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  • Question 1 - A 70-year old man is being evaluated by the respiratory team for progressive...

    Correct

    • A 70-year old man is being evaluated by the respiratory team for progressive cough and shortness of breath over the last 10 months. He has no history of smoking and is typically healthy. The only notable change in his lifestyle is that he recently started breeding pigeons after retiring. Upon examination, the patient is diagnosed with interstitial pneumonia.
      What is the most frequently linked organism with interstitial pneumonia?

      Your Answer: Mycoplasma

      Explanation:

      Types of Bacterial Pneumonia and Their Patterns in the Lung

      Bacterial pneumonia can be caused by various organisms, each with their own unique patterns in the lung. Mycoplasma, viruses like RSV and CMV, and fungal infections like histoplasmosis typically cause interstitial patterns in the lung. Haemophilus influenzae, Staphylococcus, Pneumococcus, Escherichia coli, and Klebsiella all typically have the same alveolar pattern, with Klebsiella often causing an aggressive, necrotizing lobar pneumonia. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of typical bacterial pneumonia, while Staphylococcus aureus pneumonia is typically of the alveolar type and seen in intravenous drug users or patients with underlying debilitating conditions. Mycoplasma pneumonia may also have extra-pulmonary manifestations. These conditions are sometimes referred to as atypical pneumonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      153.5
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  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old female with a 10 year history of asthma presents with increasing...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female with a 10 year history of asthma presents with increasing dyspnoea after returning from a trip to Australia. She has not had a period in three months. On examination, she has a fever of 37.5°C, a pulse rate of 110/min, a blood pressure of 106/74 mmHg, and saturations of 93% on room air. Her respiratory rate is 24/min and auscultation of the chest reveals vesicular breath sounds. Peak flow is 500 L/min and her ECG shows no abnormalities except for a heart rate of 110 bpm. A chest x-ray is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary embolism

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors and Symptoms of Pulmonary Embolism

      This patient presents with multiple risk factors for pulmonary embolism, including air travel and likely pregnancy. She is experiencing tachycardia and hypoxia, which require further explanation. However, there are no indications of a respiratory tract infection or acute asthma. It is important to note that an ECG and CXR may appear normal in cases of pulmonary embolism or may only show baseline tachycardia on the ECG. Therefore, it is crucial to consider the patient’s risk factors and symptoms when evaluating for pulmonary embolism. Proper diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent potentially life-threatening complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      17.9
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  • Question 3 - A 30-year-old woman comes to the General Practice Clinic complaining of feeling unwell...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman comes to the General Practice Clinic complaining of feeling unwell for the past few days. She has been experiencing nasal discharge, sneezing, fatigue, and a cough. Her 3-year-old daughter recently recovered from very similar symptoms. During the examination, her pulse rate is 62 bpm, respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute, and temperature 37.2 °C. What is the probable causative organism for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Rhinovirus

      Explanation:

      Identifying the Most Common Causative Organisms of the Common Cold

      The common cold is a viral infection that affects millions of people worldwide. Among the different viruses that can cause the common cold, rhinoviruses are the most common, responsible for 30-50% of cases annually. influenzae viruses can also cause milder symptoms that overlap with those of the common cold, accounting for 5-15% of cases. Adenoviruses and enteroviruses are less common causes, accounting for less than 5% of cases each. Respiratory syncytial virus is also a rare cause of the common cold, accounting for only 5% of cases annually. When trying to identify the causative organism of a common cold, it is important to consider the patient’s symptoms, recent exposure to sick individuals, and prevalence of different viruses in the community.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      48.6
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  • Question 4 - A 10-year-old boy comes to the GP clinic with his father for an...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy comes to the GP clinic with his father for an asthma check-up. He is currently on Clenil® Modulite® (beclomethasone) 100 μg twice daily as a preventer inhaler, but still needs to use his salbutamol inhaler 2-3 times a day. During the examination, he is able to complete sentences, not using any accessory muscles of respiration, his oxygen saturation is 99%, his chest is clear, and PEFR is 85% of his predicted value. What is the recommended next step in managing this patient according to the latest BTS guidelines?

      Your Answer: Add formoterol a long-acting beta agonist (LABA)

      Explanation:

      Managing Pediatric Asthma: Choosing the Next Step in Treatment

      When treating pediatric asthma, it is important to follow guidelines to ensure the best possible outcomes for the patient. According to the 2019 SIGN/BTS guidelines, the next step after low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be to add a long-acting beta agonist (LABA) or leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) in addition to ICS. However, it is important to note that the NICE guidelines differ in that LTRA is recommended before LABA.

      If the patient does not respond adequately to LABA and a trial of LTRA does not yield benefit, referral to a pediatrician is advised. Increasing the dose of ICS should only be considered after the addition of LTRA or LABA.

      It is crucial to never stop ICS therapy, as adherence to therapy is a guiding principle in managing pediatric asthma. LABAs should never be used alone without ICS, as this has been linked to life-threatening asthma exacerbations. Always follow guidelines and consult with a pediatrician for the best possible treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      77.4
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  • Question 5 - A 75-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) comes in for a...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) comes in for a review of his home oxygen therapy. The results of his arterial blood gas (ABG) are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal range
      pH 7.34 7.35–7.45
      pa(O2) 8.0 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
      pa(CO2) 7.6 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
      HCO3- 36 mmol 24–30 mmol/l
      Base excess +4 mmol −2 to +2 mmol
      What is the best interpretation of this man's ABG results?

      Your Answer: Respiratory acidosis with partial metabolic compensation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) Results: A Five-Step Approach

      Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) results provide valuable information about a patient’s acid-base balance and oxygenation status. Understanding ABG results requires a systematic approach. The Resuscitation Council (UK) recommends a five-step approach to assessing ABGs.

      Step 1: Assess the patient and their oxygenation status. A pa(O2) level of >10 kPa is considered normal.

      Step 2: Determine if the patient is acidotic (pH <7.35) or alkalotic (pH >7.45).

      Step 3: Evaluate the respiratory component of the acid-base balance. A high pa(CO2) level (>6.0) suggests respiratory acidosis or compensation for metabolic alkalosis, while a low pa(CO2) level (<4.5) suggests respiratory alkalosis or compensation for metabolic acidosis. Step 4: Evaluate the metabolic component of the acid-base balance. A high bicarbonate (HCO3) level (>26 mmol) suggests metabolic alkalosis or renal compensation for respiratory acidosis, while a low bicarbonate level (<22 mmol) suggests metabolic acidosis or renal compensation for respiratory alkalosis. Step 5: Interpret the results in the context of the patient’s clinical history and presentation. It is important to note that ABG results should not be interpreted in isolation. A thorough clinical assessment is necessary to fully understand a patient’s acid-base balance and oxygenation status.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      45.3
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  • Question 6 - A 67-year-old woman has had bowel surgery two days ago. She is currently...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman has had bowel surgery two days ago. She is currently on postoperative day one, and you are called to see her as she has developed sudden-onset shortness of breath. She denies any coughing but complains of chest discomfort. The surgical scar appears clean. Upon examination, the patient is afebrile; vital signs are stable other than rapid and irregular heartbeat and upon auscultation, the chest sounds are clear. The patient does not have any other significant past medical history, aside from her breast cancer for which she had a mastectomy five years ago. She has no family history of any heart disease.
      What is the patient’s most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary embolism

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Sudden Onset Shortness of Breath postoperatively

      When a patient experiences sudden onset shortness of breath postoperatively, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. One possible diagnosis is pulmonary embolism, which is supported by the patient’s chest discomfort. Anaphylaxis is another potential diagnosis, but there is no mention of an allergen exposure or other signs of a severe allergic reaction. Pneumonia is unlikely given the absence of fever and clear chest sounds. Lung fibrosis is also an unlikely diagnosis as it typically presents gradually and is associated with restrictive respiratory diseases. Finally, cellulitis is not a probable diagnosis as there are no signs of infection and the surgical wound is clean. Overall, a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying cause of the patient’s sudden onset shortness of breath.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      19.7
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  • Question 7 - A 62-year-old man presents to Accident and Emergency with complaints of chest pain...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old man presents to Accident and Emergency with complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath, which is predominantly worse on the right side. He has been experiencing these symptoms for about 24 hours, but they have worsened since he woke up this morning. The patient reports that the pain is worse on inspiration and that he has never experienced chest pain before. He is mostly bedridden due to obesity but has no history of respiratory issues. The patient is currently receiving treatment for newly diagnosed prostate cancer. There is a high suspicion that he may have a pulmonary embolus (PE). His vital signs are as follows:
      Temperature 36.5 °C
      Blood pressure 136/82 mmHg
      Heart rate 124 bpm
      Saturations 94% on room air
      His 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) shows sinus tachycardia and nothing else.
      What would be the most appropriate initial step in managing this case?

      Your Answer: Rivaroxaban

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Suspected Pulmonary Embolism

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious medical condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. In cases where there is a high clinical suspicion of a PE, treatment with treatment-dose direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) such as rivaroxaban or apixaban or low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) should be administered before diagnostic confirmation of a PE on computed tomography (CT) pulmonary angiography (CTPA). Thrombolysis with alteplase may be necessary in certain cases where there is a massive PE with signs of haemodynamic instability or right heart strain on ECG. Intravenous (IV) unfractionated heparin is not beneficial in treating a PE. While a chest X-ray may be useful in the workup for pleuritic chest pain, the priority in suspected PE cases should be administering treatment-dose DOAC or LMWH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      42.1
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  • Question 8 - A 49-year-old farmer presented with progressive dyspnoea. He had a dry cough and...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old farmer presented with progressive dyspnoea. He had a dry cough and exercise intolerance. On examination, few crackles were found in the upper zones of both lungs. Surgical lung biopsy was done which was reported as:
      Interstitial inflammation, chronic bronchiolitis, and two foci of non-necrotizing granuloma.
      What is the most likely clinical diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Correct Answer: Hypersensitivity pneumonitis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Lung Disorders: Histological Features

      Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis: This lung disorder is caused by a hypersensitivity reaction to mouldy hay or other organic materials. A farmer is likely to develop this condition due to exposure to such materials. The histological triad of hypersensitivity pneumonitis includes lymphocytic alveolitis, non-caseating granulomas, and poorly formed granulomas.

      Aspergillosis: This lung disorder is rarely invasive. In cases where it is invasive, lung biopsy shows hyphae with vascular invasion and surrounding tissue necrosis.

      Sarcoidosis: This lung disorder of unknown aetiology presents with non-caseating granuloma. Schumann bodies, which are calcified, rounded, laminated concretions inside the non-caseating granuloma, are found in sarcoidosis. The granulomas are formed of foreign body giant cells. Within the giant cells, there are star-shaped inclusions called asteroid bodies.

      Histiocytosis X: This lung disorder presents with scattered nodules of Langerhans cells. Associated with it are eosinophils, macrophages, and giant cells. The Langerhans cells contain racket-shaped Birbeck granules.

      Tuberculosis: This lung disorder typically has caseating granulomas in the lung parenchyma. There is also fibrosis in later stages. Ziehl–Neelsen staining of the smear reveals acid-fast bacilli (AFB) in many cases. Vasculitic lesions can also be found.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      34.6
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  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old farmer presents to his general practitioner (GP) with gradually progressive shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old farmer presents to his general practitioner (GP) with gradually progressive shortness of breath over the last year, along with an associated cough. He has no significant past medical history to note except for a previous back injury and is a non-smoker. He occasionally takes ibuprofen for back pain but is on no other medications. He has worked on farms since his twenties and acquired his own farm 10 years ago.
      On examination, the patient has a temperature of 36.9oC and respiratory rate of 26. Examination of the chest reveals bilateral fine inspiratory crackles. His GP requests a chest X-ray, which shows bilateral reticulonodular shadowing.
      Which one of the following is the most likely underlying cause of symptoms in this patient?

      Your Answer: Silicosis

      Correct Answer: Extrinsic allergic alveolitis

      Explanation:

      Causes of Pulmonary Fibrosis: Extrinsic Allergic Alveolitis

      Pulmonary fibrosis is a condition characterized by shortness of breath and reticulonodular shadowing on chest X-ray. It can be caused by various factors, including exposure to inorganic dusts like asbestosis and beryllium, organic dusts like mouldy hay and avian protein, certain drugs, systemic diseases, and more. In this scenario, the patient’s occupation as a farmer suggests a possible diagnosis of extrinsic allergic alveolitis or hypersensitivity pneumonitis, which is caused by exposure to avian proteins or Aspergillus in mouldy hay. It is important to note that occupational lung diseases may entitle the patient to compensation. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, silicosis, crocidolite exposure, and beryllium exposure are less likely causes in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      62.3
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  • Question 10 - A 72-year-old woman is admitted with renal failure. She has a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman is admitted with renal failure. She has a history of congestive heart failure and takes ramipril 10 mg daily and furosemide 80 mg daily.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 102 g/l 115–155 g/l
      Platelets 180 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 143 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 6.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 520 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Chest X-ray: no significant pulmonary oedema
      Peripheral fluid replacement is commenced and a right subclavian central line is inserted. She complains of pleuritic chest pain; saturations have decreased to 90% on oxygen via mask.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Costochondritis

      Correct Answer: Iatrogenic pneumothorax

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Pleuritic Chest Pain and Desaturation after Subclavian Line Insertion

      Subclavian line insertion carries a higher risk of iatrogenic pneumothorax compared to other routes, such as the internal jugular route. Therefore, if a patient presents with pleuritic chest pain and desaturation after subclavian line insertion, iatrogenic pneumothorax should be considered as the most likely diagnosis. Urgent confirmation with a portable chest X-ray is necessary, and formal chest drain insertion is the management of choice.

      Other complications of central lines include local site and systemic infection, arterial puncture, haematomas, catheter-related thrombosis, air embolus, dysrhythmias, atrial wall puncture, lost guidewire, anaphylaxis, and chylothorax. However, these complications would not typically present with pleuritic chest pain and desaturation.

      Developing pulmonary oedema is an important differential, but it would not explain the pleuritic chest pain. Similarly, lower respiratory tract infection is a possibility, but the recent line insertion makes iatrogenic pneumothorax more likely. Costochondritis can cause chest pain worse on inspiration and chest wall tenderness, but it would not explain the desaturation.

      In conclusion, when a patient presents with pleuritic chest pain and desaturation after subclavian line insertion, iatrogenic pneumothorax should be the primary consideration, and urgent confirmation with a portable chest X-ray is necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      55
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  • Question 11 - A 68-year-old retired caretaker with a well-documented history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old retired caretaker with a well-documented history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted, for his fourth time this year, with shortness of breath and a cough productive of green sputum. Examination findings are: respiratory rate (RR) 32 breaths/min, temperature 37.4 °C, SpO2 86% on room air, asterixis and coarse crepitations at the left base. A chest X-ray (CXR) confirms left basal consolidation.
      Which arterial blood gas (ABG) picture is likely to belong to the above patient?

      Your Answer: pH: 7.33, pa (O2): 12.8, pa (CO2): 5.4, HCO3–: 21.80, BE –4.0 mmol

      Correct Answer: pH: 7.27, pa (O2): 7.1, pa (CO2): 8.9, HCO3–: 33.20, base excess (BE) 4.9 mmol

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Blood Gas Results in COPD Patients

      COPD is a common respiratory disease that can lead to exacerbations requiring hospitalization. In these patients, lower respiratory tract infections can quickly lead to respiratory failure and the need for respiratory support. Blood gas results can provide important information about the patient’s respiratory and metabolic status. In COPD patients, a type II respiratory failure with hypercapnia and acidosis is common, resulting in a low pH and elevated bicarbonate levels. However, blood gas results that show low carbon dioxide or metabolic acidosis are less likely to be in keeping with COPD. Understanding and interpreting blood gas results is crucial in managing COPD exacerbations and providing appropriate respiratory support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      122.5
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  • Question 12 - A 63-year-old man who used to work as a stonemason presents to the...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man who used to work as a stonemason presents to the clinic with complaints of shortness of breath on minimal exercise and a dry cough. He has been experiencing progressive shortness of breath over the past year. He is a smoker, consuming 20-30 cigarettes per day, and has occasional wheezing. On examination, he is clubbed and bilateral late-inspiratory crackles can be heard at both lung bases. A chest X-ray shows upper lobe nodular opacities. His test results show a haemoglobin level of 125 g/l (normal range: 135-175 g/l), a WCC of 4.6 × 109/l (normal range: 4-11 × 109/l), platelets of 189 × 109/l (normal range: 150-410 × 109/l), a sodium level of 139 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145 mmol/l), a potassium level of 4.9 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l), a creatinine level of 135 μmol/l (normal range: 50-120 μmol/l), an FVC of 2.1 litres (normal range: >4.05 litres), and an FEV1 of 1.82 litres (normal range: >3.15 litres). Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Occupational interstitial lung disease

      Explanation:

      Possible Occupational Lung Diseases and Differential Diagnosis

      This patient’s history of working as a stonemason suggests a potential occupational exposure to silica dust, which can lead to silicosis. The restrictive lung defect seen in pulmonary function tests supports this diagnosis, which can be confirmed by high-resolution computerised tomography. Smoking cessation is crucial in slowing the progression of lung function decline.

      Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis is another possible diagnosis, but the occupational exposure makes silicosis more likely. Occupational asthma, caused by specific workplace stimuli, is also a consideration, especially for those in certain occupations such as paint sprayers, food processors, welders, and animal handlers.

      Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is unlikely due to the restrictive spirometry results, as it is characterised by an obstructive pattern. Non-occupational asthma is also less likely given the patient’s age, chest X-ray findings, and restrictive lung defect.

      In summary, the patient’s occupational history and pulmonary function tests suggest a potential diagnosis of silicosis, with other possible occupational lung diseases and differential diagnoses to consider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      15.5
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  • Question 13 - A 68-year-old man with known bronchial carcinoma presents to hospital with confusion. A...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with known bronchial carcinoma presents to hospital with confusion. A computed tomography (CT) scan of the brain was reported as normal: no evidence of metastases. His serum electrolytes were as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 114 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 3.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 5.2 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 82 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Urinary sodium 54 mmol/l
      Which of the subtype of bronchial carcinoma is he most likely to have been diagnosed with?

      Your Answer: Large cell

      Correct Answer: Small cell

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Lung Cancer and Their Association with Ectopic Hormones

      Lung cancer is a complex disease that can be divided into different types based on their clinical and biological characteristics. The two main categories are non-small cell lung cancers (NSCLCs) and small cell lung cancer (SCLC). SCLC is distinct from NSCLCs due to its origin from amine precursor uptake and decarboxylation (APUD) cells, which have an endocrine lineage. This can lead to the production of various peptide hormones, causing paraneoplastic syndromes such as the syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) and Cushing syndrome.

      Among NSCLCs, squamous cell carcinoma is commonly associated with ectopic parathyroid hormone, leading to hypercalcemia. Large cell carcinoma and bronchoalveolar cell carcinoma are NSCLCs that do not produce ectopic hormones. Adenocarcinoma, another type of NSCLC, also does not produce ectopic hormones.

      Understanding the different types of lung cancer and their association with ectopic hormones is crucial for proper management and treatment of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      26.5
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  • Question 14 - A 28-year-old man presents with right-sided pleuritic chest pain. He reports feeling a...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents with right-sided pleuritic chest pain. He reports feeling a sudden ‘pop’ followed by the onset of pain and shortness of breath.
      Upon examination, the patient appears to be struggling to breathe with a respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute. Diminished breath sounds are heard on the right side of the chest during auscultation.
      Diagnostic tests reveal a PaO2 of 8.2 kPa (normal range: 10.5-13.5 kPa) and a PaCO2 of 3.3 kPa (normal range: 4.6-6.0 kPa). A chest X-ray shows a 60% right-sided pneumothorax.
      What is the most appropriate course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Repeated air aspiration

      Correct Answer: 14F chest drain insertion over a Seldinger wire

      Explanation:

      Safe and Effective Chest Drain Insertion Techniques for Pneumothorax Management

      Pneumothorax, the presence of air in the pleural cavity, can cause significant respiratory distress and requires prompt management. Chest drain insertion is a common procedure used to treat pneumothorax, but the technique used depends on the size and cause of the pneumothorax. Here are some safe and effective chest drain insertion techniques for managing pneumothorax:

      1. Narrow-bore chest drain insertion over a Seldinger wire: This technique is appropriate for large spontaneous pneumothorax without trauma. It involves inserting a narrow-bore chest drain over a Seldinger wire, which is a minimally invasive technique that reduces the risk of complications.

      2. Portex chest drain insertion: Portex chest drains are a safer alternative to surgical chest drains in traumatic cases. This technique involves inserting a less traumatic chest drain that is easier to manage and less likely to cause complications.

      3. Avoid chest drain insertion using a trochar: Chest drain insertion using a trochar is a dangerous technique that can cause significant pressure damage to surrounding tissues. It should be avoided.

      4. Avoid repeated air aspiration: Although needle aspiration is a management option for symptomatic pneumothorax, repeated air aspiration is not recommended. It can cause complications and is less effective than chest drain insertion.

      In conclusion, chest drain insertion is an effective technique for managing pneumothorax, but the technique used should be appropriate for the size and cause of the pneumothorax. Narrow-bore chest drain insertion over a Seldinger wire and Portex chest drain insertion are safer alternatives to more invasive techniques. Chest drain insertion using a trochar and repeated air aspiration should be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      409
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  • Question 15 - A 68-year-old retired electrician presents with complaints of progressive dyspnea, unintentional weight loss,...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old retired electrician presents with complaints of progressive dyspnea, unintentional weight loss, and two episodes of hemoptysis in the past week. He has a history of smoking 40 pack years. Upon examination, there is stony dullness at the right base with absent breath sounds and decreased vocal resonance.

      Which of the following statements about mesothelioma is most accurate?

      Your Answer: It is usually diagnosed by open biopsy

      Correct Answer: It may have a lag period of up to 45 years between exposure and diagnosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Mesothelioma: Causes, Diagnosis, and Prognosis

      Mesothelioma is a type of cancer that affects the pleura, and while it can be caused by factors other than asbestos exposure, the majority of cases are linked to this cause. Asbestos was commonly used in various industries until the late 1970s/early 1980s, and the lag period between exposure and diagnosis can be up to 45 years. This means that the predicted peak of incidence of mesothelioma in the UK is around 2015-2020.

      Contrary to popular belief, smoking does not cause mesothelioma. However, smoking and asbestos exposure can act as synergistic risk factors for bronchial carcinoma. Unfortunately, there is no known cure for mesothelioma, and the 5-year survival rate is less than 5%. Treatment is supportive and palliative, with an emphasis on managing symptoms and improving quality of life.

      Diagnosis is usually made through CT imaging, with or without thoracoscopic-guided biopsy. Open lung biopsy is only considered if other biopsy methods are not feasible. Mesothelioma typically presents with a malignant pleural effusion, which can be difficult to distinguish from a pleural tumor on a plain chest X-ray. The effusion will be an exudate.

      In conclusion, understanding the causes, diagnosis, and prognosis of mesothelioma is crucial for early detection and management of this devastating disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      6.1
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  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old man has just returned from a trip to Kenya. He has...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man has just returned from a trip to Kenya. He has been experiencing a productive cough with blood-stained sputum, fever, and general malaise for the past week. Upon testing his sputum, he is diagnosed with tuberculosis and is prescribed isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol for the initial phase of treatment. What drugs will he take during the continuation phase, which will last for four months after the initial two-month phase?

      Your Answer: Rifampicin + Isoniazid

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Tuberculosis: Medications and Considerations

      Tuberculosis (TB) is a serious infectious disease that requires prompt and effective treatment. The following are some of the medications used in the treatment of TB, along with important considerations to keep in mind:

      Rifampicin + Isoniazid
      This combination is used in the initial treatment of TB, which lasts for two months. Before starting treatment, it is important to check liver and kidney function, as these medications can be associated with liver toxicity. Ethambutol should be avoided in patients with renal impairment. If TB meningitis is diagnosed, the continuation phase of treatment should be extended to 10 months and a glucocorticoid should be used in the first two weeks of treatment. Side effects to watch for include visual disturbances with ethambutol and peripheral neuropathy with isoniazid.

      Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide
      Pyrazinamide is used only in the initial two-month treatment, while rifampicin is used in both the initial and continuation phases.

      Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
      These medications are used only in the initial stage of TB treatment.

      Rifampicin alone
      Rifampicin is used in combination with isoniazid for the continuation phase of TB treatment.

      Rifampicin + Ethambutol
      Rifampicin is used in the continuation phase, while ethambutol is used only in the initial two-month treatment.

      It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for TB, taking into account individual patient factors and potential medication side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      41.9
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  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old woman had a productive cough due to upper respiratory tract infection...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman had a productive cough due to upper respiratory tract infection two weeks ago. She experienced a burning sensation in her chest during coughing. About a week ago, she coughed up a teaspoonful of yellow sputum with flecks of blood. The next morning, she had a small amount of blood-tinged sputum but has not had any subsequent haemoptysis. Her cough is resolving, and she is starting to feel better. She has no history of respiratory problems and has never smoked cigarettes. On examination, there are no abnormalities found in her chest, heart, or abdomen. Her chest x-ray is normal.

      What would be your recommendation at this point?

      Your Answer: Fibreoptic bronchoscopy

      Correct Answer: Observation only

      Explanation:

      Acute Bronchitis

      Acute bronchitis is a type of respiratory tract infection that causes inflammation in the bronchial tubes. This condition is usually caused by viral infections, with up to 95% of cases being attributed to viruses such as adenovirus, coronavirus, and influenzae viruses A and B. While antibiotics are often prescribed for acute bronchitis, there is little evidence to suggest that they provide significant relief or shorten the duration of the illness.

      Other viruses that can cause acute bronchitis include parainfluenza virus, respiratory syncytial virus, coxsackievirus A21, rhinovirus, and viruses that cause rubella and measles. It is important to note that in cases where there is no evidence of bronchoconstriction or bacterial infection, and the patient is not experiencing respiratory distress, observation is advised.

      Overall, the causes and symptoms of acute bronchitis can help individuals take the necessary steps to manage their condition and prevent its spread to others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 18 - A 58-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with increasing shortness of breath...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with increasing shortness of breath and cough for the last two days. The patient reports feeling fevers and chills and although he has a chronic cough, this has now become productive of yellow sputum over the last 36 hours. He denies chest pain. His past medical history is significant for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) for which he has been prescribed various inhalers that he is not compliant with. He currently smokes 15 cigarettes per day and does not drink alcohol.
      His observations and blood tests results are shown below:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Temperature 36.9 °C
      Blood pressure 143/64 mmHg
      Heart rate 77 beats per minute
      Respiratory rate 32 breaths per minute
      Sp(O2) 90% (room air)
      White cell count 14.9 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      C-reactive protein 83 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
      Urea 5.5 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Physical examination reveals widespread wheeze throughout his lungs without other added sounds. There is no dullness or hyperresonance on percussion of the chest. His trachea is central.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate next investigation?

      Your Answer: Blood cultures

      Correct Answer: Chest plain film

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing shortness of breath, cough with sputum production, and widespread wheeze, along with elevated inflammatory markers. This suggests an infective exacerbation of COPD or community-acquired pneumonia. A chest X-ray should be ordered urgently to determine the cause and prescribe appropriate antibiotics. Treatment for COPD exacerbation includes oxygen therapy, nebulizers, oral steroids, and antibiotics. Blood cultures are not necessary at this stage unless the patient has fevers. A CTPA is not needed as the patient’s symptoms are not consistent with PE. Pulmonary function tests are not necessary in acute management. Sputum culture may be necessary if the patient’s CURB-65 score is ≥3 or if the score is 2 and antibiotics have not been given yet. The patient’s CURB-65 score is 1.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      111.2
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  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old asthmatic presents to the Emergency Department with acute shortness of breath,...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old asthmatic presents to the Emergency Department with acute shortness of breath, unable to speak in complete sentences, tachypnoeic and with a tachycardia of 122 bpm. Severe inspiratory wheeze is noted on examination. The patient is given nebulised salbutamol and ipratropium bromide, and IV hydrocortisone is administered. After 45 minutes of IV salbutamol infusion, there is no improvement in tachypnea and oxygen saturation has dropped to 80% at high flow oxygen. An ABG is taken, showing a pH of 7.50, pO2 of 10.3 kPa, pCO2 of 5.6 kPa, and HCO3− of 28.4 mmol/l. What is the next most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Request an anaesthetic assessment for the Intensive Care Unit (ICU)

      Explanation:

      Why an Anaesthetic Assessment is Needed for a Severe Asthma Attack in ICU

      When a patient is experiencing a severe asthma attack, it is important to take the appropriate steps to provide the best care possible. In this scenario, the patient has already received nebulisers, an iv salbutamol infusion, and hydrocortisone, but their condition has not improved. The next best step is to request an anaesthetic assessment for ICU, as rapid intubation may be required and the patient may need ventilation support.

      While there are other options such as CPAP and NIPPV, these should only be used in a controlled environment with anaesthetic backup. Administering oral magnesium is also not recommended, and iv aminophylline should only be considered after an anaesthetic review. By requesting an anaesthetic assessment for ICU, the patient can receive the best possible care for their severe asthma attack.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      3.3
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  • Question 20 - A 65-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis has been on long term therapy to...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis has been on long term therapy to manage his condition. He complains of worsening shortness of breath and a chest x-ray reveals 'bilateral interstitial shadowing'. Which medication is the probable culprit for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Infliximab

      Correct Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Methotrexate as a Cause and Treatment for Pulmonary Fibrosis

      Pulmonary fibrosis is a condition where the lung tissue becomes scarred and thickened, making it difficult for the lungs to function properly. Methotrexate, a chemotherapy drug, is a known cause of pulmonary fibrosis. However, it is also sometimes used as a treatment for idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis as a steroid sparing agent.

      According to medical research, other chemotherapy drugs such as alkylating agents, asparaginase, bleomycin, and procarbazine have also been linked to pulmonary parenchymal or pleural reactions in patients with malignant diseases. In addition, drug-related interstitial pneumonia should be considered in rheumatoid arthritis patients who are taking methotrexate or newer drugs like leflunomide.

      Despite its potential risks, methotrexate can be a useful treatment option for some patients with pulmonary fibrosis. However, it is important for healthcare providers to carefully monitor patients for any adverse reactions and adjust treatment plans accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      264.9
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  • Question 21 - A 55-year old complains of difficulty breathing. A CT scan of the chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year old complains of difficulty breathing. A CT scan of the chest reveals the presence of an air-crescent sign. Which microorganism is commonly linked to this sign?

      Your Answer: Mycobacterium tuberculosis

      Correct Answer: Aspergillus

      Explanation:

      Radiological Findings in Pulmonary Infections: Air-Crescent Sign and More

      Different pulmonary infections can cause distinct radiological findings that aid in their diagnosis and management. Here are some examples:

      – Aspergillosis: This fungal infection can lead to the air-crescent sign, which shows air filling the space left by necrotic lung tissue as the immune system fights back. It indicates a sign of recovery and is found in about half of cases. Aspergilloma, a different form of aspergillosis, can also present with a similar radiological finding called the monad sign.
      – Mycobacterium avium intracellulare: This organism causes non-tuberculous mycobacterial infection in the lungs, which tends to affect patients with pre-existing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or immunocompromised states.
      – Staphylococcus aureus: This bacterium can cause cavitating lung lesions and abscesses, which appear as round cavities with an air-fluid level.
      – Pseudomonas aeruginosa: This bacterium can cause pneumonia in patients with chronic lung disease, and CT scans may show ground-glass attenuation, bronchial wall thickening, peribronchial infiltration, and pleural effusions.
      – Mycobacterium tuberculosis: This bacterium may cause cavitation in the apical regions of the lungs, but it does not typically lead to the air-crescent sign.

      Understanding these radiological findings can help clinicians narrow down the possible causes of pulmonary infections and tailor their treatment accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      9.4
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  • Question 22 - A middle-aged man is brought into the Emergency Department after a road traffic...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged man is brought into the Emergency Department after a road traffic collision (RTC). During examination, he is found to be tachycardic at 120 bpm, sweating profusely, and pale. His right side has decreased breath sounds and chest movement, and his trachea is deviated to the left. You are requested to insert a large-bore cannula.
      Where would you position it in this patient?

      Your Answer: In the second intercostal space, mid-axillary line of the chest, on the side with the normal breath signs

      Correct Answer: In the second intercostal space, mid-clavicular line, on the side of the decreased breath sounds

      Explanation:

      To treat a tension pneumothorax, emergency intervention is required. A large-bore cannula should be inserted into the second intercostal space, mid-clavicular line, on the side where breath sounds are decreased to relieve pressure in the pleural space. This is the correct location for needle decompression. However, it is important to note that definitive management involves inserting an intercostal chest drain. Inserting a needle into the fifth intercostal space, mid-axillary line of the chest, on the side of the decreased breath sounds is incorrect for needle decompression, but it is where the chest drain will be inserted afterwards. Inserting a needle into the second intercostal space, mid-axillary line of the chest, on the side with normal breath sounds is the correct space, but the wrong location and wrong side of the body. It would be challenging to insert a needle into this location in reality. Inserting a needle into the third intercostal space, mid-clavicular line, on the side of the decreased breath sounds is the correct anatomical line, but the incorrect intercostal space. Similarly, inserting a needle into the sixth intercostal space, mid-clavicular line, on the side of the chest with decreased breath sounds is the correct anatomical line, but the wrong intercostal space.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      11.5
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  • Question 23 - An 80-year-old woman came to the Emergency Department complaining of severe dyspnoea. A...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman came to the Emergency Department complaining of severe dyspnoea. A chest X-ray showed an opaque right hemithorax. She had no history of occupational exposure to asbestos. Her husband worked in a shipyard 35 years ago, but he had no lung issues. She has never been a smoker. Upon thorax examination, there was reduced movement on the right side, with absent breath sounds and intercostal fullness.
      What is the probable reason for the radiological finding?

      Your Answer: Mesothelioma

      Explanation:

      Pleural Pathologies: Mesothelioma and Differential Diagnoses

      Workers who are exposed to asbestos are at a higher risk of developing lung pathologies such as asbestosis and mesothelioma. Indirect exposure can also occur when family members come into contact with asbestos-covered clothing. This condition affects both the lungs and pleural space, with short, fine asbestos fibers transported by the lymphatics to the pleural space, causing irritation and leading to plaques and fibrosis. Pleural fibrosis can also result in rounded atelectasis, which can mimic a lung mass on radiological imaging.

      Mesothelioma, the most common type being epithelial, typically occurs 20-40 years after asbestos exposure and is characterized by exudative and hemorrhagic pleural effusion with high levels of hyaluronic acid. Treatment options are generally unsatisfactory, with local radiation and chemotherapy being used with variable results. Tuberculosis may also present with pleural effusion, but other systemic features such as weight loss, night sweats, and cough are expected. Lung collapse would show signs of mediastinal shift and intercostal fullness would not be typical. Pneumonectomy is not mentioned in the patient’s past, and massive consolidation may show air bronchogram on X-ray and bronchial breath sounds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      226.1
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  • Question 24 - What condition is typically linked to obstructive sleep apnea? ...

    Incorrect

    • What condition is typically linked to obstructive sleep apnea?

      Your Answer: Insomnia

      Correct Answer: Hypersomnolence

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Associations of Obstructive Sleep Apnoea

      Obstructive sleep apnoea is a condition characterized by hypersomnolence or excessive sleepiness. Other common symptoms include personality changes, witnessed apnoeas, and true nocturnal polyuria. Reduced libido is a less frequent symptom. The condition may be associated with acromegaly, myxoedema, obesity, and micrognathia/retrognathia. Sleep apnoea is a serious condition that can lead to complications such as hypertension, cardiovascular disease, and stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      194.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 50-year-old male smoker presented with chronic dyspnoea. He used to work in...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male smoker presented with chronic dyspnoea. He used to work in the shipyard but now has a retired life with his dogs. He was under treatment as a case of COPD, but maximal therapy for COPD failed to bring him any relief. On re-evaluation, his chest X-ray showed fine reticular opacities in the lower zones. A CT scan of his thorax showed interstitial thickening, with some ground glass opacity in the upper lungs.
      Pleural plaques were absent. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pneumoconiosis

      Correct Answer: Respiratory bronchiolitis-associated interstitial lung disease (RB-ILD)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Interstitial Lung Diseases: A Case Study

      The patient in question presents with dyspnoea and a history of smoking. While COPD is initially suspected, the radiograph and CT findings do not support this diagnosis. Instead, the patient may be suffering from an interstitial lung disease. RB-ILD is a possibility, given the presence of pigmented macrophages in the lung. Asbestosis is also considered, but the absence of pleural plaques makes this less likely. Pneumoconiosis and histoplasmosis are ruled out based on the patient’s history and imaging results. Treatment for interstitial lung diseases can be challenging, with steroids being the primary option. However, the effectiveness of this treatment is debatable. Ultimately, a lung biopsy may be necessary for a definitive diagnosis.

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      • Respiratory
      34.4
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  • Question 26 - A 65 year-old man, who had recently undergone a full bone marrow transplantation...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year-old man, who had recently undergone a full bone marrow transplantation for acute myeloid leukaemia (AML), presented with progressive dyspnoea over the past 2 weeks. There was an associated dry cough, but no fever. Examination revealed scattered wheezes and some expiratory high-pitched sounds. C-reactive protein (CRP) level was normal. Mantoux test was negative. Spirometry revealed the following report:
      FEV1 51%
      FVC 88%
      FEV1/FVC 58%
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Infective exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

      Correct Answer: Bronchiolitis obliterans (BO)

      Explanation:

      Respiratory Disorders: Bronchiolitis Obliterans, ARDS, Pneumocystis Pneumonia, COPD Exacerbation, and Idiopathic Pulmonary Hypertension

      Bronchiolitis obliterans (BO) is a respiratory disorder that may occur after bone marrow, heart, or lung transplant. It presents with an obstructive pattern on spirometry, low DLCO, and hypoxia. CT scan shows air trapping, and chest X-ray may show interstitial infiltrates with hyperinflation. BO may also occur in connective tissue diseases, such as rheumatoid arthritis, and idiopathic variety called cryptogenic organising pneumonia (COP). In contrast, acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) patients deteriorate quickly, and pneumocystis pneumonia usually presents with normal clinical findings. Infective exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is associated with a productive cough and raised CRP, while idiopathic pulmonary hypertension has a restrictive pattern and inspiratory fine crepitations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      59.1
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  • Question 27 - You are reviewing a patient who attends the clinic with a respiratory disorder.
    Which...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a patient who attends the clinic with a respiratory disorder.
      Which of the following conditions would be suitable for long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) for an elderly patient?

      Your Answer: Type 2 respiratory failure secondary to opiate toxicity

      Correct Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

      Explanation:

      Respiratory Conditions and Oxygen Therapy: Guidelines for Treatment

      Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), opiate toxicity, asthma, croup, and myasthenia gravis are respiratory conditions that may require oxygen therapy. The British Thoracic Society recommends assessing the need for home oxygen therapy in COPD patients with severe airflow obstruction, cyanosis, polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, or oxygen saturation of 92% or below when breathing air. Opiate toxicity can cause respiratory compromise, which may require naloxone, but this needs to be considered carefully in palliative patients. Asthmatic patients who are acutely unwell and require oxygen should be admitted to hospital for assessment, treatment, and ventilation support. Croup, a childhood respiratory infection, may require hospital admission if oxygen therapy is needed. Myasthenia gravis may cause neuromuscular respiratory failure during a myasthenic crisis, which is a life-threatening emergency requiring intubation and ventilator support and not amenable to home oxygen therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      191
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 52-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents to the Emergency Department with an acute exacerbation. He is experiencing severe shortness of breath and his oxygen saturation levels are at 74% on room air. The medical team initiates treatment with 15 litres of high-flow oxygen and later transitions him to controlled oxygen supplementation via a 28% venturi mask. What is the optimal target range for his oxygen saturation levels?

      Your Answer: 80%

      Correct Answer: 88–92%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Oxygen Saturation Targets for Patients with COPD

      Patients with COPD have specific oxygen saturation targets that differ from those without respiratory problems. The correct range for a COPD patient is 88-92%, as they rely on low oxygen concentrations to drive their respiratory effort. Giving them too much oxygen can potentially remove their drive to breathe and worsen their respiratory situation. In contrast, unwell individuals who are not at risk of type 2 respiratory failure have a target of 94-98%. A saturation target of 80% is too low and can cause hypoxia and damage to end organs. Saturations of 90-94% may indicate a need for oxygen therapy, but it may still be too high for a patient with COPD. It is vital to obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG) in hypoxia to check if the patient is a chronic CO2 retainer. Understanding these targets is crucial in managing patients with COPD and ensuring their respiratory effort is not compromised.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      128.6
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  • Question 29 - A 55-year-old man was in a car accident and was taken to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man was in a car accident and was taken to the Emergency Department where a chest tube was inserted to drain fluid. The thoracic wall is composed of several structures, including the skin, external intercostal muscle, internal intercostal muscle, innermost intercostal muscle, parietal pleura, and visceral pleura. What is the correct order of structures that the tube would pass through during the procedure?

      Your Answer: 4-5-1-3-2

      Correct Answer: 2-5-1-3-4

      Explanation:

      Correct Order of Structures Traversed in Chest Drain Insertion

      When inserting a chest drain, it is important to know the correct order of structures that will be traversed. The order is as follows: skin, external intercostal muscle, internal intercostal muscle, innermost intercostal muscle, and parietal pleura.

      The external intercostal muscles are encountered first in chest drain insertion before the internal and innermost intercostal muscles, as suggested by their names. The skin is the first structure to be traversed by the tube. The parietal pleura lines the inner surface of the thoracic cavity and is the outer boundary of the pleural cavity. The chest drain tip should enter the pleural cavity which is bound by the parietal and visceral pleura. The parietal pleura is therefore encountered before reaching the visceral pleura. The visceral pleura should not be penetrated in chest drain insertion.

      Knowing the correct order of structures to be traversed during chest drain insertion is crucial to ensure the procedure is done safely and effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      157.2
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  • Question 30 - A 46-year-old man, who had been working abroad in the hard metal industry,...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old man, who had been working abroad in the hard metal industry, presented with progressive dyspnoea. A chest X-ray showed diffuse interstitial fibrosis bilaterally. What is the typical cellular component found in a bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Giant cells

      Explanation:

      Understanding Giant Cell Interstitial Pneumonia in Hard Metal Lung Disease

      Hard metal lung disease is a condition that affects individuals working in the hard metal industry, particularly those exposed to cobalt dust. Prolonged exposure can lead to fibrosis and the development of giant cell interstitial pneumonia (GIP), characterized by bizarre multinucleated giant cells in the alveoli. These cannibalistic cells are formed by alveolar macrophages and type II pneumocytes and can contain ingested macrophages. While cobalt exposure can also cause other respiratory conditions, GIP is a rare but serious complication that may require lung transplantation in severe cases. Understanding the significance of different cell types found in bronchoalveolar lavage can aid in the diagnosis and management of this disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory (25/29) 86%
Passmed