams are unremarkable. The patient experiences tenderness over the sternum at the site of the chest pain, and the resting electrocardiogram (ECG) is normal.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange a 12-h troponin T assay before deciding whether or not to discharge the patient

      Explanation:

      Management of Chest Pain in a Patient with Risk Factors for Cardiac Disease

      Chest pain is a common presenting complaint in primary care and emergency departments. However, it is important to consider the possibility of an acute coronary syndrome in patients with risk factors for cardiac disease. Here are some management strategies for a patient with chest pain and risk factors for cardiac disease:

      Arrange a 12-h troponin T assay before deciding whether or not to discharge the patient. A normal troponin assay would make a diagnosis of acute coronary syndrome unlikely, but further investigation may be required to determine if the patient has underlying coronary artery disease.

      Do not discharge the patient with a diagnosis of costochondritis based solely on chest wall tenderness. This should only be used in low-risk patients with tenderness that accurately reproduces the pain they have been feeling on minimal palpation.

      Do not discharge the patient if serial resting ECGs are normal. A normal ECG does not rule out an acute cardiac event.

      Admit the patient to the Coronary Care Unit for monitoring and further assessment only if the 12-h troponin comes back elevated.

      Do not discharge the patient and arrange an outpatient exercise tolerance test until further investigation has been done to rule out an acute cardiac event.

      In summary, it is important to consider the possibility of an acute coronary syndrome in patients with chest pain and risk factors for cardiac disease. Further investigation, such as a 12-h troponin assay, may be required before deciding on appropriate management strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 13 - A 68-year-old man presents to his general practitioner (GP) with shortness of breath....

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to his general practitioner (GP) with shortness of breath. He describes shortness of breath on exertion and feeling short of breath when he lies flat. He now uses four pillows when sleeping. His past medical history is remarkable for hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia and type II diabetes.
      On examination, he has bilateral crepitation, a jugular venous pressure (JVP) of 5 cm and pitting oedema up to his shins. Despite these symptoms, his oxygen saturation is 99% and he is functioning normally at home. He says the symptoms started gradually about 6 months ago and have progressed slowly since.
      Which of the following should the GP do first to confirm the provisional diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)

      Explanation:

      The first-line investigation for heart failure in primary care is checking the levels of brain natriuretic peptide (BNP), according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines. BNP levels are widely available, non-invasive, quick, and cost-efficient. A normal BNP level can rule out heart failure, but if it is abnormal, an echocardiogram should be done within 6 weeks if it is raised and within 2 weeks if it is very high. Patients with a history of myocardial infarction should have an echocardiogram straightaway. An echocardiogram is the most definitive test diagnostically, as it can accurately assess various parameters. Troponin T level is used to assess myocardial injury resulting from a myocardial infarction, but it is not relevant in chronic heart failure. Myocardial perfusion scans are useful in the diagnosis of coronary artery disease, but they are not the first-line investigation for heart failure. An ECG may be helpful, but it is not sensitive or specific enough to be used as a conclusive diagnostic tool. A chest X-ray can show features of heart failure, but they are usually found in progressed chronic congestive heart failure, which are unlikely to be present at the very first presentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 14 - An ECG shows small T-waves, ST depression, and prominent U-waves in a patient...

    Incorrect

    • An ECG shows small T-waves, ST depression, and prominent U-waves in a patient who is likely to be experiencing what condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Electrocardiogram Changes and Symptoms Associated with Electrolyte Imbalances

      Electrolyte imbalances can cause various changes in the electrocardiogram (ECG) and present with specific symptoms. Here are some of the common electrolyte imbalances and their associated ECG changes and symptoms:

      Hypokalaemia:
      – ECG changes: small T-waves, ST depression, prolonged QT interval, prominent U-waves
      – Symptoms: generalised weakness, lack of energy, muscle pain, constipation
      – Treatment: potassium replacement with iv infusion of potassium chloride (rate of infusion should not exceed 10 mmol of potassium an hour)

      Hyponatraemia:
      – ECG changes: ST elevation
      – Symptoms: headaches, nausea, vomiting, lethargy
      – Treatment: depends on the underlying cause

      Hypocalcaemia:
      – ECG changes: prolongation of the QT interval
      – Symptoms: paraesthesia, muscle cramps, tetany
      – Treatment: calcium replacement

      Hyperkalaemia:
      – ECG changes: tall tented T-waves, widened QRS, absent P-waves, sine wave appearance
      – Symptoms: weakness, fatigue
      – Treatment: depends on the severity of hyperkalaemia

      Hypercalcaemia:
      – ECG changes: shortening of the QT interval
      – Symptoms: moans (nausea, constipation), stones (kidney stones, flank pain), groans (confusion, depression), bones (bone pain)
      – Treatment: depends on the underlying cause

      It is important to recognise and treat electrolyte imbalances promptly to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 15 - A 65-year-old insurance broker with mitral stenosis is seen in the Cardiology Clinic....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old insurance broker with mitral stenosis is seen in the Cardiology Clinic. He reports increasing shortness of breath on exertion and general fatigue over the past six months. Additionally, he notes swelling in his feet and ankles at the end of the day. What is the first-line intervention for symptomatic mitral stenosis with a mobile undistorted mitral valve and no left atrial thrombus or mitral regurgitation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Balloon valvuloplasty

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Mitral Valve Disease

      Mitral valve disease can be managed through various treatment options depending on the severity and type of the condition. Balloon valvuloplasty is the preferred option for symptomatic patients with mitral stenosis, while mitral valve repair is the preferred surgical management for mitral regurgitation. Aortic valve replacement is an option if the aortic valve is faulty. Mitral valve replacement with a metallic valve requires high levels of anticoagulation, and therefore repair is preferred if possible. The Blalock–Taussig shunt is a surgical method for palliation of cyanotic congenital heart disease. Mitral valve repair may be considered in patients with mitral stenosis if the valve anatomy is unsuitable for balloon valvuloplasty. However, if the patient has severe symptomatic mitral stenosis with signs of heart failure, mitral valve replacement would be the first line of treatment.

      Treatment Options for Mitral Valve Disease

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 16 - A 72-year-old man is admitted to hospital with exertional chest pain. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man is admitted to hospital with exertional chest pain. He reports that this has only begun in the past few days, particularly when climbing hills. The pain is not present when he is at rest.
      What is the gold standard test that you will request for this patient from the following tests?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) coronary angiogram

      Explanation:

      Investigating Cardiac Chest Pain: Recommended Tests

      When a patient presents with cardiac chest pain, it is important to conduct appropriate investigations to determine the underlying cause. The following tests are recommended:

      Computed Tomography (CT) Coronary Angiogram: This non-invasive test uses CT scanning to detect any evidence of coronary artery disease and determine its extent. It is considered the gold standard test for investigating cardiac chest pain.

      Angiogram: Before undergoing an angiogram, the patient should first have an exercise tolerance test (ETT) to assess real-time cardiac function during exertion. If the patient experiences ischaemic changes and reduced exercise tolerance, an angiogram may be necessary.

      Chest X-ray: A chest X-ray is not a priority investigation for cardiac chest pain, as it does not aid in diagnosis unless there is evidence of associated heart failure or pleural effusions.

      Full Blood Count: While anaemia could contribute to angina, a full blood count is not a first-line investigation for cardiac chest pain.

      Troponin: Troponin levels may be raised in cases of myocardial damage, but are not necessary for managing angina. The recurring pain and relief with rest indicate angina, rather than a myocardial infarction (MI), which would present with crushing chest pain and dyspnoea that is not alleviated by rest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 17 - A 68-year-old man presents with severe epigastric pain and nausea. He reports not...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with severe epigastric pain and nausea. He reports not having a bowel movement in 3 days, despite normal bowel habits prior to this. The patient has a history of coronary stents placed after a heart attack 10 years ago. He has been asymptomatic since then and takes aspirin for his cardiac condition and NSAIDs for knee arthritis. He has not consumed alcohol in the past 5 years due to a previous episode of acute gastritis.

      On examination, there is mild tenderness over the epigastrium but no guarding. Bowel sounds are normal. An erect CXR and abdominal X-ray are unremarkable. Blood gases and routine blood tests (FBC, U&E, LFTs) are normal, with a normal amylase. Upper GI endoscopy reveals gastric erosions.

      What is the most important differential diagnosis to consider for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myocardial infarction

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Epigastric Pain and History of Cardiac Stents

      Introduction:
      A patient with a history of cardiac stents presents with epigastric pain. The following are possible diagnoses that should be considered.

      Myocardial Infarction:
      Due to the patient’s history of cardiac stents, ruling out a myocardial infarction (MI) is crucial. An electrocardiogram (ECG) should be performed early to treat any existing cardiac condition without delay.

      Duodenal Ulcer:
      A duodenal ulcer would have likely been visualized on an oesophagogastroduodenoscopy (OGD). However, a normal erect CXR and absence of peritonitis exclude a perforated duodenal ulcer.

      Acute Gastritis:
      Given the patient’s history of aspirin and NSAID use, as well as the gastric erosions visualized on endoscopy, acute gastritis is the most likely diagnosis. However, it is important to first exclude MI as a cause of the patient’s symptoms due to their history of MI and presentation of epigastric pain.

      Pancreatitis:
      Pancreatitis is unlikely, given the normal amylase. However, on occasion, this can be normal in cases depending on the timing of the blood test or whether the pancreas has had previous chronic inflammation.

      Ischaemic Bowel:
      Ischaemic bowel would present with more generalized abdominal pain and metabolic lactic acidosis on blood gas. Therefore, it is less likely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 18 - A 56-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with crushing substernal chest pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with crushing substernal chest pain that radiates to the jaw. He has a history of poorly controlled hypertension and uncontrolled type II diabetes mellitus for the past 12 years. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals ST elevation, and he is diagnosed with acute myocardial infarction. The patient undergoes percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) and stenting and is discharged from the hospital. Eight weeks later, he experiences fever, leukocytosis, and chest pain that is relieved by leaning forwards. There is diffuse ST elevation in multiple ECG leads, and a pericardial friction rub is heard on auscultation. What is the most likely cause of the patient's current symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dressler’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Complications of Transmural Myocardial Infarction

      Transmural myocardial infarction can lead to various complications, including Dressler’s syndrome and ventricular aneurysm. Dressler’s syndrome typically occurs weeks to months after an infarction and is characterized by acute fibrinous pericarditis, fever, pleuritic chest pain, and leukocytosis. On the other hand, ventricular aneurysm is characterized by a systolic bulge in the precordial area and predisposes to stasis and thrombus formation. Acute fibrinous pericarditis, which manifests a few days after an infarction, is not due to an autoimmune reaction. Reinfarction is unlikely in a patient who has undergone successful treatment for STEMI. Infectious myocarditis, caused by viruses such as Coxsackie B, Epstein-Barr, adenovirus, and echovirus, is not the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms, given his medical history.

      Complications of Transmural Myocardial Infarction

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 19 - A woman is evaluated in the Emergency Department for acute-onset shortness of breath....

    Incorrect

    • A woman is evaluated in the Emergency Department for acute-onset shortness of breath. The doctor notices that the patient’s jugular veins distend when she inspires, even while sitting upright.

      Which of the following processes could explain this observation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The patient has constrictive pericarditis

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Relationship between Neck Veins and Various Medical Conditions

      The appearance of neck veins can provide valuable information about a patient’s health. Here are some examples of how different medical conditions can affect the appearance of neck veins:

      1. Constrictive pericarditis: This condition restricts the heart’s ability to expand, leading to higher pressures within the right heart. This can cause jugular venous distension, which is more pronounced during inspiration (Kussmaul’s sign).

      2. Dehydration: A decrease in intravascular blood volume can cause flattened neck veins.

      3. Venous insufficiency: Incompetent venous valves can lead to venous stasis and pooling of blood in the lower extremities. This can cause syncope due to decreased venous return to the heart.

      4. Budd-Chiari syndrome and hepatic vein thrombosis: These conditions involve blood clots in the hepatic vein or inferior vena cava, which prevent blood from returning to the right heart from the abdomen and lower extremities. This decreases the pressure in the right heart and allows blood to drain more easily from the jugular and neck veins, resulting in flattened neck veins.

      Understanding the relationship between neck veins and various medical conditions can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 20 - A 33-year-old known intravenous drug user presents to your GP clinic with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old known intravenous drug user presents to your GP clinic with complaints of fatigue, night sweats and joint pain. During the examination, you observe a new early-diastolic murmur. What is the probable causative organism for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Infective Endocarditis and their Characteristics

      Infective endocarditis is a serious condition that can lead to severe complications if left untreated. The most common causative organism of acute infective endocarditis is Staphylococcus aureus, especially in patients with risk factors such as prosthetic valves or intravenous drug use. Symptoms and signs consistent with infective endocarditis include fever, heart murmur, and arthritis, as well as pathognomonic signs like splinter hemorrhages, Osler’s nodes, Roth spots, Janeway lesions, and petechiae.

      Group B streptococci is less common than Staphylococcus aureus but has a high mortality rate of 70%. Streptococcus viridans is not the most common cause of infective endocarditis, but it does cause 50-60% of subacute cases. Group D streptococci is the third most common cause of infective endocarditis. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is not the most common cause of infective endocarditis and usually requires surgery for cure.

      In summary, knowing the characteristics of the different causative organisms of infective endocarditis can help in the diagnosis and treatment of this serious condition.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 21 - A 49-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of chest pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of chest pain and pain in his left shoulder. He had spent the previous 2 h shoveling snow, but had to stop because of the pain. He admits to several prior episodes of chest pain under similar circumstances. No ST segment changes are seen on the electrocardiogram (ECG). The patient is given sublingual nitroglycerin, which relieves his pain, and is admitted for an overnight stay. The following morning, serum cardiac enzymes are within normal limits and no ECG changes are seen.
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stable (typical) angina

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Types of Angina

      When a patient presents with chest pain, it is important to differentiate between the different types of angina. In the case of a patient who has experienced chest pain triggered by heavy physical labor without characteristic ECG changes, and without rise in serum cardiac enzymes, it is likely that they are experiencing stable (typical) angina. This is not the patient’s first episode, and the pain is not becoming progressively worse with less severe triggers, ruling out unstable (crescendo) angina. Additionally, the fact that the pain was triggered by physical activity rather than occurring at rest rules out Prinzmetal variant angina. Subendocardial infarction and transmural infarction can also be ruled out as both would result in elevated cardiac enzyme levels and characteristic ECG changes, such as ST depression or ST elevation and Q waves, respectively. Therefore, based on the patient’s presentation, stable (typical) angina is the most likely diagnosis.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 22 - A 65-year-old woman with ischaemic heart disease presents with sudden onset palpitations. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with ischaemic heart disease presents with sudden onset palpitations. She has no other complaints. On examination, a regular tachycardia is present. Her blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg. Chest is clear. ECG reveals a regular tachycardia with a QRS width of 80 ms and a rate of 149 beats per min in a sawtooth pattern.
      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrial flutter

      Explanation:

      Common Cardiac Arrhythmias: Types and Characteristics

      Cardiac arrhythmias are abnormal heart rhythms that can cause serious health complications. Here are some common types of cardiac arrhythmias and their characteristics:

      1. Atrial Flutter: A type of supraventricular tachycardia that is characterized by a sawtooth pattern on the ECG. It is caused by a premature electrical impulse in the atrium and can degenerate into atrial fibrillation. Treatment involves rate or rhythm control, and electrical cardioversion is more effective than in atrial fibrillation.

      2. Fast Atrial Fibrillation: Another type of supraventricular tachycardia that presents as an irregularly irregular tachycardia.

      3. Ventricular Tachycardia: A common arrhythmia in cardiopaths that is characterized by a wide-complex tachycardia on ECG.

      4. Mobitz Type II: A form of second-degree heart block that is characterized by intermittent non-conducted P waves on ECG without progressive prolongation of the QRS interval.

      5. Brugada Syndrome: A rare electrophysiological condition that causes sudden death in young adults. ECG findings usually show ST elevation in leads V1 to V3 with a right bundle branch block.

      It is important to identify and treat cardiac arrhythmias promptly to prevent serious health complications.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 23 - A 68-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with chest tightness. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with chest tightness. The tightness started about a day ago, however today it is worse and associated with shortness of breath and dizziness.
      Upon examination, there is a slow rising carotid pulse and systolic murmur which radiates to carotids 3/6. Examination is otherwise unremarkable without calf tenderness. The patient does not have any significant past medical history apart from type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension which are both well controlled.
      What is the best diagnostic investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Investigations for Cardiac Conditions

      When a patient presents with signs and symptoms of a cardiac condition, various diagnostic investigations may be performed to determine the underlying cause. In the case of a patient with chest tightness, the first-line investigation is usually an electrocardiogram (ECG) to rule out acute coronary syndrome. However, if the patient is suspected of having aortic stenosis (AS), the best diagnostic investigation is an echocardiogram and Doppler to measure the size of the aortic valve. A normal aortic valve area is more than 2 cm2, while severe AS is defined as less than 1 cm2.

      Other diagnostic investigations for cardiac conditions include a coronary angiogram to assess the patency of the coronary arteries and potentially perform an angioplasty to insert a stent if any narrowing is found. Exercise tolerance tests can also be useful in monitoring patients with a cardiac history and heart failure classification. However, a D-dimer test, which is used to diagnose pulmonary embolism, would not be indicated in a patient with suspected AS unless there were additional features suggestive of a pulmonary embolism, such as calf tenderness.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 24 - Which congenital cardiac defect is correctly matched with its associated syndrome from the...

    Incorrect

    • Which congenital cardiac defect is correctly matched with its associated syndrome from the following options?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Turner syndrome and coarctation of the aorta

      Explanation:

      Common Cardiovascular Abnormalities Associated with Genetic Syndromes

      Various genetic syndromes are associated with cardiovascular abnormalities. Turner syndrome is linked with coarctation of the aorta, aortic stenosis, bicuspid aortic valve, aortic dilation, and dissection. Marfan syndrome is associated with aortic root dilation, mitral valve prolapse, mitral regurgitation, and aortic dissection. Kartagener syndrome can lead to bicuspid aortic valve, dextrocardia, bronchiectasis, and infertility. However, congenital adrenal hyperplasia is not associated with congenital cardiac conditions. Finally, congenital rubella syndrome is linked with patent ductus arteriosus, atrial septal defect, and pulmonary stenosis.

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  • Question 25 - A 55-year-old man is experiencing chest pain and shortness of breath three weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is experiencing chest pain and shortness of breath three weeks after a myocardial infarction that was treated with percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) for a proximal left anterior descending artery occlusion. On examination, he has a loud friction rub over the praecordium, bilateral pleural effusions on chest x-ray, and ST elevation on ECG. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dressler's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Dressler’s Syndrome

      Dressler’s syndrome is a type of pericarditis that typically develops between two to six weeks after a person has experienced an anterior myocardial infarction or undergone heart surgery. This condition is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response to myocardial antigens. In simpler terms, the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks the heart tissue, leading to inflammation of the pericardium, which is the sac that surrounds the heart.

      The symptoms of Dressler’s syndrome can vary from person to person, but they often include chest pain, fever, fatigue, and shortness of breath. In some cases, patients may also experience a cough, abdominal pain, or joint pain. Treatment for this condition typically involves the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) to reduce inflammation and manage pain. In severe cases, corticosteroids may be prescribed to help suppress the immune system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 26 - A 65 year old man with a BMI of 29 was diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year old man with a BMI of 29 was diagnosed with borderline hypertension during a routine check-up with his doctor. He is hesitant to take any medications. What dietary recommendations should be given to help lower his blood pressure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Consume a diet rich in fruits and vegetables

      Explanation:

      Tips for a Hypertension-Friendly Diet

      Maintaining a healthy diet is crucial for managing hypertension. Here are some tips to help you make the right food choices:

      1. Load up on fruits and vegetables: Consuming a diet rich in fruits and vegetables can reduce blood pressure by 2-8 mmHg in hypertensive patients. It can also aid in weight loss, which further lowers the risk of hypertension.

      2. Limit cholesterol intake: A reduction in cholesterol is essential for patients with ischaemic heart disease, and eating foods that are low in fat and cholesterol can reduce blood pressure.

      3. Moderate alcohol consumption: Men should have no more than two alcoholic drinks daily to lower their risk of hypertension.

      4. Eat oily fish twice a week: Eating more fish can help lower blood pressure, but having oily fish twice weekly is advised for patients with ischaemic heart disease, not hypertension alone.

      5. Watch your sodium intake: Restricting dietary sodium is recommended and can lower blood pressure. A low sodium diet contains less than 2 g of sodium daily. Aim for a maximum of 7 g of dietary sodium daily.

      By following these tips, you can maintain a hypertension-friendly diet and reduce your risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 27 - What is the correct statement regarding the relationship between the electrocardiogram and the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement regarding the relationship between the electrocardiogram and the cardiac cycle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The QT interval gives a rough indication of the duration of ventricular systole

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Electrocardiogram: Key Components and Timing

      As a junior doctor, interpreting electrocardiograms (ECGs) is a crucial skill. One important aspect to understand is the timing of key components. The QT interval, which measures ventricular depolarization and repolarization, gives an indication of the duration of ventricular systole. However, this measurement is dependent on heart rate and is corrected using Bazett’s formula. The P wave results from atrial depolarization, while the QRS complex is caused by ventricular depolarization. The first heart sound, which coincides with the QRS complex, results from closure of the AV valves as the ventricles contract. The second heart sound, occurring at about the same time as the T wave, is caused by closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves. Understanding the timing of these components is essential for accurate ECG interpretation.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 28 - In a 25-year-old woman undergoing a routine physical examination for a new job,...

    Incorrect

    • In a 25-year-old woman undergoing a routine physical examination for a new job, a mid-systolic ejection murmur is discovered in the left upper sternal border. The cardiac examination reveals a significant right ventricular cardiac impulse and wide and fixed splitting of the second heart sound. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows a right axis deviation, and a chest X-ray shows enlargement of the right ventricle and atrium. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrial septal defect

      Explanation:

      Cardiac Abnormalities and their Clinical Findings

      Atrial Septal Defect:
      Atrial septal defect is characterized by a prominent right ventricular cardiac impulse, a systolic ejection murmur heard best in the pulmonic area and along the left sternal border, and fixed splitting of the second heart sound. These findings are due to an abnormal left-to-right shunt through the defect, which creates a volume overload on the right side. Small atrial septal defects are usually asymptomatic.

      Pulmonary Valve Stenosis:
      Pulmonary valve stenosis causes an increased right ventricular pressure which results in right ventricular hypertrophy and pulmonary artery dilation. A crescendo–decrescendo murmur may be heard if there is a severe stenosis. Right atrial enlargement would not be present.

      Mitral Regurgitation:
      Mitral regurgitation would also present with a systolic murmur; however, left atrial enlargement would be seen before right ventricular enlargement.

      Mitral Stenosis:
      Mitral stenosis would present with an ‘opening snap’ and a diastolic murmur.

      Aortic Stenosis:
      Aortic stenosis is also associated with a systolic ejection murmur. However, the murmur is usually loudest at the right sternal border and radiates upwards to the jugular notch. Aortic stenosis is associated with left ventricular hypertrophy.

      Clinical Findings of Common Cardiac Abnormalities

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 29 - A foundation year 1 (FY1) doctor on the cardiology wards is teaching a...

    Incorrect

    • A foundation year 1 (FY1) doctor on the cardiology wards is teaching a group of first year medical students. She asks the students to work out the heart rate of a patient by interpreting his ECG taken during an episode of tachycardia.
      What is the duration, in seconds, of one small square on an ECG?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.04 seconds

      Explanation:

      Understanding ECG Time Measurements

      When reading an electrocardiogram (ECG), it is important to understand the time measurements represented on the grid paper. The horizontal axis of the ECG represents time, with each small square measuring 1 mm in length and representing 40 milliseconds (0.04 seconds). A large square on the ECG grid has a length of 5 mm and represents 0.2 seconds. Five large squares covering a length of 25 mm on the grid represent 1 second of time. It is important to note that each small square has a length of 1 mm and equates to 40 milliseconds, not 4 seconds. Understanding these time measurements is crucial for accurately interpreting an ECG.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 30 - A 55-year-old man presents with sudden onset of severe chest pain and difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents with sudden onset of severe chest pain and difficulty breathing. The pain started while he was eating and has been constant for the past three hours. It radiates to his back and interscapular region.

      The patient has a history of hypertension for three years, alcohol abuse, and is a heavy smoker of 30 cigarettes per day. On examination, he is cold and clammy with a heart rate of 130/min and a blood pressure of 80/40 mm Hg. JVP is normal, but breath sounds are decreased at the left lung base and a chest x-ray reveals a left pleural effusion.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute aortic dissection

      Explanation:

      Acute Aortic Dissection: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Imaging

      Acute aortic dissection is a medical emergency that causes sudden and severe chest pain. The pain is often described as tearing and may be felt in the front or back of the chest, as well as in the neck. Other symptoms and signs depend on the arteries involved and nearby organs affected. In severe cases, it can lead to hypovolemic shock and sudden death.

      A chest x-ray can show a widened mediastinum, cardiomegaly, pleural effusion, and intimal calcification separated more than 6 mm from the edge. However, aortography is the gold standard for diagnosis, which shows the origin of arteries from true or false lumen. CT scan and MRI are also commonly used for diagnosis. Transoesophageal echo (TEE) is best for the descending aorta, while transthoracic echo (TTE) is best for the ascending aorta and arch.

      In summary, acute aortic dissection is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Symptoms include sudden and severe chest pain, which may be accompanied by other signs depending on the arteries involved. Imaging techniques such as chest x-ray, aortography, CT scan, MRI, TEE, and TTE can aid in diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiology (4/6) 67%
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