-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old man presents 10 h after a sudden-onset occipital headache, which began abruptly during sex.
CT scan is unremarkable; lumbar puncture reveals evidence of xanthochromia. His blood pressure on admission is 140/90 mmHg.
What is the most suitable course of action for this individual?Your Answer: Magnetic resonance angiography
Correct Answer:
Explanation:When a patient presents with post-coital headache and xanthochromia, subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) should be suspected. While not all post-coital headaches are due to SAH, around 4% of SAH cases occur after sexual intercourse. Therefore, it is important to consider magnetic resonance angiography to determine if there is a lesion that may bleed again or require intervention.
Aspirin therapy should not be commenced in this case, as xanthochromia suggests a potential intracerebral hemorrhage. Reassurance and discharge are also not appropriate, as a vascular lesion at further risk of bleeding should be ruled out.
Similarly, there is little evidence to support acute blood pressure control with angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor therapy in this situation. Discharge without ruling out a significant vascular lesion is also not recommended.
If xanthochromia is absent, atypical migraine may be considered as an alternative diagnosis. However, prescribing sumatriptan therapy at this point is not appropriate for a patient with post-coital headache and xanthochromia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 67-year-old male presents with a 2 year history of fatigue. Over the past year he has had progressive early satiety, vomiting and weight loss. On examination you note 10cm splenomegaly.
Investigation results are as follows:
Hb 84g/l Na+ 138 mmol/l Bilirubin 22 µmol/l
Platelets 65 * 109/l K+ 3.7 mmol/l ALP 88 u/l
WBC 2.2 * 109/l Urea 4.5 mmol/l ALT 22 u/l
Neuts 0.8 * 109/l Creatinine 68 µmol/l γGT 96 u/l
Lymphs 0.4 * 109/l Albumin 28 g/l
Blood film: Tear-drop poikilocytes
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Myelofibrosis
Explanation:Massive enlargement of the spleen can cause early satiety and vomiting, which may be mistaken for symptoms of gastric cancer. The patient’s blood test results indicate pancytopenia with the presence of tear drop cells, which suggests a primary bone marrow issue. Tear drop cells can be observed in cases of marrow infiltration (such as fibrosis, granulomatous inflammation, hematological or metastatic malignancy), splenic abnormalities, megaloblastic anemia, and thalassemia.
The possible diagnoses in this case are either gastric cancer (with bone marrow metastases leading to myelodysplasia) or myelofibrosis. Both conditions can cause early satiety and vomiting, but the presence of splenomegaly and the duration of symptoms are more indicative of myelofibrosis.
Understanding Myelofibrosis
Myelofibrosis is a type of myeloproliferative disorder that is believed to be caused by the abnormal growth of megakaryocytes. This results in the release of platelet-derived growth factor, which stimulates fibroblasts. As a result, haematopoiesis occurs in the liver and spleen. The condition is often seen in elderly individuals who present with symptoms of anaemia, such as fatigue, which is the most common symptom. Other symptoms include massive splenomegaly and hypermetabolic symptoms like weight loss and night sweats.
Laboratory findings in myelofibrosis include anaemia, high white blood cell and platelet counts early in the disease, and the presence of tear-drop poikilocytes on blood film. Bone marrow biopsy may be difficult to obtain due to a dry tap, so a trephine biopsy may be necessary. Additionally, high urate and LDH levels may be present, reflecting increased cell turnover.
Overall, understanding the features and laboratory findings of myelofibrosis is important for proper diagnosis and management of the condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old man has been experiencing left-sided orbital pain for the past three weeks. The pain is particularly severe in the evenings, especially when he is reading, and he has noticed a halo around lights at this time. He also experiences headaches on the same side as the orbital pain, which usually resolve when he goes to bed. However, over the past day, he has noticed a significant deterioration in his vision in the left eye.
During examination, his blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, his pulse is 80/min and regular. His visual acuity is 6/6 in the right eye, but he can only see hand movements in the left eye. There is corneal and scleral injection on the left.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute closed angle glaucoma
Explanation:Distinguishing Acute Closed Angle Glaucoma from Other Headache Conditions
Acute closed angle glaucoma is a condition that presents with orbital pain, haloed vision, and redness in the cornea and sclera. It is diagnosed clinically, with tonometry used to measure intra-ocular pressure. Initial treatment includes acetazolamide, topical steroids, and topical beta blockers. Cluster headache, tension headache, and episcleritis are unlikely to be the cause of these symptoms, as they do not typically affect vision or involve redness in the eye. Optic neuritis may present with pain, but it does not cause a red eye. The presence of halo signs is a key feature that distinguishes acute closed angle glaucoma from other headache conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medical Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 22-year-old female presents with a two-month history of fatigue, muscle pain, and unintentional weight loss. On examination, there are no significant findings. Her vital signs are within normal limits, with a heart rate of 72/min, respiratory rate of 14/min, oxygen saturation of 99% on room air, and blood pressure of 110/80 mmHg. She has no fever.
Routine blood tests are ordered, and the results are as follows:
- Hemoglobin: 150 g/l
- Platelets: 200 * 109/l
- White blood cells: 12.0 * 109/l
- Neutrophils: 8.0 * 109/l
- Lymphocytes: 4.0 * 109/l
- Sodium: 128 mmol/l
- Potassium: 2.9 mmol/l
- Urea: 7.0 mmol/l
- Creatinine: 85 µmol/l
- C-reactive protein: 11 mg/l
What is the most appropriate next step in the investigation for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urinary electrolytes
Explanation:A young patient experiencing fatigue, loss of weight, and low levels of sodium and potassium may have an inherited renal condition like Bartter’s or Gitelman’s syndrome. Liddle’s syndrome is typically linked to high blood pressure. To aid in diagnosis, a quick and easy test for urinary electrolytes can be conducted. Other potential causes would not result in low levels of both sodium and potassium.
Causes of Hypokalaemia and Hypertension
Hypokalaemia, a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood, can be classified into two categories: those associated with hypertension and those that are not. Hypokalaemia with hypertension can be caused by various conditions such as Cushing’s syndrome, Conn’s syndrome, Liddle’s syndrome, and 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency. Additionally, carbenoxolone, an anti-ulcer drug, and excessive consumption of liquorice can also lead to hypokalaemia with hypertension.
On the other hand, hypokalaemia without hypertension can be caused by diuretics, gastrointestinal loss (e.g. diarrhoea, vomiting), renal tubular acidosis (type 1 and 2), Bartter’s syndrome, and Gitelman syndrome. It is important to note that 21-hydroxylase deficiency, which accounts for 90% of congenital adrenal hyperplasia cases, is not associated with hypertension. Furthermore, type 4 renal tubular acidosis is associated with hyperkalaemia.
In summary, understanding the causes of hypokalaemia and hypertension is crucial for medical professionals to accurately diagnose and treat patients with these conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 57-year-old woman presents to the Chest Clinic after receiving chemotherapy for a localised small cell lung cancer. She reports experiencing a gradual onset of limb weakness and muscle tenderness, along with intermittent double vision. Upon examination, she displays a ptosis on the right side, proximal myopathy, and decreased tendon reflexes. What neuroimmunological test would be most beneficial for diagnosing her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Paraneoplastic Autoantibodies and Associated Cancers
Paraneoplastic syndromes are a group of disorders that occur in cancer patients and are not directly caused by the tumor or its metastases. Instead, they are caused by the immune system’s response to the tumor. One type of paraneoplastic syndrome is the production of autoantibodies against specific proteins in the body. Here are some examples of paraneoplastic autoantibodies and the cancers they are associated with:
Anti-VGCC (voltage-gated calcium channel): Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome (LEMS), most often associated with small cell lung cancer (SCLC).
Anti-Hu: Encephalomyositis or sensory neuropathy associated with small cell lung cancer.
Anti-Yo: Cerebellar degeneration, especially seen in lung and gynecological malignancy.
Anti-AChR (acetylcholine receptor): Thymoma, occurring in myasthenia gravis.
Anti-Purkinje cell: Cerebellar degeneration, associated with small cell lung cancer.
It is important to note that the presence of these autoantibodies does not necessarily mean that a person has cancer, but they can be a clue for further investigation. Additionally, in some cases, the cancer may not be discovered until months or even years after the onset of the paraneoplastic syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A middle-aged woman on a camping trip in central Europe developed fever, myalgia, and a rash that cleared from the center. She was diagnosed with Lyme disease and received an extended course of antibiotics, resulting in a normal recovery. What type of tick is the primary carrier responsible for transmitting Lyme disease to this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ixodes ricinus
Explanation:Lyme Disease Transmission and Responsible Ticks
Lyme disease is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi and is primarily transmitted by Ixodes ricinus in Europe. In the United States, the responsible ticks for transmitting Lyme disease are Ixodes pacificus and Ixodes scapularis. These ticks are commonly found in wooded areas and attach themselves to humans and animals, transmitting the bacteria through their bite. It is important to take preventative measures such as wearing protective clothing and using insect repellent when spending time in tick-infested areas to reduce the risk of contracting Lyme disease. Early detection and treatment of Lyme disease is crucial in preventing long-term health complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man presents with acute abdominal pain and a distended abdomen. He was given one litre of Hartmann's solution in the Emergency Department. Upon examination, his pulse is 120 bpm, blood pressure is 70/40 mmHg, temperature is 39°C, and oxygen saturation is 93% on high-flow oxygen. He is also anuric. Arterial blood gases reveal a pH of 7.22, Base Excess of −13.5 mmol/L, lactate of 6.5 mmol/L, and K+ of 5.9 mmol/L. What should be the top priority in his immediate management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Further fluid resuscitation
Explanation:The immediate priority in managing the patient is aggressive fluid resuscitation due to likely septic shock from intra-abdominal sepsis. Appropriate haemodynamic monitoring should be established with invasive arterial and central venous pressure lines, and cardiac output monitoring may be necessary. High flow oxygen therapy, blood cultures, and empiric antibiotics are also priorities. An urgent exploratory laparotomy is needed, and an abdominal CT scan should be avoided to prevent delays. Renal support may be necessary in the postoperative period if the patient does not respond to early measures.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old female presents with recurrent vulval candidiasis.
She has gained approximately 20 kg in weight since the birth of her last child four years ago. During this pregnancy she recalls that she received insulin for approximately four months although this was discontinued after the birth of her daughter who is quite well. She also has two older children who are well although she did not receive insulin during those pregnancies.
She is a smoker of 12 cigarettes per day and drinks approximately 12 units of alcohol weekly.
There is a strong family history of coronary artery disease; her father and paternal uncle both died in their fifties of heart disease. Her mother has diabetes and takes thyroxine for a thyroid problem.
On examination she weighs 90 kg with a body mass index of 36.5 kg/m2. Her pulse is regular, 82 beats/minute and her blood pressure is 140/88 mmHg. Otherwise examination of the heart, chest and abdomen is unremarkable.
Fundal examination reveals three dot haemorrhages in the left and two dot haemorrhages in the right retina. There are no abnormalities of sensation in the feet or hands. Peripheral pulses are all normal.
Investigations reveal:
HbA1c 66 mmol/mol (20-46)
8.2% (3.8-6.4)
Fasting plasma glucose 10.3 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
Serum urea 5.1 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Serum creatinine 108 µmol/L (60-110)
Serum alkaline phosphatase 100 U/L (45-105)
Serum HDL cholesterol 0.8 mmol/L (>1.55)
Serum total cholesterol 7.2 mmol/L (<5.2)
Fasting serum triglyceride 2.8 mmol/L (0.45-1.69)
What treatment should be given to this patient, in addition to lifestyle advice?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metformin
Explanation:Treatment Approach for Young Obese Patients with Type 2 Diabetes
This patient, who is a younger obese person with type 2 diabetes, should initially be treated with lifestyle and dietary advice along with metformin (if not contraindicated). This approach should be followed for at least two to three months before considering additional therapy. If this approach fails, then sulphonylurea or basal insulin may be considered. However, pioglitazone or sitagliptin should not be used as first-line therapy but as second- or third-line therapy.
Although the patient was treated with insulin during her pregnancy, it would not be considered at this stage. Similarly, gliclazide may not be the most appropriate drug for her due to its potential to induce weight gain, unless metformin is contraindicated or the blood glucose is higher. GLP-1 analogues may be used in addition to oral antidiabetic agents as they can result in weight loss, which would be beneficial for this patient.
The patient’s deranged lipid profile is typical of T2DM and can often improve with diet, weight loss, and exercise. Metformin may also have a positive effect on lipids. However, due to her multiple cardiovascular risk factors, she should be considered for statin and possibly aspirin cardioprotection. Aspirin is generally started in female diabetes patients when older than 60 or above with an additional CVD risk factor, but this lady already has moderate obesity, diabetes, hypertension, microvascular complications, is a current smoker, and has a strong family history of heart disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 54 year-old man presents with a 4 month history of impotence, joint pains and malaise. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension, and is currently taking metformin, ramipril and amlodipine. He has a 30 pack-year history and drinks 15-20 units per week. He works as a police officer.
During examination, a palpable 2 cm non-tender liver edge is found in his abdomen. Heart sounds 1 and 2 are present with no added sounds, his pulse is regular and his lung fields are clear.
Blood tests reveal:
Bilirubin 20 µmol/l
ALP 462 u/l
ALT 79 u/l
γGT 98 u/l
Albumin 37 g/l
What is the most appropriate diagnostic investigation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transferrin saturation index
Explanation:The most suitable investigation to diagnose the disease would be genotyping for the HFE gene, along with an assessment of iron accumulation.
Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management
Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy using Perl’s stain.
A typical iron study profile in patients with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation levels, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC. The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may also show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis.
It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene. As HFE gene analysis becomes less expensive, guidelines for investigating and managing haemochromatosis may change.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus is urgently referred to the endocrinology consultant from a Dose Adjustment For Normal Eating (DAFNE) course. The nurse in the course was concerned as the patient, who is in his mid-30s, has experienced three episodes of hypoglycaemia in the past nine months, requiring assistance from his wife to increase his blood glucose levels. He follows a basal bolus regimen of long acting insulin once a night and short acting insulin three times a day, and works in a restaurant. He is an ex-smoker and drinks very little alcohol. Besides adjusting the insulin dose, what is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advise the patient to inform the DVLA and to not drive
Explanation:If a patient with diabetes has experienced two hypoglycaemic episodes that required assistance, they must surrender their driving licence. Severe hypoglycaemia, which requires help to correct, is a cause for concern for the DVLA. If a patient experiences two or more episodes of severe hypoglycaemia, they must inform the DVLA and refrain from driving.
Patients who take insulin must have their driving licence assessed annually. This assessment requires the submission of three months’ worth of blood glucose readings. Patients are advised to check their blood glucose levels before driving and to keep a snack in their vehicle at all times, not just during hypoglycaemic episodes.
Patients should be encouraged to inform the DVLA themselves rather than breaching patient confidentiality. However, if a patient repeatedly fails to do so, the doctor should inform the DVLA after informing the patient of their intentions.
DVLA Regulations for Drivers with Diabetes Mellitus
The DVLA has recently changed its regulations for drivers with diabetes who use insulin. Previously, these individuals were not allowed to hold an HGV license. However, as of October 2011, the following standards must be met for all drivers using hypoglycemic inducing drugs, including sulfonylureas: no severe hypoglycemic events in the past 12 months, full hypoglycemic awareness, regular blood glucose monitoring at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving, an understanding of the risks of hypoglycemia, and no other complications of diabetes.
For those on insulin who wish to apply for an HGV license, they must complete a VDIAB1I form. Group 1 drivers on insulin can still drive a car as long as they have hypoglycemic awareness, no more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance within the past 12 months, and no relevant visual impairment. Drivers on tablets or exenatide do not need to notify the DVLA, but if the tablets may induce hypoglycemia, there must not have been more than one episode requiring assistance within the past 12 months. Those who are diet-controlled alone do not need to inform the DVLA.
To demonstrate adequate control, the Honorary Medical Advisory Panel on Diabetes Mellitus recommends that applicants use blood glucose meters with a memory function to measure and record blood glucose levels for at least three months prior to submitting their application. These regulations aim to ensure the safety of all drivers on the road.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old presents with hypokalaemia on routine blood tests. There is no history of diarrhoea. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and Sjogren's syndrome. They are currently taking hydroxychloroquine and metformin and using topical artificial tears. On examination, there are no notable findings. The blood tests reveal a sodium level of 138 mmol/L (135 - 145), potassium level of 3.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0), urea level of 5.2 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0), and creatinine level of 89 µmol/L (55 - 120). The venous blood gas shows a pH of 7.27 (7.35-7.45), chloride level of 119 mmol/L (96-106), HCO3- level of 12 mmol/L (22-26), and glucose level of 11.4 mmol/L (< 7.8). The urinalysis reveals a pH of 6.2 (4.5-7.8), negative protein, blood, leucocytes, and nitrites. The 24-hour urine calcium collection is 10.2 mmol (< 7.5). What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type 1 renal tubular acidosis
Explanation:Type 1 (distal) renal tubular acidosis can be a result of Sjogren’s syndrome.
The correct diagnosis is Type 1 renal tubular acidosis. The patient’s symptoms include hypokalaemia and a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis. The anion gap is calculated by subtracting the sum of HCO3 and Cl from the sum of K and Na. In this case, the anion gap is 10, which is within the normal range. Additionally, the urine pH is > 5.5 despite a severe acidosis, which is typical of Type 1 RTA. This disorder is often associated with Sjogren’s syndrome and is caused by reduced secretion of H+ in the distal tubule, resulting in the inability to maximally acidify urine. Hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis caused by chronic diarrhoea should be ruled out as it is the most common cause. Hypercalciuria, which is present in this case, may lead to nephrocalcinosis, a common feature of Type 1 RTA.
Diabetic ketoacidosis is an incorrect diagnosis. Patients with type 2 diabetes do not typically develop DKA, which causes a high anion gap metabolic acidosis rather than a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis.
Tubulointerstitial nephritis is also an incorrect diagnosis. This condition refers to inflammation of the renal interstitium and can be caused by various factors, including infections, inflammatory conditions, and medications. Proteinuria, haematuria, and sterile pyuria are typical symptoms, which are not present in this case.
Type 2 renal tubular acidosis is another incorrect diagnosis. This condition is caused by the failure of proximal tubular cells to reabsorb bicarbonate, resulting in a similar normal anion gap metabolic acidosis with a raised urinary pH. It is usually associated with Fanconi syndrome and is not related to Sjogren’s syndrome. Hypercalciuria is not a feature of Type 2 RTA.
Renal tubular acidosis (RTA) is a condition that results in hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis, which is characterized by a normal anion gap. There are three types of RTA, each with its own unique set of causes and complications. Type 1 RTA, also known as distal RTA, is caused by an inability to generate acid urine in the distal tubule, leading to hypokalaemia. This type of RTA can be caused by a variety of factors, including rheumatoid arthritis, SLE, and amphotericin B toxicity. Complications may include nephrocalcinosis and renal stones.
Type 2 RTA, or proximal RTA, is characterized by a decreased reabsorption of HCO3- in the proximal tubule, which also leads to hypokalaemia. This type of RTA can be caused by a variety of factors, including Wilson’s disease and outdated tetracyclines. Complications may include osteomalacia.
Type 3 RTA, or mixed RTA, is an extremely rare form of the condition that is caused by carbonic anhydrase II deficiency. This results in hypokalaemia.
Type 4 RTA, or hyperkalaemic RTA, is caused by a reduction in aldosterone, which leads to a reduction in proximal tubular ammonium excretion. This type of RTA can be caused by hypoaldosteronism and diabetes, and it results in hyperkalaemia.
Overall, RTA is a complex condition that can have a variety of causes and complications. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the underlying cause of the condition and develop an appropriate treatment plan.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of anorexia, feverishness, and vertigo that have been going on for four days. He reports having difficulty balancing and staying upright when walking and experiencing mild vertigo episodes lasting 10-20 minutes. His hearing is unaffected, and he has cervical lymphadenopathy. Other than that, the examination is normal. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vestibular neuronitis
Explanation:A typical scenario for vestibular neuritis involves a person recovering from a respiratory infection who experiences recurring bouts of vertigo accompanied by nausea and vomiting. However, there is no accompanying hearing loss or tinnitus. Prior to the onset of vestibular neuritis, viral symptoms may be present. This condition is characterized by sudden onset vertigo and balance issues, often accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Unlike labyrinthitis, vestibular neuritis does not cause hearing loss or tinnitus. If any of the following red flags are present, urgent referral should be considered: neurological symptoms or signs, sudden deafness, a new type or onset of headache, or vertical nystagmus.
Vertigo is a condition characterized by a false sensation of movement in the body or environment. There are various causes of vertigo, each with its own unique characteristics. Viral labyrinthitis, for example, is typically associated with a recent viral infection, sudden onset, nausea and vomiting, and possible hearing loss. Vestibular neuronitis, on the other hand, is characterized by recurrent vertigo attacks lasting hours or days, but with no hearing loss. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo is triggered by changes in head position and lasts for only a few seconds. Meniere’s disease, meanwhile, is associated with hearing loss, tinnitus, and a feeling of fullness or pressure in the ears. Elderly patients with vertigo may be experiencing vertebrobasilar ischaemia, which is accompanied by dizziness upon neck extension. Acoustic neuroma, which is associated with hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus, is also a possible cause of vertigo. Other causes include posterior circulation stroke, trauma, multiple sclerosis, and ototoxicity from medications like gentamicin.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 48-year-old woman presented to the outpatient clinic with a four-week history of diarrhea and weight loss. She had no significant medical history and was not taking any regular medications. On examination, a smooth, diffusely enlarged mass was palpable over her trachea, which moved upwards on swallowing. Her pulse was regular at 100 beats per minute, and her blood pressure was 135/60 mmHg. Her abdomen was soft and non-tender with active bowel sounds, and a fine tremor was noted.
The following investigations were conducted:
- Serum sodium: 139 mmol/L (137-144)
- Serum potassium: 4.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
- Serum urea: 3.2 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
- Serum creatinine: 89 µmol/L (60-110)
- Plasma T4: 55 nmol/L (58-174)
- Plasma free T4: 9 pmol/L (10-22)
- Plasma TSH: <0.2 mU/L (0.4-5.0)
- Plasma thyroid binding globulin: 22 mg/L (13-28)
- Radioactive iodine uptake was found to be increased.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: T3 thyrotoxicosis
Explanation:Differentiating Between T3 Thyrotoxicosis and Factitious Thyrotoxicosis
Patients who exhibit symptoms and signs of thyrotoxicosis with a suppressed thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) but low thyroid-stimulating hormone (T4) and fT4 may have either T3 thyrotoxicosis or factitious thyrotoxicosis. T3 thyrotoxicosis is characterized by elevated serum T3 and normal or low T4 and fT4 levels, while factitious thyrotoxicosis is caused by the ingestion of large quantities of thyroid hormone and can result in varying levels of T3 and T4 depending on the preparation of the hormone replacement tablets.
In factitious thyrotoxicosis, both T3 and T4 concentrations will be increased if the preparation contains both hormones. Those taking T3 will have elevated serum T3 and depressed T4, while those taking T4 will have elevated T4 and suppressed T3. However, radioactive iodine uptake (RAIU) and plasma thyroid-binding globulin (TBG) will be depressed, and a goitre will not be palpable.
On the other hand, T3 toxicosis should be suspected in patients presenting with symptoms of thyrotoxicosis, including a goitre, in whom serum T4 and fT4 are normal or low, and in whom the RAIU is increased. By differentiating between these two conditions, appropriate treatment can be administered to manage the patient’s symptoms effectively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old patient with chronic kidney disease related to hypertension presents to the clinic. He is managed with a number of anti-hypertensive medications and once-daily insulin to control his blood sugar. He also takes simvastatin and clopidogrel.
On examination, his BP is 150/90 mmHg, pulse is 75 bpm and regular. His chest and abdominal examination are unremarkable.
Investigations reveal the following:
Haemoglobin (Hb) 120 g/l 130–170 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.2 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 180 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 137 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine (Cr) 180 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
Corrected calcium (Ca2+) 2.3 mmol/l 2.2–2.7 mmol/l
Phosphate (PO43-) 1.2 mmol/l 1.12–1.45 mmol/l
Parathyroid hormone (PTH) 8.5 pmol/l 0.9–5.4 pmol/l
What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alphacalcidol
Explanation:Treatment Options for Hyperparathyroidism in Renal Disease
Hyperparathyroidism in renal disease can be managed with various treatment options. One such option is the use of alphacalcidol, which addresses the low levels of 1, 25-OH vitamin D that contribute to increased PTH. If alphacalcidol fails to reduce PTH levels, surgery may be considered. Calcitonin is another option, used for hypercalcaemia or osteoporosis by inhibiting bone resorption and cartilage degradation. Ergocalciferol, or vitamin D2, is used to prevent and treat vitamin D deficiency but is inactive and not recommended. Sevelamer, a phosphate-binding agent, is not recommended in this scenario due to normal phosphate levels and potential side effects. Finally, cinacalcet, a PTH antagonist, is only recommended for patients on dialysis who are not fit for surgery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 17-year-old boy from Iran presents to the emergency department with dyspnoea, dry cough, and fevers. On arrival, his oxygen saturations are 91% with a respiratory rate of 27/minute. His blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg and heart rate 89/minute. There are widespread crackles on auscultation.
What is the most probable underlying diagnosis that unifies his symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyper IgM syndrome
Explanation:The patient’s presentation with pneumocystis pneumonia suggests an underlying immune deficiency, specifically hyper IgM syndrome. This syndrome is a group of disorders that result in defective class-switch recombination, leading to elevated levels of serum IgM and low levels of IgG and IgA. The most common form is an X-linked recessive trait caused by a mutation in the CD40LG gene, affecting approximately 2 out of 1,000,000 males. The primary mechanism involves impaired immune signaling between T and B cells, resulting in a primary immune deficiency.
Hyper IgM syndrome typically presents in infancy with severe acute infections such as pneumocystis pneumonia or cryptosporidium, or chronic infections throughout childhood with failure to thrive. Patients with this syndrome are also at increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma, cholangiocarcinoma, and neuroectodermal tumors. Additionally, some patients may present with autoimmune diseases such as inflammatory bowel disease.
Acute lymphoblastic leukemia is unlikely given the patient’s long history of recurrent infections, and HIV is less likely as the patient denies any risk factors or exposure. While cryptosporidium is commonly associated with hyper IgM syndrome and may explain the patient’s recurrent gastroenteritis, it does not account for their current presentation. Given the patient’s history of opportunistic infections, further investigation into potential causes of immunodeficiency is warranted.
Overview of Primary Immunodeficiency Disorders
Primary immunodeficiency disorders are conditions that affect the immune system’s ability to fight off infections and diseases. These disorders can be classified based on which component of the immune system is affected. Neutrophil disorders, for example, are caused by a lack of NADPH oxidase, which reduces the ability of phagocytes to produce reactive oxygen species. This leads to recurrent pneumonias and abscesses, particularly due to catalase-positive bacteria and fungi. B-cell disorders, on the other hand, are caused by defects in B cell development, resulting in low antibody levels and recurrent infections. T-cell disorders are caused by defects in T cell development, leading to recurrent viral and fungal diseases. Finally, combined B- and T-cell disorders are caused by defects in both B and T cell development, resulting in recurrent infections and an increased risk of malignancy. Understanding the underlying defects and symptoms of these disorders is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 23-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 3-hour history of excruciating pain in her lower legs. She has a history of sickle cell disease for which she takes medication. She received oral ibuprofen as prehospital analgesia but still complains of severe pain.
On examination, her blood pressure is 110/80 mmHg and her heart rate is 95 bpm and regular. Her chest sounds are clear, and her oxygen saturations are 96% on air. Her abdomen is soft and non-tender. There is severe tenderness on palpation of her lower legs.
What is the most appropriate analgesia for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous (IV) diamorphine
Explanation:Pain Management Options for Sickle Cell Crisis
When it comes to managing the severe pain associated with sickle cell crisis, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends the use of a strong opiate delivered intravenously (IV). Inhaled nitrous oxide is not effective for this type of pain, as it is typically used in surgery and dentistry. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like naproxen are not recommended for initial management. While patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) is often necessary for optimal pain control, it is typically diamorphine rather than fentanyl. Oral morphine is not a suitable option due to the time it takes to achieve adequate pain relief. Overall, IV diamorphine is the preferred method for managing pain during a sickle cell crisis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old patient presents to the Emergency Department with shortness of breath that began last night. He is having trouble providing a history as he experiences pain in his lower jaw when attempting to speak. Upon examination, he appears anxious, febrile, and dyspnoeic. His lower jaw is tender, swollen, inflamed, and oedematous.
What is the initial course of action in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Call for an anaesthetist
Explanation:Management of a Patient with Ludwig’s Angina
When managing a patient with Ludwig’s angina, it is important to take immediate action to prevent airway obstruction. The infection, which typically starts in an infected lower molar, can rapidly spread to the sublingual and submandibular spaces, as well as the supraglottic tissues.
The first step is to call for an anaesthetist to assess the patient’s airway and provide definitive management as required. Once the airway is secured, intravenous antibiotics that are active against streptococci and oral anaerobes should be started.
To assess the extent of the infection, it is important to examine the inside of the patient’s mouth with a spatula. Additionally, an urgent chest X-ray should be requested to monitor for any signs of airway obstruction.
While routine bloods, including U/E, FBC, and CRP, can be helpful in tracking the patient’s progress over time, they are not an immediate priority. The focus should be on managing the airway and administering appropriate antibiotics to prevent further spread of the infection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset lower limb weakness and increasing mid-back pain over the past two weeks. She last passed urine the previous night and had a bowel movement a few days ago. She is unable to get out of bed this morning. Her medical history includes hypertension and a 15 pack-year smoking history. She underwent surgery for a locally spreading tumor 18 months ago at another hospital. On examination, she appears anxious but otherwise well. Neurological examination reveals increased tone in the lower limbs, no leg power, a sensory level at T6 to light touch and pinprick, brisk knee and ankle reflexes, upgoing plantars, and normal upper limbs and central nervous system. Chest X-ray shows multiple well-circumscribed lesions in the lungs. A urinary catheter is inserted, and 1.4 liters of urine is drained out. A preliminary diagnosis of cord compression is made, and magnetic resonance imaging is scheduled. What is the most likely primary cancer responsible for this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Cannonball Metastases
Cannonball metastases, characterized by multiple well-circumscribed lesions in the lung, can be caused by various primary tumors. In this case, the presence of bone metastases to the spine suggests an advanced stage of cancer. Here is a differential diagnosis of the possible primary tumors that could cause cannonball metastases:
Renal cell carcinoma is the most common cause of cannonball metastases, accounting for roughly 20-25% of cases. It often metastasizes to the bone, as seen in this patient.
Breast cancer can also spread to the bone in 60-75% of advanced cases, but it is an uncommon cause of cannonball metastases.
Endometrial cancer can cause cannonball lung metastases, but it is unlikely to be the primary tumor in this patient.
Lung cancer can commonly metastasize to the bone, but the well-circumscribed lesions seen on the chest X-ray are not typical of primary lung cancer.
Melanoma can metastasize to the bone, but it is unlikely to cause the appearances seen on this patient’s chest X-ray.
In conclusion, the differential diagnosis of cannonball metastases includes renal cell carcinoma, breast cancer, endometrial cancer, lung cancer, and melanoma. Further diagnostic tests, such as biopsy and imaging, are necessary to determine the primary tumor and guide treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 58-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with central chest pain. He reports feeling a heavy pressure in the middle of his chest that extends to his left arm. He has used his GTN spray, but only two puffs as he is worried about getting a headache. The patient has a history of angina, a previous heart attack three years ago, and is currently a smoker with a 25 pack-year history.
The patient's ECG shows ST depression in V3 to V5 of 2mm, pathological Q waves, and T wave inversion. His troponin level is elevated at 350 ng/L. He is given aspirin, clopidogrel, and morphine, which helps alleviate his pain. His GRACE score is high at 122, indicating a 7.9% chance of death within six months. After consulting with the cardiology registrar, he will undergo an angiogram within 12 hours. What is the next step in managing his acute coronary syndrome?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Unfractionated heparin
Explanation:The recommended anticoagulant for a patient with NSTEMI who requires urgent angiography is unfractionated heparin. While aspirin and clopidogrel should be administered immediately, fondaparinux is typically used unless the patient is at high risk of bleeding or angiography is scheduled within 24 hours. However, if angiography is planned, unfractionated heparin is preferred due to the increased risk of haematoma formation associated with fondaparinux compared to unfractionated heparin, which has a shorter half-life.
Heparin is a type of anticoagulant medication that comes in two main forms: unfractionated heparin and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). Both types work by activating antithrombin III, but unfractionated heparin forms a complex that inhibits thrombin, factors Xa, IXa, XIa, and XIIa, while LMWH only increases the action of antithrombin III on factor Xa. Adverse effects of heparins include bleeding, thrombocytopenia, osteoporosis, and hyperkalemia. LMWH has a lower risk of causing heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) and osteoporosis compared to unfractionated heparin. HIT is an immune-mediated condition where antibodies form against complexes of platelet factor 4 (PF4) and heparin, leading to platelet activation and a prothrombotic state. Treatment for HIT includes direct thrombin inhibitors or danaparoid. Heparin overdose can be partially reversed by protamine sulfate.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old woman presents with a three-month history of diplopia and blurred vision in her left eye. She reports no pain or other neurological symptoms and has no significant medical history except for smoking 20 cigarettes per day and drinking alcohol in moderation.
During her examination, her right eye has a visual acuity of 6/6 while her left eye is only 6/36. She has left partial ptosis and mild proptosis with conjunctival injection. The left pupil is smaller than the right but reacts normally to light. There is some limitation of abduction of the left eye, and fundoscopy reveals a pale left optic disc. The left corneal reflex is reduced, but the remainder of her neurological examination is normal.
Routine blood tests, including a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, thyroid function, serum calcium, serum creatine kinase, and autoantibody screen, were all normal. Her electrocardiogram and chest radiograph showed no abnormalities. Slit lamp examination was normal, and intraocular pressures were within the normal range.
Based on these findings, where is the most likely site of the lesion causing her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Orbital apex
Explanation:Orbital Apex Syndrome
Orbital apex syndrome is a medical condition characterized by a combination of symptoms such as optic neuropathy, proptosis, chemosis, Horner’s syndrome, ophthalmoplegia, and involvement of the first branch of the trigeminal nerve. This syndrome is caused by a disease process that results in partial defects in the nerves. It is important to note that the diagnosis of orbital apex syndrome is not based on the presence or absence of function in a particular nerve, but rather on the pattern of involvement.
To better understand this condition, it is essential to recognize the various symptoms that may occur. Optic neuropathy refers to damage to the optic nerve, which can cause vision loss. Proptosis is the protrusion of the eyeball from its socket, while chemosis is the swelling of the conjunctiva. Horner’s syndrome is a condition that affects the sympathetic nervous system, resulting in drooping eyelids and a constricted pupil. Ophthalmoplegia is the paralysis or weakness of the eye muscles, which can cause double vision or difficulty moving the eyes.
In summary, orbital apex syndrome is a complex medical condition that requires careful diagnosis and management. By the various symptoms and patterns of involvement, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate treatment and support to those affected by this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medical Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old Somali male presents on the medical take with a severe generalised headache associated with nausea and vomiting. He has been living in the UK for the last 10 years. He was diagnosed with HIV 5 years ago and has been well maintained on therapy with an undetectable viral load and a CD4 count of 500 cells/mm3.
He has a long history of headaches since the age of 12 which are normally controlled with simple analgesia. Over the last 2 days he has been suffering with a particularly bad attack which culminated in him becoming aggressive and vomiting profusely. He was noted to have a tonic-clonic seizure whilst in accident and emergency which resolved with diazepam.
Clinical examination reveals a pulse of 78 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 130/90, oxygen saturations of 98% on air and a temperature of 36.8 degrees. There was no focal neurological defects.
A CT scan subsequently showed cystic and calcified lesions within the brain and mild hydrocephalus.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neurocysticercosis
Explanation:Cysticercosis is a condition caused by the larval stage of the Taenia solium tapeworm. It can lead to neurocysticercosis (NCC) and extraneural cysticercosis, with NCC being a significant cause of adult-onset seizures in endemic areas.
The transmission of cysticercosis occurs when a person ingests T. solium eggs from the stool of a human tapeworm carrier. The embryos (oncospheres) hatch in the small intestine, invade the bowel wall, and spread through the bloodstream to the brain, muscle, liver, and other tissues. Cysts in the brain can cause NCC and potentially lead to hydrocephalus if they obstruct the outflow of cerebrospinal fluid from the ventricles. The condition can develop over a prolonged period.
This question requires knowledge of the relevant condition and the ability to think beyond the fact that the patient has HIV. Cryptococcosis and TB meningitis are unlikely due to the early diagnosis and good control of HIV. Human African trypanosomiasis can be ruled out based on the patient’s location and the presence of calcified lesions on the CT scan, which is unusual for this condition. Lymphoma typically presents with progressive focal neurology and is unlikely to show calcified lesions in the brain. Therefore, the most likely diagnosis is neurocisticercosis.
Helminths are a group of parasitic worms that can infect humans and cause various diseases. Nematodes, also known as roundworms, are one type of helminth. Strongyloides stercoralis is a type of roundworm that enters the body through the skin and can cause symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and skin lesions. Treatment for this infection typically involves the use of ivermectin or benzimidazoles. Enterobius vermicularis, also known as pinworm, is another type of roundworm that can cause perianal itching and other symptoms. Diagnosis is made by examining sticky tape applied to the perianal area. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.
Hookworms, such as Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus, are another type of roundworm that can cause gastrointestinal infections and anemia. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles. Loa loa is a type of roundworm that is transmitted by deer fly and mango fly and can cause red, itchy swellings called Calabar swellings. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Trichinella spiralis is a type of roundworm that can develop after eating raw pork and can cause fever, periorbital edema, and myositis. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.
Onchocerca volvulus is a type of roundworm that causes river blindness and is spread by female blackflies. Treatment involves the use of ivermectin. Wuchereria bancrofti is another type of roundworm that is transmitted by female mosquitoes and can cause blockage of lymphatics and elephantiasis. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Toxocara canis, also known as dog roundworm, is transmitted through ingestion of infective eggs and can cause visceral larva migrans and retinal granulomas. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Ascaris lumbricoides, also known as giant roundworm, can cause intestinal obstruction and occasionally migrate to the lung. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.
Cestodes, also known as tapeworms, are another type of helminth. Echinococcus granulosus is a tapeworm that is transmitted through ingestion of eggs in dog feces and can cause liver cysts and anaphylaxis if the cyst ruptures
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman presents with dyspnoea and pleuritic chest pain. An elevated D-dimer and subsequent CTPA reveal a pulmonary embolism. She has a history of giving birth to her daughter 18 months ago (full term, vaginal delivery) and anxiety. Her 52-year-old mother has had two deep vein thromboses in the past 10 years. What is the most probable underlying cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Factor V Leiden
Explanation:Testing for thrombophilia is recommended by NICE when there is a family history and an unprovoked venous thromboembolism, with activated protein C resistance (Factor V Leiden) being the most prevalent inherited thrombophilia.
Thrombophilia is a condition that causes an increased risk of blood clots. It can be inherited or acquired. Inherited thrombophilia is caused by genetic mutations that affect the body’s natural ability to prevent blood clots. The most common cause of inherited thrombophilia is a gain of function polymorphism called factor V Leiden, which affects the protein that helps regulate blood clotting. Other genetic mutations that can cause thrombophilia include deficiencies of naturally occurring anticoagulants such as antithrombin III, protein C, and protein S. The prevalence and relative risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE) vary depending on the specific genetic mutation.
Acquired thrombophilia can be caused by conditions such as antiphospholipid syndrome or the use of certain medications, such as the combined oral contraceptive pill. These conditions can affect the body’s natural ability to prevent blood clots and increase the risk of VTE. It is important to identify and manage thrombophilia to prevent serious complications such as deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 56-year-old woman has been admitted to the hospital with concerns of possible lupus nephritis after recent blood tests showed an acute kidney injury. Her medical history includes systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), two prior transient ischaemic attacks, hypertension, and obesity. She regularly takes hydroxychloroquine, clopidogrel, and ramipril.
The renal team plans to perform a renal biopsy to investigate the presence of lupus nephritis and has requested an ultrasound before the procedure.
Renal Ultrasound: The right renal pelvis appears dilated, raising concerns for hydronephrosis. There is no visible obstruction or underlying collection. Both kidneys appear atrophic.
What is an absolute contraindication to the procedure?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hydronephrosis
Explanation:Before undergoing a renal biopsy, patients must undergo a renal tract ultrasound to determine any absolute contraindications such as hydronephrosis, polycystic kidneys, urinary tract obstruction, uncontrolled hypertension, significant renal malignancy, or significant bleeding disorders. Antiplatelet therapy is a relative contraindication, but can still be performed if the benefits outweigh the risks of bleeding. Uncontrolled hypertension is an absolute contraindication due to the increased risk of severe bleeding. Obesity is also a relative contraindication due to the difficulty in performing the biopsy.
Glomerulonephritis is a complex subject, but understanding a few key facts can help. Typically, it presents with nephritic syndrome, which includes symptoms like haematuria and hypertension. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis, also known as crescentic glomerulonephritis, has a sudden onset and often presents as acute kidney injury. It can be caused by conditions like Goodpasture’s or ANCA positive vasculitis. IgA nephropathy, also called Berger’s disease or mesangioproliferative GN, typically affects young adults and is characterized by haematuria following an upper respiratory tract infection. There is significant overlap with Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP).
Some glomerulonephritides have a mixed nephritic/nephrotic presentation. Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, which is the most common form of renal disease in SLE, typically presents as nephritic syndrome or acute kidney injury. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (mesangiocapillary) has two types: type 1 is associated with cryoglobulinaemia and hepatitis C, while type 2 is associated with partial lipodystrophy.
Other glomerulonephritides typically present with nephrotic syndrome, which includes symptoms like proteinuria and oedema. Minimal change disease, which accounts for 80% of cases in children, is often caused by Hodgkin’s or NSAIDs and responds well to steroids. Membranous glomerulonephritis can be caused by infections, rheumatoid drugs, or malignancy and may resolve, respond to cytotoxics, or develop into chronic kidney disease. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis may be idiopathic or secondary to HIV or heroin and presents with proteinuria, nephrotic syndrome, or chronic kidney disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old Indian male presents with left loin pain and occasional frank haematuria. He reports the symptoms started 3 months ago during a visit to Mumbai but have been getting progressively worse over the past 5 days. He also reports gradual weight loss and reduced appetite as well as a non-productive cough.
His past medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia. On examination, his temperature is 37.8 degrees and he is haemodynamically stable.
Abdominal examination reveals a significant swelling in his left scrotum, which does not empty on lying flat. The abdomen is otherwise soft and bowel sounds are present are normal. Lastly, bilateral lower limb swelling is noted to the top of both thighs. A urine dip reveals pH 6.5 4+ blood 1+ protein 1+ leucocyte 1+ nitrite. An initial chest radiograph reveals multiple round opacities in both lung fields. Blood tests are awaited.
Which diagnostic test is most likely to uncover the underlying condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CT abdomen with contrast
Explanation:If a left-sided varicocele is present, it may indicate compression on the left testicular vein. If bilateral lower limb swelling occurs without obvious right heart failure, it could be a sign of obstruction in the inferior vena cava. This is a common site for malignant cells to spread from renal cell carcinoma to the lungs.
Although it is possible for miliary tuberculosis to cause bilateral lung abnormalities, cystitis, and sterile TB pyuria, the presence of IVC obstruction symptoms and bilateral rounded lung opacities would be unusual.
Renal cell cancer, also known as hypernephroma, is a primary renal neoplasm that accounts for 85% of cases. It originates from the proximal renal tubular epithelium and is commonly associated with smoking and conditions such as von Hippel-Lindau syndrome and tuberous sclerosis. The clear cell subtype is the most prevalent, comprising 75-85% of tumors.
Renal cell cancer is more common in middle-aged men and may present with classical symptoms such as haematuria, loin pain, and an abdominal mass. Other features include endocrine effects, such as the secretion of erythropoietin, parathyroid hormone-related protein, renin, and ACTH. Metastases are present in 25% of cases at presentation, and paraneoplastic syndromes such as Stauffer syndrome may also occur.
The T category criteria for renal cell cancer are based on tumor size and extent of invasion. Management options include partial or total nephrectomy, depending on the tumor size and extent of disease. Patients with a T1 tumor are typically offered a partial nephrectomy, while alpha-interferon and interleukin-2 may be used to reduce tumor size and treat metastases. Receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitors such as sorafenib and sunitinib have shown superior efficacy compared to interferon-alpha.
In summary, renal cell cancer is a common primary renal neoplasm that is associated with various risk factors and may present with classical symptoms and endocrine effects. Management options depend on the extent of disease and may include surgery and targeted therapies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 43-year-old man has been receiving thrice weekly haemodialysis for the past 10 days through a subclavian line. However, over the last two days, he has been experiencing frequent clotting of the line and has noticed some red skin lesions. Four years ago, he had a deep vein thrombosis when he was nephrotic, which was treated with low molecular weight heparin and warfarin. He is currently taking erythropoietin (EPO) and alphacalcidol, and unfractionated heparin is being used for both the subclavian and dialysis lines. On examination, several necrotic skin lesions were found on his lower legs. Further investigations revealed thrombocytopenia and abnormal coagulation parameters. What should be the next step in his management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Therapeutic lepirudin and stop heparin
Explanation:Heparin Induced Thrombocytopenia: A Transient Prothrombotic Disorder
Heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is a condition that is initiated by heparin and is characterized by a significant decrease in platelet count and increased thrombin production. This disorder usually occurs between days five to 10 of starting heparin, but can occur earlier if previously exposed. HIT is a transient prothrombotic disorder that can lead to both arterial and venous thrombosis. The management of HIT involves stopping heparin and commencing full dose anticoagulation with an alternative, such as lepirudin or danaparoid. Warfarin should not be used until the platelet count has recovered. An alternative anticoagulant must be continued until the international normalized ratio (INR) is therapeutic for two consecutive days. Recent guidelines on HIT can be found at the website of the British Society for Haematology.
In summary, HIT is a condition that can occur due to heparin use and is characterized by a significant decrease in platelet count and increased thrombin production. It is a transient prothrombotic disorder that can lead to both arterial and venous thrombosis. The management of HIT involves stopping heparin and commencing full dose anticoagulation with an alternative, such as lepirudin or danaparoid. Warfarin should not be used until the platelet count has recovered. It is important to follow recent guidelines on HIT to ensure proper management of this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A patient with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome consults about the risk of their 18-year-old child being born with the condition.
Which of the following patterns of inheritance should you describe?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant
Explanation:Inheritance and Genetic Mutation of Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, which means that there is a 50% chance that offspring will inherit the condition. The mutation responsible for this syndrome is found in the STK11 gene. However, in some cases, the mutation occurs spontaneously and affects the same gene.
It is important to note that Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that causes the development of polyps in the digestive tract and other parts of the body. These polyps can lead to complications such as intestinal obstruction, bleeding, and an increased risk of cancer. Therefore, early diagnosis and management of this condition are crucial for the affected individuals and their families.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman with a long history of Crohn's disease presents at the clinic for follow-up. She is currently 16 weeks pregnant and has been taking 100mg BD of azathioprine to manage her Crohn's disease, which is stable at the moment. Her bowel movements are normal, with a formed motion, and she goes 2-3 times a day. Upon clinical examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender, with no palpable masses, and bowel sounds are normal.
Hb 110 g/l Na+ 139 mmol/l
Platelets 180 * 109/l K+ 4.0 mmol/l
WBC 6.7 * 109/l Urea 7 mmol/l
Neuts 3.2 * 109/l Creatinine 80 µmol/l
Lymphs 1.4 * 109/l CRP 10 mg/l
Eosin 0.7 * 109/l
What is the most appropriate management plan for her Crohn's disease?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue azathioprine
Explanation:Extensive data has been gathered on the use of azathioprine in pregnant women with underlying inflammatory bowel disease, arthritis, or skin disease. Although this data comes from registries and is not as reliable as a randomized controlled trial, it does not indicate a significant increase in the risk of birth defects associated with azathioprine use. Therefore, the BGS recommends continuing to use azathioprine.
Methotrexate is known to cause birth defects and should not be used during pregnancy. Long-term use of corticosteroids during pregnancy is also not recommended due to adverse effects such as weight gain and reduced bone mineral density. However, corticosteroids may still be used to manage flare-ups while on azathioprine. It is not advisable to stop all immunosuppressants as this could worsen Crohn’s disease.
Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines for managing this condition. Patients are advised to quit smoking, as it can worsen Crohn’s disease. While some studies suggest that NSAIDs and the combined oral contraceptive pill may increase the risk of relapse, the evidence is not conclusive.
To induce remission, glucocorticoids are typically used, but budesonide may be an alternative for some patients. Enteral feeding with an elemental diet may also be used, especially in young children or when there are concerns about steroid side effects. Second-line options include 5-ASA drugs, such as mesalazine, and add-on medications like azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Infliximab is useful for refractory disease and fistulating Crohn’s, and metronidazole is often used for isolated peri-anal disease.
Maintaining remission involves stopping smoking and using azathioprine or mercaptopurine as first-line options. Methotrexate is a second-line option. Surgery is eventually required for around 80% of patients with Crohn’s disease, depending on the location and severity of the disease. Complications of Crohn’s disease include small bowel cancer, colorectal cancer, and osteoporosis. Before offering azathioprine or mercaptopurine, it is important to assess thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) activity.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old female patient arrives at the Emergency department complaining of palpitations. She reports feeling generally tired and unwell during these episodes, but has not experienced syncope or presyncope. Her blood pressure is 120/70 mmHg and her heart rate is irregular at 100 beats per minute. She has been experiencing these symptoms for several months and has undergone three DC cardioversions in the past. The patient is currently taking sotalol 80 mg twice daily and warfarin. An echocardiogram reveals normal left ventricular size and function, but an enlarged left atrial size. What is the most effective long-term treatment option at this point?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for consideration of atrial fibrillation ablation
Explanation:Treatment Options for Atrial Fibrillation
This patient’s arrhythmia is not likely caused by ischaemia, so an angiogram or stress echocardiogram would not be helpful. Additionally, the patient’s age makes ischaemia even less likely. The patient’s enlarged left atrial size suggests that a repeat DC cardioversion is unlikely to be effective for a sustained period, especially since two previous cardioversions have already been attempted. Furthermore, since the patient is experiencing tachycardia rather than bradycardia, a pacemaker would not be beneficial. Instead, the patient should be considered for atrial fibrillation ablation, which would provide a longer-term solution for their symptomatic atrial fibrillation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A patient with a mass in the stomach is diagnosed with a GIST. What is the origin cell of GISTs?
The answer to this question lies in understanding the cellular makeup of GISTs.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Interstitial cells of Cajal
Explanation:Gastric GISTs and their Origins
Gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GISTs) are commonly found in the stomach, with the interstitial cells of Cajal within Auerbach’s plexus believed to be their source. However, GISTs can also occur in other locations, with 60% found in the small bowel, 30% in the esophagus, and 10% in the rectum.
Initially, GISTs were misidentified as tumors originating from smooth muscle cells, such as leiomyosarcomas or leiomyomas. This is because there is no striated muscle within the stomach. However, further research has shown that GISTs are actually a distinct type of tumor that arises from the interstitial cells of Cajal, which are responsible for regulating the contractions of the gastrointestinal tract.
In summary, GISTs are a type of tumor that can occur in various locations within the gastrointestinal tract, with the stomach being the most common site. They originate from the interstitial cells of Cajal and were previously misidentified as smooth muscle tumors.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old woman visits the Cardiology Clinic for a check-up after experiencing an inferior STEMI six weeks ago and receiving a stent. She is currently taking 80 mg atorvastatin, 75 mg aspirin, 75 mg clopidogrel, and 2.5 mg bisoprolol. After reading an article online, she asks for your opinion on whether vitamin E is beneficial for individuals who have had a previous heart attack. What advice would you give to this patient regarding vitamin E?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is no evidence that it is beneficial
Explanation:Vitamin E supplementation has been widely promoted for its potential cardiovascular benefits. However, the Heart Outcomes Prevention Evaluation (HOPE) study, a large randomized trial, showed no significant differences in cardiovascular events between the vitamin E group and the placebo group. This lack of evidence was further supported by the HOPE-TOO study, which also found no significant differences between the two groups.Moreover, large cardiovascular outcome studies in patients with diabetes have shown no positive impact of vitamin E in preventing ischemic events. In fact, a study has suggested that consumption of more than 60U/day may increase the risk of hemorrhagic stroke.Therefore, a dose of 400 U/day of vitamin E, which is higher than the suggested threshold for pharmaceutical supplementation, has no role as a therapy. A lower dose of 400 U of vitamin E weekly is unlikely to have a positive or negative benefit. Overall, there is no evidence to support the use of vitamin E supplementation for reducing the incidence of strokes or other cardiovascular events.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)