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Question 1
Correct
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Sarah, a 5-year-old child visits the allergy clinic with her parents. She has a confirmed milk protein allergy and her parents are interested in using the milk ladder to manage it. Which food item would be suitable to gradually introduce?
Your Answer: Malted milk biscuits
Explanation:Children with cows milk protein allergy can use the milk ladder to reintroduce milk protein after they turn 6 months old.
To gradually introduce milk, the milk ladder starts with cooked or baked milk. The process begins with malted milk biscuits and then progresses in a step-by-step manner towards pasteurised milk.
Understanding Cow’s Milk Protein Intolerance/Allergy
Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects around 3-6% of children, typically presenting in the first 3 months of life in formula-fed infants. Both immediate and delayed reactions can occur, with CMPA used for immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms include regurgitation, vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms, wheeze, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis. Diagnosis is often clinical, with investigations including skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein.
Management for formula-fed infants includes using extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk as the first-line replacement formula for mild-moderate symptoms and amino acid-based formula (AAF) for severe CMPA or if no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants are also intolerant to soya milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should eliminate cow’s milk protein from their diet and consider prescribing calcium supplements to prevent deficiency. eHF milk can be used when breastfeeding stops until at least 6 months and up to 12 months of age.
The prognosis for CMPI is usually good, with most children becoming milk tolerant by the age of 3-5 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur. It is important to refer infants with severe symptoms to a pediatrician for management. Understanding CMPI/CMPA and its management can help parents and healthcare providers provide appropriate care for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 3-year-old child to you, complaining of frequent respiratory infections, a persistent cough, and poor weight gain. The child is currently at the 3rd percentile for their age. The parents are of Romanian descent and have recently moved to the UK. What test should be performed to confirm the suspected diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sweat test
Explanation:Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects the lungs and is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. In the United Kingdom, newborns are screened for cystic fibrosis on the sixth day of life using a dried blood spot collected on a Guthrie card.
Understanding Cystic Fibrosis and the Organisms that Affect Patients
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that causes thickened secretions in the lungs and pancreas. This condition is caused by a defect in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene (CFTR), which regulates chloride channels. In the UK, 80% of CF cases are due to delta F508 on chromosome 7, and the carrier rate is approximately 1 in 25.
CF patients are susceptible to colonization by certain organisms, including Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Burkholderia cepacia, and Aspergillus. These organisms can cause infections and exacerbate symptoms in CF patients. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor and manage these infections to improve patient outcomes. By understanding the genetic basis of CF and the organisms that affect patients, healthcare providers can provide better care for those with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl is discovered collapsed and unresponsive. Upon examination, there are no apparent obstructions in her airway. There are no signs of life and no indication of any respiratory efforts being made. Emergency assistance has been summoned and is en route.
What is the most suitable course of action to take next in her treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give 5 rescue breaths
Explanation:The correct initial step for paediatric basic life support (BLS) is to give 5 rescue breaths immediately, even before checking for a pulse. This is because respiratory causes are the most common in children. Checking for a femoral pulse is not necessary to determine the need for chest compressions, as palpation of the pulse is not a reliable indicator of effective circulation. Giving 2 rescue breaths is incorrect for children, as they require 5 rescue breaths to mitigate hypoxia. The correct ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is 15:2, but the first step in paediatric BLS is always to give 5 rescue breaths.
Paediatric Basic Life Support Guidelines
Paediatric basic life support guidelines were updated in 2015 by the Resuscitation Council. Lay rescuers should use a compression:ventilation ratio of 30:2 for children under 1 year and between 1 year and puberty, a child is defined. If there are two or more rescuers, a ratio of 15:2 should be used.
The algorithm for paediatric basic life support starts with checking if the child is unresponsive and shouting for help. The airway should be opened, and breathing should be checked by looking, listening, and feeling for breaths. If the child is not breathing, five rescue breaths should be given, and signs of circulation should be checked.
For infants, the brachial or femoral pulse should be used, while children should use the femoral pulse. Chest compressions should be performed at a ratio of 15:2, with a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute for both infants and children. The depth of compressions should be at least one-third of the anterior-posterior dimension of the chest, which is approximately 4 cm for an infant and 5 cm for a child.
In children, the lower half of the sternum should be compressed, while in infants, a two-thumb encircling technique should be used for chest compressions. These guidelines are crucial for anyone who may need to perform basic life support on a child, and it is essential to follow them carefully to ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A mother brings in her 3-day-old female baby to the pediatrician's office. She noticed a small cyst on the roof of the baby's mouth. Upon examination, a small white cystic vesicle measuring approximately 2 mm in diameter is found on the hard palate near the midline. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Epstein's pearl
Explanation:Epstein’s pearl, a type of congenital cyst found in the mouth, typically does not require any treatment. These cysts are commonly found on the hard palate, but can also be mistaken for a tooth eruption when located on the gums. They usually resolve on their own within a few weeks. Neonatal teeth, on the other hand, are rare and not typically found on the hard palate. Bohn’s nodules are mucous gland cysts that are usually located on the buccal or lingual aspects of the alveolar ridges, and rarely on the palate. A congenital ranula is a papule or nodule that is firm and translucent, and is typically found on the anterior floor of the mouth, lateral to the lingual frenulum.
Understanding Epstein’s Pearl
Epstein’s pearl is a type of cyst that is present in the mouth from birth. It is commonly found on the hard palate, but can also be seen on the gums, which may be mistaken for a tooth eruption. The good news is that no treatment is usually required as these cysts tend to disappear on their own within a few weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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As a foundation doctor on the postnatal ward, you conduct a newborn examination on a two-day-old baby girl. She was delivered normally and in good condition. During the hip examination, you notice that the left hip can be relocated, which raises concerns. What is the next appropriate step in management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral for hip ultrasound
Explanation:The Ortolani manoeuvre was performed on a newborn to relocate the femoral head after dislocation caused by the Barlow manoeuvre. The result was abnormal, indicating a need for urgent assessment to check for potential developmental dysplasia of the hip. The best imaging option is ultrasound, which avoids radiation and provides optimal visualization of the hip’s development. Referring the child for routine assessment would cause unnecessary delay in treatment, and providing reassurance would be inappropriate given the abnormal screening result.
Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be bilateral in 20% of cases. Screening for DDH is recommended for infants with certain risk factors, and all infants are screened using the Barlow and Ortolani tests at the newborn and six-week baby check. Clinical examination includes testing for leg length symmetry, restricted hip abduction, and knee level when hips and knees are flexed. Ultrasound is used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected, but x-ray is the first line investigation for infants over 4.5 months. Management includes the use of a Pavlik harness for children under 4-5 months and surgery for older children with unstable hips.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You are requested to assess a premature infant born at 34 weeks, 48 hours after delivery without any complications. During the examination, you observe a continuous 'machinery-like' murmur and a left subclavicular thrill. Additionally, you notice a bounding pulse and a widened pulse pressure. There are no indications of cyanosis or crackles on auscultation. The mother confirms that there were no complications during pregnancy, and antenatal scans and screening did not reveal any abnormalities. There is no family history of significant illnesses. What would be the most appropriate management option for this probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give indomethacin to the neonate
Explanation:To promote closure of patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), indomethacin or ibuprofen is administered to the neonate. This is the correct course of action based on the examination findings. The ductus arteriosus typically closes naturally with the first breaths, but if it remains open, prostaglandin synthesis can be inhibited with medication. Administering indomethacin to the mother would not be effective. Prostaglandin would have the opposite effect and maintain the PDA’s patency, which is not desirable in this scenario. Involving surgeons or monitoring the baby without treatment would also not be appropriate. If left untreated, PDA can lead to serious complications such as pulmonary hypertension or Eisenmenger’s syndrome.
Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.
The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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What is the most frequent cause of nephrotic syndrome in pediatric patients?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Minimal change disease
Explanation:Understanding Nephrotic Syndrome in Children
Nephrotic syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by three main symptoms: proteinuria, hypoalbuminaemia, and oedema. This condition is most commonly seen in children between the ages of 2 and 5 years old. In fact, around 80% of cases in children are caused by a condition called minimal change glomerulonephritis. Fortunately, this condition has a good prognosis, with approximately 90% of cases responding well to high-dose oral steroids.
Aside from the main symptoms, children with nephrotic syndrome may also experience hyperlipidaemia, a hypercoagulable state, and a higher risk of infection. These additional features are caused by the loss of antithrombin III and immunoglobulins in the body.
Overall, understanding nephrotic syndrome in children is important for parents and healthcare professionals alike. With proper treatment and management, most children with this condition can recover and lead healthy lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 20 year-old with no notable medical history enrolls at a new GP clinic upon moving to a different city. The clinic checks his immunization records and sends him an invite to get vaccinated. What vaccination should he get if he hasn't received it before?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Men ACWY
Explanation:The Meningitis ACWY vaccine is being gradually introduced and is recommended for all children during their 9th or 10th year of school. Instead of the Men C booster, they should receive this vaccination. The catch-up program is currently targeting individuals under the age of 25 who are starting university for the first time. It is recommended that they receive the vaccine a few weeks before beginning their studies.
The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at certain intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, and PCV vaccines are given, along with Men B. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 pre-school booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.
It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine will also be offered to new students (up to the age of 25 years) at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine. Students going to university or college for the first time as freshers, including overseas and mature students up to the age of 25, should contact their GP to have the Men ACWY vaccine, ideally before the start of the academic year.
It is worth noting that the Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued. This is because the success of the Men C vaccination programme means there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK any longer. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department after suffering a head injury falling from a tree. She has remained conscious and her Glasgow Coma Score (GCS) has been 15 since the accident. She is not vomiting.
On examination, there is no focal neurological deficit. An area of bruising is seen behind her left ear and she has a headache. No other injuries are observed.
What is the most appropriate initial investigation for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) head
Explanation:The patient requires a CT head scan within an hour of the accident, as per NICE guidelines. A basal skull fracture, which can be fatal, may be caused by high-impact mechanisms and can present with symptoms such as bruising behind the ear, bruising around the eyes, blood behind the eardrum, or cerebral spinal fluid rhinorrhoea. Optic-nerve entrapment may also occur if the fracture is displaced, leading to changes in vision. Patients are at an increased risk of developing meningitis. An MRI head is not the primary investigation of choice for acute clinically important brain injuries due to safety, logistic, and resource reasons. A lateral cervical spine X-ray may be required for a thorough assessment of the C-spine, but a CT head and neck would be easier to perform if imaging of the neck is necessary. A plain skull X-ray may be used for non-accidental brain injury in children to avoid high-dose radiation from a CT scan, but it should not be used to diagnose brain trauma without consulting a neuroscience unit. If red flags are present, a CT head is necessary to exclude severe intracranial pathology.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old is brought in by a concerned mother. She reports her baby crying after feeds and drawing his legs to his chest for several weeks. His growth is good and examination unremarkable.
Which of the following is the best treatment option?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Supportive advice and reassurance
Explanation:Managing Infantile Colic: Supportive Advice and Reassurance
Infantile colic can be a challenging condition for both parents and babies. While there is little evidence for treating colic, there are some strategies that can help manage the symptoms. Nursing the baby upright after feeds, bathing the infant in warm water, using white noise, gentle movement of baby, eg rocking the crib, holding baby during an episode, winding well and offering reassurance when needed can all be helpful.
However, it’s important to note that medications such as Infacol, Colief, Gaviscon, and Ranitidine are not recommended as first-line treatments due to lack of evidence. Maternal diet modification, probiotic supplements, herbal supplements, and manipulative strategies are also not recommended.
If your baby is experiencing colic, know that you are not alone and that supportive advice and reassurance can go a long way in managing the symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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What is the cause of scarlet fever?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Group A haemolytic streptococci
Explanation:Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more prevalent in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease spreads through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges, especially during sneezing and coughing. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, nausea/vomiting, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. The rash has a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture and desquamination occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes.
To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be initiated immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves administering oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Although usually a mild illness, scarlet fever may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, or necrotizing fasciitis, which may present acutely with life-threatening illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A four-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents due to a new rash on his abdomen. The parents deny any recent infections or injuries. Upon examination, you observe a widespread petechial rash on the anterior abdomen and right forearm. The child appears pale and uninterested in the toys provided. Additionally, you note hepatosplenomegaly and cervical lymphadenopathy. While waiting for blood test results, you perform a urinalysis, which is unremarkable, and record a tympanic temperature of 36.6º. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
Explanation:DIC can cause haemorrhagic or thrombotic complications in cases of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia.
While a petechial rash can be a result of trauma, it is unlikely to be the case with this child given the other significant symptoms present. The non-blanching rash may initially suggest meningococcal disease, but the absence of fever and a clear source of infection makes this less likely. Additionally, the lesions associated with Henoch-Schonlein purpura typically appear on specific areas of the body and are accompanied by other symptoms such as haematuria or joint pain, which are not present in this case.
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that commonly affects children and accounts for 80% of childhood leukaemias. It is most prevalent in children between the ages of 2-5 years, with boys being slightly more affected than girls. Symptoms of ALL can be divided into those caused by bone marrow failure, such as anaemia, neutropaenia, and thrombocytopenia, and other features like bone pain, splenomegaly, and hepatomegaly. Fever is also present in up to 50% of new cases, which may indicate an infection or a constitutional symptom. Testicular swelling may also occur.
There are three types of ALL: common ALL, T-cell ALL, and B-cell ALL. Common ALL is the most common type, accounting for 75% of cases, and is characterized by the presence of CD10 and a pre-B phenotype. Poor prognostic factors for ALL include age less than 2 years or greater than 10 years, a white blood cell count greater than 20 * 109/l at diagnosis, T or B cell surface markers, non-Caucasian ethnicity, and male sex.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 22-month-old toddler presents to the GP with a barking cough and fever for 3 days. The fever has been responding to regular paracetamol. The child's parent reports that the toddler is eating and drinking normally and has been urinating regularly. During playtime, the parent has noticed some increased breathing sounds, but they disappear when the child is at rest. There have been no febrile convulsions, rash, or drowsiness reported.
Upon examination, the toddler has a clear chest with no signs of increased work of breathing. An occasional barking cough is heard.
What is the most appropriate management for this toddler?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral dexamethasone
Explanation:For this infant with mild croup, the recommended treatment is a single dose of oral dexamethasone (0.15 mg/kg body weight) regardless of the severity of symptoms. This should be taken immediately to reduce upper airway inflammation and alleviate the occasional barking cough and stridor. Delayed antibiotic prescription, immediate oral antibiotics, humidified oxygen, and inhaled or nebulised salbutamol are not appropriate options for croup management. Antibiotics are ineffective against viruses, which are the most common cause of croup, while humidified oxygen and inhaled or nebulised salbutamol are used for other respiratory conditions.
Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers
Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.
The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.
Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.
Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A grandfather visits you as his grandson has been diagnosed with hypospadias. He wants to know what treatment options are available and if there are any measures he can take to prevent the condition from worsening.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Corrective surgery at around 12 months of age is required and children should not be circumcised
Explanation:The usual age for performing hypospadias surgery is approximately 12 months.
Understanding Hypospadias: A Congenital Abnormality of the Penis
Hypospadias is a condition that affects approximately 3 out of 1,000 male infants. It is a congenital abnormality of the penis that is usually identified during the newborn baby check. However, if missed, parents may notice an abnormal urine stream. This condition is characterized by a ventral urethral meatus, a hooded prepuce, and chordee in more severe forms. The urethral meatus may open more proximally in the more severe variants, but 75% of the openings are distally located. There appears to be a significant genetic element, with further male children having a risk of around 5-15%.
Hypospadias most commonly occurs as an isolated disorder, but it can also be associated with other conditions such as cryptorchidism (present in 10%) and inguinal hernia. Once hypospadias has been identified, infants should be referred to specialist services. Corrective surgery is typically performed when the child is around 12 months of age. It is essential that the child is not circumcised prior to the surgery as the foreskin may be used in the corrective procedure. In boys with very distal disease, no treatment may be needed. Understanding hypospadias is important for parents and healthcare providers to ensure proper management and treatment of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with a 4-month-old baby expresses concern that her friend's baby had a hip ultrasound but her own child has not. You inform her that hip ultrasounds are only offered to babies with certain risk factors for hip dysplasia.
What is one of the risk factors for hip dysplasia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Breech presentation
Explanation:Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is more likely to occur in newborns who were in a breech presentation during pregnancy, as well as those with a family history of hip problems in early life. To screen for DDH, ultrasound is performed at 6 weeks of age for infants with these risk factors. Additionally, infants who test positive for the Barlow or Ortolani test are also sent for a hip ultrasound to check for DDH.
Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be bilateral in 20% of cases. Screening for DDH is recommended for infants with certain risk factors, and all infants are screened using the Barlow and Ortolani tests at the newborn and six-week baby check. Clinical examination includes testing for leg length symmetry, restricted hip abduction, and knee level when hips and knees are flexed. Ultrasound is used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected, but x-ray is the first line investigation for infants over 4.5 months. Management includes the use of a Pavlik harness for children under 4-5 months and surgery for older children with unstable hips.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her mother due to a new rash. The mother is worried as the rash appeared suddenly just 1 day ago. The child had a cold with a high fever 3 weeks ago, but has since recovered. Apart from that, the child is healthy and active.
During the examination, an erythematous rash is observed on the child's trunk and limbs. The rash does not seem to be causing any itching and disappears when pressure is applied.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Roseola infantum
Explanation:What is the classical history of roseola infantum and how does it differ from other childhood rashes?
Roseola infantum is a common viral illness that typically affects children between 6 months and 2 years of age. It is characterized by a high fever that is followed 1-2 weeks later by an erythematous rash across the trunk and limbs. Febrile seizures are also common with this illness.
Measles, on the other hand, presents with an erythematous rash that starts behind the ears and spreads to the rest of the body. It is associated with fever, conjunctivitis, coryzal symptoms, and white koplik spots on the inside of the mouth.
Parvovirus B19, also known as slapped cheek disease, is characterized by a rash that first appears on the cheeks before spreading to the trunk and arms. It is usually preceded by 2-5 days of mild fever and non-specific viral symptoms.
Rubella presents with an erythematous rash that starts on the face and spreads to the rest of the body. It is associated with mild fever, sore throat, and lymphadenopathy.
Understanding Roseola Infantum
Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpes virus 6 (HHV6). This disease has an incubation period of 5-15 days and is typically seen in children aged 6 months to 2 years. The most common symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms may include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea.
In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of children with roseola infantum. While this can be concerning for parents, it is important to note that this is a common occurrence and typically resolves on its own. Additionally, HHV6 infection can lead to other possible consequences such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis.
It is important to note that school exclusion is not necessary for children with roseola infantum. While this illness can be uncomfortable for infants, it is typically not serious and resolves on its own within a few days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl presents to you with her father. She complains of bilateral knee and calf pain at night for the past 6 months. The pain worsens after playing soccer during the day and can cause her to wake up 1-2 times per month. Knee examination is normal, and she is otherwise healthy. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Growing pains
Explanation:Children between the ages of 3 and 12 often experience growing pains, which typically involve leg pain. However, it is crucial to check for any potential warning signs when examining these children. One such warning sign is osteosarcoma, a rare but significant diagnosis that should be ruled out. Symptoms of osteosarcoma include an inexplicable lump, bone pain, or swelling. Another condition to consider is juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, which typically presents with fever, rash, and symmetrical joint pain and swelling.
Understanding Growing Pains in Children
Growing pains are a common complaint among children aged 3-12 years. These pains are often attributed to ‘benign idiopathic nocturnal limb pains of childhood’ in rheumatology, as they are not necessarily related to growth. Boys and girls are equally affected by growing pains, which are characterized by intermittent pain in the legs with no obvious cause.
One of the key features of growing pains is that they are never present at the start of the day after the child has woken up. Additionally, there is no limp or limitation of physical activity, and the child is systemically well with normal physical examination and motor milestones. Symptoms may worsen after a day of vigorous activity.
Overall, growing pains are a benign condition that can be managed with reassurance and simple measures such as massage or heat application. However, it is important to rule out other potential causes of leg pain in children, especially if there are any worrying features present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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During a routine check-up, a 7 week-old baby boy is seen. His mother has a history of asthma and used inhaled steroids while pregnant. He was delivered via planned Caesarian at 39 weeks due to breech presentation and weighed 3.1kg at birth. What condition is he at a higher risk for?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Developmental dysplasia of the hip
Explanation:If a baby was in a breech presentation, it is important to ensure that they have been referred for screening for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) as it is a risk factor for this condition. The Department of Health recommends that all babies who were breech at any point from 36 weeks (even if not breech at birth), babies born before 36 weeks who were in a breech presentation, and all babies with a first degree relative who had a hip problem in early life, should undergo ultrasound screening for hip dysplasia. If one twin was breech, both should be screened. Some hospitals also refer babies with other conditions such as oligohydramnios, high birth weight, torticollis, congenital talipes calcaneovalgus, and metatarsus adductus for screening. For more information on screening for DDH, please refer to the link provided.
Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be bilateral in 20% of cases. Screening for DDH is recommended for infants with certain risk factors, and all infants are screened using the Barlow and Ortolani tests at the newborn and six-week baby check. Clinical examination includes testing for leg length symmetry, restricted hip abduction, and knee level when hips and knees are flexed. Ultrasound is used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected, but x-ray is the first line investigation for infants over 4.5 months. Management includes the use of a Pavlik harness for children under 4-5 months and surgery for older children with unstable hips.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 4-week-old infant is referred by the health visitor for failure to thrive. The infant's weight has dropped from the 50th to the 9th centile on the growth chart. The parents disclose that the infant vomits after every meal, sometimes even hitting the wall. The mother had a normal pregnancy with regular antenatal scans, and the infant was delivered vaginally without complications. The newborn examination did not reveal any abnormalities. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pyloric stenosis
Explanation:The probable diagnosis is pyloric stenosis.
Understanding Pyloric Stenosis
Pyloric stenosis is a condition that usually occurs in infants between the second and fourth weeks of life. However, in rare cases, it may present later, up to four months. This condition is caused by the thickening of the circular muscles of the pylorus. Pyloric stenosis is more common in males, with an incidence of 4 per 1,000 live births. It is also more likely to affect first-borns and infants with a positive family history.
The most common symptom of pyloric stenosis is projectile vomiting, which usually occurs about 30 minutes after a feed. Other symptoms may include constipation, dehydration, and a palpable mass in the upper abdomen. Prolonged vomiting can lead to hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic alkalosis, which can be life-threatening.
Diagnosis of pyloric stenosis is typically made using ultrasound. Management of this condition involves a surgical procedure called Ramstedt pyloromyotomy. This procedure involves making a small incision in the pylorus to relieve the obstruction and allow for normal passage of food. With prompt diagnosis and treatment, infants with pyloric stenosis can make a full recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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You are seeing a 5-year-old boy in your clinic who has a history of multiple wheezy episodes over the past 4 years and was diagnosed with asthma. He was admitted to the hospital 5 months ago with shortness-of-breath and wheeze and was diagnosed with a viral exacerbation of asthma. The paediatric team prescribed him a Clenil (beclometasone dipropionate) inhaler 50mcg bd and salbutamol 100mcg prn via a spacer before his discharge. His mother reports that he has a persistent night-time cough and is regularly using his salbutamol inhaler. On clinical examination, his chest appears normal. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add a leukotriene receptor antagonist
Explanation:Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines
Asthma management in children has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. The new guidelines for children aged 5-16 are similar to those for adults, with a stepwise approach for treatment. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonist (SABA) is recommended. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is used. Leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is added if symptoms still persist, followed by long-acting beta agonist (LABA) if necessary. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is used as a combination of ICS and LABA for daily maintenance therapy and symptom relief. For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis. The stepwise approach is similar to that for older children, with an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS before adding LTRA. If symptoms persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.
It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment for well-controlled asthma patients simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. The definitions of low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for adults and children. For children, <= 200 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is considered a paediatric low dose, 200-400 micrograms is a moderate dose, and > 400 micrograms is a high dose. Overall, the new NICE guidelines provide a clear and concise approach to managing asthma in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl comes to see her doctor because she has not yet begun menstruating. During the physical examination, you observe that she has a short stature and a webbed neck. What would you anticipate hearing when listening to her heart?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ejection systolic murmur
Explanation:The ejection systolic murmur present in this patient is likely due to her Turner’s syndrome, which is associated with a bicuspid aortic valve. A continuous machinery murmur, late systolic murmur, and mid-late diastolic murmur are less likely causes, as they are associated with different conditions that are not commonly seen in patients with Turner’s syndrome.
Understanding Turner’s Syndrome
Turner’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is denoted as 45,XO or 45,X.
The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (15%), coarctation of the aorta (5-10%), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is much more common in Turner’s syndrome, and there is also an increased incidence of autoimmune disease (especially autoimmune thyroiditis) and Crohn’s disease.
In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and can cause a range of physical features and health issues. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 6-week-old baby is observed to have rocker-bottom feet, microcephaly and a small retracted chin. The mother is a refugee from Syria who gave birth recently but could not attend antenatal screening. What is the probable syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Edwards' syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Genetic Conditions: Trisomy 18 (Edwards’ Syndrome)
Trisomy 18, also known as Edwards’ syndrome, is a genetic condition that results in a range of physical and developmental abnormalities. Neonates with trisomy 18 often present with neonatal hypotonia, apnoea, and seizures, as well as severe psychomotor and growth retardation. Other common features include microcephaly, microphthalmia, microstomia, micrognathia, clenched fingers, and rocker-bottom feet. Over 90% of individuals with trisomy 18 have cardiac defects, commonly ventricular septal defect (VSD), as well as anomalies in most organ systems. Unfortunately, many fetuses will die in utero, and neonates born with trisomy 18 have a 40% chance of survival to 1 month.
It is important to note that an Edwards’ syndrome diagnosis should be made in the prenatal period. Low levels of AFP (α-fetoprotein), estradiol, and hCG (human chorionic gonadotrophin) on triple test biochemistry are suggestive, and the diagnosis can be confirmed on ultrasonography.
Other genetic conditions, such as Pierre-Robin syndrome, Down’s syndrome, Fragile X syndrome, and Noonan’s syndrome, have their own distinct features and should be differentiated from trisomy 18. Understanding these conditions and their unique characteristics can aid in early diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with a cut sustained while helping her mother with gardening. The wound appears superficial and is closed with skin glue. During examination, her vital signs are recorded as a temperature of 36.9ºC, heart rate of 86 bpm, blood pressure of 115/87 mmHg, respiratory rate of 16/min, and oxygen saturation of 98% on room air. The patient's mother is concerned about the need for a tetanus booster as she cannot recall if her daughter received the full course of vaccinations during childhood. How should the patient be managed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tetanus booster vaccine and immunoglobulin
Explanation:If a patient’s tetanus vaccination history is uncertain and the wound is not minor and less than 6 hours old, they should receive a booster vaccine and immunoglobulin. In this case, the patient is 13 years old and should have received 4 or 5 vaccinations against tetanus under the standard UK vaccination schedule. Antibiotics are not necessary if the wound is clean and not deep. It is more efficient to administer the booster while the patient is in the department rather than asking the GP to follow up, which could result in the patient being lost to follow up. The term tetanus level is incorrect as there is no such test.
Tetanus Vaccination and Management of Wounds
The tetanus vaccine is a purified toxin that is given as part of a combined vaccine. In the UK, it is given as part of the routine immunisation schedule at 2, 3, and 4 months, 3-5 years, and 13-18 years, providing a total of 5 doses for long-term protection against tetanus.
When managing wounds, the first step is to classify them as clean, tetanus-prone, or high-risk tetanus-prone. Clean wounds are less than 6 hours old and have negligible tissue damage, while tetanus-prone wounds include puncture-type injuries acquired in a contaminated environment or wounds containing foreign bodies. High-risk tetanus-prone wounds include wounds or burns with systemic sepsis, certain animal bites and scratches, heavy contamination with material likely to contain tetanus spores, wounds or burns with extensive devitalised tissue, and wounds or burns that require surgical intervention.
If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose less than 10 years ago, no vaccine or tetanus immunoglobulin is required regardless of the wound severity. If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose more than 10 years ago, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required for tetanus-prone wounds, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for high-risk wounds. If the vaccination history is incomplete or unknown, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required regardless of the wound severity, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for tetanus-prone and high-risk wounds.
Overall, proper vaccination and wound management are crucial in preventing tetanus infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old boy with asthma is brought into the GP surgery with a cough and shortness of breath. Examination reveals a respiratory rate of 34 breaths/min, apyrexial, wheeze throughout his chest and a peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) of half his predicted value.
Which of the following treatments is the best option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inpatient management with nebuliser salbutamol and oral steroids
Explanation:Managing Acute Asthma Exacerbations in Children: Treatment Options and Guidelines
When a child experiences an acute asthma exacerbation, prompt and appropriate management is crucial to prevent further complications. Here are some treatment options and guidelines to consider:
Inpatient Management with Nebuliser Salbutamol and Oral Steroids
For severe asthma exacerbations, hospital transfer is necessary. Inpatient management should include nebulised bronchodilators in combination with early oral steroids. A 3-day steroid course is usually sufficient.Manage as Outpatient with Inhaled Salbutamol via Spacer
Mild to moderate acute asthma can be managed with salbutamol via a spacer. Oral steroids should be considered in all children with an acute exacerbation of asthma. However, all children with features of severe or life-threatening asthma should be transferred to a hospital.Outpatient Management with Antibiotics
Antibiotics would be inappropriate for acute asthma exacerbations unless there are clues in the history to suggest a bacterial infection as the cause of exacerbation.Continue Current Medications with No Changes
In severe acute asthma, urgent treatment with nebulisers and transfer to a hospital is necessary.IV Salbutamol
IV salbutamol is second line and considered only if the symptoms have responded poorly to nebulised therapy.British Thoracic Society (BTS)/Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN) guidance suggests that all children with features of severe or life-threatening asthma should be transferred to a hospital. The severity of acute asthma in children over 5 can be determined using the BTS severity scoring.
By following these guidelines and treatment options, healthcare professionals can effectively manage acute asthma exacerbations in children and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding the HPV vaccine is incorrect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Children who received another live vaccine 2 weeks ago can safely have MMR
Explanation:The MMR Vaccine: Information on Contraindications and Adverse Effects
The Measles, Mumps and Rubella (MMR) vaccine is given to children in the UK twice before they enter primary school. The first dose is administered at 12-15 months, while the second dose is given at 3-4 years old. This vaccine is part of the routine immunisation schedule.
However, there are certain contraindications to the MMR vaccine. Children with severe immunosuppression, allergies to neomycin, or those who have received another live vaccine by injection within four weeks should not receive the MMR vaccine. Pregnant women should also avoid getting vaccinated for at least one month following the MMR vaccine. Additionally, if a child has undergone immunoglobulin therapy within the past three months, there may be no immune response to the measles vaccine if antibodies are present.
While the MMR vaccine is generally safe, there are some adverse effects that may occur. After the first dose of the vaccine, some children may experience malaise, fever, and rash. These symptoms typically occur after 5-10 days and last for around 2-3 days. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects and to consult with a healthcare professional if any concerns arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A mother brings in her 4-year-old daughter to the GP surgery. For the past 3 weeks, the girl has been experiencing discomfort while passing urine. She has a history of 3 previous urinary tract infections. During external examination, you notice thin semitranslucent adhesions that cover the vaginal opening between the labia minora but not the urethra opening. You prescribe a course of trimethoprim. What other treatment options would you consider initiating?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oestrogen cream
Explanation:Labial adhesions are typically caused by low levels of estrogen and are usually treated conservatively as they often resolve during puberty. However, if there are recurrent urinary tract infections, oestrogen creams may be considered as a treatment option. The use of trimethoprim pessary, IV dexamethasone, and oral prednisolone are not appropriate treatments for labial adhesions. It is important to address the adhesion as leaving it untreated can lead to complications.
Labial Adhesions: A Common Condition in Young Girls
Labial adhesions refer to the fusion of the labia minora in the middle, which is commonly observed in girls aged between 3 months and 3 years. This condition can be treated conservatively, and spontaneous resolution usually occurs around puberty. It is important to note that labial adhesions are different from an imperforate hymen.
Symptoms of labial adhesions include problems with urination, such as pooling in the vagina. Upon examination, thin semitranslucent adhesions covering the vaginal opening between the labia minora may be seen, which can sometimes cover the vaginal opening completely.
Conservative management is typically appropriate for most cases of labial adhesions. However, if there are associated problems such as recurrent urinary tract infections, oestrogen cream may be tried. If this fails, surgical intervention may be necessary.
In summary, labial adhesions are a common condition in young girls that can be managed conservatively. It is important to seek medical attention if symptoms persist or worsen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy comes to the clinic with a history of headaches for the past 6 months. He reports experiencing these headaches once every few weeks, with each episode lasting for a day. Prior to the onset of the headache, he sees zig-zag lines. The headaches are typically on the right side of his head, accompanied by nausea and occasional vomiting. He finds some relief by sleeping in a dark, quiet room. Apart from this, he is healthy.
What is the initial approach to managing his condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral ibuprofen
Explanation:The recommended initial treatment for paediatric migraines is ibuprofen. Sumatriptan nasal spray is only approved for use in children over the age of 12, and oral sumatriptan is not approved for those under 18. Codeine and oramorph are not recommended for treating migraines in children. Indomethacin is also not typically used for paediatric migraines.
Understanding Headaches in Children
Headaches are a common occurrence in children, with up to 50% of 7-year-olds and 80% of 15-year-olds experiencing at least one headache. Migraine without aura is the most common cause of primary headache in children, with a strong female preponderance after puberty. The International Headache Society has produced criteria for diagnosing pediatric migraine without aura, which includes headache attacks lasting 4-72 hours, with at least two of four specific features and accompanying symptoms such as nausea and vomiting.
When it comes to acute management, ibuprofen is considered more effective than paracetamol for pediatric migraine. Triptans may be used in children over 12 years old, but follow-up is required, and only sumatriptan nasal spray is licensed for use in young people. However, oral triptans are not currently licensed for those under 18 years old, and side effects may include tingling, heat, and pressure sensations.
Prophylaxis for pediatric migraine is limited, with no clear consensus guidelines. Pizotifen and propranolol are recommended as first-line preventatives, while valproate, topiramate, and amitriptyline are considered second-line preventatives. Tension-type headache is the second most common cause of headache in children, with diagnostic criteria including at least 10 previous headache episodes lasting from 30 minutes to 7 days, with specific pain characteristics and the absence of nausea or vomiting.
In summary, headaches in children are common, and migraine without aura is the most common primary headache. Acute management includes ibuprofen and triptans, while prophylaxis is limited. Tension-type headache is also a common cause of headache in children. It is important to seek medical advice if headaches are frequent or severe, or if there are any concerning symptoms such as neurological deficits or changes in behavior.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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During a cardiorespiratory exam, a 5-year-old boy is found to have pectus excavatum and pulmonary stenosis. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Noonan syndrome
Explanation:Noonan syndrome is diagnosed in a young boy who exhibits a webbed neck, pulmonary stenosis, ptosis, and short stature, despite having a normal karyotype.
Childhood syndromes are a group of medical conditions that affect children and are characterized by a set of common features. Patau syndrome, also known as trisomy 13, is a syndrome that is characterized by microcephaly, small eyes, cleft lip/palate, polydactyly, and scalp lesions. Edward’s syndrome, also known as trisomy 18, is characterized by micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers. Fragile X syndrome is characterized by learning difficulties, macrocephaly, long face, large ears, and macro-orchidism. Noonan syndrome is characterized by a webbed neck, pectus excavatum, short stature, and pulmonary stenosis. Pierre-Robin syndrome is characterized by micrognathia, posterior displacement of the tongue, and cleft palate. Prader-Willi syndrome is characterized by hypotonia, hypogonadism, and obesity. William’s syndrome is characterized by short stature, learning difficulties, friendly, extrovert personality, and transient neonatal hypercalcaemia. Cri du chat syndrome, also known as chromosome 5p deletion syndrome, is characterized by a characteristic cry, feeding difficulties and poor weight gain, learning difficulties, microcephaly and micrognathism, and hypertelorism. It is important to note that Treacher-Collins syndrome is similar to Pierre-Robin syndrome, but it is autosomal dominant and usually has a family history of similar problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A newborn girl born 4 hours ago has an APGAR score of 10. She is not cyanosed, has a pulse of 150, cries on stimulation, her arms and legs resist extension and she has a good cry. However, she appears jaundiced. What should be done in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Measure and record the serum bilirubin level urgently.
Explanation:Jaundice in newborns can occur within the first 24 hours of life and is always considered pathological. The causes of jaundice during this period include rhesus and ABO haemolytic diseases, hereditary spherocytosis, and glucose-6-phosphodehydrogenase deficiency. On the other hand, jaundice in neonates from 2-14 days is common and usually physiological, affecting up to 40% of babies. This type of jaundice is due to a combination of factors such as more red blood cells, fragile red blood cells, and less developed liver function. Breastfed babies are more likely to develop this type of jaundice.
If jaundice persists after 14 days (21 days for premature babies), a prolonged jaundice screen is performed. This includes tests for conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin, direct antiglobulin test, thyroid function tests, full blood count and blood film, urine for MC&S and reducing sugars, and urea and electrolytes. Prolonged jaundice can be caused by biliary atresia, hypothyroidism, galactosaemia, urinary tract infection, breast milk jaundice, prematurity, and congenital infections such as CMV and toxoplasmosis. Breast milk jaundice is more common in breastfed babies and is thought to be due to high concentrations of beta-glucuronidase, which increases the intestinal absorption of unconjugated bilirubin. Prematurity also increases the risk of kernicterus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Fragile X is commonly associated with all of the following symptoms except?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Small, firm testes
Explanation:Fragile X Syndrome: A Genetic Disorder
Fragile X syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by a trinucleotide repeat. It affects both males and females, but males are more severely affected. Common features in males include learning difficulties, large low set ears, long thin face, high arched palate, macroorchidism, hypotonia, and a higher likelihood of autism. Mitral valve prolapse is also a common feature. Females, who have one fragile chromosome and one normal X chromosome, may have a range of symptoms from normal to mild.
Diagnosis of Fragile X syndrome can be made antenatally by chorionic villus sampling or amniocentesis. The number of CGG repeats can be analyzed using restriction endonuclease digestion and Southern blot analysis. Early diagnosis and intervention can help manage the symptoms of Fragile X syndrome and improve the quality of life for those affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A neonate is diagnosed with a cardiac congenital abnormality where the foetal aorta and pulmonary trunk are parallel with an absence of crossing. What medication should be initiated urgently before corrective surgery can be performed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prostaglandin E1
Explanation:The initial management for duct dependent congenital heart disease involves maintaining the ductus arteriosus with prostaglandins. In neonates with transposition of the great arteries (TGA), prostaglandin E1 is given intravenously to ensure the ductus arteriosus remains open, as its closure can lead to circulatory failure and profound cyanosis. Prostaglandins work by dilating vascular smooth muscle, which maintains the patency of the ductus arteriosus. Administering prostaglandins after delivery is necessary as the prostaglandin-rich placenta is no longer present to keep the ductus arteriosus open. Adenosine is not indicated in this case, as the newborn’s issue is circulatory rather than related to cardiac electrical activity. If heart failure occurs, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors may be used, but prostaglandins should be the first-line treatment to prevent heart failure. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) should be avoided as they inhibit prostaglandin synthesis, leading to closure of the ductus arteriosus and likely death of the newborn. Prostaglandin E is the most potent type of prostaglandin responsible for maintaining ductus arteriosus patency, not prostaglandin F2.
Understanding Transposition of the Great Arteries
Transposition of the great arteries (TGA) is a type of congenital heart disease that results in a lack of oxygenated blood flow to the body. This condition occurs when the aorticopulmonary septum fails to spiral during septation, causing the aorta to leave the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk to leave the left ventricle. Children born to diabetic mothers are at a higher risk of developing TGA.
The clinical features of TGA include cyanosis, tachypnea, a loud single S2 heart sound, and a prominent right ventricular impulse. Chest x-rays may show an egg-on-side appearance.
To manage TGA, it is important to maintain the ductus arteriosus with prostaglandins. Surgical correction is the definitive treatment for this condition. Understanding the basic anatomical changes and clinical features of TGA can help with early diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl comes to the clinic with concerns about not having started her periods yet. She is shorter than most girls her age. She has gone through adrenarche but has not yet experienced thelarche. Her mother and sister both began menstruating at age 12. The following are her blood test results:
- FSH: 60 IU/L (normal range: 0-10)
- LH: 40 IU/L (normal range: 0-16)
- Oestradiol: 6.4 pmol/L (normal range: 73-407)
- Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH): 5.0 mU/L (normal range: 0.5-5.5)
- Free thyroxine (T4): 12 pmol/L (normal range: 9.0-18)
- Prolactin: 323 mIU/L (normal range: <700)
Based on the patient's symptoms and test results, what is the most likely cause of her amenorrhoea?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Turner's syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Turner’s Syndrome
Turner’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is denoted as 45,XO or 45,X.
The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (15%), coarctation of the aorta (5-10%), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is much more common in Turner’s syndrome, and there is also an increased incidence of autoimmune disease (especially autoimmune thyroiditis) and Crohn’s disease.
In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and can cause a range of physical features and health issues. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A father brings his 5-year-old daughter to the clinic. Despite not getting the MMR vaccine during the recent scare, he now wants to know if it's still possible to have her immunised due to the current measles outbreak. What should be done in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give MMR with repeat dose in 3 months
Explanation:According to the Green Book, it is recommended to have a 3-month gap between doses for optimal response rate. However, if the child is over 10 years old, a 1-month gap is sufficient. In case of an emergency, such as an outbreak at the child’s school, younger children can have a shorter gap of 1 month.
The MMR Vaccine: Information on Contraindications and Adverse Effects
The Measles, Mumps and Rubella (MMR) vaccine is given to children in the UK twice before they enter primary school. The first dose is administered at 12-15 months, while the second dose is given at 3-4 years old. This vaccine is part of the routine immunisation schedule.
However, there are certain contraindications to the MMR vaccine. Children with severe immunosuppression, allergies to neomycin, or those who have received another live vaccine by injection within four weeks should not receive the MMR vaccine. Pregnant women should also avoid getting vaccinated for at least one month following the MMR vaccine. Additionally, if a child has undergone immunoglobulin therapy within the past three months, there may be no immune response to the measles vaccine if antibodies are present.
While the MMR vaccine is generally safe, there are some adverse effects that may occur. After the first dose of the vaccine, some children may experience malaise, fever, and rash. These symptoms typically occur after 5-10 days and last for around 2-3 days. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects and to consult with a healthcare professional if any concerns arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl is seen in clinic for nocturnal enuresis. Despite her mother's attempts at using a reward system, there has been no improvement. What is the best initial approach to management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Enuresis alarm
Explanation:If general advice has not been effective, an enuresis alarm is typically the initial treatment for nocturnal enuresis. It is not advisable to limit fluid intake. According to Clinical Knowledge Summaries, children should consume approximately eight drinks per day, evenly distributed throughout the day, with the last one consumed approximately one hour before bedtime.
Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.
When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.
The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A father brings his 4-month-old baby who is currently breastfed to your clinic. He reports that the baby sometimes rejects feeds, frequently vomits, and cries for extended periods after feeds. The baby's weight was at the 50th percentile during birth but has now dropped to the 40th percentile. What advice should you give?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trial of Gaviscon
Explanation:According to NICE, breastfed infants who experience frequent regurgitation accompanied by significant distress should be given a trial of alginate therapy (such as Gaviscon) after each feed for a period of 1-2 weeks. If symptoms persist, a 4-week trial of a proton pump inhibitor (such as oral omeprazole) or a histamine-2 receptor antagonist (such as oral ranitidine) should be administered. If symptoms continue despite these treatments, it may be necessary to refer the infant to a paediatrician. For bottle-fed infants with reflux, thickened feeds are recommended.
Understanding Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux in Children
Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.
Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in children involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not being overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. Proton pump inhibitors are not recommended unless the child is experiencing unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Ranitidine, previously used as an alternative to PPIs, has been withdrawn from the market due to the discovery of carcinogens in some products. Prokinetic agents should only be used with specialist advice.
Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux in children include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. In severe cases where medical treatment is ineffective, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for parents and caregivers to understand the symptoms and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in children to ensure the best possible outcomes for their little ones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 36
Incorrect
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You are a foundation year 2 Doctor on your GP placement. Your first appointment is 6-year-old Jack. His mother has brought him to see you as he has had a cold over the past 6 days and now has developed a productive cough with green sputum. On examination you hear bilateral crackles at the base of his lungs and there is dullness to percussion at the left base. All basic observations are within normal limits. You diagnose a lower respiratory tract infection and decide to prescribe some antibiotics. Jack has no allergies.
What is the first line antibiotic you would prescribe for Jack?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amoxicillin
Explanation:For children without a penicillin allergy, amoxicillin is the primary treatment for pneumonia according to the 2011 guidelines from the British Thoracic Society. If the initial treatment is ineffective, macrolides may be added. Macrolides are recommended if Mycoplasma or Chlamydia is suspected. Co-amoxiclav is suggested for pneumonia associated with influenza.
Pneumonia is a common illness in children, with S. pneumoniae being the most likely cause of bacterial pneumonia. The British Thoracic Society has published guidelines for the management of community acquired pneumonia in children. According to these guidelines, amoxicillin is the first-line treatment for all children with pneumonia. Macrolides may be added if there is no response to first-line therapy, or if mycoplasma or chlamydia is suspected. In cases of pneumonia associated with influenza, co-amoxiclav is recommended. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure effective treatment and management of pneumonia in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 37
Incorrect
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What is a cause of acyanotic congenital heart disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta
Explanation:Coarctation of the aorta does not cause cyanosis.
Congenital heart disease can be categorized into two types: acyanotic and cyanotic. Acyanotic heart diseases are more common and include ventricular septal defects (VSD), atrial septal defect (ASD), patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), coarctation of the aorta, and aortic valve stenosis. VSD is the most common acyanotic heart disease, accounting for 30% of cases. ASDs are less common than VSDs, but they are more frequently diagnosed in adult patients as they tend to present later. On the other hand, cyanotic heart diseases are less common and include tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries (TGA), and tricuspid atresia. Fallot’s is more common than TGA, but TGA is the more common lesion at birth as patients with Fallot’s generally present at around 1-2 months. The presence of cyanosis in pulmonary valve stenosis depends on the severity and any other coexistent defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 38
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding croup is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Most commonly caused by parainfluenza viruses
Explanation:The majority of croup cases are caused by parainfluenza virus, and it is recommended to avoid throat examination as it may lead to airway obstruction.
Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers
Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.
The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.
Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.
Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old baby girl is brought to her General Practitioner by her mother. She had a runny nose for two days and has had a cough for three days. She has not been feeding as much as usual.
On examination, her temperature is 38.2 °C. Her respiratory rate is slightly raised. On auscultation of the chest, she has a widespread wheeze and crepitations. Her other observations are within normal limits.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bronchiolitis
Explanation:Distinguishing between respiratory illnesses in children: A guide
When a child presents with respiratory symptoms, it can be difficult to determine the underlying cause. Here, we will discuss the key features of several common respiratory illnesses in children and how to differentiate between them.
Bronchiolitis is characterized by coryzal symptoms followed by a persistent cough, tachypnea, chest recession, and wheezing or crepitations on auscultation. A low-grade fever and reduced feeding may also be present.
Croup is a viral upper airway infection that causes a barking cough, predominantly inspiratory stridor, hoarse voice, intercostal or sternal indrawing, fever, and coryzal symptoms.
Asthma typically presents with shortness of breath, cough, wheeze, and chest tightness, and is more common in children over two years old.
Acute epiglottitis is an insidious but rapidly progressive airway emergency that causes fever, sore throat, odynophagia, muffled voice, dysphagia, dyspnea, respiratory distress, dysphonia, and stridor. The child may sit in a tripod position to maximize airway opening.
A viral upper respiratory tract infection may cause coryzal symptoms, cough, and fever, but crepitations on auscultation would not be expected.
By understanding the key features of these respiratory illnesses, healthcare providers can make a more accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 40
Incorrect
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An infant is noted to have a cleft palate, aortic arch abnormality and absent thymus on chest radiograph. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Deletion of 22q11
Explanation:DiGeorge’s syndrome, also known as 22q11.2 deletion syndrome, is caused by a small deletion on chromosome 22 and can result in a variety of features in different individuals. Common characteristics include cardiac defects such as tetralogy of Fallot, interrupted aortic arch, truncus arteriosus, and ventricular septal defect, as well as cleft palate and distinct facial features. Pulmonary defects like tracheo-oesophageal fistula and laryngomalacia may also be present, along with a risk of recurrent infections due to defects in the T-cell-mediated immune response. Hypocalcaemia/hypoparathyroidism may be diagnosed after birth. Fetal alcohol syndrome, Prader-Willi syndrome, fetal valproate syndrome, and trisomy 13 are other conditions with distinct features that differ from those of DiGeorge’s syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 5-year-old son to the clinic as she is worried about his bedwetting habit. Unlike his older sibling who stopped bedwetting at the age of 4, this child still wets the bed at night. The mother is seeking advice on possible treatment options. What is the best course of action to manage this issue?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassurance and advice on fluid intake, diet and toileting behaviour
Explanation:Reassurance and advice are sufficient for managing nocturnal enuresis in children under 5 years of age. It is important to reassure mothers that bedwetting is still common at the age of 4.
Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.
When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.
The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 42
Incorrect
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As a second-year foundation doctor in the emergency department, you come across a thirteen-year-old patient complaining of right hip pain and a limp. The patient has a mild fever, but all other observations and blood tests are normal. An X-ray also shows no abnormalities. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transient synovitis
Explanation:Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is a common childhood condition that presents with sudden onset pain and limping. It is diagnosed by ruling out other possible causes and typically resolves on its own within 1-2 weeks. While trauma or non-accidental injury may be a factor, this would likely be revealed in the patient’s medical history. However, doctors should remain vigilant for signs of non-accidental injury. Although septic arthritis is a possibility, it is unlikely in cases where blood tests are normal. Slipped Upper Femoral Epiphysis (SUFE), which causes groin pain and a waddling gait, can be ruled out based on its characteristic x-ray findings.
Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is a common cause of hip pain in children aged 3-8 years. It typically occurs following a recent viral infection and presents with symptoms such as groin or hip pain, limping or refusal to weight bear, and occasionally a low-grade fever. However, a high fever may indicate other serious conditions such as septic arthritis, which requires urgent specialist assessment. To exclude such diagnoses, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend monitoring children in primary care with a presumptive diagnosis of transient synovitis, provided they are aged 3-9 years, well, afebrile, mobile but limping, and have had symptoms for less than 72 hours. Treatment for transient synovitis involves rest and analgesia, as the condition is self-limiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl is seen in the Paediatric Admissions Unit with a fever lasting for a week. During examination, she presents with red, painful lips and conjunctival injection. Additionally, her hands are swollen and red. Blood tests reveal the following results: Hb 13.1 g/dl, WBC 12.7 *109/l, Platelets 520 *109/l, and CRP 96 mg/L. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kawasaki disease
Explanation:Understanding Kawasaki Disease
Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.
Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.
Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department with a two-day history of diarrhoea and vomiting. She has drunk only small amounts and is becoming more lethargic. She has opened her bowels five times but has only passed urine once today. She is usually fit and well. Her 7-year-old sister was unwell with the same symptoms a few days before but has since recovered well.
On examination, she appears restless with sunken eyes, dry mucous membranes and capillary refill time (CRT) of 2 seconds, and she is tachycardic with a pulse of 150 beats per minute.
What would be your assessment of her clinical fluid status?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clinical dehydration
Explanation:Understanding Dehydration in Children: Symptoms and Management
Dehydration is a common concern in children, especially when they are suffering from illnesses like gastroenteritis. It is important to recognize the different levels of dehydration and manage them accordingly.
Clinical dehydration is characterized by symptoms such as restlessness and decreased urine output. Signs of clinical dehydration include irritability, sunken eyes, dry mucous membranes, tachycardia, and normal capillary refill time (CRT).
Children with no clinically detectable dehydration do not show any signs or symptoms of dehydration and can be managed with oral fluids until the illness subsides.
Clinical shock is a severe form of dehydration that requires immediate medical attention. Symptoms of clinical shock include a decreased level of consciousness, pale or mottled skin, cold extremities, tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension, weak peripheral pulses, and a prolonged CRT. Children with clinical shock require admission and rehydration with intravenous fluids and electrolyte supplementation.
A euvolemic child, on the other hand, has a normal general appearance, normal eyes, a moist tongue, and present tears. They have a normal CRT and are not tachycardic.
It is important to recognize the signs and symptoms of dehydration in children and manage it accordingly to prevent further complications. Fluid overload is also a concern, but in cases of gastroenteritis-induced dehydration, rehydration is necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 45
Incorrect
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You assess a 10-month-old infant with parents of Jamaican descent. The parents have observed a minor bulge near the belly button. The child is healthy and falls on the 50th percentile. During the examination, you observe a small umbilical hernia that is less than 1 cm in size and can be reduced. What is the best course of action for this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure the parents that the vast majority resolve by the age of 4-5 years
Explanation:Abdominal wall hernias occur when an organ or the fascia of an organ protrudes through the wall of the cavity that normally contains it. Risk factors for developing these hernias include obesity, ascites, increasing age, and surgical wounds. Symptoms of abdominal wall hernias include a palpable lump, cough impulse, pain, obstruction (more common in femoral hernias), and strangulation (which can compromise the bowel blood supply and lead to infarction). There are several types of abdominal wall hernias, including inguinal hernias (which account for 75% of cases and are more common in men), femoral hernias (more common in women and have a high risk of obstruction and strangulation), umbilical hernias (symmetrical bulge under the umbilicus), paraumbilical hernias (asymmetrical bulge), epigastric hernias (lump in the midline between umbilicus and xiphisternum), incisional hernias (which may occur after abdominal surgery), Spigelian hernias (rare and seen in older patients), obturator hernias (more common in females and can cause bowel obstruction), and Richter hernias (a rare type of hernia that can present with strangulation without symptoms of obstruction). In children, congenital inguinal hernias and infantile umbilical hernias are the most common types, with surgical repair recommended for the former and most resolving on their own for the latter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old boy is brought to the paediatric urology clinic due to recurrent urinary tract infections. A renal ultrasound revealed dilatation of the ureters. The boy's father remembers having a similar issue with a valve in his ureters during childhood, resulting in urine flowing back towards the kidneys. What is the most suitable test to assess the severity of the probable underlying cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Micturating cystography
Explanation:Vesicoureteral reflux (VUR) is a likely cause of recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs) in children under 6 years old. The family history, age of the patient, and abnormal ultrasound findings suggest VUR as the underlying issue. To determine the severity of VUR, a voiding cystourethrogram (micturating cystography) is necessary. This test involves injecting dye into the bladder via a catheter and taking x-ray images while the child urinates. Early detection of VUR is crucial to prevent kidney scarring (reflux nephropathy).
Bladder ultrasound is not an appropriate method for grading VUR severity. While ultrasound imaging of the urinary tract, including the kidneys, can be useful, it cannot grade VUR severity.
A CT abdomen is not necessary and would expose the child to unnecessary radiation.
A dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA) scan can assess renal parenchymal defects resulting from VUR and is typically performed within six months of an acute infection in children with recurrent UTIs. However, it cannot grade the severity of VUR.
Understanding Vesicoureteric Reflux
Vesicoureteric reflux (VUR) is a condition where urine flows back from the bladder into the ureter and kidney. This is a common urinary tract abnormality in children and can lead to urinary tract infections (UTIs). In fact, around 30% of children who present with a UTI have VUR. It is important to investigate for VUR in children following a UTI as around 35% of children develop renal scarring.
The pathophysiology of VUR involves the ureters being displaced laterally, which causes a shortened intramural course of the ureter. This means that the vesicoureteric junction cannot function properly. VUR can present in different ways, such as hydronephrosis on ultrasound during the antenatal period, recurrent childhood UTIs, and reflux nephropathy, which is chronic pyelonephritis secondary to VUR. Renal scarring can also produce increased quantities of renin, which can cause hypertension.
To diagnose VUR, a micturating cystourethrogram is usually performed. A DMSA scan may also be done to check for renal scarring. VUR is graded based on the severity of the condition, with Grade I being the mildest and Grade V being the most severe.
Overall, understanding VUR is important in preventing complications such as UTIs and renal scarring. Early diagnosis and management can help improve outcomes for children with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A first-time mother brings her daughter, Lily, who is 7-months old, to the GP surgery. She is worried about Lily's development as she is still unable to sit without support. However, Lily is able to roll from front to back, sit with back straight if being held, and grasp toys when lying on her back. Can you inform the mother at what age Lily will be able to sit without support?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 7-8 months, refer if not achieved by 12 months
Explanation:If sitting without support is not achieved by 12 months, referral is necessary, although it should typically be achieved by 7-8 months.
Gross Motor Developmental Milestones
Gross motor skills refer to the ability to use large muscles in the body for activities such as crawling, walking, running, and jumping. These skills are essential for a child’s physical development and are achieved through a series of developmental milestones.
At 3 months, a baby should have little or no head lag when pulled to sit and should have good head control when lying on their abdomen. By 6 months, they should be able to lift and grasp their feet when lying on their back, pull themselves to a sitting position, and roll from front to back. At 9 months, they should be able to pull themselves to a standing position and crawl. By 12 months, they should be able to cruise and walk with one hand held. At 18 months, they should be able to walk unsupported and squat to pick up a toy. By 2 years, they should be able to run and walk up and down stairs holding onto a rail. At 3 years, they should be able to ride a tricycle using pedals and walk up stairs without holding onto a rail. By 4 years, they should be able to hop on one leg.It is important to note that while the majority of children crawl on all fours before walking, some children may bottom-shuffle, which is a normal variant that runs in families. These milestones serve as a guide for parents and healthcare professionals to monitor a child’s physical development and identify any potential delays or concerns.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old boy is taken to his pediatrician by his father due to constant scratching of his bottom at night. The father reports observing some unusual white particles when cleaning his son's bottom after a bowel movement. What would be the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe a single dose of mebendazole for the whole household and issue hygiene advice.
Explanation:Threadworm Infestation in Children
Threadworm infestation, caused by Enterobius vermicularis or pinworms, is a common occurrence among children in the UK. The infestation happens when eggs present in the environment are ingested. In most cases, threadworm infestation is asymptomatic, but some possible symptoms include perianal itching, especially at night, and vulval symptoms in girls. Diagnosis can be made by applying Sellotape to the perianal area and sending it to the laboratory for microscopy to see the eggs. However, most patients are treated empirically, and this approach is supported in the CKS guidelines.
The CKS recommends a combination of anthelmintic with hygiene measures for all members of the household. Mebendazole is the first-line treatment for children over six months old, and a single dose is given unless the infestation persists. It is essential to treat all members of the household to prevent re-infection. Proper hygiene measures, such as washing hands regularly, keeping fingernails short, and washing clothes and bedding at high temperatures, can also help prevent the spread of threadworm infestation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 2 year old child is brought to the paediatric assessment unit by their mother due to a fever, barking cough, and difficulty breathing at night. The child has been diagnosed with croup and you have been requested to review their condition. Upon conducting a thorough history and assessment, you determine that there is no presence of stridor or respiratory distress. What would be your next course of action in managing this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give oral dexamethasone
Explanation:For mild croup, a single dose of oral dexamethasone (0.15 mg/kg) should be taken immediately, regardless of the severity. The severity of croup is determined by factors such as respiratory rate, respiratory distress, heart rate, O2 saturations, and exhaustion. Treatment for severe croup includes systemic dexamethasone and nebulized adrenaline (5ml of 1:1000), along with oxygen administration. Antibiotics should only be given if there is suspicion of an underlying bacterial infection. It is not recommended to perform an ENT exam due to the risk of an epiglottis diagnosis.
Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers
Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.
The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.
Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.
Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A toddler is brought to the emergency department by a worried parent. The parent reports that the child was violently shaken by the caregiver. The paediatricians on duty observe retinal haemorrhages and suspect encephalopathy. What was identified on the CT head to complete the triad of features of Shaken Baby Syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subdural haematoma
Explanation:The combination of retinal haemorrhages, subdural haematoma, and encephalopathy is known as the triad of symptoms associated with Shaken Baby Syndrome. The tearing of fragile bridging cerebral veins in infants is believed to be the cause of subdural haematomas, which are the most common and typical intracranial manifestation of this syndrome.
Understanding Shaken Baby Syndrome
Shaken baby syndrome is a condition that involves a combination of retinal haemorrhages, subdural haematoma, and encephalopathy. It occurs when a child between the ages of 0-5 years old is intentionally shaken. However, there is controversy among physicians regarding the mechanism of injury, making it difficult for courts to convict suspects of causing shaken baby syndrome to a child. This condition has made headlines due to the ongoing debate among medical professionals.
Shaken baby syndrome is a serious condition that can cause long-term damage to a child’s health. It is important to understand the signs and symptoms of this condition to ensure that children are protected from harm. While the controversy surrounding the diagnosis of shaken baby syndrome continues, it is crucial to prioritize the safety and well-being of children. By raising awareness and educating the public about this condition, we can work towards preventing it from occurring in the future.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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