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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a lump in her right breast, fatigue, and unexplained weight loss that has been present for 4 months. During the examination, a nodular lump is discovered in the right axillary tail, and she is referred to the urgent breast cancer clinic.
At the clinic, the lump undergoes a triple assessment, which reveals an invasive ductal carcinoma. The patient is then subjected to further testing, including genetic testing. The results of the genetic testing show a nonsense mutation that down-regulates a gene responsible for preventing entry into the S phase of the cell cycle.
What is the likely gene that has been mutated in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: p53
Explanation:Understanding p53 and its Role in Cancer
p53 is a gene that helps suppress tumours and is located on chromosome 17p. It is frequently mutated in breast, colon, and lung cancer. The gene is believed to be essential in regulating the cell cycle, preventing cells from entering the S phase until DNA has been checked and repaired. Additionally, p53 may play a crucial role in apoptosis, the process of programmed cell death.
Li-Fraumeni syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. It is characterised by the early onset of various cancers, including sarcoma, breast cancer, and leukaemia. The condition is caused by mutations in the p53 gene, which can lead to a loss of its tumour-suppressing function. Understanding the role of p53 in cancer can help researchers develop new treatments and therapies for those affected by the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Mrs. Smith presents to the clinic with a newly noticed lesion on her leg. Upon examination, concerning characteristics of malignancy are observed.
What signs would be most indicative of an in situ malignant melanoma in Mrs. Smith, who is in her early 50s?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Having multiple colours
Explanation:When assessing a pigmented lesion, it is important to consider the ‘ABCDE’ criteria: Asymmetry, Border, Colour, Diameter, and Evolution. The British Association of Dermatologists (BAD) provides guidance on this assessment. According to BAD, a diameter of over 6mm is more indicative of a melanoma than a diameter of 4mm. A lesion’s color alone does not determine malignancy, as highly pigmented lesions can be benign. Rolled edges are more commonly associated with basal cell carcinoma than melanoma. However, the presence of multiple colors within a lesion, including different shades of black, brown, and pink, is a significant indicator of melanoma.
Skin cancer is a type of cancer that affects the skin. There are three main types of skin cancer: basal cell cancer, squamous cell cancer, and malignant melanoma. The risk factors for skin cancer include sun exposure, iatrogenic factors such as PUVA and UVB phototherapy, exposure to arsenic, and immunosuppression following renal transplant. People who have undergone renal transplant are at a higher risk of developing squamous cell cancer and basal cell cancer, and this may be linked to human papillomavirus.
Skin cancer is a type of cancer that affects the skin. It can be classified into three main types: basal cell cancer, squamous cell cancer, and malignant melanoma. The risk factors for skin cancer include exposure to the sun, iatrogenic factors such as PUVA and UVB phototherapy, exposure to arsenic, and immunosuppression following renal transplant. People who have undergone renal transplant are at a higher risk of developing squamous cell cancer and basal cell cancer, and this may be linked to human papillomavirus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 73-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of increasing nocturia, a feeble urinary stream, and some weight loss in the past few months. Upon examination, an enlarged prostate with nodules is observed, and he is promptly referred for further testing, which reveals prostate cancer cells.
During the local urology cancer multidisciplinary team meeting, his case is discussed, and the team recommends a course of bicalutamide. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Androgen receptor blocker
Explanation:Bicalutamide, a non-steroidal drug, is utilized in the treatment of prostate cancer as an androgen receptor blocker. It is often used in combination with other approaches such as hormonal treatment, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, and prostatectomy. Abiraterone, on the other hand, is an androgen synthesis blocker that inhibits enzymes required for production. It is typically used for hormone-relapsed metastatic prostate cancer in patients who have no or mild symptoms after anti-androgen therapy has failed. Goserelin is a gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonist that ultimately downregulates sex hormones. It is initially co-prescribed with an anti-androgen due to its potential to cause an initial flare in testosterone levels. More recently, GnRH antagonists like abarelix have been used to quickly suppress testosterone without the initial flare seen with agonists. Cyproterone acetate, which exhibits progestogenic activity and steroidal and antiandrogenic effects, is another drug used in prostate cancer management but is less commonly used due to the widespread use of non-steroidal drugs like bicalutamide.
Prostate cancer management varies depending on the stage of the disease and the patient’s life expectancy and preferences. For localized prostate cancer (T1/T2), treatment options include active monitoring, watchful waiting, radical prostatectomy, and radiotherapy (external beam and brachytherapy). For localized advanced prostate cancer (T3/T4), options include hormonal therapy, radical prostatectomy, and radiotherapy. Patients may develop proctitis and are at increased risk of bladder, colon, and rectal cancer following radiotherapy for prostate cancer.
In cases of metastatic prostate cancer, reducing androgen levels is a key aim of treatment. A combination of approaches is often used, including anti-androgen therapy, synthetic GnRH agonist or antagonists, bicalutamide, cyproterone acetate, abiraterone, and bilateral orchidectomy. GnRH agonists, such as Goserelin (Zoladex), initially cause a rise in testosterone levels before falling to castration levels. To prevent a rise in testosterone, anti-androgens are often used to cover the initial therapy. GnRH antagonists, such as degarelix, are being evaluated to suppress testosterone while avoiding the flare phenomenon. Chemotherapy with docetaxel is also an option for the treatment of hormone-relapsed metastatic prostate cancer in patients who have no or mild symptoms after androgen deprivation therapy has failed, and before chemotherapy is indicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man is scheduled for cardiac catheterisation to repair a possible atrial septal defect. What is the typical oxygen saturation level in the right atrium for a person in good health?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 70%
Explanation:Understanding Oxygen Saturation Levels in Cardiac Catheterisation
Cardiac catheterisation and oxygen saturation levels can be confusing, but with a few basic rules and logical deduction, it can be easily understood. Deoxygenated blood returns to the right side of the heart through the superior and inferior vena cava with an oxygen saturation level of around 70%. The right atrium, right ventricle, and pulmonary artery also have oxygen saturation levels of around 70%. The lungs oxygenate the blood to a level of around 98-100%, resulting in the left atrium, left ventricle, and aorta having oxygen saturation levels of 98-100%.
Different scenarios can affect oxygen saturation levels. For instance, in an atrial septal defect (ASD), the oxygenated blood in the left atrium mixes with the deoxygenated blood in the right atrium, resulting in intermediate levels of oxygenation from the right atrium onwards. In a ventricular septal defect (VSD), the oxygenated blood in the left ventricle mixes with the deoxygenated blood in the right ventricle, resulting in intermediate levels of oxygenation from the right ventricle onwards. In a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), the higher pressure aorta connects with the lower pressure pulmonary artery, resulting in only the pulmonary artery having intermediate oxygenation levels.
Understanding the expected oxygen saturation levels in different scenarios can help in diagnosing and treating cardiac conditions. The table above shows the oxygen saturation levels that would be expected in different diagnoses, including VSD with Eisenmenger’s and ASD with Eisenmenger’s. By understanding these levels, healthcare professionals can provide better care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman visits the clinic complaining of swelling and heaviness in her right leg. She is concerned about the appearance of her leg and attributes the worsening of the heaviness to her job as a security officer, which requires her to stand for extended periods. The patient's height is 160 centimetres, and her weight is 85 kilograms. During the examination, the doctor observes spidery swellings on the inside of her thigh that extend to the back of her leg. Palpation reveals mild tenderness. The doctor has ordered a duplex ultrasound for further assessment and advised the patient to wear graduated compression stockings. What is the most probable cause of this patient's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Incompetency of superficial venous valves
Explanation:Varicose veins occur when the valves in the superficial veins become incompetent, leading to dilated and twisted veins. Risk factors include aging, prolonged standing, and obesity. Symptoms may include pain, itching, and cosmetic concerns, and severe cases can lead to complications such as ulcers and bleeding. Diagnosis is confirmed by duplex ultrasound, and treatment includes lifestyle modifications and compression stockings. Heart failure, deep venous valve incompetency, and leg skin infection are not causes of varicose veins.
Understanding Varicose Veins
Varicose veins are enlarged and twisted veins that occur when the valves in the veins become weak or damaged, causing blood to flow backward and pool in the veins. They are most commonly found in the legs and can be caused by various factors such as age, gender, pregnancy, obesity, and genetics. While many people seek treatment for cosmetic reasons, others may experience symptoms such as aching, throbbing, and itching. In severe cases, varicose veins can lead to skin changes, bleeding, superficial thrombophlebitis, and venous ulceration.
To diagnose varicose veins, a venous duplex ultrasound is typically performed to detect retrograde venous flow. Treatment options vary depending on the severity of the condition. Conservative treatments such as leg elevation, weight loss, regular exercise, and compression stockings may be recommended for mild cases. However, patients with significant or troublesome symptoms, skin changes, or a history of bleeding or ulcers may require referral to a specialist for further evaluation and treatment. Possible treatments include endothermal ablation, foam sclerotherapy, or surgery.
In summary, varicose veins are a common condition that can cause discomfort and cosmetic concerns. While many cases do not require intervention, it is important to seek medical attention if symptoms or complications arise. With proper diagnosis and treatment, patients can manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl is referred to a geneticist with a diagnosis of Marfan's syndrome. She is also hypermobile and taller than 99% of her peers. Her mother passed away recently due to an aortic dissection.
What is the protein that is impacted in Marfan's syndrome?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fibrillin-1
Explanation:Marfan’s syndrome is the result of a genetic mutation affecting fibrillin-1, a crucial protein for the formation of extracellular matrix. This condition is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and leads to abnormal connective tissue, resulting in various symptoms such as tall stature, high arched palate, and aortic aneurysms.
Epidermolysis bullosa, a condition characterized by severe blistering of the skin and mucous membranes, is linked to mutations in laminin V.
Alport syndrome, which presents with glomerulonephritis and hearing loss, is caused by mutations in type IV collagen.
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, a connective tissue disorder that often involves hypermobility and skin fragility, is associated with mutations in type V collagen.
Understanding Marfan’s Syndrome
Marfan’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue in the body. It is caused by a defect in the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15, which codes for the protein fibrillin-1. This disorder is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern and affects approximately 1 in 3,000 people.
Individuals with Marfan syndrome often have a tall stature with an arm span to height ratio greater than 1.05. They may also have a high-arched palate, arachnodactyly (long, slender fingers), pectus excavatum (sunken chest), pes planus (flat feet), and scoliosis (curvature of the spine). In addition, they may experience cardiovascular problems such as dilation of the aortic sinuses, mitral valve prolapse, and aortic aneurysm, which can lead to aortic dissection and aortic regurgitation. Other symptoms may include repeated pneumothoraces (collapsed lung), upwards lens dislocation, blue sclera, myopia, and ballooning of the dural sac at the lumbosacral level.
In the past, the life expectancy of individuals with Marfan syndrome was around 40-50 years. However, with regular echocardiography monitoring and medication such as beta-blockers and ACE inhibitors, the life expectancy has significantly improved. Despite this, cardiovascular problems remain the leading cause of death in individuals with Marfan syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 7
Incorrect
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What are the clinical consequences of a lack of vitamin A?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dry conjunctiva
Explanation:The Devastating Effects of Vitamin A Deficiency
Vitamin A deficiency is a serious health concern that can lead to a range of devastating effects. One of the most common consequences is blindness, particularly in children. Poor night vision is often an early sign of this deficiency, which can progress to complete blindness if left untreated.
In addition to blindness, vitamin A deficiency can also cause dry conjunctiva, a condition known as conjunctival xerosis. This occurs when the normally moist and fine conjunctiva becomes thickened and dysfunctional, leading to the formation of white plaques known as Bitot’s spots. Corneal ulceration can also occur as a result of this condition.
The respiratory and gastrointestinal epithelia can also be affected by vitamin A deficiency, leading to reduced resistance to infection. This deficiency is a major public health issue in some parts of the world and is the single most common preventable cause of blindness. It is crucial to address this issue through education and access to vitamin A-rich foods and supplements.
Overall, the devastating effects of vitamin A deficiency highlight the importance of proper nutrition and access to essential vitamins and minerals. By addressing this issue, we can help prevent blindness and improve overall health outcomes for individuals and communities around the world.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 8
Incorrect
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As a medical student assisting a consultant cardiologist during a percutaneous coronary angiogram on a male patient, you are shown the patient's previous angiogram that reveals a severe occlusion in the left main stem coronary artery. The consultant then poses a question to you about atherosclerosis. Specifically, which modifiable risk factor is involved in the initial development of the atherosclerotic plaque due to its contribution to shear stress?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypertension
Explanation:The Role of Endothelial Damage in Atherosclerosis
The development of atherosclerosis requires endothelial damage to occur. Hypertension is the most likely risk factor to cause this damage, as it alters blood flow and increases shearing forces on the endothelium. Once damage occurs, pro-inflammatory mediators are released, leading to leucocyte adhesion and increased permeability in the vessel wall. Endothelial damage is particularly atherogenic due to the release of platelet-derived growth factor and thrombin, which stimulate platelet adhesion and activate the clotting cascade.
Diabetes mellitus, hypercholesterolaemia, and obesity increase LDL levels, which infiltrate the arterial intima and contribute to the formation of atheromatous plaques. However, before LDLs can infiltrate the vessel wall, they must bind to endothelial adhesion molecules, which are released after endothelial damage occurs. Therefore, hypertension-induced endothelial damage is required for the initial development of atherosclerosis.
Smoking is also a risk factor for atherosclerosis, but the mechanism is not well understood. It is believed that free radicals and aromatic compounds in tobacco smoke inhibit the production of nitric oxide, leading to endothelial damage. Overall, the role of endothelial damage in atherosclerosis can help identify effective prevention and treatment strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old taxi driver presents with a six-month history of constipation and colicky suprapubic pain that varies in intensity without any apparent pattern. He has experienced occasional episodes of diarrhoea and fever. Although he drinks little alcohol and does not smoke, he consumes large amounts of coffee. On examination, there is mild tenderness in the suprapubic region, but no other abnormalities are detected. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diverticular disease
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Rectal Bleeding
Rectal bleeding can be a concerning symptom for patients and healthcare providers alike. While neoplasia may be a possible cause, diverticular disease is more common. To confirm the presence of diverticula, a barium enema should be performed, and a sigmoidoscopy should be done to rule out a tumor. Cystitis is rare in men and would present with symptoms such as urinary frequency, urgency, nocturia, and dysuria. Inflammatory bowel disease can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract and often presents with weight loss, fever, malaise, and potentially arthralgia. However, the lack of systemic symptoms suggests an alternative diagnosis. Ulcerative colitis often causes rectal bleeding, while Crohn’s disease can cause rectal bleeding and inflammation from the mouth to anus. It is more commonly diagnosed in patients before the age of 30. It is important to consider these differential diagnoses when evaluating a patient with rectal bleeding to ensure appropriate management and treatment.
Further Reading:
Janes SE, Meagher A, Frizelle FA. Management of diverticulitis. BMJ. 2006;332:271-5. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man falls and lands on a manhole cover, resulting in an injury to his anterior bulbar urethra. Where is the likely location for the accumulation of extravasated urine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Connective tissue of the scrotum
Explanation:The section of the urethra located between the perineal membrane and the membranous layer of the superficial fascia is tightly bound to the ischiopubic rami. This prevents urine from leaking backwards as the two layers are seamlessly connected around the superficial transverse perineal muscles.
Lower Genitourinary Tract Trauma: Types of Injury and Management
Lower genitourinary tract trauma can occur due to blunt trauma, with most bladder injuries associated with pelvic fractures. However, these injuries can easily be overlooked during trauma assessment. Up to 10% of male pelvic fractures are associated with urethral or bladder injuries.
Urethral injuries mainly occur in males and can be identified by blood at the meatus in 50% of cases. There are two types of urethral injury: bulbar rupture, which is the most common and often caused by straddle-type injuries such as bicycles, and membranous rupture, which can be extra or intraperitoneal and commonly caused by pelvic fractures. Penile or perineal oedema/hematoma and displacement of the prostate upwards during PR examination are also signs of urethral injury. An ascending urethrogram is used for investigation, and management involves surgical placement of a suprapubic catheter.
External genitalia injuries, such as those to the penis and scrotum, can be caused by penetration, blunt trauma, continence- or sexual pleasure-enhancing devices, and mutilation.
Bladder injuries can be intra or extraperitoneal and present with haematuria or suprapubic pain. A history of pelvic fracture and inability to void should always raise suspicion of bladder or urethral injury. Inability to retrieve all fluid used to irrigate the bladder through a Foley catheter also indicates bladder injury. IVU or cystogram is used for investigation, and management involves laparotomy if intraperitoneal and conservative treatment if extraperitoneal.
In summary, lower genitourinary tract trauma can result in urethral or bladder injuries, which can be identified through various signs and symptoms. Proper investigation and management are crucial for successful treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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