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Question 1
Correct
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What is the primary mechanism of action of Valdoxan (agomelatine), an antidepressant?
Your Answer: Melatonin (MT) receptor agonism
Explanation:Agomelatine (Valdoxan) is a novel antidepressant that functions as an agonist at both MT1 and MT2 receptors, while also acting as a 5HT2C antagonist. Unlike most other antidepressants, it does not affect monoamine uptake.
First-generation antipsychotics work by antagonizing D2 receptors.
Benzodiazepines exert their effects by potentiating GABA.
Noradrenaline reuptake inhibition is a common mechanism of action for many antidepressants, including SNRIs and tricyclics.
SSRI (and other) antidepressants function by inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 2
Correct
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What is the purpose of using the AUDIT questionnaire?
Your Answer: Alcohol misuse
Explanation:Alcohol screening tools are available to assist in the diagnosis of alcohol problems. One such tool is the AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test), which consists of 10 questions and covers harmful use, hazardous use, and dependence. Another tool is the FAST (Fast Alcohol Screening Test), which has just 4 questions and was developed for use in a busy medical setting. The CAGE is a well-known 4 question screening tool, but recent research has questioned its value. Other tools include SASQ (Single alcohol screening questionnaire), PAT (Paddington Alcohol Test), MAST (Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test), and RAPS4 (Rapid Alcohol Problem Screen 4). These tools can help identify hazardous of harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol dependence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 3
Correct
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Which of the following statements about Jean Piaget is the most precise?
Your Answer: Described the psychosocial stages of development
Explanation:Erik Erikson is known as the father of psychosocial development and the architect of identity due to his significant contribution of placing psychoanalytic concepts in a social and cultural context. He outlined eight stages of psychosocial development, including Trust vs. Mistrust, Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt, Initiative vs. Guilt, Industry vs. Inferiority, Identity vs. Role diffusion, Intimacy vs. Isolation, Generativity vs. Stagnation, and Ego Integrity vs. Despair. These stages differ from Freud’s stages of psychosocial development. On the other hand, Carl Gustav Jung introduced the concept of archetypes, which include Self, Shadow, Anima, and Animus. Archetypes are the original models from which all other similar persons, objects, of concepts are derived, copied, patterned, of emulated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 4
Correct
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What fear would be most common for an 8-year-old boy?
Your Answer: Fear of bodily injury
Explanation:Childhood Fear: Normal Development
It is normal for children to experience fear and anxiety as they grow and develop. According to Marks’ ‘ontogenetic parade’ theory, children’s fears follow a predictable pattern throughout their development. In the preschool years, children may fear imaginary creatures, animals, strangers, and their environment. As they enter middle childhood, fears of physical danger, bodily injury, and school performance become more prominent. During adolescence, fears about social evaluations and interactions become more common.
Gullone’s research in 1999 identified specific fears that are prominent at different ages. For example, towards the end of the first year, children may fear strangers, heights, and separation anxiety. In preschool years, fears of being alone, the dark, and animals are common. During the school years, children may fear bodily injury, illness, social situations, supernatural phenomena, failure, and criticism. Finally, in adolescence, fears about death, economic and political concerns may persist.
Overall, fear and anxiety are a normal part of child development, and parents and caregivers can support children by acknowledging their fears and helping them develop coping strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 5
Correct
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A person who struggles with reproducing intersecting pentagons on the MMSE at an older age is likely to experience difficulties with which of the following?
Your Answer: Non dominant parietal lobe
Explanation:The inability to accurately replicate intersecting pentagons may indicate a constructional apraxia, which is a symptom of non-dominant parietal lobe dysfunction.
Parietal Lobe Dysfunction: Types and Symptoms
The parietal lobe is a part of the brain that plays a crucial role in processing sensory information and integrating it with other cognitive functions. Dysfunction in this area can lead to various symptoms, depending on the location and extent of the damage.
Dominant parietal lobe dysfunction, often caused by a stroke, can result in Gerstmann’s syndrome, which includes finger agnosia, dyscalculia, dysgraphia, and right-left disorientation. Non-dominant parietal lobe dysfunction, on the other hand, can cause anosognosia, dressing apraxia, spatial neglect, and constructional apraxia.
Bilateral damage to the parieto-occipital lobes, a rare condition, can lead to Balint’s syndrome, which is characterized by oculomotor apraxia, optic ataxia, and simultanagnosia. These symptoms can affect a person’s ability to shift gaze, interact with objects, and perceive multiple objects at once.
In summary, parietal lobe dysfunction can manifest in various ways, and understanding the specific symptoms can help diagnose and treat the underlying condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 6
Incorrect
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What is the Glasgow Coma Scale score of an elderly patient who, after experiencing a stroke, displays signs of confusion, responds to painful stimuli with purposeful movement, and is able to engage in a basic conversation but still appears disoriented?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 11
Explanation:The score is 11, with E2, V4, and M5 contributing to it.
The Glasgow Coma Scale is used to assess the depth of coma and impaired consciousness. Scores range from 3 to 15, with impaired consciousness rated as mild, moderate, of severe. The scale assesses eye opening response, verbal response, and motor response, with specific criteria for scoring each behavior. The final score is a combination of these three scores.
Scoring Guide;
Eye opening response
4 Spontaneous opening
3 Opens to verbal stimuli
2 Opens to pain
1 No response
Verbal response
5 Orientated
4 Confused conversation
3 Inappropriate words
2 Incoherent
1 No response
Motor response
6 Obeys commands
5 Purposeful movement to painful stimuli
4 Withdraws in response to pain
3 Flexion in response to pain (decorticate posturing)
2 Extension in response to pain (decerebrate posturing)
1 No response -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 7
Incorrect
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An individual's ability to make decisions regarding their medical care is associated with which of the following ethical principles?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autonomy
Explanation:The four moral principles are a useful tool in clinical practice. For instance, if a patient arrives in critical condition after a car accident and is unable to provide informed consent, the principle of beneficence requires healthcare professionals to prioritize treatment for the patient. The principle of justice may also be considered if there are many patients in need of care of if the treatment is expensive of scarce, potentially depriving others of medical attention. Non-maleficence is relevant if the treatment is likely to cause more harm than good. Respect for autonomy is important if the patient has previously expressed a desire to decline treatment in such circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry
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Question 8
Incorrect
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What is the most probable outcome of the occlusion of the main trunk of the middle cerebral artery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hemiparesis of the contralateral face and limbs
Explanation:Brain Blood Supply and Consequences of Occlusion
The brain receives blood supply from the internal carotid and vertebral arteries, which form the circle of Willis. The circle of Willis acts as a shunt system in case of vessel damage. The three main vessels arising from the circle are the anterior cerebral artery (ACA), middle cerebral artery (MCA), and posterior cerebral artery (PCA). Occlusion of these vessels can result in various neurological deficits. ACA occlusion may cause hemiparesis of the contralateral foot and leg, sensory loss, and frontal signs. MCA occlusion is the most common and can lead to hemiparesis, dysphasia/aphasia, neglect, and visual field defects. PCA occlusion may cause alexia, loss of sensation, hemianopia, prosopagnosia, and cranial nerve defects. It is important to recognize these consequences to provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 9
Incorrect
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The results of the 1972 US-UK diagnostic project revealed which of the following discoveries?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diagnostic discrepancies in schizophrenia between the two regions
Explanation:The US-UK diagnostic project found notable disparities in the diagnosis of schizophrenia between the US and the UK, with the US having a considerably lower threshold for diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- History Of Psychiatry
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which adverse drug reaction has the quickest onset?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type I
Explanation:Immunologic Adverse Drug Reactions
Immunologic adverse drug reactions account for a small percentage of all adverse drug reactions, ranging from 5 to 10%. These reactions are classified using the Gell and Coombs system, which categorizes them into four groups: Type I, Type II, Type III, and Type IV reactions.
Type I reactions occur when a drug-IgE complex binds to mast cells, leading to the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators. These reactions typically cause anaphylaxis, urticaria, and bronchospasm and occur within minutes to hours after exposure.
Type II reactions occur when an IgG of IgM antibody binds to a cell that has been altered by a drug-hapten. These reactions often manifest as blood abnormalities, such as thrombocytopenia and neutropenia, and their timing is variable.
Type III reactions occur when drug-antibody complexes activate the complement system, leading to fever, rash, urticaria, and vasculitis. These reactions occur 1 to 3 weeks after exposure.
Type IV reactions arise when the MHC system presents drug molecules to T cells, resulting in allergic contact dermatitis and rashes. These reactions occur 2 to 7 days after cutaneous exposure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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What method is employed during an interview to provide patients with an opportunity to contemplate their issues?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Silence
Explanation:Interview Techniques: The Power of Silence
Silence can be a powerful tool in conducting interviews, especially in healthcare settings. When used at the appropriate time, it can give patients the chance to sit and think, process their thoughts, and provide more thoughtful and meaningful responses.
By allowing for moments of silence during an interview, healthcare professionals can create a safe and comfortable space for patients to express themselves. This can be particularly important when discussing sensitive of emotional topics, as patients may need time to gather their thoughts and feelings before sharing them.
Moreover, silence can also be used strategically to encourage patients to elaborate on their responses. By simply waiting a few seconds after a patient has finished speaking, healthcare professionals can signal that they are interested in hearing more and give patients the opportunity to expand on their thoughts.
Overall, incorporating moments of silence into interviews can help healthcare professionals build stronger relationships with their patients, gain deeper insights into their needs and concerns, and ultimately provide more effective care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 12
Incorrect
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What kind of memory is necessary to recall the details of when and where you observed an incident?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Episodic
Explanation:Memory Forms
Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.
Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).
Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.
Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).
Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which statement accurately describes neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum creatine kinase is raised
Explanation:Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which ethical principle in medicine was upheld by the case of Cruzan v. Director, Missouri Department of Health?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Confidentiality can be breached where another's life is under threat
Explanation:Legal Principles in Healthcare
In the case of Tarasoff vs. the Regents of the University of California, it was established that patient confidentiality can be breached if there is a threat of harm to another person. Practitioners have a duty to take reasonable steps to protect the threatened individual, which may include notifying the police of warning the intended victim.
Another important legal principle in healthcare is the Bolam test. This principle states that a practitioner’s care is not considered negligent if a responsible body of similar professionals supports the practice, even if it is not the standard care. These legal principles help to ensure that healthcare professionals are held accountable for their actions and that patients receive appropriate care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry
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Question 15
Incorrect
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What is a frequently observed negative outcome of taking rivastigmine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dizziness
Explanation:Rivastigmine often causes dizziness, while the other listed side effects are less frequently reported.
Pharmacological management of dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine. AChE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to the loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are commonly used AChE inhibitors in the management of Alzheimer’s. However, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting are common with these drugs.
Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction. It has a half-life of 60-100 hours and is primarily renally eliminated. Common adverse effects of memantine include somnolence, dizziness, hypertension, dyspnea, constipation, headache, and elevated liver function tests.
Overall, pharmacological management of dementia aims to improve cognitive function and slow down the progression of the disease. However, it is important to note that these drugs do not cure dementia and may only provide temporary relief of symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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If budget constraints were the only consideration in allocating healthcare resources, what ethical framework would guide the decision-making process?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Utilitarian
Explanation:While quality adjusted life years (QALY) are a utilitarian measure, it would be extreme to suggest that individuals with illnesses that require expensive treatments should not be treated solely based on the cost-benefit analysis. The general population does not strictly adhere to utilitarian principles, and therefore, The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) considers other factors such as justice and the availability of alternative treatments for a particular condition in addition to the cost per QALY when making recommendations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry
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Question 17
Incorrect
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What are the professional standards that doctors in the UK are expected to adhere to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The GMC permits doctors to accept gifts from patients
Explanation:Professionalism and UK Regulation
Oaths and declarations are important in establishing trust and credibility for professions. The Hippocratic Oath, dating back to 425 BC, is a part of the Western medical tradition and emphasizes the teaching of medicine, patient’s best interests, confidentiality, and abstinence from harmful practices. However, it does not mention concepts such as autonomy of justice and forbids surgery. The Declaration of Geneva (1948) and the Declaration of Helsinki (1964) are modern-day versions of the Hippocratic Oath, emphasizing the patient’s health and interests over science and society. These declarations arose from the concern of the medical community’s complicity with the Nazi party during World War II.
In the UK, doctors must register with the General Medical Council (GMC), which sets professional standards and maintains a register of licensed doctors. It is illegal to practice medicine without a license in the UK. The GMC’s Good Medical Practice and the Good Medical Practice: Framework for Appraisal and Revalidation document emphasizes the duty of doctors to be honest and trustworthy, with dishonesty viewed harshly. Confidentiality is an important legal and ethical duty, but it is not absolute. Breaches of confidentiality may occur in emergencies, in the interests of others, when required by statute of the courts, of when required by the Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA). Sexualized relationships with current patients are prohibited, and accepting unsolicited gifts from patients is allowed but must not affect the way doctors prescribe, advise, treat, refer, of commission services.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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To encourage their children to do their chores, a family offers a reward system. Each child receives a reward after completing a certain number of chores. The number of chores they need to complete varies, but each child knows that the more chores they complete, the more likely they are to receive the reward. The family sets the number of chores needed for a reward between 3 to 8 chores, and this changes every week. What type of reinforcement schedule does the family use?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Variable ratio
Explanation:The appropriate reinforcement schedule for the given scenario is variable ratio. This is because there is a certain pattern to the reinforcement, which is dependent on the number of sales made by the staff. It cannot be a random schedule as there is a specific criterion for receiving the bonus. Additionally, it cannot be an interval schedule as the staff must make a certain number of sales to receive the bonus. If the number of sales required was fixed, it would be a fixed ratio schedule.
Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More
Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.
Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.
Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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What is the BMI of a girl who visited the clinic due to concerns from her GP about her lack of eating, and has a weight of 50 kg and a height of 165cm?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 18 of above
Explanation:Assessment and Management of Obesity
Obesity is a condition that can increase the risk of various health problems, including type 2 diabetes, coronary heart disease, some types of cancer, and stroke. The body mass index (BMI) is a commonly used tool to assess obesity, calculated by dividing a person’s weight in kilograms by their height in meters squared. For adults over 20 years old, BMI falls into one of the following categories: underweight, normal of healthy weight, pre-obesity/overweight, obesity class I, obesity class II, and obesity class III.
Waist circumference can also be used in combination with BMI to guide interventions. Diet and exercise are the main interventions up to a BMI of 35, unless there are comorbidities such as type 2 diabetes, hypertension, cardiovascular disease, osteoarthritis, dyslipidemia, and sleep apnea. Physical activity recommendations suggest that adults should accumulate at least 150 minutes of moderate intensity activity of 75 minutes of vigorous intensity activity per week. Dietary recommendations suggest diets that have a 600 kcal/day deficit.
Pharmacological options such as Orlistat of Liraglutide may be considered for those with a BMI of 30 kg/m2 of more, of 28 if associated risk factors. Surgical options such as bariatric surgery may be considered for those with a BMI of 40 kg/m2 of more, of between 35 kg/m2 and 40 kg/m2 with other significant diseases that could be improved with weight loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 20
Incorrect
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What hormone is produced by the posterior pituitary gland?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Explanation:The posterior pituitary secretes antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin, while the anterior pituitary secretes human growth hormone (HGH), adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), prolactin (PRL), thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), luteinising hormone (LH), and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which schedule of reinforcement is the most difficult to extinguish?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Variable ratio
Explanation:Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More
Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.
Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.
Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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During which period was homosexuality no longer classified as a mental disorder in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1970s
Explanation:In 1973, the DSM classification no longer included homosexuality as a category. However, in the seventh printing of DSM II (1974), it was briefly replaced with ‘sexual orientation disorder’ before being completely removed from the DSM III (1987).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Stigma And Culture
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A teenager on a medication for ADHD becomes very upset when you suggest scheduling a follow-up appointment. Afterwards, you receive a formal complaint alleging that you were aggressive and raised your voice. What could be a potential reason for this behavior?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Projection
Explanation:Projection is a coping mechanism in which one assigns their own unacceptable emotions and desires onto another person, thereby alleviating the discomfort of having conflicting feelings that do not align with their self-perception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dynamic Psychopathology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about the cytochrome P450 system?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CYP2D6 shows the largest phenotypic variation amongst the cytochromes
Explanation:The liver plays a significant role in breaking down clozapine through the action of CYP450 enzymes, with CYP1A2, CYP3A4, and CYP2D6 being particularly involved in the process.
The Cytochrome P450 system is a group of enzymes that metabolize drugs by altering their functional groups. The system is located in the liver and small intestine and is involved in drug interactions through enzyme induction of inhibition. Notable inducers include smoking, alcohol, and St John’s Wort, while notable inhibitors include grapefruit juice and some SSRIs. CYP2D6 is important due to genetic polymorphism, and CYP3A4 is the most abundant subfamily and is commonly involved in interactions. Grapefruit juice inhibits both CYP1A2 and CYP3A4, while tobacco smoking induces CYP1A2. The table summarizes the main substrates, inhibitors, and inducers for each CYP enzyme.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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You are reviewing a child's records. They have been diagnosed with Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder.
Under which axis of the DSM IV does this fall?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Axis II
Explanation:The DSM-IV-TR uses a multi-axial system to diagnose mental disorders. Axis II covers developmental and personality disorders, such as autism and borderline personality disorder. Axis I covers clinical syndromes, like depression and schizophrenia. Axis III includes physical conditions that may contribute to mental illness, such as brain injury of HIV/AIDS. Axis IV rates the severity of psychosocial stressors, such as job loss of marriage, that may impact the person’s mental health. Finally, Axis V rates the person’s level of functioning, both currently and in the past year, to help the clinician understand how the other axes are affecting the person and what changes may be expected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A young girl who has had herpes encephalitis develops a severe carbohydrate craving and weight gain. What would be your suspicion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Klüver-Bucy syndrome
Explanation:Kluver-Bucy Syndrome: Causes and Symptoms
Kluver-Bucy syndrome is a neurological disorder that results from bilateral medial temporal lobe dysfunction, particularly in the amygdala. This condition is characterized by a range of symptoms, including hyperorality (a tendency to explore objects with the mouth), hypersexuality, docility, visual agnosia, and dietary changes.
The most common causes of Kluver-Bucy syndrome include herpes, late-stage Alzheimer’s disease, frontotemporal dementia, trauma, and bilateral temporal lobe infarction. In some cases, the condition may be reversible with treatment, but in others, it may be permanent and require ongoing management. If you of someone you know is experiencing symptoms of Kluver-Bucy syndrome, it is important to seek medical attention promptly to determine the underlying cause and develop an appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 27
Incorrect
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What is the accuracy of the dopamine hypothesis in explaining schizophrenia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cannabinoid agonists have been shown in animals to increase striatal dopamine release
Explanation:The Dopamine Hypothesis is a theory that suggests that dopamine and dopaminergic mechanisms are central to schizophrenia. This hypothesis was developed based on observations that antipsychotic drugs provide at least some degree of D2-type dopamine receptor blockade and that it is possible to induce a psychotic episode in healthy subjects with pharmacological dopamine agonists. The hypothesis was further strengthened by the finding that antipsychotic drugs’ clinical effectiveness was directly related to their affinity for dopamine receptors. Initially, the belief was that the problem related to an excess of dopamine in the brain. However, later studies showed that the relationship between hypofrontality and low cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) dopamine metabolite levels indicates low frontal dopamine levels. Thus, there was a move from a one-sided dopamine hypothesis explaining all facets of schizophrenia to a regionally specific prefrontal hypodopaminergia and a subcortical hyperdopaminergia. In summary, psychosis appears to result from excessive dopamine activity in the striatum, while the negative symptoms seen in schizophrenia appear to result from too little dopamine activity in the frontal lobe. Antipsychotic medications appear to help by countering the effects of increased dopamine by blocking postsynaptic D2 receptors in the striatum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which statement accurately describes puberty?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: On average, puberty last 3-4 years
Explanation:Puberty
Puberty is a natural process that occurs in both boys and girls. The age range for the onset of puberty is between 8-14 years for females and 9-14 years for males, with the mean age of onset being 11 years for girls and 12 years for boys. The duration of puberty is typically 3-4 years. The onset of puberty is marked by the appearance of secondary sex characteristics, such as breast development in females and testicular enlargement in males. These characteristics evolve over time and are rated into 5 stages according to Tanner’s criteria. The sequence of events differs between boys and girls, with the onset of breast development (thelarche) generally preceding the onset of the first period (menarche) by around 2 years in girls. The pubertal growth spurt occurs during stages 3 to 4 in most boys and during stages 2 and 3 in girls. Precocious puberty, which occurs earlier than usual, is more common in girls than in boys. The age of onset of puberty in girls has been decreasing over time, with environmental factors such as nutrition potentially playing a role in this trend.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman has been experiencing memory difficulties for the past year. Her husband has noticed that she talks about seeing things that aren't there and becomes very upset. What type of neuroimaging could provide more information about her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: SPECT scan with ioflupane iodine injection
Explanation:Medical Imaging Technologies
There are several medical imaging technologies used to diagnose and monitor various conditions. One such technology is the SPECT scan with ioflupane iodine injection, also known as the DAT scan. This scan helps to identify dopamine deficiency in the brain, which can rule out Parkinson’s dementia and Lewy body dementia. By using a small amount of a radioactive drug, the scan can determine how much dopamine is available in a person’s brain. In Lewy body dementia, there is a significant loss of striatal dopamine, which can be detected through this scan. This helps to differentiate between Alzheimer’s dementia, where dopaminergic activity is normal.
Another imaging technology is the CT scan, which uses x-rays and a computer to create detailed images of the inside of the body. This scan is useful in identifying injuries of growths in different parts of the body. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is another technology that uses a strong magnetic field to create detailed images of the structures in the body. It is commonly used to examine organs and tissues.
PET, of positron emission tomography, is a nuclear medicine imaging technology that produces three-dimensional, color images of the functional processes within the human body. It is used to study existing conditions in the body and how they are developing.
Finally, an x-ray of the skull is mainly used to detect any bony abnormalities following trauma. However, this is now rarely requested, and if there is sufficient force, a CT scan is usually preferred. These imaging technologies play a crucial role in diagnosing and monitoring various medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological Examination
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Question 30
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Which atypical antipsychotic has the most extended half-life?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aripiprazole
Explanation:Knowing the half life of a drug is important in determining the steady state concentration, which occurs when absorption and elimination reach an equilibrium after repeated doses. This equilibrium depends on factors such as dose, time between doses, and the drug’s elimination half life. Typically, steady state is achieved after four to five half lives. The following are the half lives of some atypical antipsychotics: Aripiprazole – 90 hours, Clozapine – 16 hours, Olanzapine – 30 hours, Risperidone – 15 hours, and Quetiapine – 6 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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