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  • Question 1 - A pathologist is analyzing a histological section and discovers Hassall's corpuscles. What is...

    Incorrect

    • A pathologist is analyzing a histological section and discovers Hassall's corpuscles. What is their most common association?

      Your Answer: Medulla of the spleen

      Correct Answer: Medulla of the thymus

      Explanation:

      The medulla of the thymus contains concentric rings of epithelial cells known as Hassall’s corpuscles.

      The Thymus Gland: Development, Structure, and Function

      The thymus gland is an encapsulated organ that develops from the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches. It descends to the anterior superior mediastinum and is subdivided into lobules, each consisting of a cortex and a medulla. The cortex is made up of tightly packed lymphocytes, while the medulla is mostly composed of epithelial cells. Hassall’s corpuscles, which are concentrically arranged medullary epithelial cells that may surround a keratinized center, are also present.

      The inferior parathyroid glands, which also develop from the third pharyngeal pouch, may be located with the thymus gland. The thymus gland’s arterial supply comes from the internal mammary artery or pericardiophrenic arteries, while its venous drainage is to the left brachiocephalic vein. The thymus gland plays a crucial role in the development and maturation of T-cells, which are essential for the immune system’s proper functioning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old male patient visits the surgical clinic after 8 months of undergoing...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male patient visits the surgical clinic after 8 months of undergoing laparotomy for a ruptured spleen. He reports a lump in the middle of his laparotomy wound. Upon surgical exploration, a stitch granuloma is discovered and removed. What is the origin of granulomas in the body?

      Your Answer: Platelets

      Correct Answer: Macrophages

      Explanation:

      Organised collections of macrophages are known as granulomas.

      Chronic inflammation can occur as a result of acute inflammation or as a primary process. There are three main processes that can lead to chronic inflammation: persisting infection with certain organisms, prolonged exposure to non-biodegradable substances, and autoimmune conditions involving antibodies formed against host antigens. Acute inflammation involves changes to existing vascular structure and increased permeability of endothelial cells, as well as infiltration of neutrophils. In contrast, chronic inflammation is characterized by angiogenesis and the predominance of macrophages, plasma cells, and lymphocytes. The process may resolve with suppuration, complete resolution, abscess formation, or progression to chronic inflammation. Healing by fibrosis is the main result of chronic inflammation. Granulomas, which consist of a microscopic aggregation of macrophages, are pathognomonic of chronic inflammation and can be found in conditions such as colonic Crohn’s disease. Growth factors released by activated macrophages, such as interferon and fibroblast growth factor, may have systemic features resulting in systemic symptoms and signs in individuals with long-standing chronic inflammation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 3 - A 67-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden left leg...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden left leg pain, redness, and swelling. She recently traveled from Australia and denies any history of trauma or family history of similar symptoms. What underlying risk factor may make her more susceptible to this condition?

      Your Answer: Myopia

      Correct Answer: Polycythaemia rubra vera

      Explanation:

      The risk of venous thromboembolism is elevated in individuals with polycythaemia due to the abnormal overproduction of red blood cells, which leads to increased blood viscosity and slower flow rate, increasing the likelihood of clot formation. Conversely, low BMI does not increase the risk of VTE, while obesity is a known risk factor. Additionally, thrombophilia, not haemophilia, is a risk factor for VTE.

      Risk Factors for Venous Thromboembolism

      Venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a condition where blood clots form in the veins, which can lead to serious complications such as pulmonary embolism (PE). While some common predisposing factors include malignancy, pregnancy, and the period following an operation, there are many other factors that can increase the risk of VTE. These include underlying conditions such as heart failure, thrombophilia, and nephrotic syndrome, as well as medication use such as the combined oral contraceptive pill and antipsychotics. It is important to note that around 40% of patients diagnosed with a PE have no major risk factors. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of all potential risk factors and take appropriate measures to prevent VTE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 4 - A 82-year-old female presents to her physician with a 5-month history of passing...

    Incorrect

    • A 82-year-old female presents to her physician with a 5-month history of passing fresh red blood per rectum and tenesmus. During general examination, she appears pale and has conjunctival pallor bilaterally. Upon digital rectal examination, a firm, irregular mass is detected in the posterior aspect of the rectum. An urgent flexible sigmoidoscopy is ordered, which reveals an adenocarcinoma in the rectum below the pectinate line. In this patient, what is the lymph node region where metastatic spread is most likely to initially occur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superficial inguinal nodes

      Explanation:

      Rectal cancer that occurs below the pectinate line is known to spread to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes. This is because the superficial inguinal nodes are responsible for draining the lymphatic system of the rectum below the pectinate line, as well as the lower limbs, scrotum/vulva.

      It is important to note that the inferior mesenteric nodes are not involved in this process, as they primarily drain the hindgut structures from the transverse colon down to the rectum. Similarly, the internal iliac nodes are not involved, as they drain the inferior portion of the rectum, the anal canal superior to the pectinate line, and the pelvic viscera.

      Para-aortic nodes are also not involved in the spread of rectal cancer below the pectinate line, as this portion of the rectum does not drain directly to these nodes. Instead, the testes/ovaries drain directly into the para-aortic nodes. Finally, popliteal nodes are not involved, as they only provide lymphatic drainage for the legs.

      Lymphatic drainage is the process by which lymphatic vessels carry lymph, a clear fluid containing white blood cells, away from tissues and organs and towards lymph nodes. The lymphatic vessels that drain the skin and follow venous drainage are called superficial lymphatic vessels, while those that drain internal organs and structures follow the arteries and are called deep lymphatic vessels. These vessels eventually lead to lymph nodes, which filter and remove harmful substances from the lymph before it is returned to the bloodstream.

      The lymphatic system is divided into two main ducts: the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct. The right lymphatic duct drains the right side of the head and right arm, while the thoracic duct drains everything else. Both ducts eventually drain into the venous system.

      Different areas of the body have specific primary lymph node drainage sites. For example, the superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal below the pectinate line, perineum, skin of the thigh, penis, scrotum, and vagina. The deep inguinal lymph nodes drain the glans penis, while the para-aortic lymph nodes drain the testes, ovaries, kidney, and adrenal gland. The axillary lymph nodes drain the lateral breast and upper limb, while the internal iliac lymph nodes drain the anal canal above the pectinate line, lower part of the rectum, and pelvic structures including the cervix and inferior part of the uterus. The superior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the duodenum and jejunum, while the inferior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and upper part of the rectum. Finally, the coeliac lymph nodes drain the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 5 - A 67-year-old female presents to the two-week wait colonoscopy clinic with a positive...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old female presents to the two-week wait colonoscopy clinic with a positive FIT result. She reports a 4-month history of altered bowel habit and incomplete bowel emptying. During colonoscopy, an adenocarcinoma is found in the lower rectum and upper third of the anal canal. What is the most likely lymph node region for initial metastatic spread in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal iliac nodes

      Explanation:

      The internal iliac lymph nodes are responsible for draining the lower part of the rectum, as well as the pelvic viscera and the anal canal above the pectinate line. The ileocolic nodes primarily drain the ileum and proximal ascending colon, while the inferior mesenteric nodes drain the hindgut structures from the transverse colon down to the superior portion of the rectum. The para-aortic nodes do not directly drain the lower part of the rectum, but they do receive drainage from the testes and ovaries.

      Lymphatic drainage is the process by which lymphatic vessels carry lymph, a clear fluid containing white blood cells, away from tissues and organs and towards lymph nodes. The lymphatic vessels that drain the skin and follow venous drainage are called superficial lymphatic vessels, while those that drain internal organs and structures follow the arteries and are called deep lymphatic vessels. These vessels eventually lead to lymph nodes, which filter and remove harmful substances from the lymph before it is returned to the bloodstream.

      The lymphatic system is divided into two main ducts: the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct. The right lymphatic duct drains the right side of the head and right arm, while the thoracic duct drains everything else. Both ducts eventually drain into the venous system.

      Different areas of the body have specific primary lymph node drainage sites. For example, the superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal below the pectinate line, perineum, skin of the thigh, penis, scrotum, and vagina. The deep inguinal lymph nodes drain the glans penis, while the para-aortic lymph nodes drain the testes, ovaries, kidney, and adrenal gland. The axillary lymph nodes drain the lateral breast and upper limb, while the internal iliac lymph nodes drain the anal canal above the pectinate line, lower part of the rectum, and pelvic structures including the cervix and inferior part of the uterus. The superior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the duodenum and jejunum, while the inferior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and upper part of the rectum. Finally, the coeliac lymph nodes drain the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 6 - A 45-year-old individual undergoes a lump excision procedure and upon examination of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old individual undergoes a lump excision procedure and upon examination of a histological section, a clump of Reed Sternberg cells is identified by the pathologist. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hodgkins lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hodgkin’s Lymphoma: Symptoms and Risk Factors

      Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphocytes and is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. It is most commonly seen in people in their third and seventh decades of life. There are certain risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing Hodgkin’s lymphoma, such as HIV and the Epstein-Barr virus.

      The most common symptom of Hodgkin’s lymphoma is lymphadenopathy, which is the enlargement of lymph nodes. This is usually painless, non-tender, and asymmetrical, and is most commonly seen in the neck, followed by the axillary and inguinal regions. In some cases, alcohol-induced lymph node pain may be present, but this is seen in less than 10% of patients. Other symptoms of Hodgkin’s lymphoma include weight loss, pruritus, night sweats, and fever (Pel-Ebstein). A mediastinal mass may also be present, which can cause symptoms such as coughing. In some cases, Hodgkin’s lymphoma may be found incidentally on a chest x-ray.

      When investigating Hodgkin’s lymphoma, normocytic anaemia may be present, which can be caused by factors such as hypersplenism, bone marrow replacement by HL, or Coombs-positive haemolytic anaemia. Eosinophilia may also be present, which is caused by the production of cytokines such as IL-5. LDH levels may also be raised.

      In summary, Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphocytes and is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. It is most commonly seen in people in their third and seventh decades of life and is associated with risk factors such as HIV and the Epstein-Barr virus. Symptoms of Hodgkin’s lymphoma include lymphadenopathy, weight loss, pruritus, night sweats, and fever. When investigating Hodgkin’s lymphoma, normocytic anaemia, eosinophilia, and raised LDH levels may be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 7 - A 75-year-old man experiences an urgent amputation due to severe sepsis and gangrene...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man experiences an urgent amputation due to severe sepsis and gangrene in his lower limbs. Following the surgery, he develops disseminated intravascular coagulation. Which clotting factor will be depleted the fastest during this process?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Factor V and VIII

      Explanation:

      D-I-S-S-E-M-I-N-A-T-E-D

      R-Rewritten
      E-Explanations
      W-Widespread
      R-Reporting
      I-Information
      T-Transmission
      E-Exposure

      M-Multiple sources
      E-Extensive dissemination
      D-Distribution

      Rewriting and disseminating information can help to ensure that it is widely understood and accessible. This can be especially important in cases where there are multiple sources of information or when the information needs to be widely distributed. In some cases, such as with DIC, disseminating information can be critical for understanding and treating the condition.

      Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation: A Condition of Simultaneous Coagulation and Haemorrhage

      Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a medical condition characterized by simultaneous coagulation and haemorrhage. It is caused by the initial formation of thrombi that consume clotting factors and platelets, ultimately leading to bleeding. DIC can be caused by various factors such as infection, malignancy, trauma, liver disease, and obstetric complications.

      Clinically, bleeding is usually the dominant feature of DIC, accompanied by bruising, ischaemia, and organ failure. Blood tests can reveal prolonged clotting times, thrombocytopenia, decreased fibrinogen, and increased fibrinogen degradation products. The treatment of DIC involves addressing the underlying cause and providing supportive management.

      In summary, DIC is a serious medical condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. It is important to identify the underlying cause and provide appropriate treatment to prevent further complications. With proper care and management, patients with DIC can recover and regain their health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 8 - A 67-year-old man presents with sudden onset headache, blurry vision, and weakness in...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents with sudden onset headache, blurry vision, and weakness in his right arm. He has a history of multiple episodes of fleeting blindness and was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus 25 years ago. On physical examination, he has generalised lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, and reduced tone and power in the right arm compared to the left. Fundoscopy reveals blurred disc margins and engorged retinal veins. Investigations show an increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate and plasma viscosity, and serum electrophoresis shows a monoclonal spike. Which plasma component is most likely responsible for his clinical features?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgM

      Explanation:

      Hyperviscosity syndrome is a condition that can occur in paraproteinemia, where there is an overproduction of IgM. This is because IgM is a pentamer, which means it is larger in size and can cause increased viscosity.

      An elderly man is displaying stroke-like symptoms, but they are not in contiguous anatomical locations. This makes it unlikely that the cause is embolism or thrombosis, and suggests a global cause of ischemia. The presence of fleeting blindness (amaurosis fugax), increased viscosity, and monoclonal spike on serum electrophoresis all point towards a plasma cell dyscrasia, specifically hyperviscosity syndrome. Additional fundoscopic findings further support this suspicion.

      Hyperviscosity can be caused by various conditions, but multiple myeloma is the most common. Other differentials include Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia and polycythemia rubra vera. The presence of generalized lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly make Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia more likely than the others.

      In Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia, there is an overproduction of IgM, which is different from the other immunoglobulins as it is a pentamer. This makes it the largest immunoglobulin and more likely to cause hyperviscosity when in excess quantities. This is why Waldenstrom’s tends to present with hyperviscosity syndrome, while multiple myeloma rarely does.

      Understanding Waldenstrom’s Macroglobulinaemia

      Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia is a rare condition that primarily affects older men. It is a type of lymphoplasmacytoid malignancy that is characterized by the production of a monoclonal IgM paraprotein. This condition can cause a range of symptoms, including systemic upset, hyperviscosity syndrome, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, and cryoglobulinemia.

      One of the most significant features of Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia is the hyperviscosity syndrome, which can lead to visual disturbances and other complications. This occurs because the pentameric configuration of IgM increases serum viscosity, making it more difficult for blood to flow through the body. Other symptoms of this condition can include weight loss, lethargy, and Raynaud’s.

      To diagnose Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia, doctors will typically look for a monoclonal IgM paraprotein in the patient’s blood. A bone marrow biopsy can also be used to confirm the presence of lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma cells in the bone marrow.

      Treatment for Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia typically involves rituximab-based combination chemotherapy. This approach can help to reduce the production of the monoclonal IgM paraprotein and alleviate symptoms associated with the condition. With proper management, many patients with Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia are able to live full and healthy lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 9 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her mother due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her mother due to fatigue and lethargy for the past 9 months. Previously, she was very active and was at the 80th percentile for height and weight. Currently, she is also unable to concentrate and lagging academically in school. The family moved to an old house 3 years back. During physical examination, conjunctival pallor and a blue line on her gingiva are observed.

      Blood tests reveal:
      Hb 100 g/L Male: (119-150)
      Female: (119-150)
      Platelets 340 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 4 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 70 fL (80 - 100)

      A skeletal survey shows dense opacity at the junction of metaphysis and epiphysis of the long bones.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lead poisoning

      Explanation:

      Lead poisoning can cause the accumulation of lead in the metaphysis of bones, which can be seen as bands of increased density on x-rays. In this case, the child’s recent deterioration in academic and physical performance, along with the history of moving to an old house, suggests the possibility of lead-based paint exposure. The presence of a lead line on the gums further supports this suspicion. While normocytic anemia can have many causes, the addition of radiodense lines in the metaphysis of long bones increases the likelihood of lead poisoning. Cretinism, caused by maternal hypothyroidism, typically presents earlier and has different symptoms. Osteomyelitis, an infection of the bone, has different x-ray findings. Sickle cell anemia and iron deficiency are not associated with the symptoms and x-ray findings in this case.

      Lead poisoning is a condition that should be considered when a patient presents with abdominal pain and neurological symptoms, along with acute intermittent porphyria. This condition is caused by defective ferrochelatase and ALA dehydratase function. Symptoms of lead poisoning include abdominal pain, peripheral neuropathy (mainly motor), neuropsychiatric features, fatigue, constipation, and blue lines on the gum margin (which is rare in children and only present in 20% of adult patients).

      To diagnose lead poisoning, doctors typically measure the patient’s blood lead level, with levels greater than 10 mcg/dl considered significant. A full blood count may also be performed, which can reveal microcytic anemia and red cell abnormalities such as basophilic stippling and clover-leaf morphology. Additionally, raised serum and urine levels of delta aminolaevulinic acid may be seen, which can sometimes make it difficult to differentiate from acute intermittent porphyria. Urinary coproporphyrin is also increased, while urinary porphobilinogen and uroporphyrin levels are normal to slightly increased. In children, lead can accumulate in the metaphysis of the bones, although x-rays are not typically part of the standard work-up.

      Various chelating agents are currently used to manage lead poisoning, including dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA), D-penicillamine, EDTA, and dimercaprol. These agents work to remove the lead from the body and can help alleviate symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old male gives a blood unit that is stored at 4 oC....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male gives a blood unit that is stored at 4 oC. Which clotting factor will be most impacted after 72 hours?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Factor V

      Explanation:

      FFP is frozen shortly after collection due to the temperature sensitivity of factors V and VIII.

      Blood Products and Cell Saver Devices

      Blood products are essential in various medical procedures, especially in cases where patients require transfusions due to anaemia or bleeding. Packed red cells, platelet-rich plasma, platelet concentrate, fresh frozen plasma, and cryoprecipitate are some of the commonly used whole blood fractions. Fresh frozen plasma is usually administered to patients with clotting deficiencies, while cryoprecipitate is a rich source of Factor VIII and fibrinogen. Cross-matching is necessary for all blood products, and cell saver devices are used to collect and re-infuse a patient’s own blood lost during surgery.

      Cell saver devices come in two types, those that wash the blood cells before re-infusion and those that do not. The former is more expensive and complicated to operate but reduces the risk of re-infusing contaminated blood. The latter avoids the use of donor blood and may be acceptable to Jehovah’s witnesses. However, it is contraindicated in malignant diseases due to the risk of facilitating disease dissemination.

      In some surgical patients, the use of warfarin can pose specific problems and may require the use of specialised blood products. Warfarin reversal can be achieved through the administration of vitamin K, fresh frozen plasma, or human prothrombin complex. Fresh frozen plasma is used less commonly now as a first-line warfarin reversal, and human prothrombin complex is preferred due to its rapid action. However, it should be given with vitamin K as factor 6 has a short half-life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 11 - A patient comes to the clinic with a few months of experiencing head...

    Incorrect

    • A patient comes to the clinic with a few months of experiencing head fullness and vision deterioration. After undergoing various blood tests, all results appear normal except for an Hb level of 188 g/L. What is linked to primary polycythemia in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: JAK2 mutation

      Explanation:

      JAK2 Mutation and Primary Polycythaemia

      Polycythaemia is a condition characterized by an increase in the number of red blood cells in the body. In primary polycythaemia, over 95% of cases are associated with a mutation in the JAK2 pathway. This mutation causes the pathway to be constantly active, leading to the production of red blood cells even in the absence of erythropoietin (EPO). The most common mutation occurs in exon 12, affecting position V617F.

      On the other hand, secondary causes of polycythaemia include COPD and smoking, which lower blood oxygenation and trigger the secretion of EPO by the kidney’s peritubular cells. ADPKD also promotes the secretion of increased EPO, resulting in the production and release of more red blood cells. Dehydration, on the other hand, reduces plasma volume, leading to an apparent/relative polycythaemia. While these factors can cause an increase in red blood cells, they are not associated with a primary haematological disorder like the JAK2 mutation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 12 - A 60-year-old male presents with fatigue, pallor and a tingling sensation in both...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old male presents with fatigue, pallor and a tingling sensation in both hands. Screening blood tests reveal:

      Hb 110 g/l (115-160 g/l)
      MCV 112 fl (82-100 fl)
      B12 140 ng/l (200-900 ng/l)

      What is the most frequent reason for this patient's macrocytic anaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pernicious anaemia

      Explanation:

      The primary cause of vitamin B12 deficiency is pernicious anaemia. This condition occurs when the stomach lining is destroyed by autoimmune factors, leading to reduced production of intrinsic factor. Intrinsic factor is responsible for binding B12 in the gut, and without it, B12 absorption is impaired. This can result in a deficiency of vitamin B12 and macrocytic anaemia, as well as neurological symptoms due to damage to spinal cord myelination.

      While a strict vegan diet and alcoholism can also lead to B12 deficiency, they are not the most common causes.

      Microcytic sideroblastic anaemia, on the other hand, is caused by lead poisoning, which impairs haem production.

      Vitamin B12 is essential for the development of red blood cells and the maintenance of the nervous system. It is absorbed through the binding of intrinsic factor, which is secreted by parietal cells in the stomach, and actively absorbed in the terminal ileum. A deficiency in vitamin B12 can be caused by pernicious anaemia, post gastrectomy, a vegan or poor diet, disorders or surgery of the terminal ileum, Crohn’s disease, or metformin use.

      Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency include macrocytic anaemia, a sore tongue and mouth, neurological symptoms, and neuropsychiatric symptoms such as mood disturbances. The dorsal column is usually affected first, leading to joint position and vibration issues before distal paraesthesia.

      Management of vitamin B12 deficiency involves administering 1 mg of IM hydroxocobalamin three times a week for two weeks, followed by once every three months if there is no neurological involvement. If a patient is also deficient in folic acid, it is important to treat the B12 deficiency first to avoid subacute combined degeneration of the cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 13 - A 67-year-old male visits his doctor with complaints of abdominal pain, weight loss,...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male visits his doctor with complaints of abdominal pain, weight loss, and fatigue that have been ongoing for three weeks. Upon further examination, the patient is diagnosed with hepatic angiosarcoma, an uncommon form of cancer. What is the probable cause of the patient's condition, based on his past exposure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vinyl chloride

      Explanation:

      Vinyl chloride is linked to the development of hepatic angiosarcoma, while asbestos is associated with mesotheliomas and bronchial carcinoma. Aflatoxin is known to cause hepatocellular carcinoma, and aniline dyes have been linked to bladder cancer.

      Understanding Carcinogens and Their Link to Cancer

      Carcinogens are substances that have the potential to cause cancer. These substances can be found in various forms, including chemicals, radiation, and viruses. Aflatoxin, which is produced by Aspergillus, is a carcinogen that can cause liver cancer. Aniline dyes, on the other hand, can lead to bladder cancer, while asbestos is known to cause mesothelioma and bronchial carcinoma. Nitrosamines are another type of carcinogen that can cause oesophageal and gastric cancer, while vinyl chloride can lead to hepatic angiosarcoma.

      It is important to understand the link between carcinogens and cancer, as exposure to these substances can increase the risk of developing the disease. By identifying and avoiding potential carcinogens, individuals can take steps to reduce their risk of cancer. Additionally, researchers continue to study the effects of various substances on the body, in order to better understand the mechanisms behind cancer development and to develop new treatments and prevention strategies. With continued research and education, it is possible to reduce the impact of carcinogens on human health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 14 - A 50-year-old man comes to surgical outpatients complaining of recurrent abdominal pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to surgical outpatients complaining of recurrent abdominal pain and vomiting. During examination, a peripheral motor neuropathy is observed. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute intermittent porphyria

      Explanation:

      Unless proven otherwise, the presence of neurological symptoms along with abdominal pain may indicate either acute intermittent porphyria or lead poisoning.

      Understanding Acute Intermittent Porphyria

      Acute intermittent porphyria (AIP) is a rare genetic disorder that affects the biosynthesis of haem due to a defect in the porphobilinogen deaminase enzyme. This results in the accumulation of delta aminolaevulinic acid and porphobilinogen, leading to a range of symptoms. AIP typically presents in individuals aged 20-40 years, with females being more commonly affected.

      The condition is characterized by a combination of abdominal, neurological, and psychiatric symptoms. Abdominal symptoms include pain and vomiting, while neurological symptoms may manifest as motor neuropathy. Psychiatric symptoms may include depression. Hypertension and tachycardia are also common.

      Diagnosis of AIP involves a range of tests, including urine analysis, assay of red cells for porphobilinogen deaminase, and measurement of serum levels of delta aminolaevulinic acid and porphobilinogen. A classic sign of AIP is the deep red color of urine on standing.

      Management of AIP involves avoiding triggers and treating acute attacks with IV haematin/haem arginate. In cases where these treatments are not immediately available, IV glucose may be used. With proper management, individuals with AIP can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 15 - From which of the following cell types do giant cells typically arise?
    ...

    Incorrect

    • From which of the following cell types do giant cells typically arise?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Macrophages

      Explanation:

      Macrophages are still the most frequent cell type that can generate giant cells, despite the possibility of other cell types doing so.

      Giant cells are masses that result from the fusion of various types of cells. Typically, these masses are composed of macrophages. It is important to note that giant cells are not the same as granulomas, although the agents that cause them may be similar. In fact, giant cells are often a reaction to foreign materials, such as suture material, and can be seen in histological sections stained with haematoxylin and eosin. Overall, giant cells are a unique phenomenon in cellular biology that can provide insight into the body’s response to foreign substances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 16 - A 75-year-old man is diagnosed with paroxysmal atrial fibrillation after presenting to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man is diagnosed with paroxysmal atrial fibrillation after presenting to the GP with palpitations. Due to his age and his background of hypertension, he is offered anticoagulation treatment. After drug counselling, he is prescribed apixaban.

      What is the mechanism of action of apixaban?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It directly inhibits factor Xa

      Explanation:

      Apixaban is a medication that directly inhibits factor Xa, which is responsible for the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin in the coagulation cascade. It is used as prophylaxis against embolic events in patients with atrial fibrillation, who are at increased risk due to blood pooling in the atria and potential clot formation. Unlike heparin, which activates antithrombin III to reduce blood clotting, apixaban works independently of antithrombin III. It also does not directly inhibit thrombin, which is the mechanism of action of dabigatran. Antiplatelets, such as aspirin and clopidogrel, work to decrease platelet activation and aggregation, but are not recommended for reducing the risks of embolic events in AF. Apixaban also does not inhibit vitamin K, which is the mechanism of action of warfarin.

      Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) are medications used to prevent stroke in non-valvular atrial fibrillation (AF), as well as for the prevention and treatment of venous thromboembolism (VTE). To be prescribed DOACs for stroke prevention, patients must have certain risk factors, such as a prior stroke or transient ischaemic attack, age 75 or older, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or heart failure. There are four DOACs available, each with a different mechanism of action and method of excretion. Dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor, while rivaroxaban, apixaban, and edoxaban are direct factor Xa inhibitors. The majority of DOACs are excreted either through the kidneys or the liver, with the exception of apixaban and edoxaban, which are excreted through the feces. Reversal agents are available for dabigatran and rivaroxaban, but not for apixaban or edoxaban.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of fatigue. Upon further inquiry,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of fatigue. Upon further inquiry, the doctor learns that she has been experiencing heavy menstrual bleeding for the past 8 months. To investigate further, the doctor orders a complete blood count and iron level test. What is the typical lifespan of a red blood cell?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 120 days

      Explanation:

      The bone marrow in large bones is responsible for the production of human red blood cells through erythropoiesis. Stem cells undergo a 7-day development process to become red blood cells, which then circulate for around 120 days before being eliminated by the spleen. Eryptosis, or programmed red cell death, occurs at the same rate as production.

      However, certain diseases can increase the rate of eryptosis, resulting in a shorter lifespan for red blood cells. These diseases include haemolytic uraemic syndrome, sepsis, malaria, sickle cell disease, thalassaemia, iron deficiency, and Wilson’s disease.

      Iron deficiency anaemia is a prevalent condition worldwide, with preschool-age children being the most affected. The lack of iron in the body leads to a decrease in red blood cells and haemoglobin, resulting in anaemia. The primary causes of iron deficiency anaemia are excessive blood loss, inadequate dietary intake, poor intestinal absorption, and increased iron requirements. Menorrhagia is the most common cause of blood loss in pre-menopausal women, while gastrointestinal bleeding is the most common cause in men and postmenopausal women. Vegans and vegetarians are more likely to develop iron deficiency anaemia due to the lack of meat in their diet. Coeliac disease and other conditions affecting the small intestine can prevent sufficient iron absorption. Children and pregnant women have increased iron demands, and the latter may experience dilution due to an increase in plasma volume.

      The symptoms of iron deficiency anaemia include fatigue, shortness of breath on exertion, palpitations, pallor, nail changes, hair loss, atrophic glossitis, post-cricoid webs, and angular stomatitis. To diagnose iron deficiency anaemia, a full blood count, serum ferritin, total iron-binding capacity, transferrin, and blood film tests are performed. Endoscopy may be necessary to rule out malignancy, especially in males and postmenopausal females with unexplained iron-deficiency anaemia.

      The management of iron deficiency anaemia involves identifying and treating the underlying cause. Oral ferrous sulfate is commonly prescribed, and patients should continue taking iron supplements for three months after the iron deficiency has been corrected to replenish iron stores. Iron-rich foods such as dark-green leafy vegetables, meat, and iron-fortified bread can also help. It is crucial to exclude malignancy by taking an adequate history and appropriate investigations if warranted.

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      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 18 - A 75-year-old man has a tumour located at the tip of his tongue....

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man has a tumour located at the tip of his tongue. Initially, which region will the tumour metastasize to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Submental nodes

      Explanation:

      Lymphatic Drainage of the Tongue

      The lymphatic drainage of the tongue varies depending on the location of the tumour. The anterior two-thirds of the tongue have minimal communication of lymphatics across the midline, resulting in metastasis to the ipsilateral nodes being more common. On the other hand, the posterior third of the tongue has communicating networks, leading to early bilateral nodal metastases being more common in this area.

      The tip of the tongue drains to the submental nodes and then to the deep cervical nodes, while the mid portion of the tongue drains to the submandibular nodes and then to the deep cervical nodes. If mid tongue tumours are laterally located, they will usually drain to the ipsilateral deep cervical nodes. However, those from more central regions may have bilateral deep cervical nodal involvement. Understanding the lymphatic drainage of the tongue is crucial in determining the spread of tumours and planning appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 19 - A 32-year-old man with metastatic seminoma is admitted to the hospital due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with metastatic seminoma is admitted to the hospital due to fever. He reports no abdominal pain, shortness of breath, or rashes. Upon examination, his temperature is 39.4ºC, blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, pulse is 110/min, and respiratory rate is 18/min. The patient appears pale, but the rest of the physical examination is unremarkable.

      Lab results show:

      - Hemoglobin: 105 g/L (normal range for males: 135-180; females: 115-160)
      - Platelets: 100 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400)
      - White blood cells: 0.2* 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0)
      - Neutrophils: 0.05* 109/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0)
      - Lymphocytes: 0.15* 109/L (normal range: 1.0-3.5)

      In addition to administering appropriate antibiotics, what is the most effective treatment to increase the patient's leukocyte count and prevent future episodes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Filgrastim

      Explanation:

      Filgrastim is a medication that stimulates the growth of granulocytes and is commonly used to treat neutropenia. In the case of a patient with a history of fever, low blood pressure, and tachycardia, it is likely that they have developed sepsis, which is a common complication in patients receiving chemotherapy. The main treatment for sepsis is fluid resuscitation and broad-spectrum antibiotics. While filgrastim is not a direct treatment for sepsis, it can be used to address leukopenia caused by chemotherapy, aplastic anemia, and congenital neutropenia.

      Darbepoetin is a medication that mimics the effects of erythropoietin and is commonly used to treat anemia, particularly in patients with renal failure.

      Eltrombopag is a medication that activates the TPO receptor and is often used to treat autoimmune thrombocytopenia.

      IFN-γ is a medication used to treat chronic granulomatous disease.

      Granulocyte-Colony Stimulating Factors for Neutropenia

      Granulocyte-colony stimulating factors (G-CSFs) are synthetic versions of a natural protein that stimulates the production of white blood cells called neutrophils. These drugs are used to increase neutrophil counts in patients who are neutropenic, meaning they have abnormally low levels of neutrophils. Neutropenia can occur as a side effect of chemotherapy or radiation therapy, or due to other factors such as infections or autoimmune disorders.

      Recombinant human G-CSFs, such as filgrastim and perfilgrastim, are commonly used to treat neutropenia. These drugs work by stimulating the bone marrow to produce more neutrophils, which can help prevent infections and other complications associated with low white blood cell counts. G-CSFs are typically administered by injection, either subcutaneously or intravenously.

      Overall, G-CSFs are an important tool in the management of neutropenia, particularly in patients undergoing chemotherapy or other treatments that can suppress the immune system. By boosting neutrophil production, these drugs can help reduce the risk of infections and improve outcomes for patients with compromised immune function.

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      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 20 - A 67-year-old woman visits the oncology clinic after being diagnosed with non-metastatic breast...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman visits the oncology clinic after being diagnosed with non-metastatic breast cancer. She is started on neoadjuvant chemotherapy using docetaxel.

      What is the mechanism of action for this form of chemotherapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prevents microtubule depolymerisation and disassembly

      Explanation:

      Docetaxel, a taxane chemotherapy agent, works by reducing the amount of free tubulin through the prevention of microtubule depolymerisation and disassembly during the metaphase stage of cell division, ultimately hindering mitosis.

      Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin and anthracyclines, degrade preformed DNA and stabilize DNA-topoisomerase II complex, respectively. However, they can also cause lung fibrosis and cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, such as methotrexate and fluorouracil, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, respectively. However, they can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and liver or lung fibrosis. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and docetaxel, inhibit the formation of microtubules and prevent microtubule depolymerisation & disassembly, respectively. However, they can also cause peripheral neuropathy, myelosuppression, and paralytic ileus. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I, which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA. However, they can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin and hydroxyurea, cause cross-linking in DNA and inhibit ribonucleotide reductase, respectively. However, they can also cause ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypomagnesaemia, and myelosuppression.

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      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 21 - During a placement in general practice, a 56-year-old woman comes in with new...

    Incorrect

    • During a placement in general practice, a 56-year-old woman comes in with new nipple discharge and skin dimpling over her breast. The GP conducts a breast examination, including the lymph nodes surrounding the area. Which lymph nodes receive the most breast lymph?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Axilliary lymph nodes

      Explanation:

      The lymphatic system of the breast is responsible for draining excess fluid and waste products. Lymph from the upper outer quadrant of the breast drains to the axillary lymph nodes, while lymph from the inner quadrants drains to the parasternal lymph nodes. Additionally, some lymph from the lower quadrants drains to the inferior phrenic lymph nodes.

      Lymphatic drainage is the process by which lymphatic vessels carry lymph, a clear fluid containing white blood cells, away from tissues and organs and towards lymph nodes. The lymphatic vessels that drain the skin and follow venous drainage are called superficial lymphatic vessels, while those that drain internal organs and structures follow the arteries and are called deep lymphatic vessels. These vessels eventually lead to lymph nodes, which filter and remove harmful substances from the lymph before it is returned to the bloodstream.

      The lymphatic system is divided into two main ducts: the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct. The right lymphatic duct drains the right side of the head and right arm, while the thoracic duct drains everything else. Both ducts eventually drain into the venous system.

      Different areas of the body have specific primary lymph node drainage sites. For example, the superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal below the pectinate line, perineum, skin of the thigh, penis, scrotum, and vagina. The deep inguinal lymph nodes drain the glans penis, while the para-aortic lymph nodes drain the testes, ovaries, kidney, and adrenal gland. The axillary lymph nodes drain the lateral breast and upper limb, while the internal iliac lymph nodes drain the anal canal above the pectinate line, lower part of the rectum, and pelvic structures including the cervix and inferior part of the uterus. The superior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the duodenum and jejunum, while the inferior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and upper part of the rectum. Finally, the coeliac lymph nodes drain the stomach.

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      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 22 - A 75-year-old man comes to the clinic with haemoptysis and is suspected to...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man comes to the clinic with haemoptysis and is suspected to have lung cancer. During the examination, an enlarged supraclavicular lymph node is detected. What is the most probable feature that will be found on histological examination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased mitoses

      Explanation:

      Malignant cell transformation often results in an increase in mitotic activity. Metastatic cancer rarely exhibits apoptosis. Female somatic cells undergo X chromosome inactivation, resulting in the formation of Barr Bodies.

      Characteristics of Malignancy in Histopathology

      Histopathology is the study of tissue architecture and cellular changes in disease. In malignancy, there are several distinct characteristics that differentiate it from normal tissue or benign tumors. These features include abnormal tissue architecture, coarse chromatin, invasion of the basement membrane, abnormal mitoses, angiogenesis, de-differentiation, areas of necrosis, and nuclear pleomorphism.

      Abnormal tissue architecture refers to the disorganized and irregular arrangement of cells within the tissue. Coarse chromatin refers to the appearance of the genetic material within the nucleus, which appears clumped and irregular. Invasion of the basement membrane is a hallmark of invasive malignancy, as it indicates that the cancer cells have broken through the protective layer that separates the tissue from surrounding structures. Abnormal mitoses refer to the process of cell division, which is often disrupted in cancer cells. Angiogenesis is the process by which new blood vessels are formed, which is necessary for the growth and spread of cancer cells. De-differentiation refers to the loss of specialized functions and characteristics of cells, which is common in cancer cells. Areas of necrosis refer to the death of tissue due to lack of blood supply or other factors. Finally, nuclear pleomorphism refers to the variability in size and shape of the nuclei within cancer cells.

      Overall, these characteristics are important for the diagnosis and treatment of malignancy, as they help to distinguish cancer cells from normal tissue and benign tumors. By identifying these features in histopathology samples, doctors can make more accurate diagnoses and develop more effective treatment plans for patients with cancer.

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      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 23 - A 19 year old man is brought to the Emergency Department after a...

    Incorrect

    • A 19 year old man is brought to the Emergency Department after a car accident. The patient is hypotensive with a blood pressure of 90/40 mmHg, tachycardic with a heart rate of 120 beats per minute, and has oxygen saturations of 92%. The medical team administers one litre of 0.9% normal saline for initial resuscitation. The consultant suspects a ruptured spleen and has requested a cross match and four units of blood from the haematology lab. The patient's brother overhears the conversation and believes he is blood group A because he donates blood annually. What blood product can be given to the patient until the cross match result is available?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: O rhesus negative

      Explanation:

      Dilutional anemia can occur as a result of saline administration, which does not improve oxygen transport or coagulopathy.

      When the blood group of a patient is unknown, O rhesus negative blood may be administered as it is considered the universal donor. However, to conserve O negative blood stocks, transfusion guidelines now recommend giving male patients O positive blood in such situations, as Rhesus status is only relevant in pregnancy.

      It is crucial to ensure that the correct blood product is prescribed and administered to the right patient, as transfusion reactions can be severe and fatal.

      Blood Products and Cell Saver Devices

      Blood products are essential in various medical procedures, especially in cases where patients require transfusions due to anaemia or bleeding. Packed red cells, platelet-rich plasma, platelet concentrate, fresh frozen plasma, and cryoprecipitate are some of the commonly used whole blood fractions. Fresh frozen plasma is usually administered to patients with clotting deficiencies, while cryoprecipitate is a rich source of Factor VIII and fibrinogen. Cross-matching is necessary for all blood products, and cell saver devices are used to collect and re-infuse a patient’s own blood lost during surgery.

      Cell saver devices come in two types, those that wash the blood cells before re-infusion and those that do not. The former is more expensive and complicated to operate but reduces the risk of re-infusing contaminated blood. The latter avoids the use of donor blood and may be acceptable to Jehovah’s witnesses. However, it is contraindicated in malignant diseases due to the risk of facilitating disease dissemination.

      In some surgical patients, the use of warfarin can pose specific problems and may require the use of specialised blood products. Warfarin reversal can be achieved through the administration of vitamin K, fresh frozen plasma, or human prothrombin complex. Fresh frozen plasma is used less commonly now as a first-line warfarin reversal, and human prothrombin complex is preferred due to its rapid action. However, it should be given with vitamin K as factor 6 has a short half-life.

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      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 24 - A 50-year-old woman goes for a cervical screening test and is found to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman goes for a cervical screening test and is found to have HPV subtypes 6 & 11. She has no other health issues. What is her primary risk factor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Genital warts

      Explanation:

      HPV Infection and Cervical Cancer

      Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection is the primary risk factor for cervical cancer, with subtypes 16, 18, and 33 being the most carcinogenic. Other common subtypes, such as 6 and 11, are associated with genital warts but are not carcinogenic. When endocervical cells become infected with HPV, they may undergo changes that lead to the development of koilocytes. These cells have distinct characteristics, including an enlarged nucleus, irregular nuclear membrane contour, hyperchromasia (darker staining of the nucleus), and a perinuclear halo. These changes are important diagnostic markers for cervical cancer and can be detected through Pap smears or other screening methods. Early detection and treatment of HPV infection and cervical cancer can greatly improve outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.

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      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 25 - Tom, a 50-year-old man, visits his primary care physician to discuss his medications....

    Incorrect

    • Tom, a 50-year-old man, visits his primary care physician to discuss his medications. He was recently hospitalized for a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and was prescribed dabigatran to prevent future occurrences. Can you explain how this anticoagulant works?

      The mechanism of action of dabigatran is its ability to inhibit thrombin, a key enzyme in the blood clotting process. By blocking thrombin, dabigatran prevents the formation of blood clots and reduces the risk of DVT and other thromboembolic events. Unlike traditional anticoagulants such as warfarin, dabigatran does not require regular monitoring and has fewer drug interactions. However, it may increase the risk of bleeding and should be used with caution in patients with renal impairment.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Directly inhibits thrombin

      Explanation:

      Dabigatran is a DOAC that directly inhibits thrombin, a clotting factor that converts fibrinogen to fibrin strands. This impairs clot formation and can be reversed with idarucizumab in severe bleeding.

      Tranexamic acid inhibits the activation of plasminogen, which prevents the breakdown of fibrin clots and increases clotting. It is commonly used in menorrhagia.

      Other DOAC medications, such as rivaroxaban, apixaban, and edoxaban, inhibit clotting factor Xa, which activates thrombin. These medications can be reversed with recombinant human factor Xa.

      Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist that inhibits the synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X, as well as natural anticoagulants protein C and S. It initially increases the risk of clotting, so patients must take heparin injections when first starting warfarin.

      Aspirin irreversibly inhibits COX, an enzyme that synthesizes thromboxanes, which promote platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction. By inhibiting thromboxane production, aspirin is effective in preventing myocardial infarction and stroke.

      Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) are medications used to prevent stroke in non-valvular atrial fibrillation (AF), as well as for the prevention and treatment of venous thromboembolism (VTE). To be prescribed DOACs for stroke prevention, patients must have certain risk factors, such as a prior stroke or transient ischaemic attack, age 75 or older, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or heart failure. There are four DOACs available, each with a different mechanism of action and method of excretion. Dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor, while rivaroxaban, apixaban, and edoxaban are direct factor Xa inhibitors. The majority of DOACs are excreted either through the kidneys or the liver, with the exception of apixaban and edoxaban, which are excreted through the feces. Reversal agents are available for dabigatran and rivaroxaban, but not for apixaban or edoxaban.

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      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 26 - A 45-year-old female patient presents to her GP with increasing muscular fatigue, mainly...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old female patient presents to her GP with increasing muscular fatigue, mainly affecting the muscles of face. The fatigue is worse in the evenings or when using the muscle for prolonged periods. She also complains of diplopia and difficulty swallowing. On examination, she has a bilateral, partial ptosis. Tendon reflexes are normal. Her past medical history includes hypothyroidism and pernicious anaemia.

      In which area of the mediastinum is the structure likely to have undergone hyperplasia in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior superior mediastinum

      Explanation:

      The Thymus Gland: Development, Structure, and Function

      The thymus gland is an encapsulated organ that develops from the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches. It descends to the anterior superior mediastinum and is subdivided into lobules, each consisting of a cortex and a medulla. The cortex is made up of tightly packed lymphocytes, while the medulla is mostly composed of epithelial cells. Hassall’s corpuscles, which are concentrically arranged medullary epithelial cells that may surround a keratinized center, are also present.

      The inferior parathyroid glands, which also develop from the third pharyngeal pouch, may be located with the thymus gland. The thymus gland’s arterial supply comes from the internal mammary artery or pericardiophrenic arteries, while its venous drainage is to the left brachiocephalic vein. The thymus gland plays a crucial role in the development and maturation of T-cells, which are essential for the immune system’s proper functioning.

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      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 27 - A 22-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with excessive epistaxis. Despite applying...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with excessive epistaxis. Despite applying pressure on the anterior nares for the past four hours, the bleeding has not stopped. Nasal packing has also failed to control the bleeding. The on-call ENT specialist administers topical tranexamic acid to a visibly bleeding artery, which results in a reduction in bleeding.

      What is the mode of action of tranexamic acid?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prevents plasmin from breaking down fibrin clots

      Explanation:

      Tranexamic acid prevents major haemorrhage by binding to plasminogen and preventing plasmin from breaking down fibrin clots. Its mechanism of action is not related to increasing the availability of vitamin K or inhibiting anticlotting factors protein C and S. Similarly, reducing the availability of vitamin K would not be the mechanism of action of tranexamic acid. While stimulating anticlotting factors protein C and S would maintain clots, it is not the mechanism of action of tranexamic acid.

      Understanding Tranexamic Acid

      Tranexamic acid is a synthetic derivative of lysine that acts as an antifibrinolytic. Its primary function is to bind to lysine receptor sites on plasminogen or plasmin, preventing plasmin from degrading fibrin. This medication is commonly prescribed to treat menorrhagia.

      In addition to its use in treating menorrhagia, tranexamic acid has been investigated for its role in trauma. The CRASH 2 trial found that administering tranexamic acid within the first 3 hours of bleeding trauma can be beneficial. In cases of major haemorrhage, tranexamic acid is given as an IV bolus followed by an infusion.

      Ongoing research is also exploring the potential of tranexamic acid in treating traumatic brain injury. Overall, tranexamic acid is a medication with important applications in managing bleeding disorders and trauma.

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      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 28 - A 20-year-old male who migrated from Ghana during childhood presents with an intermittent...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male who migrated from Ghana during childhood presents with an intermittent painful morning erection that has lasted for the past 4 hours. He has never experienced this problem before and is typically healthy. On examination, he has mild splenomegaly. Laboratory investigations reveal:

      - Hemoglobin (Hb) level of 115 g/L (normal range for males: 135-180 g/L; females: 115-160 g/L)
      - Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 76 fL (normal range: 80-95 fL)

      The peripheral blood film shows multiple small red blood cells, a few sickle cells, and target cells. Based on these findings, what is the most probable genotype for his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HbSC

      Explanation:

      Hb SC is a less severe variant of sickle cell disease that can be detected early through screening of children in the UK. This condition is characterized by the presence of both the sickle mutation and the HbC mutation, which results in a lysine substitution for glutamic acid on position 6 of the beta chain. While HbSC shares similarities with sickle cell disease, its symptoms are less frequent and severe. The severity of the disease can vary depending on the specific genotype, with HbAA being normal, HbAS being asymptomatic, HbSC/Sβ+ being moderately affected, and HbSS/Sβ0 being severely affected due to the absence of normal haemoglobin.

      Understanding Sickle-Cell Anaemia

      Sickle-cell anaemia is a genetic disorder that occurs when an abnormal haemoglobin chain, known as HbS, is synthesized due to an autosomal recessive condition. This condition is more common in people of African descent, as the heterozygous condition offers some protection against malaria. In the UK, around 10% of Afro-Caribbean individuals are carriers of HbS. Symptoms in homozygotes typically do not develop until 4-6 months when the abnormal HbSS molecules take over from fetal haemoglobin.

      The pathophysiology of sickle-cell anaemia involves the substitution of the polar amino acid glutamate with the non-polar valine in each of the two beta chains (codon 6) of haemoglobin. This substitution decreases the water solubility of deoxy-Hb, causing HbS molecules to polymerize and sickle in the deoxygenated state. HbAS patients sickle at p02 2.5 – 4 kPa, while HbSS patients sickle at p02 5 – 6 kPa. Sickle cells are fragile and can cause haemolysis, block small blood vessels, and lead to infarction.

      To diagnose sickle-cell anaemia, haemoglobin electrophoresis is the definitive test. It is essential to understand the pathophysiology and symptoms of sickle-cell anaemia to provide appropriate care and management for affected individuals.

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      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 29 - A 78-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of fresh red blood in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of fresh red blood in his stool, tenesmus, and a change in bowel habit that has persisted for 7 weeks. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and takes amlodipine and amlodipine without any allergies. During a digital rectal examination, an irregular mass is detected in the anterior aspect of the rectum. The patient is immediately referred for a flexible sigmoidoscopy, which reveals an adenocarcinoma in the anal canal below the pectinate line.

      In this patient, what is the lymph node region where metastatic spread is most likely to occur initially?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superficial inguinal nodes

      Explanation:

      The lymphatic drainage of the anal canal below the pectinate line is provided by the superficial inguinal nodes. These nodes also drain the lower limbs, scrotum/vulva, and the rectum below the pectinate line. The ileocolic nodes primarily drain the ileum and proximal ascending colon, while the inferior mesenteric nodes drain the hindgut structures. The internal iliac nodes drain the inferior rectum, anal canal above the pectinate line, and pelvic viscera. The para-aortic nodes do not directly drain the portion of the rectum below the pectinate line, but they do drain the testes/ovaries.

      Lymphatic drainage is the process by which lymphatic vessels carry lymph, a clear fluid containing white blood cells, away from tissues and organs and towards lymph nodes. The lymphatic vessels that drain the skin and follow venous drainage are called superficial lymphatic vessels, while those that drain internal organs and structures follow the arteries and are called deep lymphatic vessels. These vessels eventually lead to lymph nodes, which filter and remove harmful substances from the lymph before it is returned to the bloodstream.

      The lymphatic system is divided into two main ducts: the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct. The right lymphatic duct drains the right side of the head and right arm, while the thoracic duct drains everything else. Both ducts eventually drain into the venous system.

      Different areas of the body have specific primary lymph node drainage sites. For example, the superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal below the pectinate line, perineum, skin of the thigh, penis, scrotum, and vagina. The deep inguinal lymph nodes drain the glans penis, while the para-aortic lymph nodes drain the testes, ovaries, kidney, and adrenal gland. The axillary lymph nodes drain the lateral breast and upper limb, while the internal iliac lymph nodes drain the anal canal above the pectinate line, lower part of the rectum, and pelvic structures including the cervix and inferior part of the uterus. The superior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the duodenum and jejunum, while the inferior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and upper part of the rectum. Finally, the coeliac lymph nodes drain the stomach.

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      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 30 - A 50-year-old patient has discovered a lump in her neck and another one...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old patient has discovered a lump in her neck and another one in her groin. She has been experiencing feverish symptoms for several months and has had to change her bedclothes twice in the last week. Upon examination, smooth, firm, enlarged lymph nodes are noted at both sites. The patient's GP is concerned about the possibility of an underlying lymphoma and has referred her to secondary care for further investigations. A CT scan has not revealed any other lymph nodes. What is the most appropriate diagnosis and staging for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: On biopsy the malignant lymphoid cells would be likely to have many of the characteristics of their parent cells

      Explanation:

      Lymphomas and their Staging

      Malignancies that arise from lymphocytes can spread to different lymph node groups due to their ability to retain adhesion and signalling receptors. Lymphomas can present at various sites, including bone marrow, gut, and spleen, as normal trafficking of lymphoid cells occurs through these places. Interestingly, higher-grade lymphomas are easier to cure than lower grade lymphomas, despite initially being associated with a higher mortality rate. On the other hand, low-grade lymphomas may not require immediate treatment, but the disease progresses over time, leading to a poorer prognosis.

      To diagnose lymphoma, a biopsy of the affected area, such as a lymph node or bone marrow, is necessary. The Ann Arbor staging system is used to stage lymphomas, with Stage I indicating disease in a single lymph node group and Stage IV indicating extra-nodal involvement other than the spleen. The addition of a ‘B’ signifies the presence of ‘B’ symptoms, which are associated with a poorer prognosis for each disease stage.

      From the examination findings, it is evident that the disease is present on both sides of the diaphragm, indicating at least Stage III lymphoma. the staging of lymphomas is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan and predicting the patient’s prognosis.

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      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Haematology And Oncology (0/3) 0%
Passmed