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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman with end stage renal failure due to hypertension presents with complaints of increasing fatigue and thirst. She is currently undergoing renal replacement therapy through haemodialysis and is taking Levemir, NovoRapid, ramipril, aspirin, simvastatin, calcium carbonate, and erythropoietin. On examination, her pulse rate is 84 beats per minute and regular, and her blood pressure is 138/65 mmHg. The jugular venous pressure is visible 2 cm above the clavicle (prior to dialysis), the lung bases are clear, and there is no peripheral oedema. A functioning radiocephalic arteriovenous fistula is present in her left arm.
Her pre-dialysis blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 105 g/L (115-165), sodium level of 134 mmol/L (137-144), potassium level of 4.7 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), urea level of 34 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), creatinine level of 437 μmol/L (60-110), corrected calcium level of 2.78 mmol/L (2.2-2.6), phosphate level of 1.79 mmol/L (0.8-1.4), and parathyroid hormone level of 724 ng/L (15-65).
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Secondary hyperparathyroidism
Correct Answer: Tertiary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:Hyperparathyroidism and its Different Types
Hyperparathyroidism is a condition that can be classified into three types: primary, secondary, and tertiary. Primary hyperparathyroidism is characterized by hypercalcemia and an inappropriately raised parathyroid hormone, while the phosphate level is typically low. On the other hand, secondary hyperparathyroidism is associated with hypocalcemia and an appropriately elevated parathyroid hormone level, with the phosphate level varying depending on the underlying cause. In cases of chronic kidney disease, a deficiency of activated vitamin D can lead to tertiary hyperparathyroidism, which is characterized by raised calcium, raised (or sometimes normal) phosphate, and grossly elevated parathyroid hormone levels.
It is important to note that hypercalcemia can also be caused by other factors such as malignancy or iatrogenic hypercalcemia. In these cases, the calcium level is high, but the parathyroid hormone level is low. the different types of hyperparathyroidism and their associated biochemical markers is crucial in diagnosing and managing the condition. Proper treatment can help prevent complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 2
Correct
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A 65 year old man, originally from Russia, presents to the hospital with a right sided pleural effusion, night sweats, and weight loss. He is febrile on admission and his pleural effusion is exudative. A CT scan reveals enlarged lymph nodes in his abdomen and mediastinum. A pleural biopsy confirms Mycobacterium Tuberculosis complex and he is started on treatment. His HIV serology is positive and he is started on anti-retroviral treatment. Three weeks later, he becomes more unwell with daily fevers and abnormal blood results. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome
Explanation:Immune Reconstitution Inflammatory Syndrome (IRIS) is a condition where symptoms worsen due to increased inflammation as the immune system recovers. It is commonly seen in patients undergoing anti-retroviral therapy for HIV. To diagnose IRIS, it is important to first confirm the underlying condition, such as tuberculosis (TB), through PCR testing. However, since HIV patients may have multiple opportunistic infections, IRIS is a diagnosis of exclusion. In this case, extensive testing ruled out other possible causes for the patient’s symptoms. The diagnosis of IRIS requires meeting all three criteria: antecedents (such as a confirmed diagnosis of TB and initial response to treatment), clinical symptoms (either one major or two minor criteria), and exclusion of other possible explanations for the worsening symptoms.
Understanding Immune Reconstitution Inflammatory Syndrome
Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS) is a medical condition that is commonly linked to HIV or immunosuppression. It occurs when the immune system starts to recover, but then reacts to a previous opportunistic infection with an excessive inflammatory response. This response can worsen the symptoms of the infection, leading to a paradoxical situation.
IRIS is a result of the immune system’s attempt to fight off infections that were previously suppressed due to immunosuppression. When the immune system starts to recover, it can overreact to these infections, causing inflammation and tissue damage. This can lead to a range of symptoms, including fever, swollen lymph nodes, and skin rashes.
IRIS can occur in people with a range of opportunistic infections, including tuberculosis, cryptococcal meningitis, and cytomegalovirus. It is most commonly seen in people with HIV who are starting antiretroviral therapy. While IRIS can be uncomfortable and even dangerous, it is a sign that the immune system is starting to recover. Treatment may involve managing symptoms with anti-inflammatory medications or adjusting antiretroviral therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 3
Correct
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A 19-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of blood in his urine for the past day. Initially, he noticed a few drops of dark blood at the end of urination, but it has progressively worsened, and he is now passing large amounts of cola-colored urine. He also reports swollen ankles and puffy eyes that developed over the last few hours, along with increasing lethargy and feeling unwell for the past two days. The patient denies shortness of breath, chest pain, haemoptysis, previous haematuria, or changes in urine volume. He has no past medical history of renal problems, but his brother was prescribed steroids for leaky kidneys at the age of nine. The patient has no significant drug history, except for a recent course of phenoxymethylpenicillin for tonsillitis and amoxicillin for acute sinusitis six months ago.
Upon examination, the patient is a young athletic male with a blood pressure of 162/84 mmHg, heart rate of 96 bpm, respiratory rate of 18/min, oxygen saturations of 95% on air, and temperature of 37.1 Celsius. Cardiovascular examination reveals normal heart sounds, a JVP of 3cm, and bilateral pitting oedema of his ankles. Respiratory and gastrointestinal examinations are unremarkable. The patient has bilateral periorbital oedema, but ENT and neurological examinations are normal.
Initial investigations reveal a Hb of 132 g/l, platelets of 428* 109/l, WBC of 14.2 * 109/l, ESR of 26 mm/hr, Na+ of 138 mmol/l, K+ of 5.2 mmol/l, urea of 6.4 mmol/l, creatinine of 77 µmol/l, CRP of 18 mg/l, bilirubin of 18 µmol/l, ALP of 82 u/l, ALT of 21 u/l, protein of 78 g/l, and albumin of 39 g/l. Chest x-ray shows a normal appearance of heart and lung fields, and ECG reveals sinus tachycardia of 108 bpm. Urinalysis shows blood ++++ and protein ++++, with ketones + and negative for all other parameters. Urine and blood MCS results are pending.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
Explanation:This man is experiencing post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN), which is an immune-mediated reaction caused by certain strains of Streptococcus spp. The onset of symptoms typically occurs one to two weeks after infection and includes acute glomerulonephritis with haematuria (resulting in dark urine due to the breakdown of red blood cells that have penetrated the glomerular basement membrane), proteinuria, oedema, and sometimes oliguria. Berger’s nephropathy, the most common form of adult glomerulonephritis, is a key differential diagnosis. It usually occurs one to two days after a non-specific upper respiratory tract infection and is characterized mainly by haematuria, with an excellent prognosis. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis may cause a rapid decline in renal function and present with similar symptoms to PSGN, while membranous nephropathy is characterized by a nephrotic syndrome.
Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is a condition that typically occurs 7-14 days after an infection caused by group A beta-haemolytic Streptococcus, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more common in young children and is caused by the deposition of immune complexes (IgG, IgM, and C3) in the glomeruli. Symptoms include headache, malaise, visible haematuria, proteinuria, oedema, hypertension, and oliguria. Blood tests may show a raised anti-streptolysin O titre and low C3, which confirms a recent streptococcal infection.
It is important to note that IgA nephropathy and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis are often confused as they both can cause renal disease following an upper respiratory tract infection. Renal biopsy features of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis include acute, diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis with endothelial proliferation and neutrophils. Electron microscopy may show subepithelial ‘humps’ caused by lumpy immune complex deposits, while immunofluorescence may show a granular or ‘starry sky’ appearance.
Despite its severity, post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis carries a good prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 4
Correct
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A 25-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of pleuritic chest pain and exertional dyspnea. There is no history of trauma. Upon examination, a standard erect PA chest radiograph reveals a 4 cm apical pneumothorax. The chest physician determines that a chest drain is necessary and should be inserted promptly. What is the most suitable technique for this procedure?
Your Answer: Insertion of a small bore chest drain using a Seldinger technique in the mid-axillary line
Explanation:Benefits of Small Bore Drains and Appropriate Chest Drain Insertion Point
Small bore drains are just as effective as large bore drains but are less painful when in place. When it comes to chest drain insertion, the most suitable point is in the safe triangle located in the mid-axillary line. This reduces the risk of damaging internal organs such as the liver, spleen, muscle, and internal mammary artery. Additionally, scarring from insertion is less noticeable than in the second intercostal space and mid-clavicular line, which is particularly important for women.
In cases where there is a loculated apical pneumothorax, a posteriorly sited (suprascapular) apical tube may be used to drain it. However, this is not recommended in this scenario. If a CT scan shows that the pneumothorax is loculated, a more posterior insertion site may be chosen. Nonetheless, this is not the case with this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with a 20-year history of type 1 diabetes presents to the clinic with complaints of frequent falls. She has fainted twice and hit her head, requiring emergency department visits, and experiences dizziness at other times. She has a history of peripheral neuropathy and sexual dysfunction. Her medication regimen includes insulin glargine and mealtime Novorapid™, as well as ramipril 5 mg/day for renoprotection and indapamide 2.5 mg. On examination, her blood pressure is 140/85 mmHg with a postural drop of 30 mmHg systolic. She exhibits signs consistent with peripheral sensory neuropathy to the mid-shin.
Investigations:
Haemoglobin 130 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.0 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 180 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 110 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
HbA1c 48 mmol/ml (6.51%) < 53 mmol/mol (<7.0%)
What is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer: Elastic stockings
Correct Answer: Stop indapamide
Explanation:Management of Postural Hypotension in a Patient with Peripheral Neuropathy
The management of postural hypotension in a patient with peripheral neuropathy involves several steps. The first step is to stop the use of indapamide, a thiazide-like diuretic, and monitor the patient’s blood pressure over the next few weeks. If the patient still experiences significant postural hypotension, elastic stockings can be added as a conservative measure. Fludrocortisone may also be considered if the patient does not respond to elastic stockings.
It is important to note that the patient’s history of pre-syncope is more suggestive of changes in blood pressure rather than changes in blood glucose. Therefore, reducing prandial insulin or background insulin is not necessary in this case. By following these steps, healthcare providers can effectively manage postural hypotension in patients with peripheral neuropathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of cough and shortness of breath that have been worsening over the past four months. She has no other symptoms and no significant medical history except for a smoking habit of 25 pack-years. Upon examination, her respiratory system appears normal. A CT scan of her chest is shown below:
What is the probable reason for this woman's respiratory symptoms?Your Answer: Bronchial cancer
Correct Answer: Thymoma
Explanation:This CT scan reveals a large mass in the anterior mediastinum, which is likely a thymoma. Thymomas can cause various symptoms such as shortness of breath, cough, retrosternal chest pain, dysphagia, and vocal changes. Bronchial cancer is unlikely as there is no evidence of it on the scan. Chronic pulmonary emboli are also less likely as there is no evidence of them on the scan. The scan does not show any fibrosis within the lung fields, so that answer is incorrect. The mass is too low to be a thyroid cancer, which typically presents as a lump in the neck. Therefore, the most probable diagnosis is thymoma.
Understanding Thymoma
Thymoma is a type of tumor that is commonly found in the anterior mediastinum, usually in individuals between the ages of 60 and 70. It is often associated with myasthenia gravis, red cell aplasia, and dermatomyositis, and can also be linked to other conditions such as SLE and SIADH. Thymoma can cause death through the compression of the airway or cardiac tamponade.
To diagnose thymoma, a chest x-ray and CT scan are usually performed. These tests can reveal a partially delineated mediastinal mass with regular borders, bulging the left upper mediastinal contour. In some cases, an invasive thymoma may present as an anterior mediastinal mass at the bifurcation of the main bronchus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of persistent fatigue and widespread body pains. She used to be an enthusiastic athlete, but now experiences frequent ankle sprains and has a history of recurrent right shoulder dislocation. During the physical examination, the doctor observes that her skin is soft and stretchy, and she displays joint hypermobility in various joints. What additional ocular manifestation is commonly linked to this disorder?
Your Answer: Hypermetropia
Correct Answer: Angioid streaks
Explanation:Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (EDS) is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue in the body. Patients with EDS often exhibit joint and skin hypermobility, and may also experience chronic fatigue and recurrent joint dislocations. One ocular feature that is commonly associated with EDS is angioid retinal streaks, which are narrow, irregular lines that radiate from the optic disc and can lead to choroidal neovascularisation. Cataracts, hypermetropia, and uveitis are not typically associated with EDS, but patients with EDS may have a higher prevalence of myopia. Additionally, blue sclera (not yellow) are often seen in patients with EDS due to collagen loss in the eye.
Ehler-Danlos syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue, specifically type III collagen. This causes the tissue to be more elastic than usual, resulting in increased skin elasticity and joint hypermobility. Common symptoms include fragile skin, easy bruising, and recurrent joint dislocation. Additionally, individuals with Ehler-Danlos syndrome may be at risk for serious complications such as aortic regurgitation, mitral valve prolapse, aortic dissection, subarachnoid hemorrhage, and angioid retinal streaks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with hypertension and dyslipidaemia has been diagnosed with early type 2 diabetes and started on glitazone therapy. He has been suffering from psoriasis for many years, which has been resistant to treatment. His dermatologist decides to initiate ciclosporin therapy and warns him about potential drug interactions. You advise him about some common interactions he should be cautious about. What drug or food should he be most concerned about in terms of increasing his ciclosporin levels?
Your Answer: Cranberry juice
Correct Answer: Verapamil
Explanation:Drug Interactions with Ciclosporin: Understanding the Effects of Verapamil, Amoxicillin, Orange Juice, Cranberry Juice, and Rifampicin
Ciclosporin is a medication commonly used to prevent organ rejection in transplant patients and to treat autoimmune diseases. However, its effectiveness can be affected by various drug interactions. Verapamil and cyclosporine, for example, can inhibit the hepatic/intestinal enzyme CYP3A4 metabolism, leading to an increase in plasma concentrations of either drug. As such, it is recommended to use alternative agents if possible. On the other hand, amoxicillin does not affect CYP3A4 metabolism, unlike macrolides. Orange juice, despite being commonly associated with grapefruit, does not inhibit CYP3A4 and therefore does not affect ciclosporin levels. Cranberry juice, however, inhibits CYP 2C9, leading to an increase in exposure to warfarin. Finally, rifampicin is a potent CYP450 inducer, leading to a decrease in ciclosporin levels. Other agents that can decrease ciclosporin levels include barbiturates, carbamazepine, phenytoin, octreotide, orlistat, and Hypericum perforatum (St John’s wort). Understanding these drug interactions is crucial in ensuring the safe and effective use of ciclosporin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
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Question 9
Correct
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An 80-year-old man with a history of localized squamous cell lung cancer presents to the Emergency Department with increasing confusion and peripheral muscle weakness. He reports feeling thirsty. Laboratory results show a hemoglobin level of 102 g/L, a white cell count of 12.1 x 10^9/L, and a platelet count of 167 x 10^9/L. His sodium level is 139 mmol/L, potassium level is 4.7 mmol/L, urea level is 6.2 mmol/L, creatinine level is 145 μmol/L, and calcium level is 3.2 mmol/L. His parathyroid hormone level is 1.9 pmol/L, which raises concern for pseudo hyperparathyroidism. After managing the acute hypercalcemia, what is the most appropriate long-term approach to treating the pseudo-hyperparathyroidism?
Your Answer: Lung lobectomy
Explanation:Management of Pseudo Hyperparathyroidism- Understanding the Options
Pseudo hyperparathyroidism is a neoplastic syndrome where cancer produces parathyroid-related-peptide (PTH-peptide) that has the same effect as PTH. The most appropriate management after acute treatment of hypercalcemia is to treat the underlying disease. In cases where squamous cell lung cancer is localized, surgical excision may be an option.
Loop diuretics are rarely used in the management of hypercalcemia and do not have a role in long-term management. Bisphosphonate therapy is part of the acute management of hypercalcemia. Intravenous fluids should be given first, and if the patient continues to demonstrate hypercalcemia after 24 hours, bisphosphonate therapy, such as IV zoledronic acid, should be administered.
Calcimimetics, such as cinacalcet, may be given if hypercalcemia does not adequately respond to bisphosphonate therapy. This is part of the acute management of hypercalcemia, rather than pseudo-hyperparathyroidism. A parathyroidectomy would not be helpful in this condition as the parathyroid gland is acting appropriately, and the mechanism for hypercalcemia occurs outside of the parathyroid feedback loop.
In conclusion, understanding the options for managing pseudo hyperparathyroidism is crucial in providing appropriate treatment for patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man was admitted to a medical ward after experiencing acute pancreatitis. He was receiving conservative treatment with IV fluids and was not allowed to eat. He was showing signs of improvement until he was found unconscious by the nursing staff 36 hours later. Upon arrival, he was having a generalized tonic-clonic seizure that eventually stopped after receiving 30 mg of diazepam intravenously. What would be the recommended next course of treatment?
Your Answer: Intravenous phenytoin infusion
Correct Answer: Intravenous vitamin B and C (Pabrinex®)
Explanation:Treatment for Seizure in Alcohol Withdrawal
The most probable cause of the patient’s seizure is alcohol withdrawal, which is supported by the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis and the timing of the seizure at 36 hours post-admission. Since the patient is no longer experiencing seizures, anti-epileptic treatment is no longer necessary. Phenytoin is not recommended for patients with liver impairment, so it is not used in cases of status epilepticus caused by alcohol withdrawal. Fosphenytoin, a pro-drug of phenytoin, can be administered intravenously or intramuscularly. Intravenous clomethiazole is no longer available, and oral chlordiazepoxide or diazepam is now commonly used instead of oral clomethiazole in alcohol withdrawal treatment. Intravenous Pabrinex® should be given to all patients with severe alcohol withdrawal to correct severe vitamin deficiencies and prevent Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome.
Overall, the treatment for seizure in alcohol withdrawal involves addressing the underlying cause of the seizure, which is alcohol withdrawal. Anti-epileptic treatment may be necessary in cases of status epilepticus, but the choice of medication depends on the patient’s liver function. Fosphenytoin is a viable alternative to phenytoin, and clomethiazole is no longer used. Instead, oral chlordiazepoxide or diazepam is commonly used. Additionally, Pabrinex® should be given to all patients with severe alcohol withdrawal to prevent vitamin deficiencies and Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
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Question 11
Correct
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A 50-year-old man presents to his GP with a persistent cough and shortness of breath for the past 2 weeks. He is a smoker of 15 cigarettes per day for the past 30 years. The GP initially diagnosed a mild viral chest infection but the patient returned 2 weeks later with symptoms of thirst, polyuria, and muscle weakness. His blood pressure was elevated and ankle oedema was present. Blood tests revealed hyperglycaemia and abnormal electrolyte levels. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ectopic ACTH production
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Hyperadrenalism
Hyperadrenalism can be caused by various conditions, including ectopic ACTH production, dermatomyositis, Cushing’s disease, primary hyperaldosteronism, and adrenal insufficiency. In the case of a patient with a history of smoking and respiratory symptoms, ectopic ACTH production is more likely than a pituitary adenoma driving Cushing’s disease. This condition is often associated with small cell carcinoma of the lung, which can produce a range of paraneoplastic syndromes, including the syndrome of ectopic ACTH production. Patients may present with pigmentation and weight loss accompanied by hyperglycemia, hypokalemia, a metabolic alkalosis, and increased serum and urine cortisol concentrations.
Dermatomyositis, on the other hand, is associated with proximal myopathy but not with the other features of hyperadrenalism seen in this patient, such as metabolic alkalosis and raised blood glucose. Primary hyperaldosteronism can cause elevated blood pressure, but the hyperglycemia seen in this patient is more consistent with a diagnosis of elevated cortisol. Adrenal insufficiency, which is associated with hyperkalemia and hypotension, is also unlikely in this case, given the patient’s hypokalemia and hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old intravenous drug user presents with a 3-day history of double vision, difficulty swallowing, slurred speech, and overall weakness. During the examination, the patient displays numerous skin lesions and an infected wound on their right thigh. They exhibit ophthalmoplegia with limited gaze in all directions, bilateral facial nerve weakness, and dysphonia. The patient's limb examination reveals global flaccid weakness, which is worse proximally. Reflexes are diminished. The general medical examination is unremarkable except for shallow breathing.
Spirometry results are as follows:
- FVC: 50% of predicted
- FEV1: 50% of predicted
- FEV1/FVC: 0.84
- TLCO: low
- KCO: high
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) examination shows:
- Glucose: 3.5 mmol/l (serum 6.0)
- Protein: 0.45 g/l (normal 0.3-0.5)
- White cell count (WCC): 1 cell/mm3 (normal < 5)
- Red cell count (RCC): none seen
- Gram stain: negative
- Culture and PCR: pending
What is the most likely causative agent?Your Answer: Clostridium tetani
Correct Answer: Clostridium botulinum
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Acute Flaccid Paralysis in an IV Drug User
Acute flaccid paralysis in an IV drug user can have various causes. One possible cause is botulism, which is caused by the exotoxin released by Clostridium botulinum. Botulism is characterized by reduced tone and reflexes, affects the cranial and autonomic nerves, and is usually food-borne. Diagnosis is clinical, and treatment includes botulism antitoxin, antibiotics, and supportive therapy.
Another possible cause is Guillain-Barré syndrome, which can be post-infectious and is associated with Campylobacter jejuni infection. However, this syndrome progresses over weeks, affects the peripheral nerves, and does not usually cause ophthalmoplegia. Polio virus, which is spread by the faeco-oral route and affects children, causes a pleocytosis in the CSF, which is absent in this patient. Tetanus, caused by Clostridium tetani, causes tetany rather than flaccid weakness. Staphylococcus aureus may cause neurological symptoms, but the patient does not have the core features of meningitis, brain abscess, or endocarditis.
In conclusion, the differential diagnosis of acute flaccid paralysis in an IV drug user includes botulism, Guillain-Barré syndrome, polio virus, tetanus, and Staphylococcus aureus infection. Clinical presentation, CSF analysis, and demographic factors can help differentiate between these possible causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 16 year old girl is admitted to the Emergency Department after experiencing a prolonged seizure lasting six minutes. She has a history of epilepsy and has been stable on lamotrigine for the past seven years, with an average of one generalised tonic-clonic seizure every six months. Her mother reports an increase in seizure frequency over the past three weeks, with three generalised tonic-clonic seizures lasting approximately four minutes each. There have been no changes in stress levels, sleep patterns, or diet. However, she recently started taking a new medication for dysmenorrhoea. What is the most likely explanation for this increase in seizure frequency?
Your Answer: Medroxyprogesterone (Depo-Provera)
Correct Answer: Mefenamic acid
Explanation:Obtaining a complete medication history is crucial in any medical assessment, especially in cases of epilepsy. This is because it helps to determine medication compliance, anti-epileptic therapy, and any potential triggers.
Certain analgesics such as fentanyl, mefenamic acid, and tramadol have been known to induce seizures or worsen seizure control. Other drugs that can trigger seizures include amitriptyline, aminophylline, isotretinoin, and haloperidol.
It is important to note the interaction between antiepileptic medication and contraception. Contraceptive failure, teratogenicity, and reduced seizure control are potential effects.
P450 enzyme inducers can decrease the drug level, leading to an increased failure rate of contraceptives containing oestrogen and progesterone. These inducers include carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, phenytoin, phenobarbitone, and primidone.
Lamotrigine, on the other hand, is not a P450 inducer. While studies have shown a slight decrease in levonorgestrel levels, the clinical significance is still unknown. Oral contraceptives containing ethinylestradiol can reduce the levels of lamotrigine, potentially leading to increased seizure frequency. However, there is no evidence that progestogen-only methods affect lamotrigine levels.
Medications to Avoid in Patients with Epilepsy
Prescribing medications to patients with epilepsy requires careful consideration as some drugs may worsen seizure control. Alcohol, cocaine, and amphetamines are known to have negative effects on seizure control. Antibiotics such as ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin, as well as aminophylline and theophylline, should also be avoided. Bupropion, methylphenidate (used in ADHD), and mefenamic acid are other medications that may worsen seizure control.
It is important to note that some medications, such as benzodiazepines, baclofen, and hydroxyzine, may provoke seizures during withdrawal. Additionally, certain medications may interfere with the metabolism of anti-epileptic drugs, which can worsen seizure control. These medications are known as P450 inducers/inhibitors.
Prescribers should carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of any medication before prescribing it to a patient with epilepsy. Close monitoring and communication with the patient’s healthcare team is essential to ensure optimal seizure control and overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
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Question 14
Correct
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A 75-year-old woman with chronic lymphocytic leukaemia is being regularly reviewed in haematology clinic. She has lost 5% of her body weight in the last 9 months and reports occasional fatigue. She lives alone and is independent. On examination, there are two 0.5cm lymph nodes palpable in her neck, which were palpable at her previous appointment. Her recent blood tests show a decrease in platelets and an increase in white blood cells and lymphocytes. What patient-specific factor does this patient possess that warrants commencing treatment for her underlying malignancy?
Your Answer: Thrombocytopenia
Explanation:Managing Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia
Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. Treatment is only necessary when certain indications are present. These include progressive marrow failure, massive or progressive lymphadenopathy or splenomegaly, progressive lymphocytosis, systemic symptoms, and autoimmune cytopaenias. Patients who do not have any of these indications are monitored with regular blood counts.
The initial treatment of choice for the majority of CLL patients is fludarabine, cyclophosphamide, and rituximab (FCR). This combination therapy has shown promising results in managing the disease. However, in cases where previous therapies have failed, ibrutinib may be used as an alternative treatment option.
It is important to note that CLL management should be tailored to each patient’s individual needs and circumstances. Regular monitoring and communication with healthcare professionals are crucial in ensuring the best possible outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 65-year-old male presents to the hospital with sudden onset breathlessness and no chest pain. He has recently started taking an ACE inhibitor for hypertension. Upon examination, bilateral crepitations to the mid-zones are noted, along with tachypnea and 90% saturation on room air. Urinalysis is negative, and a chest X-ray reveals acute pulmonary edema. An ECG shows sinus rhythm with a rate of 95. Blood tests show Na+ at 135 mmol/l, K+ at 5.1 mmol/l, urea at 12.6 mmol/l, and creatinine at 188 µmol/l. What diagnostic test will confirm the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Magnetic Resonance (MR) Renal Angiography
Explanation:Chest X-Ray Findings of Pulmonary Edema
Pulmonary edema is a condition where fluid accumulates in the lungs, making it difficult to breathe. A chest x-ray can help diagnose this condition by showing certain features. These features may include interstitial edema, which is the accumulation of fluid in the spaces between the lung tissues. Another feature is the bat’s wing appearance, which refers to the pattern of fluid accumulation in the lungs that resembles the wings of a bat.
Other findings on a chest x-ray may include upper lobe diversion, which is an increase in blood flow to the upper parts of the lungs. Kerley B lines may also be present, which are thin lines that represent the expansion of the interstitial space by fluid. Additionally, pleural effusion, or the accumulation of fluid in the space between the lungs and chest wall, may be seen. If the cause of the pulmonary edema is cardiogenic, cardiomegaly, or an enlarged heart, may also be visible on the chest x-ray.
In summary, a chest x-ray can provide valuable information in the diagnosis of pulmonary edema. The presence of interstitial edema, bat’s wing appearance, upper lobe diversion, Kerley B lines, pleural effusion, and cardiomegaly may all be indicative of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy visits his GP with complaints of experiencing shortness of breath during physical activity. His mother accompanies him and reports that his exercise capacity has been gradually decreasing, and he is no longer able to participate in Saturday morning football games. Upon examination, the GP refers the patient to a cardiologist. The cardiologist performs a cardiac catheterization and obtains the following pressure and oxygen saturation data:
Anatomical site: Oxygen saturation (%), Pressure (mmHg), End systolic/End diastolic
- Superior vena cava: 74, -
- Right atrium (mean): 75, 7
- Right ventricle: 87, 50/12
- Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure: -, 16
- Left ventricle: 96, 140/12
- Aorta: 97, 110/60
What is the diagnosis?Your Answer: Mitral stenosis and pulmonary hypertension
Correct Answer: Ventricular septal defect
Explanation:The oxygen saturation increases between the RA and RV, indicating an abnormal connection between the two chambers through a VSD, which is supported by elevated right ventricular pressures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man is brought to the emergency room after collapsing at a music festival. His friends report that he does not drink alcohol. He was attending the festival with friends and was looking for water to drink before he collapsed.
Upon examination, he is febrile (39.5 °C) and unresponsive. He has bilateral dilated pupils. His blood pressure is 170/95 mmHg and his heart rate is 120/min.
The following investigations are conducted:
s
Haemoglobin (Hb) 140 g/l 130–170 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 7.2 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 80 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 5.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine (Cr) 200 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
Creatinine kinase (CK) 1100 U/l 24–170 U/l
Urine Blood ++, no red cells on microscopy
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: 3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA) toxicity
Correct Answer: Cocaine toxicity
Explanation:Drug Toxicities: Cocaine and MDMA
Cocaine and MDMA are both drugs of abuse that can lead to toxicity. However, MDMA is less commonly used than cocaine. Cocaine toxicity can affect any organ and may present with symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, headache, focal neurologic symptoms, and extremity symptoms. In cases of cocaine-associated myocardial ischemia, aspirin, nitroglycerin infusion, and benzodiazepines are used. Beta blockers, including labetalol, are contraindicated in acute cocaine toxicity.
MDMA toxicity is associated with extreme hyperthermia, rhabdomyolysis, renal impairment, low platelets, and decreased consciousness level with dilated pupils. Basic life support with assessment of ABC is crucial, with benzodiazepines used for sedation and seizure control. Hypertension is managed aggressively with agents such as phentolamine and sodium nitroprusside. Urinary alkalinisation may reduce progression to acute kidney disease in cases of significant rhabdomyolysis.
Understanding the Toxicities of Cocaine and MDMA
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old female has been diagnosed with Marfan's syndrome and has no other known medical conditions. An echocardiogram reveals severe aortic regurgitation, significant aortic root dilatation, and a left ventricular ejection fraction of 70%. Despite being asymptomatic and having no family history of aortic dissection, what is the best course of action for managing her cardiac issue?
Your Answer: Offer surgery if planning to become pregnant
Correct Answer: Referral for aortic valve replacement
Explanation:ACE inhibitors are beneficial in cases of hypertension, as well as when surgery is not an option or when ventricular dysfunction persists after surgery. In instances of aortic stenosis, exercise testing is more effective, and if the aortic root is not enlarged, follow-up would suffice.
Aortic regurgitation is a condition where the aortic valve of the heart leaks, causing blood to flow in the opposite direction during ventricular diastole. This can be caused by disease of the aortic valve or by distortion or dilation of the aortic root and ascending aorta. The most common causes of AR due to valve disease include rheumatic fever, calcific valve disease, and infective endocarditis. On the other hand, AR due to aortic root disease can be caused by conditions such as aortic dissection, hypertension, and connective tissue diseases like Marfan and Ehler-Danlos syndrome.
The features of AR include an early diastolic murmur, a collapsing pulse, wide pulse pressure, Quincke’s sign, and De Musset’s sign. In severe cases, a mid-diastolic Austin-Flint murmur may also be present. Suspected AR should be investigated with echocardiography.
Management of AR involves medical management of any associated heart failure and surgery in symptomatic patients with severe AR or asymptomatic patients with severe AR who have LV systolic dysfunction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with heart failure following a myocardial infarction. During your clinic review, he reports no dyspnoea, orthopnoea, or paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea, and there is no persistent leg oedema. His examination indicates he is euvolaemic. His ECG shows sinus rhythm, Q waves in the inferior leads, a PR interval of 208/msec, normal QRS, and no signs of intraventricular conduction delay. He is anxious and asks if there are any additional measures he can take to reduce his rate of hospitalisation besides maintaining a healthy lifestyle and taking his medications. He mentions his brother, who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, has a just-in-case box at home and is entitled to vaccinations. He wonders if there are any vaccinations or additional antibiotics/medications that could be useful to him. What recommendations would you make for this patient?
Your Answer: Annual pneumococcal vaccination should be offered
Correct Answer: Annual influenza vaccination
Explanation:Annual influenza vaccine should be offered as part of the comprehensive lifestyle approach to managing heart failure.
Patients with heart failure are at a higher risk of developing respiratory infections, which can worsen their condition and lead to decompensation. Therefore, it is recommended that they receive both the influenza and pneumococcal vaccines. While pneumococcal vaccination is typically a one-time regimen, patients with chronic diseases or asplenia may require additional vaccinations, such as Haemophilus influenzae B.
Antibiotic prophylaxis, such as phenoxymethylpenicillin, is not recommended for reducing infection rates in heart failure patients. Additionally, there is no strong evidence supporting a pill-in-the-pocket strategy for managing heart failure, but patients should be aware of the potential need for diuretic therapy manipulation and when to seek urgent medical care.
Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus and stable joint disease managed with hydroxychloroquine presents to the nephrology clinic with complaints of worsening peripheral edema. On examination, she has a blood pressure of 159/88 mmHg, a regular pulse of 78 beats per minute, and pitting edema in both lower limbs. Her laboratory results show a sodium level of 141 mmol/l, potassium level of 5.1 mmol/l, urea level of 8.1 mmol/l, creatinine level of 159 µmol/l, and urinary protein level of 5 g/24hrs. What is the most appropriate intervention for long-term renal outcomes?
Your Answer: Cyclophosphamide
Correct Answer: Mycophenolate
Explanation:Mycophenolate mofetil (MMF) is a prodrug that converts to mycophenolic acid (MPA), an inhibitor of inosine-5′-monophosphate dehydrogenase. MPA selectively reduces guanosine nucleotides in T and B lymphocytes, thereby inhibiting their proliferation. In cases of proteinuric renal disease associated with systemic lupus erythematosus, mycophenolate is the preferred treatment.
Cyclophosphamide is not recommended for lupus nephritis due to similar renal outcomes as mycophenolate, but with higher infection rates. While corticosteroids are used alongside second-line agents, mycophenolate is more crucial for long-term renal outcomes. Anti-B cell agents like rituximab are used in lupus treatment, but typically in combination with a conventional second-line agent such as mycophenolate. Methotrexate is primarily used for rheumatoid arthritis treatment.
Understanding Systemic Lupus Erythematosus: A Multisystem Autoimmune Disorder
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a complex autoimmune disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. It typically develops in early adulthood and is more common in women and individuals of Afro-Caribbean descent. The condition is characterized by a range of symptoms, including fatigue, fever, mouth ulcers, and lymphadenopathy.
SLE can also affect the skin, causing a malar (butterfly) rash that spares the nasolabial folds, as well as a discoid rash that is scaly, erythematous, and well-demarcated in sun-exposed areas. Other skin symptoms may include photosensitivity, Raynaud’s phenomenon, livedo reticularis, and non-scarring alopecia.
Musculoskeletal symptoms of SLE may include arthralgia and non-erosive arthritis, while cardiovascular symptoms may include pericarditis and myocarditis. Respiratory symptoms may include pleurisy and fibrosing alveolitis, and renal symptoms may include proteinuria and glomerulonephritis, with diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis being the most common type.
Finally, neuropsychiatric symptoms of SLE may include anxiety and depression, psychosis, and seizures. Overall, SLE is a complex and challenging condition that requires careful management and ongoing support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 65-year-old stonemason presents to the respiratory clinic complaining of increasing breathlessness over the past two years. He has a history of smoking, with a total of 45 pack years. Upon examination, he appears to be in good health, with hyperexpanded chest and bibasal inspiratory crackles. There is no clubbing or lymphadenopathy present. Spirometry results show FEV1 at 38% predicted, FVC at 70% predicted, and KCO at 55% predicted. A chest x-ray reveals hilar eggshell calcification and some fibrotic changes in the upper zone. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Silicosis
Explanation:Silicosis: A Lung Disease Associated with Occupational Exposure to Silica
Silicosis is a type of lung fibrosis that occurs as a result of inhaling silica, a compound found in materials such as sand, quartz, and granite. This condition is commonly seen in individuals who work in quarries, mines, and sandblasting, as well as those who work with pottery and stone. The diagnosis of silicosis is heavily dependent on the patient’s employment history, as well as the presence of characteristic changes on chest x-rays.
The radiological changes that are typically seen in patients with silicosis include hilar eggshell calcification, which is a pathognomonic finding. This refers to the calcification of the lymph nodes in the lung hilum, which can be seen on x-rays as a thin, white line around the nodes. These changes are often accompanied by other signs of lung fibrosis, such as scarring and thickening of the lung tissue.
Overall, silicosis is a serious occupational lung disease that can have significant long-term effects on a patient’s health. Early diagnosis and management are crucial in preventing further damage to the lungs and improving outcomes for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman with a known diagnosis of HIV presented to the Emergency Department with a 2-week history of headache, multiple episodes of vomiting and feeling generally unwell. In the last few days she had become feverish and preferred to be in a dark room.
On examination, her BP was 110/72 mmHg, pulse 80 bpm and regular and her temperature was elevated at 37.9 °C. There was mild neck stiffness on clinical examination.
A lumbar puncture was performed and the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) showed the following results:
Opening pressure 28cm H20
White cell count 220 per mm3(80% lymphocytes)
Red cell count 55 per mm3
Protein 2.2 g/l
Glucose 2.1 (serum glucose 6.6)
Which additional test would be most helpful in determining the underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: TB polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Meningitis: TB vs Cryptococcal
When presented with a patient with a history of meningitis and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) findings of raised opening pressure, lymphocytic meningitis, markedly raised protein, and low glucose, the differential diagnosis is between TB meningitis and cryptococcal meningitis. To diagnose TB meningitis, positive Ziehl–Nielsen (or auramine) staining, TB polymerase chain reaction (PCR), and/or TB culture of the CSF are necessary. On the other hand, cryptococcal meningitis may be diagnosed by positive India ink staining or cryptococcal antigen. A negative India ink stain or screen for cryptococcal antigen would significantly raise the suspicion of underlying TB.
Other potential causes of meningitis, such as viral infections like cytomegalovirus and Epstein–Barr virus, can be ruled out by normal glucose and less significantly elevated protein in the CSF fluid. JC virus, which causes progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy in immunosuppressed individuals, does not cause meningitis. In neurosyphilis, the CSF findings would be a normal or raised pressure, clear fluid, less severely elevated protein, and normal glucose. The cell count is usually elevated with lymphocytosis, and VDRL and TPHA are positive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old female presents with symptoms of polyuria, nocturia, and general lethargy that have been ongoing for two months. She has a history of psychiatric illness and is currently taking medication for it. The patient is a smoker, consuming 12 cigarettes per day, and drinks approximately five units of alcohol per week.
During examination, the patient is found to be obese with a BMI of 32.3 kg/m2, a pulse of 82 beats per minute, and a blood pressure of 142/88 mmHg. No abnormalities are noted during the examination.
The following investigations were conducted:
- Haemoglobin: 133 g/L (115-165)
- White cell count: 5.6 ×109/L (4-11)
- Platelets: 210 ×109/L (150-400)
- Serum sodium: 136 mmol/L (137-144)
- Serum potassium: 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
- Serum urea: 4.2 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
- Serum creatinine: 88 µmol/L (60-110)
- Fasting glucose: 15.5 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
- Serum calcium: 2.3 mmol/L (2.2-2.6)
- Serum phosphate: 0.96 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
- 24-hour urine volume: 2.1 litres
- Dipstick urine Glucose +
Which of the following agents could be responsible for this patient's presentation?Your Answer: Haloperidol
Correct Answer: Olanzapine
Explanation:Drug-Induced Diabetes and Other Side Effects
This patient is showing symptoms of new onset diabetes mellitus, which is confirmed by the elevated fasting plasma glucose. However, the low daily urine volume of 2.1 L suggests that diabetes insipidus is not the cause. Among the listed drugs, atypical antipsychotics like olanzapine, risperidone, and clozapine have been linked to hyperglycemia and insulin resistance. Although the exact mechanism is not clear, discontinuing the medication may help resolve the diabetes. These atypical agents are becoming more popular because they have fewer extrapyramidal and anticholinergic side effects compared to traditional antipsychotics like haloperidol, which has been associated with hypoglycemia. Lithium, on the other hand, is known to cause diabetes insipidus and thyroid dysfunction. Phenelzine, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor, can cause dry mouth and constipation, while valproate, used to treat manic disorders, can lead to leukopenia, deranged liver function tests, and weight gain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with bony metastases from breast cancer presents to the Emergency Department with vomiting, dehydration, increasing drowsiness, and confusion over the past five days. She had been able to work part-time for a charity and maintain a good quality of life prior to this week. On examination, she is drowsy and confused, with a BP of 100/80 and a pulse of 88 and regular. Heart sounds are normal, chest is clear, and abdomen is soft, although she appears agitated on abdominal palpation.
Investigations reveal a Hb of 102 g/l (115-160), WCC of 6.8x10(9)/l (4-11), PLT of 148x10(9)/l (150-450), Na of 138 mmol/l (135-145), K of 5.6 mmol/l (3.5-5), Cr of 135 micromol/l (60-90), and Ca of 3.6 mmol/l (2.1-2.65). She is given 1 litre stat of normal saline, and a second litre is commenced.
What is the most appropriate next intervention?Your Answer: Hydrocortisone 200 mg IV
Correct Answer: Zolendronate IV
Explanation:Treatment for Hypercalcemia of Malignancy
Hypercalcemia of malignancy can be treated with zolendronate IV, even in patients with high creatinine levels. Although dose reduction is recommended for patients with a GFR <60ml/min, studies have shown that zolendronate achieves normal calcium levels in approximately 90% of recipients. Before commencing therapy, it is important to ensure hydration is maintained and potentially lengthen the infusion time from 15 to 30-60 minutes. Alendronate oral is not recommended due to its slow onset of action, while furosemide IV is not as effective as bisphosphonates in reducing calcium reabsorption from bone. Denosumab can be used as an alternative to bisphosphonates, and hydrocortisone is most useful in treating hypercalcemia associated with chronic granulomatous disease. In summary, zolendronate IV is the preferred treatment for hypercalcemia of malignancy, with high success rates and minimal side effects. Other options such as denosumab and hydrocortisone may be considered in certain cases, but should be discussed with a healthcare provider. It is important to maintain hydration and adjust infusion times as needed to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents to the renal outpatient department with complaints of fatigue and shortness of breath. He has a medical history of end-stage renal failure due to hypertension and is currently undergoing dialysis. His medication regimen includes ramipril, amlodipine, and doxazosin. On examination, an arterio-venous fistula is noted at his right forearm.
The patient's blood tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 84 g/L (male: 135-180, female: 115-160), MCV of 85 fL (80-96), platelets of 189 * 109/L (150-400), WBC of 4.4 * 109/L (4.0-11.0), Na+ of 138 mmol/L (135-145), K+ of 4.8 mmol/L (3.5-5.0), urea of 28.1 mmol/L (2.0-7.0), ferritin of 88 µg/L (24-336), and transferrin saturation (TSAT) of 12% (20-50).
What would be the appropriate management strategy for this patient?Your Answer: Oral iron supplementation
Correct Answer: IV iron supplementation followed by consideration of erythropoiesis-stimulating agent
Explanation:In cases of anaemia in CKD, it is recommended to consider IV iron supplementation followed by the use of erythropoiesis-stimulating agents once the patient is iron-replete. This is because patients with end-stage renal failure on dialysis often require intravenous iron replacement due to elevated serum levels of hepcidin, which prevents intestinal absorption of iron. Once iron levels are restored, an ESA can be used to maintain haemoglobin levels between 100-120g/L. It is important to correct anaemia in CKD as it can lead to cardiomyopathy and left ventricular hypertrophy, and the use of ESA has been shown to reduce mortality. It should be noted that ESA is less effective in patients who are iron deficient, and oral iron supplementation is not recommended for these patients.
Anaemia in Chronic Kidney Disease
Patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) may develop anaemia due to various factors, with reduced erythropoietin levels being the most significant. This type of anaemia is usually normochromic normocytic and becomes apparent when the GFR is less than 35 ml/min. Other causes of anaemia should be considered if the GFR is greater than 60 ml/min. Anaemia in CKD can lead to the development of left ventricular hypertrophy, which is associated with a three-fold increase in mortality in renal patients.
There are several causes of anaemia in renal failure, including reduced erythropoietin levels, reduced erythropoiesis due to toxic effects of uraemia on bone marrow, reduced absorption of iron, anorexia/nausea due to uraemia, reduced red cell survival (especially in haemodialysis), blood loss due to capillary fragility and poor platelet function, and stress ulceration leading to chronic blood loss.
To manage anaemia in CKD, the 2011 NICE guidelines suggest a target haemoglobin of 10-12 g/dl. Determination and optimisation of iron status should be carried out before the administration of erythropoiesis-stimulating agents (ESA). Oral iron should be offered for patients who are not on ESAs or haemodialysis. If target Hb levels are not reached within three months, patients should be switched to IV iron. Patients on ESAs or haemodialysis generally require IV iron. ESAs such as erythropoietin and darbepoetin should be used in those who are likely to benefit in terms of quality of life and physical function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of increasing fatigue over the past few weeks. She is now unable to leave her house due to exhaustion, has significant nausea, and has not been able to eat for the past 48 hours. The patient has a history of Hashimoto's thyroiditis and type 1 diabetes, for which she takes thyroxine and insulin. On examination, her blood pressure is 100/70 mmHg, with a postural drop of 20 mmHg on standing, and her pulse is 90 bpm and regular. Laboratory investigations reveal low haemoglobin, low sodium, high potassium, and high creatinine levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Autoimmune polyglandular syndrome Type 3 (APS lll)
Correct Answer: Autoimmune polyglandular syndrome Type 2 (APS ll)
Explanation:Autoimmune Polyglandular Syndrome: Types and Differential Diagnosis
Autoimmune polyglandular syndrome (APS) is a rare disorder characterized by the malfunction of multiple endocrine glands due to autoimmune-mediated damage. There are three types of APS, each with a distinct set of symptoms and glandular involvement.
APS Type 1 is characterized by chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis, hypoparathyroidism, and autoimmune adrenal insufficiency. APS Type 2 is the most common form and presents with Addison’s disease along with autoimmune thyroid disease and/or type 1 diabetes mellitus. APS Type 3 is associated with autoimmune thyroiditis, in conjunction with diabetes mellitus, pernicious anemia, or vitiligo.
In this case, the patient’s symptoms are consistent with a diagnosis of Addison’s disease, which is a hallmark of APS Type 2. Pituitary failure, renal tubular acidosis Type IV, and other autoimmune disorders such as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis can be ruled out based on the patient’s clinical presentation and laboratory findings.
In conclusion, APS should be considered in patients with multiple endocrine gland dysfunction, and a thorough differential diagnosis should be performed to determine the specific type of APS and guide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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Question 27
Correct
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A 16-year-old boy was discovered collapsed in the restrooms of a nightclub and was rushed to the Emergency department. No further information was available, and the ambulance team was unable to locate any witnesses to the incident.
Upon examination, the patient was found to be drenched in sweat and was drowsy and feverish, with a temperature of 40°C. His pulse was regular and measured 125 beats per minute, while his blood pressure was 175/100 mmHg. Neurological examination revealed that both pupils were dilated and reacted sluggishly to light. The rest of the examination was unremarkable.
The following investigations were conducted:
- Haemoglobin: 105 g/L (130-180)
- White cell count: 12 ×109/L (4-11)
- Platelets: 105 ×109/L (150-400)
- PT: 17 s (11.5-15.5)
- APTT: 85 s (30-40)
- Serum sodium: 128 mmol/L (137-144)
- Serum potassium: 6.4 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
- Serum urea: 11.1 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
- Serum creatinine: 121 µmol/L (60-110)
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Ecstasy abuse
Explanation:The Effects of Ecstasy Abuse
Ecstasy, also known as MDM or 3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine, is a popular semi-synthetic hallucinogen used as a recreational drug. While it may provide mild effects such as nausea, myalgia, blurred vision, and ataxia, it can also lead to more severe consequences such as hyperthermia, hyper/hypotension, rhabdomyolysis, hyperkalaemia, tachyarrhythmias, acute renal failure, hepatocellular necrosis, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Unfortunately, there is no specific antidote for ecstasy abuse, and treatment is mainly supportive.
It is important to note that the clinical presentation of neuroleptic malignant syndrome and ecstasy toxicity are almost identical. However, in the context of being found in a night club, ecstasy abuse is the most likely diagnosis for this patient. The effects of ecstasy abuse is crucial in preventing its harmful consequences and promoting a safer and healthier lifestyle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old postmenopausal woman presents with ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) of the left breast. During a routine mammogram, a 2 cm area of micro-calcifications was identified and subsequent biopsy revealed high-grade, oestrogen receptor-positive, progesterone receptor-positive DCIS. The patient underwent lumpectomy and radiation therapy, and physical examination shows a well-healed left lumpectomy scar with no palpable masses in either breast and no axillary or supraclavicular lymphadenopathy. What is the most appropriate next step in treatment?
Your Answer: Raloxifene
Correct Answer: Tamoxifen
Explanation:Treatment and Prevention of Ductal Carcinoma In Situ (DCIS)
The incidence of DCIS has been on the rise due to the widespread use of screening mammography. Treatment for DCIS involves local therapy with mastectomy or wide-excision resection and radiation therapy, but not chemotherapy. Patients with DCIS are at an increased risk of developing new or locally recurrent breast cancer in either breast. For those with oestrogen receptor-positive tumours, tamoxifen therapy for five years in addition to lumpectomy can decrease the risk of a new breast cancer event. Adjuvant chemotherapy has not been proven to offer any benefits for patients with DCIS. Raloxifene is only indicated for primary prevention of breast cancer in postmenopausal women and is not used to treat DCIS. While megestrol acetate may be appropriate as a second- or third-line hormonal therapy for DCIS, it is not used as preventive therapy. Contralateral prophylactic mastectomy is not recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man visits his doctor to discuss his alcohol consumption. He has been drinking 15-20 units per day for a few years and now wants to reduce it to recommended levels. He is curious about any medications that can induce unpleasant symptoms to help him achieve abstinence. What options are available?
Your Answer: Diazepam
Correct Answer: Disulfiram
Explanation:Disulfiram is a medication that inhibits acetaldehyde dehydrogenase. When combined with alcohol, it leads to a buildup of acetaldehyde which can result in symptoms such as skin flushing, nausea, vomiting, arrhythmias, and even death. However, the use of disulfiram can be challenging due to poor compliance as it does not reduce alcohol cravings. Acamprosate is another drug that promotes abstinence by reducing alcohol cravings through weak NMDA receptor antagonism. Diazepam is not a suitable medication for this purpose, as it is primarily used for acute withdrawal management. Naltrexone is also used to treat alcohol dependence, but it works by reducing cravings and the pleasurable effects of substance use disorder, rather than causing unpleasant symptoms.
Management of Problem Drinking: Nutritional Support and Drug Therapy
Problem drinking can have serious consequences on an individual’s health and well-being. To manage this condition, nutritional support and drug therapy are often recommended. According to SIGN, alcoholic patients should receive oral thiamine if their diet may be deficient. This is because alcohol can interfere with the absorption and utilization of thiamine, which can lead to neurological complications such as Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome.
In addition to nutritional support, drug therapy can also be used to manage problem drinking. Benzodiazepines are commonly used for acute withdrawal symptoms, while disulfiram is used to promote abstinence. Disulfiram works by inhibiting acetaldehyde dehydrogenase, which causes a severe reaction when alcohol is consumed. Patients should be aware that even small amounts of alcohol in perfumes, foods, or mouthwashes can produce severe symptoms. However, disulfiram is contraindicated in patients with ischaemic heart disease and psychosis.
Another drug used to manage problem drinking is acamprosate. This medication reduces craving and has been shown to improve abstinence in placebo-controlled trials. Acamprosate is a weak antagonist of NMDA receptors, which are involved in the development of alcohol dependence. By blocking these receptors, acamprosate may help reduce the reinforcing effects of alcohol and prevent relapse.
In summary, the management of problem drinking involves a combination of nutritional support and drug therapy. Oral thiamine is recommended for alcoholic patients with a deficient diet, while benzodiazepines can be used for acute withdrawal symptoms. Disulfiram promotes abstinence but should be used with caution in patients with certain medical conditions. Acamprosate reduces craving and improves abstinence by blocking NMDA receptors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man with myelofibrosis presents with a haemoglobin level of 67 g/l upon admission. After receiving two units of red cells, he is discharged three days later. However, he is readmitted six days later with fever and jaundice. His blood tests reveal a Hb level of 71 g/l, Na+ level of 137 mmol/l, and Bilirubin level of 39 µmol/l, among others. What is the best course of action for managing this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Conservative management
Explanation:A delayed transfusion reaction can occur 7-10 days after a patient receives a blood transfusion. This type of reaction is more likely to happen in patients who have been sensitized from previous transfusions or pregnancy and have alloantibodies against red cell antigens that are not detected during cross-matching if they are below detectable limits.
To manage a delayed transfusion reaction, the laboratory should be informed, and a repeat group and save sample should be sent for further testing. Supportive care is usually enough, but if the patient is symptomatic from anemia, they may need another transfusion after further cross-matching testing is done. Prednisolone and intravenous immunoglobulin are not typically used in this situation. If the reaction is due to bacterial contamination of the blood product, tazocin may be appropriate, but this presentation is too late, and there are no other signs of sepsis.
Blood product transfusion complications can be categorized into immunological, infective, and other complications. Immunological complications include acute haemolytic reactions, non-haemolytic febrile reactions, and allergic/anaphylaxis reactions. Infective complications may arise due to transmission of vCJD, although measures have been taken to minimize this risk. Other complications include transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI), transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO), hyperkalaemia, iron overload, and clotting.
Non-haemolytic febrile reactions are thought to be caused by antibodies reacting with white cell fragments in the blood product and cytokines that have leaked from the blood cell during storage. These reactions may occur in 1-2% of red cell transfusions and 10-30% of platelet transfusions. Minor allergic reactions may also occur due to foreign plasma proteins, while anaphylaxis may be caused by patients with IgA deficiency who have anti-IgA antibodies.
Acute haemolytic transfusion reaction is a serious complication that results from a mismatch of blood group (ABO) which causes massive intravascular haemolysis. Symptoms begin minutes after the transfusion is started and include a fever, abdominal and chest pain, agitation, and hypotension. Treatment should include immediate transfusion termination, generous fluid resuscitation with saline solution, and informing the lab. Complications include disseminated intravascular coagulation and renal failure.
TRALI is a rare but potentially fatal complication of blood transfusion that is characterized by the development of hypoxaemia/acute respiratory distress syndrome within 6 hours of transfusion. On the other hand, TACO is a relatively common reaction due to fluid overload resulting in pulmonary oedema. As well as features of pulmonary oedema, the patient may also be hypertensive, a key difference from patients with TRALI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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