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  • Question 1 - Regarding missed abortion, all of the following are CORRECT, EXCEPT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding missed abortion, all of the following are CORRECT, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Immediate evacuation should be done once the diagnosis is made

      Explanation:

      Expectant management has been reported with unpredictable success rate ranging from 25–76%. Waiting for spontaneous expulsion of the products of conception would waste much time, during which women may suffer uncertainty and anxiety. However, when additional surgical evacuation is needed owing to failure, they may suffer from an emotional breakdown. It is thus not recommended for missed early miscarriage due to the risks of emergency surgical treatment and blood transfusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      40.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 26-year-old woman with irregular menstrual cycle has a positive pregnancy test. She...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman with irregular menstrual cycle has a positive pregnancy test. She wants to know the age of her baby. Which of the following methods is considered the most accurate for estimating gestational age?

      Your Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound at 8 weeks

      Explanation:

      Ultrasound has emerged as the more accurate method of assessing fetal gestational age, especially in the first trimester. Both transvaginal and transabdominal probe assessments are used to obtain a more accurate measurement of gestational age. Transvaginal is more helpful in first trimester pregnancies.

      A transvaginal ultrasound exam should not be performed in a pregnant patient with vaginal bleeding and known placenta previa, a pregnant patient with premature rupture of membranes, and a patient who refuses exam despite informed discussion.

      Sonographic assessment within the first 13 weeks and 6 days will provide the most accurate estimate of gestational age. Both transvaginal and transabdominal approaches may be used. However, the transvaginal approach may provide a more clear and accurate view of early embryonic structures. Although the gestational sac and yolk sac are the first measurable markers visible on ultrasound, these poorly correlate with gestational age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - An ultrasound in the 1st trimester of pregnancy is done for? ...

    Correct

    • An ultrasound in the 1st trimester of pregnancy is done for?

      Your Answer: Dating of the pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Early ultrasound improves the early detection of multiple pregnancies and improved gestational dating may result in fewer inductions for post maturity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 31-year-old woman who is pregnant has a blood pressure reading of 160/87...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman who is pregnant has a blood pressure reading of 160/87 mmHg. You considered Pre-eclampsia. What symptom might be expected in a patient with uncomplicated pre-eclampsia?

      Your Answer: Headache

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Extreme headache, vision defects, such as blurring of the eyes, rib pain, sudden swelling of the face, hands or feet are all consistent with pre-eclampsia. Women with the mentioned symptoms should have their blood pressure checked immediately. They should also be checked for proteinuria. Diarrhoea is not related to pre-eclampsia. Pruritus would be more related to pregnancy cholestasis. Meanwhile, bruising and abnormal LFTs are common in complicated pre-eclampsia but not in an uncomplicated one.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Katherine, 28 years old at her 37 weeks of pregnancy, presents at your...

    Incorrect

    • Katherine, 28 years old at her 37 weeks of pregnancy, presents at your office with soreness down below. Physical exam is highly suggestive of genital herpes, and patient says she never had such lesions before and this is the first time she is experiencing such a problem. Laboratory investigations like PCR and culture results confirm the diagnosis of primary herpes simplex infection. Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step in management of the case?

      Your Answer: Give acyclovir to the neonate after delivery

      Correct Answer: Prophylactic antiviral therapy

      Explanation:

      If a pregnant woman develops primary herpes simplex infection after 30 weeks gestation, her risk for transmission of herpes simplex virus to the neonate leading to neonatal infection increases significantly.
      Below mentioned are the most common risk factors resulting in intrapartum herpes simplex infection of the baby:
      – Premature labor
      – Premature rupture of membrane
      -Primary herpes simplex infection near the time of delivery
      – Multiple lesions in the genital area
      The most appropriate management for such case includes:
      – Checking for herpes simplex infection with PCR testing (cervical swab)
      – Prophylactic antiviral therapy of the mother from 36th week until delivery
      – Cesarean section delivery

      In the case above mentioned, it is better to start antiviral therapy immediately and consider cesarean section to minimize the risk of vertical transmission of infection to the neonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      52.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - During difficult labour, mediolateral episiotomy is favoured to midline episiotomy because? ...

    Correct

    • During difficult labour, mediolateral episiotomy is favoured to midline episiotomy because?

      Your Answer: Less extension of the incision

      Explanation:

      Mediolateral episiotomy is favoured to midline episiotomy because there is less extension of the incision and decreased chances of injury to the anal sphincter and rectum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      42.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 24-year-old Aboriginal woman at 10 weeks of gestation presents with a 2-week...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old Aboriginal woman at 10 weeks of gestation presents with a 2-week history of nausea and vomiting along with dizziness. She has not seen any doctor during this period. On examination, she is found to be dehydrated and her blood pressure is 95/60 mmHg with a drop in systolic blood pressure by more than 20% when she stands. She is unable to tolerate oral intake and her laboratory results show ketonuria. Which one of the following would be the best next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Give metoclopramide and intravenous normal saline

      Explanation:

      Clinical picture mentioned is indicative of hyperemesis gravidarum with resultant hypovolemia and pre-shock state, were patient needs urgent fluid resuscitation and intravenous antiemetic medications. The first-line fluid for resuscitation is normal saline (0.9% NaCl) and metoclopramide an antiemetic drug which is safe for use in pregnancy (category A).

      Dextrose should be avoided in this situation as the sugar in the solution will leave behind a hypotonic fluid leading to severe hyponatraemic state which increases the risk for encephalopathy due to edema.

      Ondansetron is considered as the second-line of antiemetic drug under category B1 which is used in situations like more refractory vomiting, when patient is not responding to metoclopramide and in cases of recurrent hospital admissions due to hyperemesis gravidarum.

      Steroids such as prednisolone are considered as the third-line medication mostly used in resistant cases of hyperemesis gravidarum and should be used only after consulting an expert in the field.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      73.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Relationship of the long axis of the mother to the long axis of...

    Correct

    • Relationship of the long axis of the mother to the long axis of foetus is known as:

      Your Answer: Lie

      Explanation:

      Fetal lie refers to the relationship between the long axis of the foetus relative to the long axis of the mother. If the foetus and maternal column are parallel (on the same long axis), the lie is termed vertical or longitudinal lie.

      Fetal presentation means, the part of the foetus which is overlying the maternal pelvic inlet.

      Position is the positioning of the body of a prenatal foetus in the uterus. It will change as the foetus develops. This is a description of the relation of the presenting part of the foetus to the maternal pelvis. In the case of a longitudinal lie with a vertex presentation, the occiput of the fetal calvarium is the landmark used to describe the position. When the occiput is facing the maternal pubic symphysis, the position is termed direct occiput anterior.

      Fetal attitude is defined as the relation of the various parts of the foetus to each other. In the normal attitude, the foetus is in universal flexion. The anatomic explanation for this posture is that it enables the foetus to occupy the least amount of space in the intrauterine cavity. The fetal attitude is extremely difficult, if not impossible, to assess without the help of an ultrasound examination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 38-year-old woman, gravida 4 para 0 aborta 3, at 35 weeks of...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman, gravida 4 para 0 aborta 3, at 35 weeks of gestation comes to the hospital due to intense, constant lower abdominal pain.The patient got conceived via in-vitro fertilization and her prenatal course has been uncomplicated.Over the past 10 years, the patient has had 3 spontaneous abortions, all attributed to uterine leiomyoma.Two years ago, she had an abdominal myomectomy during which the uterine cavity was entered. On examination her temperature is 36.7 C (98 F), blood pressure is 132/84 mm Hg, and pulse is 100/min. The fetal heart rate tracing shows a baseline rate in the 140s with moderate variability and persistent variable decelerations to the 90s. Contractions occur every 2-3 minutes and last for 45 seconds, her cervix is 4 cm dilated and 100% effaced. Which among the following is the best next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Expectant management and spontaneous vaginal delivery

      Correct Answer: Laparotomy and cesarean delivery

      Explanation:

      Uterine surgical history & scope of vaginal birth are as follows:
      – In case of low transverse cesarean delivery with horizontal incision: trial of labor is not contraindicated.
      – Classical cesarean delivery with vertical incision: trial of labor is contraindicated
      – Abdominal myomectomy with uterine cavity entry: trial of labor is contraindicated
      – Abdominal myomectomy without uterine cavity entry: trial of labor is not contraindicated.

      In laboring patients with prior uterine surgical histories like a prior classical (vertical) cesarean delivery or a prior myomectomy that was extensive or has entered the uterine cavity like during removal of intramural or submucosal fibroids are at a higher risk for uterine rupture. Given this patient’s history of previous myomectomy, her intense and constant abdominal pain with an abnormal fetal heart rate tracing, like persistent variable decelerations, are pointing to uterine rupture. vaginal bleeding, abdominally palpable fetal parts, loss of fetal station and any change in contraction pattern are the other possible manifestations of uterine rupture. Based on the extent and exact location of the rupture and the presence or absence of regional anesthesia, presentation of a uterine rupture will change.

      Vaginal delivery is safe after a low transverse (horizontal uterine incision) cesarean delivery. Patients with a history of either classical cesarean delivery or an extensive myomectomy are delivered via cesarean delivery at 36-37 weeks gestation, so urgent laparotomy and cesarean delivery are required if these patients present in labor. Further management is determined by other intraoperative findings like, whether uterine rupture has occurred, if occured then delivery is done through the rupture site, followed by a uterine repair; If the uterus is unruptured, a hysterotomy (ie, cesarean delivery) is performed. In patients with prior classical cesarean delivery or extensive myomectomy, an expectant management for a vaginal delivery is contraindicated.

      Amnioinfusion is the technique of placing an intrauterine pressure catheter to decrease umbilical cord compression by doing an intrauterine infusion and this thereby helps to resolve variable decelerations. In patients with a history of uterine surgery Amnioinfusion is contraindicated.

      In cases with abnormal fetal heart rate tracings, if the patient is completely (10cm) dilated, an operative vaginal delivery can be performed to expedite a vaginal delivery.

      Terbutaline is a tocolytic, which is administered to relax the uterus in conditions with contractile abnormalities, such as tachysystole which presents with >5 contractions in 10 minutes or tetanic contractions were contractions last for >2 minutes, which results in fetal heart rate abnormalities. In the given case, the patient’s contractions are normal, which occurs in every 2-3 minutes and lasts for 45 seconds, causing pain and cervical dilation.

      After a classical cesarean delivery or an extensive myomectomy, labor and vaginal delivery are contraindicated due to its significant risk of uterine rupture. Laparotomy and cesarean delivery are preferred in laboring a patients at high risk of uterine rupture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      109
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - In threatened abortion, which one of the following items is TRUE? ...

    Incorrect

    • In threatened abortion, which one of the following items is TRUE?

      Your Answer: The cervix is open

      Correct Answer: More than 50% will abort

      Explanation:

      Threatened abortion:
      – Vaginal bleeding with closed cervical os during the first 20 weeks of pregnancy
      – Occurs in 25% of 1st-trimester pregnancies
      – 50% survival
      More than half of threatened abortions will abort. The risk of spontaneous abortion, in a patient with a threatened abortion, is less if fetal cardiac activity is present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      51.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (6/10) 60%
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