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  • Question 1 - You are called to see a 24 year old patient in A&E. She...

    Incorrect

    • You are called to see a 24 year old patient in A&E. She is 34 weeks gestation and her blood pressure is 149/98. Urine dip shows protein 3+. You send a for a protein:creatinine ratio. What level would be diagnostic of significant proteinuria?

      Your Answer: >300 mg/mmol

      Correct Answer: >30 mg/mmol

      Explanation:

      Significant proteinuria = urinary protein:creatinine ratio >30 mg/mmol or 24-hour urine collection result shows greater than 300 mg protein

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      79.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following conditions are the most common cause in post-partum haemorrhage?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions are the most common cause in post-partum haemorrhage?

      Your Answer: Uterine atony

      Explanation:

      Uterine atony is the most common cause for postpartum haemorrhage and the conditions like multiple pregnancy, polyhydramnions, macrosomia, prolonged labour and multiparity are the most common risk factor for uterine atony.

      Whereas less common causes for postpartum haemorrhage are laceration of genital tract, uterine rupture, uterine inversion and coagulopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      150.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - At the 18th week of her pregnancy, a 32-year-old woman presents with a...

    Correct

    • At the 18th week of her pregnancy, a 32-year-old woman presents with a fishy-smelling, thin, white homogeneous, and offensive vaginal discharge. Under light microscopy, a sample of the discharge contains clue cells. Which of the following assertions about this condition is correct?

      Your Answer: There is a relapse rate of over 50% in 6 months

      Explanation:

      Reported cure rates for an episode of acute BV vary but have been estimated to be between 70% and 80%. Unfortunately, more than 50% of BV cases will recur at least once within the following 12 months. Because the aetiology of BV is still not entirely understood, identifying the cause of recurrent cases is challenging. Reinfection may play a role in explaining recurrent BV, but
      treatment failure is a more likely contributor. There are several theories that try to explain recurrence and persistent symptoms. The existence of a biofilm in the vagina is one such theory and is the subject of ongoing research. Biofilms occur when microorganisms adhere to surfaces. G vaginalis, one of the primary organisms

      BV is not a sexually transmitted infection. The antibiotic of choice to treat BV is Metronidazole. Reassurance is not acceptable as a means of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      347.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A baby with shoulder dystocia suffers a brachial plexus injury. You diagnose Erb-Duchenne...

    Incorrect

    • A baby with shoulder dystocia suffers a brachial plexus injury. You diagnose Erb-Duchenne palsy. Which nerve roots are typically affected?

      Your Answer: C7 and T1

      Correct Answer: C5 and C6

      Explanation:

      Erb’s or Erb-Duchenne palsy is a type of brachial plexus injury. The brachial plexus comprises C5 to T1 nerve roots. In Erb’s palsy C5 and C6 are the roots primarily affected. Shoulder Dystocia is the most common cause of Erb’s palsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      180.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 19-year-old female books an appointment at the antenatal clinic at 13 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old female books an appointment at the antenatal clinic at 13 weeks gestation. One week ago, she had a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear done which showed grade 3 cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN3). What is the best next step in her management?

      Your Answer: Repeat the Pap smear at 34 weeks of gestation.

      Correct Answer: Colposcopy.

      Explanation:

      The best next step in her management is a colposcopy.

      Patients diagnosed with high-grade lesions (CIN 2 or 3) or adenocarcinoma in situ (AIS) during pregnancy should undergo surveillance via colposcopy and age-based testing (cytology/HPV) every 12-24 weeks.

      Cone biopsy and long loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ biopsy) are not recommended if the lesion extends up the canal and out of the vision of the colposcope.
      It is not necessary to terminate the pregnancy.

      Because repeat colposcopic examination during pregnancy offers all of the information needed, the repeat Pap smear is best done after the pregnancy has ended.

      Unless colposcopy indicates aggressive cancer at an earlier time, the ultimate therapy required is usually not decided until the postpartum visit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      68.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 40-year-old woman arrives at the hospital at eight weeks of her first...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman arrives at the hospital at eight weeks of her first pregnancy, anxious that her kid may have Down syndrome. Which of the following best reflects the risk of spontaneous abortion after an amniocentesis performed at 16 weeks?

      Your Answer: 18%

      Explanation:

      This question assesses critical clinical knowledge, as this information must be presented to a patient prior to an amniocentesis to ensure that she has given her informed permission for the treatment.
      Amniocentesis is most typically used for genetic counselling in the second trimester of pregnancy. Another option is to do a chorion-villus biopsy (CVB) between 10 and 11 weeks of pregnancy.
      The chances of miscarriage after both operations are roughly 1 in 200 for amniocentesis and 1 in 100 for CVB, according to most experts.
      The significance of this question is that professionals must be able to weigh the procedure’s danger against the risk of the sickness they are trying to identify.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      104.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A mother typically becomes aware of fetal movements at what gestation? ...

    Incorrect

    • A mother typically becomes aware of fetal movements at what gestation?

      Your Answer: 20-24 weeks

      Correct Answer: 18-20 weeks

      Explanation:

      Foetal movements often become apparent at about 18-20 weeks gestation. This phenomenon is also called quickening. The Foetal movements continue to increase in frequency and force until 32 weeks where they plateau. Foetal movements can be used to monitor the wellbeing of the foetus, alerting the mother and healthcare providers to a problem.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What percentage of pregnancies will be uncomplicated following a single episode of reduced...

    Correct

    • What percentage of pregnancies will be uncomplicated following a single episode of reduced fetal movements?

      Your Answer: 70%

      Explanation:

      Reduced fetal movements can be the first indication of possible fetal abnormalities. Movements are first perceived by the mother from about 18-20 weeks gestation, increase in size and frequency until 32 weeks gestation when they plateau at about 31 movements per hour. Investigations for reduced fetal heart rate include auscultation of the fetal heart rate using a handheld doppler device, and a cardiotocograph or ultrasound if the foetus is above 28 weeks gestation. About 70% of women who experience one episode of reduced fetal movement have uncomplicated pregnancies. They are advised to report to a maternal unit if another episode occurs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of Promethazine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of Promethazine?

      Your Answer: Dopamine D2 receptor agonist

      Correct Answer: Histamine H1-receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Promethazine is type of antihistamine that acts on the H1 receptor. In pregnancy NICE guidelines advise oral promethazine or oral cyclizine should be used as 1st line drug management of nausea and vomiting. Both are H1 antagonists.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is meant by a barr body? ...

    Correct

    • What is meant by a barr body?

      Your Answer: It is the condensed non-functioning X chromosome

      Explanation:

      Barr body is an inactive and non functioning X chromosome found in female somatic cells and is presents with a rim around the nucleus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 40-year-old white female lawyer sees you for the first time. When providing...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old white female lawyer sees you for the first time. When providing a history, she describes several problems, including anxiety, sleep disorders, fatigue, persistent depressed mood, and decreased libido. These symptoms have been present for several years and are worse prior to menses, although they also occur to some degree during menses and throughout the month. Her menstrual periods are regular for the most part. The most likely diagnosis at this time is:

      Your Answer: Premenstrual syndrome

      Correct Answer: Dysthymia

      Explanation:

      Psychological disorders, including anxiety, depression, and dysthymia, are frequently confused with premenstrual syndrome (PMS), and must be ruled out before initiating therapy. Symptoms are cyclic in true PMS. The most accurate way to make the diagnosis is to have the patient keep a menstrual calendar for at least two cycles, carefully recording daily symptoms. Dysthymia consists of a pattern of ongoing, mild depressive symptoms that have been present for 2 years or more and are less severe than those of major depression. This diagnosis is consistent with the findings in the patient described here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      172.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 35 year old lady presented in her 3rd trimester with severe features...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old lady presented in her 3rd trimester with severe features of pre-eclampsia. The drug of choice to prevent the patient going into impending eclampsia would be?

      Your Answer: Intravenous magnesium sulphate

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The drug of choice for eclampsia and pre-eclampsia is magnesium sulphate. It is given as a loading dose of 4g i/v over 5 minutes, followed by an infusion for the next 24 hours at the rate of 1g/hr. If the seizures are not controlled, an additional dose of MgSO4 2-4gm i/v can be given over five minutes. Patients with eclampsia or pre-eclampsia can develop any of the following symptoms: persistent headache, visual abnormalities like photophobia, blurring of vison or temporary blindness, epigastric pain, dyspnoea and altered mental status.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old woman presents in early labour. She is healthy and at full-term....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents in early labour. She is healthy and at full-term. Her pregnancy has progressed well without any complications. She indicates that she would like to have a cardiotocograph (CTG) to assess her baby as she has read about its use for foetal monitoring during labour. What advice would you give her while counselling her regarding the use of CTG compared to intermittent auscultation during labour and delivery?

      Your Answer: The CTG is better than intermittent auscultation for monitoring.

      Correct Answer: There is no evidence to support admission CTG.

      Explanation:

      In high-risk pregnancies, continuous monitoring of foetal heart rate is considered mandatory.

      However, in low-risk pregnancies, cardiotocograph (CTG) monitoring provides no benefits over intermittent auscultation.

      A significant issue with CTG monitoring is that apparent abnormalities are identified that usually have minimal clinical significance, but can prompt the use of several obstetric interventions such as instrumental deliveries and Caesarean section. In low risk patients, such interventions may not even be required.

      CTG monitoring has not been shown to reduce the incidence of cerebral palsy or other neonatal developmental abnormalities, nor does it accurately predict previous foetal oxygenation status unless the CTG is significantly abnormal when it is first connected.

      Similarly, CTG cannot accurately predict current foetal oxygenation unless the readings are severely abnormal.

      Therefore, there is no evidence to support routine admission CTG (correct answer).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      187.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What percentage of testosterone is bound to SHBG? ...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of testosterone is bound to SHBG?

      Your Answer: 30%

      Correct Answer: 70%

      Explanation:

      About 97% of the testosterone that is secreted loosely binds to the SHBG and circulates in the blood for several hours in this bound state until it is transported to the target organs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A patient attends the maternity unit as her waters have broken but she...

    Incorrect

    • A patient attends the maternity unit as her waters have broken but she hasn't had contractions. She is 39+6 weeks gestation. Speculum examination confirms prelabour rupture of membranes. What is the likelihood of spontaneous labour starting within 24 hours?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 60%

      Explanation:

      In pregnancy, term refers to the gestational period from 37 0 to 41 6 weeks. Preterm births occur between 24 0 and 36 6 weeks. 60% of the women will go into labour with in 24 hours in PPROM. After 24 hours have past without any contraction and the gestation age is more than 34 week than prostaglandins can be used to augment labour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - You are asked to see a 26 year old patient following her first...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to see a 26 year old patient following her first visit to antenatal clinic. She is 9 weeks pregnant and bloods have shown her to be non-immune to Rubella. She is concerned about congenital rubella syndrome (CRS). What is the most appropriate advice to give?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise vaccination after birth regardless of breast feeding status

      Explanation:

      For pregnant women who are screened and rubella antibody is not detected, rubella vaccination after pregnancy should be advised. Vaccination during pregnancy is contraindicated because of a theoretical risk that the vaccine itself could be teratogenic, as it is a live vaccine. No cases of congenital rubella syndrome resulting from vaccination during pregnancy have been reported. However, women who are vaccinated postpartum should be advised to use contraception for three months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 19-year-old primigravid woman, 34 weeks of gestation, came in for a routine...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old primigravid woman, 34 weeks of gestation, came in for a routine blood test. Her platelet count is noted at 75x109/L (normal range is 150-400) . Which of the following can best explain the thrombocytopenia of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Incidental thrombocytopaenia of pregnancy.

      Explanation:

      Incidental thrombocytopenia of pregnancy is the most common cause of thrombocytopenia in an otherwise uncomplicated pregnancy. The platelet count finding in this case is of little concern unless it falls below 50×109/L.

      Immune thrombocytopenia is a less common cause of thrombocytopenia in pregnancy. The anti-platelet antibodies cam cross the placenta and pose a problem both to the mother and the foetus. Profound thrombocytopenia in the baby is a common finding of this condition.

      Thrombocytopenia can occur in patients with severe pre-eclampsia. However, it is usually seen concurrent with other signs of severe disease.

      Maternal antibodies that target the baby’s platelets can rarely cause thrombocytopenia in the mother. Instead, it can lead to severe coagulation and bleeding complications in the baby as a result of profound thrombocytopenia.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus is unlikely to explain the thrombocytopenia in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 30 year old female with type I diabetes for 13 years, came...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old female with type I diabetes for 13 years, came for pre-pregnancy counselling. Which of the following is the most suitable advise for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines women with type I diabetes, who are expecting a child should aim to keep their HbA1c level[1] below 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) without causing problematic hypoglycaemia. Women with diabetes whose HbA1c level is above 86 mmol/mol (10%) should be strongly advised not to get pregnant because of the associated risks. The risks are higher with chronic diabetes. There is an increased risk to the foetus or mother due to diabetes in pregnancy. Women who are waiting to become pregnant should take folic acid (5 mg/day) until 12 weeks of gestation to reduce the risk of having a baby with a neural tube defect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following changes would you expect in pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following changes would you expect in pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased TSH Increased Total T3 and T4

      Explanation:

      Human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) has thyrotrophic activity owing to subunit homology with thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and maternal TSH production is suppressed during the first trimester of pregnancy, when hCG levels are highest. The TSH response to thyrotrophin-releasing hormone (TRH) is reduced during the first trimester but returns to normal after this. Thyroid binding globulin increases in the first 2 weeks of pregnancy and reaches a plateau by 20 weeks. This leads to increased production of total T3 (tri-iodothyronine) and T4 (thyroxine).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which one of the following statements regarding Turner's syndrome is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding Turner's syndrome is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Usually presents with primary amenorrhea

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome patients present with primary amenorrhea, have non functional or streak ovaries and cant conceive. They are 45X genetically.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - During wound healing the clotting cascade is activated. Which of the following activates...

    Incorrect

    • During wound healing the clotting cascade is activated. Which of the following activates the extrinsic pathway?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tissue Factor

      Explanation:

      The extrinsic pathway is activated by the tissue factor, which converts factor VII to VIIa which later on converts factors X and II to their activated form finally leading to the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin fibres.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A foetus is noted to be small for gestational age (SGA) on the...

    Incorrect

    • A foetus is noted to be small for gestational age (SGA) on the 20 week scan. One of the mothers medications is stopped at this time. Follow up scans reveal renal dysgenesis. Which of the below medications was stopped?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Use of angiotensin II receptors blocks and ACE inhibitors are known to result in renal dysgenesis. Due to renal dysgenesis oligohydramnios occurs that leads to IUGR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 23-year-old woman presents to the local hospital clinic for her first antenatal...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman presents to the local hospital clinic for her first antenatal visit. She is primigravid at 39 weeks of gestation (exact dates uncertain). She has just arrived from overseas, and no antenatal care had been available in her origin country. On examination, BP is 120/80 mmHg. The fundal height is 30cm above the pubic symphysis. Fetal heart sounds are present at a rate of 144/min. Pelvic examination indicates a long, closed cervix. The baby is noted to be in cephalic presentation. What is the appropriate choice for initial management of this woman?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound examination.

      Explanation:

      In this case, the fundus height appears to be smaller than the suggested dates of gestation. However, this is uncertain as the exact gestation dates are not known. Head-sparing intrauterine growth restriction needs to be excluded or managed appropriately if detected.

      The best initial management step would be to perform an ultrasound examination (correct answer). This would enable complete assessment of the foetus and all the measurable parameters can be determined. This would aid in identifying any discrepancy in size of the abdomen, limbs and head, and the liquor volume (amniotic fluid index) could be evaluated.

      If asymmetrical growth restriction was detected via ultrasound examination, further evaluations such as cardiotocography (CTG) and umbilical arterial wave form analysis by Doppler could be initiated.

      Additionally, foetal movement counting could then be commenced and evaluation of foetal lung maturity by amniocentesis could be considered.

      If the ultrasound was normal (no evidence of asymmetrical growth restriction, normal amniotic fluid), repeat ultrasound should be performed after two weeks to evaluate the foetal growth.

      If normal growth is observed on the repeat ultrasound, the estimated due date can be calculated (assuming normal foetal growth around the 50th percentile for the population).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Regarding molding of the fetal head, which one is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding molding of the fetal head, which one is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Does NOT have time to occur in breech delivery

      Explanation:

      Molding allows the skull bones of the fetal head some mobility during the normal delivery of foetus as the skull changes its shape to accommodate passage through the mothers pelvis. However this does not occur in breach delivery where the skull is in circular shape. Babies born breech typically have craniofacial and limb deformations resulting from their in utero position. These babies characteristically have a long, narrow head, (“dolichocephaly” or “type 1”), with a prominent occipital shelf, redundant skin over the neck, overlapping lambdoidal sutures, and an indentation below their ears (from shoulder compression).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following contraceptives primary mode of action is inhibition of ovulation?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following contraceptives primary mode of action is inhibition of ovulation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cerazette®

      Explanation:

      Desogestrel only POPs work mainly by inhibiting ovulation. Cerazette Is the only brand in this list which belongs to this group.

      Types of Progesterone Only Pills

      1. Traditional (e.g. Femulen®, Micronor®, Norgeston®)

      Main mode of action: thickening cervical mucus preventing sperm entry at neck of womb and may also cause anovulation but this effect variable and unreliable

      2. Desogestrel (e.g. Cerazette®)

      Main mode of action: inhibition of ovulation and also cause thickening of cervical mucus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Fetal distress commonly occurs when the head is in the occipito-posterior (OP) position...

    Incorrect

    • Fetal distress commonly occurs when the head is in the occipito-posterior (OP) position during labour. Which of the following statements is the most probable explanation for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Incoordinate uterine action.

      Explanation:

      Incoordinate uterine action almost always results in fetal distress due to increased resting intrauterine pressure. All other statements can also cause fetal distress, however, these are not as common as incoordinate uterine action. Syntocin infusion for labour augmentation and administration of epidural anaesthetic for pain relief can also increase the risk of fetal distress.
      Cardiotocograph (CTG) monitoring during labour is highly recommended in patients where the fetal head is found in the OP position. Moreover, it is mandatory when there is Syntocin infusion or epidural anaesthesia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A couple both in their late 20s come to you for a review...

    Incorrect

    • A couple both in their late 20s come to you for a review as they have been trying to fall pregnant for the past 3 years. She has a history of fallopian tube surgery following tubal obstruction which was diagnosed laparoscopically. During the surgery, there was evidence of mild endometriosis with uterosacral ligaments involvement. She has amenorrhea and galactorrhoea. On the other hand, his semen specimens have been persistently severely abnormal. Which is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: They should use intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) in IVF,

      Explanation:

      The most suitable treatment would be to use intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) in IVF. If hyperprolactinemia was the isolated underlying cause for the infertility, then treatment with a dopamine agonist would be suitable. However, since it is not the sole contributing factor, it is unlikely to be effective in this case. The same reasoning can be applied to the use of danazol to treat any remaining endometriosis.

      Unfortunately, there is no treatment (including gonadotrophin injections) that would improve the severely abnormal semen specimen. The most appropriate option would be to use intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) with IVF. Through this method, any remaining tubal issues would be bypassed. Furthermore, it would be useful in mild endometriosis cases and would also treat the amenorrhea resulting from hyperprolactinemia. There is no justification to perform another laparoscopy to either check or treat endometriosis or any remaining tubal obstruction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Excessive increased level of β-HCG is expected in: ...

    Incorrect

    • Excessive increased level of β-HCG is expected in:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Twin pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Human chorionic gonadotropin levels dynamically increase during early gestation and the levels are significantly greater in viable pregnancies than in ectopic gestation, biochemical pregnancy, or spontaneous abortions. Similarly, the hCG concentrations are significantly higher in multiple pregnancy as compared with singleton.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
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  • Question 29 - A 30-year-old G2P1 woman presented to the maternity unit, in labour at 38...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old G2P1 woman presented to the maternity unit, in labour at 38 weeks gestation. During her previous pregnancy she delivered a healthy baby through caesarean section. The current pregnancy had been uneventful without any remarkable problems in antenatal visits except for the first trimester nausea and vomiting. On arrival, she had a cervical dilation of 4 cm and the fetal head was at -1 station. After 5 hours, the cervical length and fetal head station are still the same despite regular uterine contractions. Suddenly, there is a sudden gush of blood, which is approximately 1000 ml and the fetal heart rate have dropped to 80 bpm on CTG. Which of the following could be the most likely cause for this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ruptured uterus

      Explanation:

      Due to the previous history of caesarean section, uterine rupture would be the most likely cause of bleeding in this patient who is at a prolonged active phase of first stage of labour.

      Maternal manifestations of uterine rupture are highly variable but some of its common features includes:
      – Constant abdominal pain, where the pain may not be present in sufficient amount, character, or location suggestive of uterine rupture and may be masked partially or completely by use of regional analgesia.
      – Signs of intra abdominal hemorrhage is a strong indication. Although hemorrhage is common feature, but signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal bleeding in cases of uterine rupture especially in those cases not associated with prior surgery may be subtle.
      – Vaginal bleeding is not considered as a cardinal symptom as it may be modest, despite major intra-abdominal hemorrhage.
      – Maternal tachycardia and hypotension
      – Cessation of uterine contractions
      – Loss of station of the fetal presenting part
      – Uterine tenderness
      As seen in this case, fetal bradycardia is the most common and characteristic clinical manifestation of uterine rupture, preceded by variable or late decelerations, but there is no other fetal heart rate pattern pathognomonic of rupture. Furthermore, fetal heart rate changes alone have a low sensitivity and specificity for diagnosing a case as uterine rupture.
      Pain and persistent vaginal bleeding despite the use of uterotonic agents are characteristic for postpartum uterine rupture. If the rupture extends into the bladder hematuria may also occur.
      A definite diagnosis of uterine rupture can be made only after laparotomy. Immediate cesarean section should be performed to save both the mother and the baby in cases where uterine rupture is suspected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Syphilis is caused by which one of the following organisms? ...

    Incorrect

    • Syphilis is caused by which one of the following organisms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treponema Pallidum

      Explanation:

      Syphilis is a sexually transmitted disease which is caused by spirochete called treponema pallidum. It can be divided into three stages. i.e. primary, secondary and tertiary syphilis.
      – Primary syphilis is characterized by chancre formation at the site of sexual contact.
      – Secondary syphilis ranges from maculopapular lesions to scaly lesions, inguinal lymphadenopathy, condylomata lata and split papules at the corner of mouth.
      – Tertiary syphilis is the late stage of syphilis which is characterized by gummas formation and general paresis along with signs and symptoms of visceral involvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Management (1/4) 25%
Obstetrics (2/4) 50%
Gynaecology (1/3) 33%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Cell Biology (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Passmed