00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 72-year-old man accompanied by his son was seen in general clinic with...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man accompanied by his son was seen in general clinic with episodes of disorientation. His son had witnessed several of these episodes whereby one minute he could be having a conversation and then next minute he would start asking 'where am I?' He would keep asking this question, but seemed fully aware of his surroundings, and was able to perform tasks in the house and otherwise seemed fairly attentive. These episodes could go on for several hours. His son was particularly concerned as these episodes seemed to post date the loss of his wife from cancer and he was aware that his father had taken to drinking a moderate amount of alcohol. He had not lost any weight or complained of poor appetite or disturbed sleep.

      He had a past medical history of hypertension and arthritis and took regular bendroflumethiazide and Arthrotec. He was a non-smoker and drank approximately 15 units of alcohol per week.

      On examination he seemed fully aware of his surroundings but appeared disorientated in time and place and kept asking 'where am I?' When the physician explained he was in hospital he acknowledged the answer, but within minutes was asking the same question. This continued throughout the consultation.

      He was able to comply with physical examination which did not reveal any abnormalities within the cranial nerves or peripheral nervous system. General, cardiovascular and abdominal examinations were all normal.

      Investigations revealed:

      Full blood count Normal -
      Biochemistry Normal -
      Thyroxine 59 nmol/L (58-174)
      Thyroid stimulating hormone 6.9 U/L (<7)

      An MRI scan of the brain showed mild generalised cerebral atrophy.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Transient global amnesia

      Explanation:

      Transient Global Amnesia

      Transient global amnesia (TGA) is a condition characterized by anterograde amnesia without any loss of personal identity or clouding of consciousness. The cognitive impairment is limited to amnesia, with no apraxia or aphasia. TGA is not associated with recent head trauma or seizures in the preceding two years. There are no focal neurologic signs or features suggesting temporal lobe epilepsy or depression.

      The most common symptom of TGA is disorientation to time and place, with repetitive questioning such as Where am I? lasting throughout the attack. Most attacks last one to eight hours, with a mean duration of 4.2 hours. The exact cause of TGA is not clear, but studies have shown that blood flow to specific brain areas involved in memory, such as the thalamus and mesial temporal structures (amygdala and hippocampus), may be disrupted transiently during an attack.

      In conclusion, TGA is a temporary condition that affects memory and can cause disorientation. While the exact cause is not known, studies have shown that specific brain areas involved in memory may be affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      122.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 46-year-old woman presented to the emergency department with sudden onset weakness in...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old woman presented to the emergency department with sudden onset weakness in both legs and hands, accompanied by reduced sensation in her legs and tingling in her hands and forearms. She also experienced urinary incontinence. She had a medical history of hypertension and diabetes treated with metformin, as well as osteoarthritis in her hands and knees. She worked as a secretary and had been typing when the symptoms began.

      During the examination, the patient complained of a generalised headache and exhibited spinal tenderness in her neck. Cranial nerves appeared normal. Peripheral examination of her upper limbs revealed normal tone, brisk triceps jerks, absent biceps and supinator jerks, and positive Hoffman's sign bilaterally. Handgrip was weak, and there was weakness in wrist and elbow extension/flexion. Pain and temperature sensation were reduced in the thumb, middle, ring, little finger, and medial forearm bilaterally. Vibration and light touch were intact. Lower limb examination revealed a spastic paraparesis with loss of pain and temperature sensation over the entire leg extending to involve the abdominal and chest wall to T1.

      An x-ray of the cervical spine showed osteoarthritis affecting vertebrae C7-T1. Based on this information, what is the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms, pending further tests?

      Your Answer: Anterior spinal artery infarct

      Correct Answer: Anterior cord syndrome secondary to cervical disc herniation at C5/6

      Explanation:

      Urgent Assessment and Referral for Anterior Cord Syndrome

      This patient is showing symptoms and signs of anterior cord syndrome, which is likely caused by an acute disc herniation at the C5/C6 level. The lower limb is displaying upper motor neuron weakness and spinothalamic disruption, while the upper limb is showing lower motor neuron signs at the C5/C6 level, such as absent biceps/supinator jerks and weak elbow flexion, and upper motor neuron signs below this level. There is also evidence of spinothalamic disruption affecting C6-T1 bilaterally.

      To properly diagnose and treat this condition, the patient needs urgent assessment with MRI imaging and referral to a neurosurgeon for decompression. It is important to rule out other conditions such as anterior spinal artery infarct, Brown-Séquard syndrome, central cord syndrome, and cervical myelopathy.

      Anterior spinal artery infarct primarily affects the lower limb and causes a sensory level. Brown-Séquard syndrome results in ipsilateral loss of dorsal column and corticospinal function with contralateral loss of pain and temperature below the level of the lesion. Central cord syndrome, or syringomyelia, causes greater LMN weakness in the arms than UMN weakness in the legs, and dissociated pain and temperature loss in the arms. Cervical myelopathy at C7 is unlikely to have such a sudden onset and does not account for all the signs in the upper limb.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      62.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old woman who recently traveled to Brazil presents to the Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who recently traveled to Brazil presents to the Emergency Department with fever, headache, and muscle pain. She has a history of insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. She is admitted due to worsening headache and back pain and becomes increasingly drowsy while waiting in the medical receiving unit. On examination, she has flaccid paralysis and decreased tendon reflexes. A CT scan of the brain is normal. Cerebrospinal fluid examination shows a protein level of 1.2 g/l (normal < 0.45 g/l), glucose level of 3.8 mmol/l (normal 2.5-3.9 mmol/l), and a white cell count of 200/mm3 (mostly lymphocytes) (normal < 5/mm3). Laboratory investigations reveal a hemoglobin level of 140 g/l (normal 135-175 g/l), platelet count of 400 x 109/l (normal 150-400 x 109/l), white cell count of 11.0 x 109/l (normal 4.0-11.0 x 109/l), sodium level of 138 mmol/l (normal 135-145 mmol/l), potassium level of 4.5 mmol/l (normal 3.5-5.0 mmol/l), creatinine level of 110 µmol/l (normal 50-120 µmol/l), and a urea level of 6.5 mmol/l (normal 2.5-6.5 mmol/l). What is the most likely infectious process?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: West Nile disease

      Explanation:

      Encephalitis is a serious condition that can have a variety of causes. One possibility is West Nile disease, which is caused by a virus transmitted by mosquitoes. While this disease was once considered tropical, it has become more common in recent years, with thousands of cases reported in the US alone. Symptoms can include fever, myalgia, nausea, vomiting, and a rash, and neurological involvement is possible, particularly in older individuals or those with weakened immune systems. Other potential causes of encephalitis include Lyme disease, which is associated with tick bites, and TB meningitis, which is characterized by lymphocytic inflammation. Lassa fever, a viral hemorrhagic fever endemic to West Africa, is another possibility. While there is no cure for most forms of encephalitis, early diagnosis and treatment can help manage symptoms and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An 88-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with unilateral weakness and difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • An 88-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with unilateral weakness and difficulty in naming objects, as reported by her family. This began approximately six hours ago.

      Upon examination, there is weakness in her left arm and leg (arm > leg) with decreased sensation. The patient becomes increasingly tearful and struggles to name objects around her, although she can describe their function. A systems review reveals a heart rate of 72/min and a blood pressure of 110/84 mmHg. There are no precordial murmurs or carotid bruits. An ECG shows that the patient is in sinus rhythm.

      An urgent CT scan reveals an area of grey matter differentiation in the right hemisphere, leading to a diagnosis of Right Partial Anterior Circulation Syndrome (R PACS).

      The patient has previously been taking amlodipine 5 mg and mirtazapine 30 mg once per day. She is started on aspirin. What other intervention should be considered for her treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atorvastatin 80 mg OD to be started 48 hours post onset of symptoms

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, this woman should be prescribed atorvastatin for secondary prevention of stroke within 48 hours of her ischaemic episode. This is because early administration of statins has been linked to a risk of haemorrhagic transformation. Anti-embolism stockings are not recommended for stroke patients as they do not provide any additional benefit in preventing embolic events during the acute phase.

      The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The guidelines provide recommendations for the management of acute stroke, including maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage, and usually not until 14 days have passed from the onset of an ischaemic stroke. If the cholesterol is > 3.5 mmol/l, patients should be commenced on a statin.

      Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if it is administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. There are absolute and relative contraindications to thrombolysis, including previous intracranial haemorrhage, intracranial neoplasm, and active bleeding. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends considering thrombectomy together with intravenous thrombolysis for people last known to be well up to 24 hours previously.

      Secondary prevention recommendations from NICE include the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Clopidogrel is recommended ahead of combination use of aspirin plus modified-release dipyridamole in people who have had an ischaemic stroke. Aspirin plus MR dipyridamole is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if clopidogrel is contraindicated or not tolerated. MR dipyridamole alone is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if aspirin or clopidogrel are contraindicated or not tolerated. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old man presents to the hospital with a five-day history of headache,...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the hospital with a five-day history of headache, nausea, confusion, somnolence, and left leg weakness that had been progressively getting worse over several weeks. He is also being investigated for weight loss and shortness of breath. On examination, he appears confused and disorientated with evidence of axillary and cervical lymphadenopathy and a mass over the left chest. Neurological examination reveals left-sided lower limb paresis with hypertonia and hyperreflexia. A chest x-ray shows multiple lung lesions, and an MRI scan of the brain shows meningeal enhancement, enhancement of the basilar cisterns, and multiple enhancing masses with marked surrounding oedema. The patient has a past medical history of arthritis in the knees and hands and had been looking after his mother who had recently died of breast carcinoma. He had worked as an electrician all his life and was a non-smoker and did not drink alcohol. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brain metastases and lepto-meningeal carcinomatosis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Differential Diagnosis of a Patient with Brain Metastases and Lepto-meningeal Carcinomatosis

      The patient in question presents with symptoms, signs, and investigations that suggest a diagnosis of brain metastases and lepto-meningeal carcinomatosis, possibly originating from a left breast carcinoma. Lung metastases and lymphadenopathy are also present. Bacterial meningitis is unlikely due to the prolonged history, focal neurology, and normal white cell count and inflammatory markers. Neurosarcoidosis and granulomatosis with polyangiitis are also unlikely based on the patient’s symptoms and history. There is no indication of a risk of tuberculosis. Male breast cancer is a rare disease that may be a risk factor in this case, given the patient’s age and other factors. Overall, the most likely diagnosis is brain metastases and lepto-meningeal carcinomatosis, with a possible origin in breast cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old man visits his doctor, feeling very distressed. He woke up that...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man visits his doctor, feeling very distressed. He woke up that morning with a sensation that his right cheek was feeling heavy. He immediately saw himself in the mirror and was horrified to find that his face was twisted. He could not close his right eye. Saliva drooled from the angle of his mouth on the right side. He was extremely distressed to note that when he tried to smile his mouth deviated to the left side. There is some sense of dizziness and hearing is muffled on the right side. His father had had a stroke 4 weeks ago. The only medication of note is the antihypertensive medication.

      On examination, his blood pressure is 150/80 mmHg, his pulse is 80/min and he is anxious. Examination of his right ear reveals a few tense vesicles in his right ear and there is right-sided facial nerve palsy.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Herpes zoster infection

      Explanation:

      Ramsay Hunt Syndrome: A Herpes Zoster Infection

      Ramsay Hunt syndrome is a condition characterized by a lower motor neurone facial palsy on one side of the face, often caused by herpes zoster infection of the geniculate ganglion. While a vesicular eruption in the external auditory canal, cranial integument, and oropharynx is typically present, it may not appear immediately or at all. The eighth cranial nerve may also be affected, leading to deafness and vertigo. The virus can be detected through exudates collected from the skin of the pinna and analyzed through PCR. Treatment with a combination of prednisolone and acyclovir is effective if started within seven days of symptom onset. Left-sided acoustic neuroma is unlikely due to the absence of hearing loss and tinnitus, while herpes simplex infection leads to cold sores rather than facial palsy. Atypical migraine may cause paralysis, but the absence of headache and other symptoms rules it out as a diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 5-minute episode of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 5-minute episode of slurred speech earlier in the day. His wife noticed that his face was drooping to one side as well. He had no arm weakness and is now completely back to normal. He is normally well and on no regular medication and is not allergic to any medication. He works as a plumber and smokes 10 cigarettes per day for the last 35 years and drinks alcohol socially. On further questioning he mentions that he had a similar episode also lasting 5 minutes four days ago whilst at work.

      On examination, his blood pressure is 135/70 mmHg and his heart rate is 58/min. He has no focal neurology and his cardiovascular and respiratory examinations are unremarkable. He has been given 300mg of Aspirin by the paramedics. His blood tests are as follows:

      Hb 138 g/l
      Platelets 283 * 109/l
      WBC 8.1 * 109/l
      INR 1.1
      PT 13 seconds

      Na+ 142 mmol/l
      K+ 4.4 mmol/l
      Urea 6.4 mmol/l
      Creatinine 89 µmol/l
      CRP 5 mg/l
      Total cholesterol 3.8 mmol/l
      HDL 1.3 mmol/l

      His ECG shows normal sinus rhythm and rate of 65/min.

      What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      This man has experienced two crescendo TIAs within a week, which puts him at high risk and requires urgent treatment. He needs to be admitted and undergo a CT head and carotid doppler within 24 hours. Although his ABCD score is 3, which would typically classify him as low-risk, the presence of crescendo episodes makes this score irrelevant. Thrombolysis is not necessary as his neurology has resolved. An outpatient TIA clinic and imaging and dopplers within a week are also not appropriate due to the crescendo episodes.

      A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax), diplopia, and homonymous hemianopia.

      NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy, giving aspirin 300 mg immediately unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If aspirin is contraindicated, management should be discussed urgently with the specialist team. Specialist review is necessary if the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis. Urgent assessment within 24 hours by a specialist stroke physician is required if the patient has had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment should be made as soon as possible within 7 days if the patient has had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. The person should be advised not to drive until they have been seen by a specialist.

      Neuroimaging should be done on the same day as specialist assessment if possible. MRI is preferred to determine the territory of ischaemia or to detect haemorrhage or alternative pathologies. Carotid imaging is necessary as atherosclerosis in the carotid artery may be a source of emboli in some patients. All patients should have an urgent carotid doppler unless they are not a candidate for carotid endarterectomy.

      Antithrombotic therapy is recommended, with clopidogrel being the first-line treatment. Aspirin + dipyridamole should be given to patients who cannot tolerate clopidogrel. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the patient has suffered a stroke or TIA in the carotid territory and is not severely disabled. It should only be recommended if carotid stenosis is greater

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 70-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a fall. His...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a fall. His daughter found him unresponsive on the floor after hearing a loud noise. The patient's daughter reports that he has been unsteady on his feet for the past few days and is recovering from a urinary tract infection. The patient has a medical history of benign prostatic hyperplasia and atrial fibrillation, for which he takes tamsulosin, finasteride, and rivaroxaban.

      Upon examination, the patient is drowsy with a GCS of 12 (E3V4M5). His heart rate is 85 bpm, and his blood pressure is 210/118 mmHg. His chest is clear with normal heart sounds upon auscultation. Oxygen saturations are 90% on air. The patient has a deep laceration over the left side of his forehead, which is oozing blood, and there is bruising down the left side of his body. Pupils are equal and reactive to light.

      A CT scan of the head reveals evidence of a moderate intracranial hemorrhage in the left frontal lobe, with no evidence of a mass effect.

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Andexanet alfa

      Explanation:

      Andexanet alfa can reverse the effects of rivaroxaban and apixaban, which is important in the case of this patient who has suffered a traumatic intracranial hemorrhage. The first step in treatment is to ensure a clear airway and attempt to stop the bleeding to prevent increased intracranial pressure. Cryoprecipitate, which contains various clotting factors, can be used to treat fibrinogen deficiency in cases of hemorrhage, trauma, invasive procedures, or disseminated intravascular coagulation. Dexamethasone may be given to treat increased intracranial pressure, but it is not the initial treatment in this case as there is no evidence of cerebral edema or midline shift. Idarucizumab is not indicated as it is a specific reversal agent for dabigatran, which the patient is not taking.

      Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) are medications used to prevent stroke in non-valvular atrial fibrillation (AF), as well as for the prevention and treatment of venous thromboembolism (VTE). To be prescribed DOACs for stroke prevention, patients must have certain risk factors, such as a prior stroke or transient ischaemic attack, age 75 or older, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or heart failure. There are four DOACs available, each with a different mechanism of action and method of excretion. Dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor, while rivaroxaban, apixaban, and edoxaban are direct factor Xa inhibitors. The majority of DOACs are excreted either through the kidneys or the liver, with the exception of apixaban and edoxaban, which are excreted through the feces. Reversal agents are available for dabigatran and rivaroxaban, but not for apixaban or edoxaban.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 12-year-old boy is brought by his father to the clinic for evaluation...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy is brought by his father to the clinic for evaluation of his neurological status. He has been experiencing a decline in academic performance for the past 4 months, and has been recently observed by his teacher to have outbursts of anger in the classroom.

      His father is concerned that in the early morning his son experiences sudden contractions of his shoulder muscles and complains of blurry vision. This has been happening for the past 2 weeks. On the morning of his visit, he had a seizure followed by loss of consciousness. In his early childhood, he had a rash illness from which he recovered without any complications.

      During the examination, the boy is lethargic and uncooperative. Cranial nerves appear normal. He experiences sudden contractions involving all four limbs. Tendon reflexes are brisk with bilateral Babinski’s sign. He has a wide-based gait and is unable to walk in a straight line. Blood pressure is noted at 110/75 mmHg, with pulse 90 bpm and regular. General physical review is unremarkable, as are routine blood tests and a chest X-ray.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Progressive CNS Dysfunction in Late Childhood

      subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) is a rare condition that could explain the progressive CNS dysfunction in a patient with a history of measles in early life. SSPE typically presents with a decline in school proficiency, followed by myoclonic jerks, seizures, visual deterioration, pyramidal signs, rigidity, and unresponsiveness, ultimately leading to death within 1-3 years. Neurosarcoidosis, lipid storage disease, Schilder’s demyelinative disease, and ceroid lipofuscinosis are other potential differential diagnoses, but their clinical features do not match the patient’s presentation. It is important to consider SSPE in cases of progressive CNS dysfunction in late childhood, especially in patients with a history of measles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 58-year-old man presents with slurred speech and difficulty eating. His daughter brought...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man presents with slurred speech and difficulty eating. His daughter brought him in by ambulance as she noticed his speech was abnormal. The patient denies any changes, but his daughter has observed drooling and inappropriate laughter during conversations over the past few months. On examination, the patient has mild dysarthria and abnormal tongue movement, but his limbs and other cranial nerves are normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Motor neuron disease

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely suffering from motor neuron disease. He is a male in his 50s and has shown signs of bulbar involvement without any peripheral or sensory issues. The chronic nature of his symptoms makes a stroke unlikely, while his age, sex, and progressive symptoms make multiple sclerosis less probable. The absence of arm weakness or sensory loss makes syringobulbia less likely, and myotonic dystrophy would present with more peripheral signs. Therefore, the most likely diagnosis is motor neuron disease with bulbar features.

      Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition that is not yet fully understood. It can manifest with both upper and lower motor neuron signs and is rare before the age of 40. There are different patterns of the disease, including amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy, and bulbar palsy. Some of the clues that may indicate a diagnosis of motor neuron disease include fasciculations, the absence of sensory signs or symptoms, a combination of lower and upper motor neuron signs, and wasting of small hand muscles or tibialis anterior.

      Other features of motor neuron disease include the fact that it does not affect external ocular muscles and there are no cerebellar signs. Abdominal reflexes are usually preserved, and sphincter dysfunction is a late feature if present. The diagnosis of motor neuron disease is made based on clinical presentation, but nerve conduction studies can help exclude a neuropathy. Electromyography may show a reduced number of action potentials with increased amplitude. MRI is often used to rule out cervical cord compression and myelopathy as differential diagnoses. It is important to note that while vague sensory symptoms may occur early in the disease, sensory signs are typically absent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 67-year-old man underwent an elective inguinal hernia repair. Due to the list...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man underwent an elective inguinal hernia repair. Due to the list running late into the evening, the patient was admitted for an overnight stay. During the night after the operation the patient was observed to have an increasing oxygen requirement and the following morning was referred to the oncall medical registrar.

      The patient reported feeling progressively more short of breath since the operation, particularly when he had tried to lie down to sleep. He denied any cough, chest pain, leg swelling or palpitations. Prior to the operation the patient had been generally well although he had found that he frequently experienced double vision when reading especially in the evening. He also had noticed some difficulties when chewing tough foods in recent weeks. Past medical history was unremarkable and the patient took no regular medications.

      Examination revealed a regular pulse, no elevation of jugular venous pressure and normal heart sounds. Both calves were soft and non-tender. The patient had a shallow respiratory effort and was unable to speak in full sentences. Chest expansion was reduced bilaterally, chest was resonant with vesicular breath sounds throughout. The patient had bilateral weakness of facial muscles and ptosis on prolonged upward gaze. Power of neck flexion and extension was reduced, graded as 4/5.

      Basic observations:
      Blood pressure: 120 / 76 mmHg
      Heart rate: 115 beats / min
      Respiratory rate: 32 breaths / min
      Temperature: 36.8ºC

      Portable CXR: technically poor film due to poor inspiratory effort; clear lung fields; no pleural effusion; no upper lobe blood diversion; no free air under diaphragm.

      Arterial blood gas analysis (35 % O2)

      pH 7.29
      PaCO2 6.6 kPa
      PaO2 8.7 kPa
      Bicarbonate 18 mmol / L (reference 20.0-26.0)
      Lactate 2.1 mmol / L

      What is the most important next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Referral to intensive care unit

      Explanation:

      The patient is displaying symptoms and signs of myasthenia gravis that were previously undetected. The stress of surgery has triggered a myasthenic crisis, resulting in type 2 respiratory failure, tachycardia, tachypnea, and decreased forced vital capacity. The top priority in managing this situation is to transfer the patient to an intensive care unit for respiratory support.

      Corticosteroids and pyridostigmine are the primary treatments for myasthenia gravis, with intravenous immunoglobulin used in severe cases. However, these treatments cannot be expected to quickly restore respiratory muscle function in this emergency scenario.

      The patient does not have a history of obstructive lung disease, and the type 2 respiratory failure is due to respiratory muscle weakness causing ventilation failure. Therefore, reducing the percentage of supplemental oxygen would not be helpful and would only worsen hypoxia.

      Exacerbating Factors of Myasthenia Gravis

      Myasthenia gravis is a neuromuscular disorder that is characterized by fatigability, which is worsened by exertion. This means that symptoms become more pronounced as the day progresses. In addition to exertion, certain drugs can also exacerbate myasthenia gravis. These drugs include penicillamine, quinidine, procainamide, beta-blockers, lithium, and certain antibiotics such as gentamicin, macrolides, quinolones, and tetracyclines. It is important for individuals with myasthenia gravis to be aware of these exacerbating factors and to avoid them whenever possible in order to manage their symptoms effectively. By doing so, they can improve their quality of life and minimize the impact of this condition on their daily activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 33-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of shooting pain down both...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of shooting pain down both legs for the past week and a slightly weak right hand. He denies having any other significant neurological symptoms and has not been diagnosed with any chronic medical conditions.

      Upon examination, the patient exhibits reduced fine motor control in his right hand and a brisk brachioradialis reflex on the right side. He also reports subjective sensory disturbance over his trunk, but there is no objective sensory loss.

      Based on these findings, you suspect the patient may have multiple sclerosis (MS). What specific criteria must be met to diagnose relapsing remitting MS?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: At least 2 separate MRI lesions typical of MS that are of different ages (i.e 1 enhancing and 1 not)

      Explanation:

      To diagnose multiple sclerosis, it is necessary to confirm the presence of the disease in different areas and at different times.

      To establish dissemination in space, there must be at least one T2 bright lesion in two or more of the following locations: periventricular, juxtacortical, infratentorial, or spinal cord.

      To establish dissemination in time, there are two options:
      1) A new lesion compared to a previous scan, regardless of timing, that is either T2 bright or gadolinium-enhancing.
      2) The presence of an asymptomatic enhancing lesion and a non-enhancing T2 bright lesion on any one scan, indicating two lesions of different ages that meet the criteria for dissemination in space.

      Investigating Multiple Sclerosis

      Diagnosing multiple sclerosis (MS) requires the identification of lesions that are disseminated in both time and space. There are several methods used to investigate MS, including magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis, and visual evoked potentials (VEP).

      MRI is a commonly used tool to identify MS lesions. High signal T2 lesions and periventricular plaques are often observed, as well as Dawson fingers, which are hyperintense lesions perpendicular to the corpus callosum. CSF analysis can also aid in diagnosis, as it may reveal oligoclonal bands that are not present in serum and an increased intrathecal synthesis of IgG.

      VEP testing can also be used to diagnose MS. This test measures the electrical activity in the visual pathway and can reveal a delayed but well-preserved waveform in MS patients.

      Overall, a combination of these methods is often used to diagnose MS and demonstrate the dissemination of lesions in time and space.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 55-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of difficulty walking and...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of difficulty walking and disorientation. He also reports experiencing blurred and double vision. Upon examination, he displays severe vertical and horizontal nystagmus and depression of the deep tendon reflexes. The patient rarely visits his GP and is not taking any medication. He is a heavy smoker, consuming 60 cigarettes a day, and drinks a bottle of cider daily. What vitamin deficiency is associated with this condition and requires replacement?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B1

      Explanation:

      The Effects of Vitamin B Deficiencies

      Vitamin B deficiencies can have various effects on the body. Chronic alcohol use can lead to Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which is characterized by ataxia, opthalmoplegia, and disorientation due to thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency. Riboflavin (vitamin B2) deficiency can cause angular cheilitis, glossitis, and seborrhoeic dermatitis. Niacin (vitamin B3) deficiency can result in dermatitis, dementia, and diarrhoea (pellagra). Folic acid (vitamin B9) deficiency can cause macrocytic anaemia, while vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to macrocytic anaemia, peripheral neuropathy, and cognitive impairment. It is important to maintain a balanced diet to prevent these deficiencies and their associated health problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department after being seriously assaulted....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department after being seriously assaulted. Upon arrival, his GCS is 5/15 and he is intubated before being transferred for a CT head (with contrast). Based on the image provided, which blood vessel(s) is/are most likely to have ruptured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Middle meningeal artery

      Explanation:

      This image displays a significant bleeding outside the dura mater, which is likely the result of a middle meningeal artery rupture.

      There are different types of traumatic brain injury, including focal (contusion/haematoma) or diffuse (diffuse axonal injury). Diffuse axonal injury occurs due to mechanical shearing following deceleration, causing disruption and tearing of axons. Intracranial haematomas can be extradural, subdural or intracerebral, while contusions may occur adjacent to (coup) or contralateral (contre-coup) to the side of impact. Secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral oedema, ischaemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 24-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset headache....

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset headache. The nursing staff are concerned about the appearance of his ECG taken at triage. He denies any chest pain or shortness of breath. On examination, he appears agitated and refuses to open his eyes to light. His blood pressure is 140/80 mmHg and his heart sounds are normal. There is no visible JVP and his lung fields are clear.

      What is the most probable reason for the ECG changes observed in leads V4-V6?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Although the absence of cardiac symptoms is evident, the presence of ST elevation in this man could be indicative of subarachnoid haemorrhage. While it is possible that this is simply benign early re-polarisation, the severity of his headache suggests otherwise. Additionally, his slender build may suggest Marfan’s syndrome, which is known to cause cerebral aneurysms. It is unlikely that he has experienced a silent myocardial infarction, especially given his young age and lack of other symptoms such as difficulty breathing.

      Understanding Subarachnoid Haemorrhage

      Subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a type of intracranial haemorrhage where blood is present in the subarachnoid space, which is located deep to the subarachnoid layer of the meninges. Spontaneous SAH is caused by various factors such as intracranial aneurysm, arteriovenous malformation, pituitary apoplexy, arterial dissection, mycotic aneurysms, and perimesencephalic. The most common symptom of SAH is a sudden-onset headache, which is severe and occipital. Other symptoms include nausea, vomiting, meningism, coma, seizures, and sudden death. SAH can be confirmed through a CT head scan or lumbar puncture. Treatment for SAH depends on the underlying cause, and most intracranial aneurysms are treated with a coil by interventional neuroradiologists. Complications of aneurysmal SAH include re-bleeding, vasospasm, hyponatraemia, seizures, hydrocephalus, and death. Predictive factors for SAH include conscious level on admission, age, and the amount of blood visible on CT head.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 40-year-old man presents to the Emergency department after being assaulted in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man presents to the Emergency department after being assaulted in the city centre. He sustained multiple knife wounds, including two in the left groin. On examination, there is reduced power of hip flexion and knee extension on the left, along with reduced sensation over the medial aspect of the left thigh. What is the probable cause of his symptoms?

      Investigations revealed normal full blood count and biochemistry, with a glucose level of 5.6 mmol/L (3.0-6.0) and a prothrombin time of 11.5 s (11.5-15.5). A plain x-ray of the pelvis showed no evidence of fracture. The patient is a previously fit individual who smokes 10 cigarettes per day and drinks approximately 20 units of alcohol per week.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Femoral neuropathy

      Explanation:

      Femoral Neuropathy: Causes and Symptoms

      Femoral neuropathy is a condition that primarily affects the quadriceps, causing weakness in this muscle group. The femoral nerve is formed by the L2-4 roots as part of the lumbar plexus and is susceptible to compression within the psoas muscle. This compression can occur due to haemorrhage into the muscle caused by haemophilia, anticoagulation therapy, or trauma.

      The main motor component of the femoral nerve innervates the iliopsoas and quadriceps muscles. The motor branch to the iliopsoas originates in the pelvis proximal to the inguinal ligament. The sensory branch of the femoral nerve, known as the saphenous nerve, innervates the skin of the medial thigh and the anterior and medial aspects of the calf.

      Diabetic patients are more prone to femoral and proximal mononeuropathies. However, the obturator nerve, which innervates the adductors of the hip, and the sciatic nerve, which innervates the hip extensors and all muscle compartments below the knee, are both intact in patients with femoral neuropathy.

      While a lumbar plexopathy could potentially cause similar physical signs, deep-seated excruciating pain is common. An L1 root lesion would not explain weakness of hip flexion and knee extension. the causes and symptoms of femoral neuropathy is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 40-year-old man with a history of epilepsy visits the clinic with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man with a history of epilepsy visits the clinic with a complaint of tunnel vision.

      Which medication is the most probable cause of this issue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vigabatrin

      Explanation:

      Visual Disturbances Caused by Anti-Epileptic Medications

      Visual disturbances are a common side effect of anti-epileptic medications. However, only vigabatrin has been linked to visual field loss, with patients experiencing blurred vision, tunnel vision, oscillopsia, and difficulty in navigation. Despite these symptoms, visual acuity remains intact.

      Other anti-epileptic medications have been associated with different visual disturbances. Carbamazepine has been linked to abnormal color perception and reduced contrast sensitivity, while levetiracetam can cause diplopia. Topiramate has been associated with closed angle glaucoma, and sodium valproate can cause abnormal color perception and altered visual evoked potentials.

      It is important for patients to be aware of the potential visual side effects of their anti-epileptic medication and to report any changes in vision to their healthcare provider. Regular eye exams may also be recommended for patients taking these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of a severe headache....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of a severe headache. She reports collapsing while on her way to work and has been experiencing a severe occipital headache since then. Her vital signs are stable, except for a low-grade fever of 37.5ºC, and her GCS is 15/15. Despite taking analgesics, her headache does not improve, and a CT head with contrast is ordered:



      What is the result of the scan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      The CT scan reveals a widespread bleeding in the subarachnoid space.

      There are different types of traumatic brain injury, including focal (contusion/haematoma) or diffuse (diffuse axonal injury). Diffuse axonal injury occurs due to mechanical shearing following deceleration, causing disruption and tearing of axons. Intracranial haematomas can be extradural, subdural or intracerebral, while contusions may occur adjacent to (coup) or contralateral (contre-coup) to the side of impact. Secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral oedema, ischaemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is the probable diagnosis for a 29-year-old man who had a right-sided...

    Incorrect

    • What is the probable diagnosis for a 29-year-old man who had a right-sided middle cerebral artery territory infarct and has a history of focal impaired awareness seizures, difficult-to-treat migraines, recurrent vomiting, tremors, and muscle weakness with atrophy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MELAS syndrome

      Explanation:

      MELAS (Mitochondrial Encephalopathy with Lactic Acidosis and Stroke) is a rare genetic disorder that is inherited through the mitochondria. It is characterized by short stature, recurrent migraines, vomiting, muscle weakness, seizures, and the development of multiple strokes at an early age, typically before the age of 40. Progressive dementia is also a common symptom, and there is a raised level of lactic acid in the blood. A skeletal muscle biopsy will show ragged red fibers.

      Based on the given information, it is possible that the patient’s mother had the same condition, as mitochondrial inheritance is typical. The patient may have also experienced a posterior stroke that was not treated, as he had sudden onset cerebellar symptoms and is now left with an intention tremor and nystagmus. While cerebellar infarcts may not always show up on CT scans, MRI is the best modality for viewing the posterior fossa. Although the patient’s MMSE score is normal, a score of 25/30 for a young man is a potential concern in the clinical context.

      While CADASIL may also present with migraines and stroke at an early age, lactic acidosis is not a feature, and subcortical infarct would be more typical. The patient’s high cholesterol is not high enough for a diagnosis of familial hypercholesterolemia and would not explain the muscle weakness, vomiting, and lactic acidosis. Carbamazepine poisoning could explain the cerebellar symptoms, but not the other symptoms.

      Mitochondrial diseases are caused by a small amount of double-stranded DNA present in the mitochondria, which encodes protein components of the respiratory chain and some special types of RNA. These diseases are inherited only via the maternal line, as the sperm contributes no cytoplasm to the zygote. None of the children of an affected male will inherit the disease, while all of the children of an affected female will inherit it. Mitochondrial diseases generally encode rare neurological diseases, and there is poor genotype-phenotype correlation due to heteroplasmy, which means that within a tissue or cell, there can be different mitochondrial populations. Muscle biopsy typically shows red, ragged fibers due to an increased number of mitochondria. Examples of mitochondrial diseases include Leber’s optic atrophy, MELAS syndrome, MERRF syndrome, Kearns-Sayre syndrome, and sensorineural hearing loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 45-year-old man presents to his GP with recurrent severe headaches. The headaches...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to his GP with recurrent severe headaches. The headaches occur episodically every three to six months, with daily headaches lasting up to eight weeks at a time. The patient reports being woken up at 2 am with severe right peri-ocular pain, which typically lasts for 30-60 minutes. During these attacks, he also experiences right-sided nasal congestion and lacrimation. The patient denies nausea, vomiting, photophobia, or phonophobia. He is a business executive, a smoker of 20 cigarettes per day, and drinks 30 units of alcohol per week. On examination, there is mild right-sided ptosis, red and watery right eye, and pupillary constriction. The rest of the cranial nerves appear intact, and fundoscopy is normal. There are no abnormalities detected on the peripheral nervous system examination. The MRI brain and MR angiography are normal. What is the most likely treatment to alleviate this patient's acute symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Commence on sumatriptan

      Explanation:

      Cluster Headaches: Symptoms and Treatment Options

      Cluster headaches are a type of headache that primarily affects men in their 30s and 40s. These headaches occur in clusters, usually at night. Autonomic symptoms such as nasal congestion, lacrimation, conjunctival injection, ptosis, and eyelid edema are common during these attacks.

      The treatment of choice for acute attacks is either high flow oxygen or subcutaneous sumatriptan. Verapamil is the most commonly used prophylactic agent, but lithium and Epilim valproate are also options. It is important to avoid long-term treatment with ergotamine due to serious side effects such as retroperitoneal fibrosis.

      Trigeminal neuralgia is treated with carbamazepine, while propranolol is the preferred treatment for migraine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 65-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of progressive numbness and difficulty walking....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of progressive numbness and difficulty walking. Her daughter, who accompanies her, reports that she has been exhibiting strange behavior for the past few months. The patient has a history of ileal resection for Crohn's disease that was resistant to treatment, nine years ago.

      Upon laboratory testing, the patient's haematocrit and mean corpuscular volume were found to be low. Additionally, macrocytic red blood cells with hypersegmented neutrophils were observed in the blood smear analysis.

      What is the most probable cause of the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cobalamin deficiency

      Explanation:

      The patient’s ileal resection indicates that they are unable to absorb the vitamin B12-intrinsic factor complex, resulting in a deficiency of vitamin B12 (also known as cobalamin deficiency) and subsequent subacute combined degeneration. The presence of macrocytic anaemia with hypersegmented neutrophils further confirms this diagnosis. While folate deficiency can also cause a similar blood film appearance, it does not typically result in neurological symptoms.

      Subacute Combined Degeneration of Spinal Cord

      Subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord is a condition that occurs due to a deficiency of vitamin B12. The dorsal columns and lateral corticospinal tracts are affected, leading to the loss of joint position and vibration sense. The first symptoms are usually distal paraesthesia, followed by the development of upper motor neuron signs in the legs, such as extensor plantars, brisk knee reflexes, and absent ankle jerks. If left untreated, stiffness and weakness may persist.

      This condition is a serious concern and requires prompt medical attention. It is important to maintain a healthy diet that includes sufficient amounts of vitamin B12 to prevent the development of subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old woman has been admitted with a headache that she first experienced...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman has been admitted with a headache that she first experienced while picking up her 6-week-old baby. She is sensitive to light and feels nauseous. Upon examination, bilateral papilloedema is observed and she reports vision loss on her left side. A CT scan of her head reveals a small bleed in the right occipital region. What is the recommended treatment for her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heparin

      Explanation:

      Urgent Treatment for Venous Sinus Thrombosis Peri-Partum

      This woman is experiencing symptoms of headache, photophobia, and vomiting due to venous sinus thrombosis peri-partum. The condition has caused a small occipital bleed due to venous congestion, and urgent treatment with low molecular weight heparin (LWMH) is necessary to prevent clot propagation and further complications.

      It is important to note that her symptoms are not caused by a subarachnoid aneurysm, so aneurysm coiling and nimodipine are not appropriate treatments. Additionally, a lumbar puncture is not necessary as she does not have idiopathic intracranial hypertension. Migraine is also not the cause of her symptoms, so a triptan is not an appropriate treatment option.

      In summary, this woman requires immediate treatment with LWMH to address her venous sinus thrombosis peri-partum and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 67-year-old man presented with a one-year history of difficulty walking and turning...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presented with a one-year history of difficulty walking and turning around. He also complained of stiffness in his right arm and worsening handwriting. His wife noticed his right arm moving uncontrollably at times and he had difficulty with speech, occasionally mispronouncing words. On examination, he had increased tone in his right arm and leg with difficulty in fine finger movements. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Corticobasal degeneration

      Explanation:

      Parkinson-Plus Syndromes: Understanding Corticobasal Degeneration

      Corticobasal degeneration (CBD) is a type of Parkinson-plus syndrome that typically affects adults. It is characterized by unilateral symptoms that can progress to both sides of the body. Along with rigidity and bradykinesia, patients may experience myoclonus, apraxia, or dystonia of a limb. One of the most distinctive features of CBD is the development of an alien limb phenomenon, where a limb, usually an arm, appears to move on its own. Cognitive impairment, including progressive non-fluent aphasia, may also occur. Unfortunately, there is no cure for CBD.

      Other Parkinson-plus syndromes include Wilson’s disease, which presents with neuropsychiatric symptoms or asymptomatic rise in transaminases in the late teenage/early twenties time frame. Progressive supranuclear palsy is another Parkinson-plus syndrome, but it lacks the gaze palsy that is characteristic of CBD. Dementia with Lewy bodies is characterized by features of parkinsonism accompanied by memory impairment, confusion, and visual hallucinations. Multiple system atrophy is associated with autonomic dysfunction such as postural hypotension, fainting episodes, and signs of parkinsonism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 58-year-old woman presents to the acute medical unit with a frontal headache...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman presents to the acute medical unit with a frontal headache that has been worsening, along with nausea and pins and needles in her distal right upper limb. She was born in India and moved to the United Kingdom three years ago. Her medical history includes tuberculosis that was treated 10 years ago and rheumatoid arthritis, for which she has recently started taking methotrexate, sulfasalazine, and a short course of oral prednisolone. Her chest X-ray was normal, and the quantiFERON test was negative when she entered the UK.

      Upon examination, the patient appears well and is alert and oriented. Her vital signs are within normal limits, and there is symmetrical swelling in the small joints of both hands. Neurological examination reveals 4/5 MRC grade of power in the distal right upper limb. Examination of the cardiovascular, respiratory, and abdominal systems reveals no additional abnormalities.

      The patient's investigation results are as follows:

      - Hb 124 g/L
      - Platelets 398* 109/L (150 - 400)
      - WBC 12 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      - Na 135 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K 3.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Urea 5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine 63 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      - CRP 24 (< 5)

      A contrast CT head is arranged, which shows a 3-4 cm diameter homogeneous contrast-enhancing round lesion adjacent to the meningeal membrane situated in the left frontal lobe with evidence of surrounding edema and mass effect. No additional lesions are noted, and there is no evidence of acute ischemia, hemorrhage, or collection.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meningioma

      Explanation:

      The CT scan of the brain shows that a meningioma primary brain tumor is present, which is characterized by homogeneous contrast enhancement. This finding is more consistent with meningioma than with neuroblastoma, metastatic lung cancer, or aspergilloma. While the patient had a history of active tuberculosis in the past, there was no evidence of active or latent infection upon arrival in the UK, which rules out the possibility of reactivation due to immunosuppressive medications. A screening CT scan of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis may be necessary to exclude metastatic lung cancer.

      Brain tumours can be classified into different types based on their location, histology, and clinical features. Metastatic brain cancer is the most common form of brain tumours, which often cannot be treated with surgical intervention. Glioblastoma multiforme is the most common primary tumour in adults and is associated with a poor prognosis. Meningioma is the second most common primary brain tumour in adults, which is typically benign and arises from the arachnoid cap cells of the meninges. Vestibular schwannoma is a benign tumour arising from the eighth cranial nerve, while pilocytic astrocytoma is the most common primary brain tumour in children. Medulloblastoma is an aggressive paediatric brain tumour that arises within the infratentorial compartment, while ependymoma is commonly seen in the 4th ventricle and may cause hydrocephalus. Oligodendroma is a benign, slow-growing tumour common in the frontal lobes, while haemangioblastoma is a vascular tumour of the cerebellum. Pituitary adenoma is a benign tumour of the pituitary gland that can be either secretory or non-secretory, while craniopharyngioma is a solid/cystic tumour of the sellar region that is derived from the remnants of Rathke’s pouch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 35-year-old man presented to the emergency department with complaints of intense neck...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presented to the emergency department with complaints of intense neck pain after shooting at a rifle range. He subsequently experienced vertigo, nausea, and vomiting. A few hours later, he was discovered collapsed at home and brought to the hospital by ambulance. On arrival, his Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score was 10 out of 15. What is the most probable reason for his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vertebral artery dissection

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Sudden Onset Symptoms

      When a patient presents with sudden onset symptoms, it is important to consider a range of potential diagnoses. In the case of severe neck pain, vertigo, nausea, and vomiting, a likely diagnosis is vertebral artery dissection. This condition can be caused by trauma, such as rifle shooting, or may occur spontaneously. It is often associated with infarction in the territory of the posterior inferior cerebellar artery.

      Other potential diagnoses to consider include extradural bleed, which typically presents with a brief lucid interval followed by rapid reduction in GCS, and Subarachnoid hemorrhage, which presents with sudden onset severe headache rather than neck pain. Carotid artery dissection may present with headache, Horner syndrome, and anterior circulation ischemic stroke, while basilar artery occlusion may result in motor and bulbar symptoms and even locked-in syndrome.

      In summary, when faced with sudden onset symptoms, it is important to consider a range of potential diagnoses and to carefully evaluate the patient’s symptoms and medical history to arrive at an accurate diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 50-year-old woman presents to neurology clinic for follow-up. She was diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to neurology clinic for follow-up. She was diagnosed with trigeminal neuralgia 6 months ago and started on carbamazepine, but has had limited benefit from the treatment. During her current visit, she reports ongoing pain episodes on the right side of her face and recent episodes on the left side as well. She mentions that her carbamazepine dose was appropriately titrated up by her GP, but the severity of her pain has worsened. Additionally, she reveals that her mother had several episodes of visual loss without medical investigation. On examination, there is no facial nerve weakness but a subjective numbness in the left cheek region is noted. Peripheral neurological examination shows borderline dysdiadochokinesia in the right upper limb and a positive Babinski response in the right lower limb. What is the most suitable investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Standard protocol MRI brain with contrast

      Explanation:

      The patient’s diagnosis of trigeminal neuralgia needs to be reviewed due to several red-flag features, including limited response to carbamazepine, simultaneous bilateral pain, and soft neurological signs suggestive of CNS lesions. Multiple sclerosis is the most likely alternative diagnosis, and the best investigation to assess for differentials is standard protocol MRI brain with contrast. Specialised MRI protocols for observing vascular contacts are not normally performed.

      Understanding Trigeminal Neuralgia

      Trigeminal neuralgia is a type of pain syndrome that is characterized by severe pain on one side of the face. While most cases are idiopathic, some may be caused by compression of the trigeminal roots due to tumors or vascular problems. According to the International Headache Society, trigeminal neuralgia is defined as a disorder that causes brief electric shock-like pains that are limited to one or more divisions of the trigeminal nerve. The pain is often triggered by light touch, such as washing, shaving, or brushing teeth, and can occur spontaneously. Certain areas of the face may be more susceptible to pain, known as trigger areas, and the pain may remit for varying periods.

      It is important to note that there are red flag symptoms and signs that may suggest a serious underlying cause, such as sensory changes, ear problems, history of skin or oral lesions, pain only in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, optic neuritis, a family history of multiple sclerosis, or onset before the age of 40.

      The first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia is carbamazepine. However, if there is a failure to respond to treatment or atypical features are present, such as onset before the age of 50, referral to neurology may be necessary. Understanding the symptoms and management of trigeminal neuralgia can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 78-year-old male presents to the clinic with a 9-month history of progressive...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old male presents to the clinic with a 9-month history of progressive confusion, unsteadiness on his feet, and new urinary incontinence. He has a minimal past medical history and takes ramipril for hypertension. On examination, he has a wide-based and ataxic gait, and his abbreviated mental test score is 3/10. The mini-mental state examination scores 16/30. A CT head shows no acute haemorrhages or infarcts, and an MRI reveals large ventricles with periventricular white matter changes. Lumbar puncture shows acellular cerebrospinal fluid with no organism growth, and the opening pressure is 16 cm H20. A CSF infusion test is arranged, which demonstrates raised CSF outflow resistance. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ventriculoperitoneal shunt

      Explanation:

      The patient’s medical history and physical examination suggest that they may be suffering from normal pressure hydrocephalus, which is characterized by the triad of new onset dementia, urinary incontinence, and gait disturbance. The results of the investigations suggest that a ventriculoperitoneal shunt may be a suitable treatment option for the patient. Specifically, the CSF infusion test revealed a raised CSF resistance, indicating impaired CSF absorption, which is a positive indicator for surgical intervention. Additionally, the patient’s significant gait disturbance further supports the potential success of surgical treatment.

      Understanding Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus

      Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a type of dementia that is reversible and commonly seen in elderly patients. It is believed to be caused by a reduction in the absorption of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) at the arachnoid villi, which may be due to head injury, subarachnoid hemorrhage, or meningitis. The condition is characterized by a classical triad of symptoms, including urinary incontinence, dementia and bradyphrenia, and gait abnormality that may resemble Parkinson’s disease. These symptoms usually develop over a few months, and around 60% of patients will have all three features at the time of diagnosis.

      Imaging studies typically show hydrocephalus with ventriculomegaly, which is an enlargement of the ventricles in the brain, in the absence of or out of proportion to sulcal enlargement. The management of normal pressure hydrocephalus involves ventriculoperitoneal shunting, which can help alleviate symptoms. However, around 10% of patients who undergo shunting may experience significant complications such as seizures, infection, and intracerebral hemorrhages. Therefore, careful consideration and monitoring are necessary when deciding on treatment options for patients with normal pressure hydrocephalus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old man has been referred to the neurology clinic by his GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man has been referred to the neurology clinic by his GP due to a four-month history of left-sided numbness and intermittent tingling. The symptoms mainly affect his left arm, but he occasionally experiences them in his left leg. He denies any history of headaches, visual problems, or weakness. The GP has conducted several blood tests, including a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, vitamin B12, and C-reactive protein, all of which came back normal. During the neurological examination, the only abnormality found was reduced sensation in the left C6/7 dermatome. An MRI head was performed, and the T2 images are shown below:



      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Explanation:

      The MRI results indicate that the patient has multiple sclerosis. The scan shows numerous high T2 regions in the periventricular, juxtacortical, post fossa, and upper cervical cord areas. The lesions vary in contrast enhancement and restricted diffusion, indicating recent or active demyelination. These findings meet the diagnostic criteria for multiple sclerosis, including separation in time and space.

      Investigating Multiple Sclerosis

      Diagnosing multiple sclerosis (MS) requires the identification of lesions that are disseminated in both time and space. There are several methods used to investigate MS, including magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis, and visual evoked potentials (VEP).

      MRI is a commonly used tool to identify MS lesions. High signal T2 lesions and periventricular plaques are often observed, as well as Dawson fingers, which are hyperintense lesions perpendicular to the corpus callosum. CSF analysis can also aid in diagnosis, as it may reveal oligoclonal bands that are not present in serum and an increased intrathecal synthesis of IgG.

      VEP testing can also be used to diagnose MS. This test measures the electrical activity in the visual pathway and can reveal a delayed but well-preserved waveform in MS patients.

      Overall, a combination of these methods is often used to diagnose MS and demonstrate the dissemination of lesions in time and space.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the neurology clinic with a history of worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the neurology clinic with a history of worsening headaches over the past 6 months. The headaches are occipital and exacerbated by coughing. There are no notable neurological findings on examination. The MRI image below reveals what abnormality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arnold-Chiari malformation

      Explanation:

      The Chiari type I malformation is evident on the MRI, with the cerebellar tonsils protruding through the foramen magnum.

      Understanding Arnold-Chiari Malformation

      Arnold-Chiari malformation is a condition where the cerebellar tonsils are pushed downwards through the foramen magnum. This can occur either due to a congenital defect or as a result of trauma. The condition can lead to non-communicating hydrocephalus, which is caused by the obstruction of cerebrospinal fluid outflow. Patients with Arnold-Chiari malformation may experience headaches and syringomyelia, which is a condition where fluid-filled cysts form in the spinal cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 32-year-old man presented with a 8-month history of vision blurring when bending...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presented with a 8-month history of vision blurring when bending forward. He also reported experiencing worsening headaches in the morning for the past 6 months. Apart from that, he had no other health issues. Upon examination, he had a body mass index of 30 and no other abnormalities were found. However, bilateral papilloedema was observed during neurological examination. An MR venogram was conducted, but the results were normal. What would be the most suitable next step in investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lumbar puncture

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension

      Idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH) is a condition that commonly affects young overweight women. It is characterized by raised intracranial pressure, which can lead to bilateral papilloedema. To confirm the diagnosis, magnetic resonance imaging of the brain and a lumbar puncture are required. The lumbar puncture will show raised pressure but normal contents of the cerebrospinal fluid. Management options include weight loss, diuretics, therapeutic lumbar punctures, optic nerve fenestration, or a shunt from the CSF to the peritoneum. Goldmann perimetry can be useful in assessing the response to treatment. Other investigations, such as cerebral angiogram, EEG, and serum cortisol, are not helpful in the diagnosis of IIH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (1/2) 50%
Passmed