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  • Question 1 - A 26-year-old first-time mother is interested in learning about the benefits of breastfeeding...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old first-time mother is interested in learning about the benefits of breastfeeding for her newborn. You inform her that breast milk contains essential nutrients and enzymes, including lactoferrin.

      What is the function of lactoferrin in breast milk?

      Your Answer: Promotes uptake of iron by gut bacteria

      Correct Answer: Promotes rapid absorption of iron

      Explanation:

      Breast Milk lactoferrin facilitates the quick absorption of iron in the gut, while simultaneously limiting the amount of iron accessible to gut bacteria due to its antibacterial properties. Additionally, lactoferrin has been found to promote bone health by increasing bone formation and reducing bone resorption.

      Advantages and Disadvantages of Breastfeeding

      Breastfeeding has numerous advantages for both the mother and the baby. For the mother, it promotes bonding with the baby and helps with the involution of the uterus. It also provides protection against breast and ovarian cancer and is a cheap alternative to formula feeding as there is no need to sterilize bottles. However, it should not be relied upon as a contraceptive method as it is unreliable.

      Breast milk contains immunological components such as IgA, lysozyme, and lactoferrin that protect mucosal surfaces, have bacteriolytic properties, and ensure rapid absorption of iron so it is not available to bacteria. This reduces the incidence of ear, chest, and gastrointestinal infections, as well as eczema, asthma, and type 1 diabetes mellitus. Breastfeeding also reduces the incidence of sudden infant death syndrome.

      One of the advantages of breastfeeding is that the baby is in control of how much milk it takes. However, there are also disadvantages such as the transmission of drugs and infections such as HIV. Prolonged breastfeeding may also lead to nutrient inadequacies such as vitamin D and vitamin K deficiencies, as well as breast milk jaundice.

      In conclusion, while breastfeeding has numerous advantages, it is important to be aware of the potential disadvantages and to consult with a healthcare professional to ensure that both the mother and the baby are receiving adequate nutrition and care.

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  • Question 2 - A 58-year-old woman is admitted under the gynaecology team with vaginal bleeding. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman is admitted under the gynaecology team with vaginal bleeding. She has a history of breast cancer and is taking letrozole 2.5 mg.

      What is the mechanism of action of letrozole?

      Your Answer: Reduces oestrogen release from the ovaries

      Correct Answer: Reduces peripheral oestrogen synthesis

      Explanation:

      Anti-oestrogen drugs are used in the management of oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer. Selective oEstrogen Receptor Modulators (SERM) such as Tamoxifen act as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist. However, Tamoxifen may cause adverse effects such as menstrual disturbance, hot flushes, venous thromboembolism, and endometrial cancer. On the other hand, aromatase inhibitors like Anastrozole and Letrozole reduce peripheral oestrogen synthesis, which is important in postmenopausal women. Anastrozole is used for ER +ve breast cancer in this group. However, aromatase inhibitors may cause adverse effects such as osteoporosis, hot flushes, arthralgia, myalgia, and insomnia. NICE recommends a DEXA scan when initiating a patient on aromatase inhibitors for breast cancer.

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  • Question 3 - A 33-year-old woman is 28 weeks pregnant and has been diagnosed with gestational...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman is 28 weeks pregnant and has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes following an oral glucose tolerance test. What are the possible complications associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: Neonatal hyperglycaemia

      Correct Answer: Macrosomia, shoulder dystocia, polyhydramnios

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, the development of carbohydrate intolerance is referred to as gestational diabetes mellitus. To diagnose this condition, an OGTT is typically performed at 28 weeks, although it may be done earlier for those at higher risk (such as those of Asian or Afro-Caribbean ethnicity, with a BMI over 30, a history of stillbirth, or family members with diabetes). Diabetes during pregnancy can increase the likelihood of various complications, including macrosomia, polyhydramnios, shoulder dystocia, congenital heart defects, neural tube defects, and neonatal hypoglycemia. Ebstein’s anomaly of the heart can occur as a result of lithium use during pregnancy, while prolonged rupture of membranes during pregnancy can lead to neonatal infection.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.

      To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.

      For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from pre-conception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.

      Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.

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  • Question 4 - A physician informs a recently pregnant woman about the typical physiological alterations that...

    Incorrect

    • A physician informs a recently pregnant woman about the typical physiological alterations that occur during pregnancy. He clarifies that her cardiac output will rise. What is the primary cause of this?

      Your Answer: Increased peripheral resistance

      Correct Answer: Increased stroke volume

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, the main contributor to the increased cardiac output is the increased stroke volume, which is caused by the activation of the renin-angiotensin system and the subsequent increase in plasma volume. Although the heart rate also increases slightly, it is not as significant as the increase in stroke volume. Therefore, the major contributor to the increased cardiac output is the stroke volume.

      The statements ‘decreased heart rate’ and ‘increased peripheral resistance’ are incorrect. In fact, peripheral resistance decreases due to progesterone, which contributes to the normal decrease in blood pressure during pregnancy. Peripheral resistance is more concerned with blood pressure.

      Pregnancy also causes various physiological changes, including increased uterine size, cervical ectropion, reduced cervical collagen, and increased vaginal discharge. Cardiovascular and haemodynamic changes include increased plasma volume, anaemia, increased white cell count, platelets, ESR, cholesterol, and fibrinogen, as well as decreased albumin, urea, and creatinine. Progesterone-related effects, such as muscle relaxation, can cause decreased blood pressure, constipation, ureteral dilation, bladder relaxation, biliary stasis, and increased tidal volume.

      During pregnancy, a woman’s body undergoes various physiological changes. The cardiovascular system experiences an increase in stroke volume, heart rate, and cardiac output, while systolic blood pressure remains unchanged and diastolic blood pressure decreases in the first and second trimesters before returning to normal levels by term. The enlarged uterus may cause issues with venous return, leading to ankle swelling, supine hypotension, and varicose veins.

      The respiratory system sees an increase in pulmonary ventilation and tidal volume, with oxygen requirements only increasing by 20%. This can lead to a sense of dyspnea due to over-breathing and a fall in pCO2. The basal metabolic rate also increases, potentially due to increased thyroxine and adrenocortical hormones.

      Maternal blood volume increases by 30%, with red blood cells increasing by 20% and plasma increasing by 50%, leading to a decrease in hemoglobin levels. Coagulant activity increases slightly, while fibrinolytic activity decreases. Platelet count falls, and white blood cell count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate rise.

      The urinary system experiences an increase in blood flow and glomerular filtration rate, with elevated sex steroid levels leading to increased salt and water reabsorption and urinary protein losses. Trace glycosuria may also occur.

      Calcium requirements increase during pregnancy, with gut absorption increasing substantially due to increased 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D. Serum levels of calcium and phosphate may fall, but ionized calcium levels remain stable. The liver experiences an increase in alkaline phosphatase and a decrease in albumin levels.

      The uterus undergoes significant changes, increasing in weight from 100g to 1100g and transitioning from hyperplasia to hypertrophy. Cervical ectropion and discharge may increase, and Braxton-Hicks contractions may occur in late pregnancy. Retroversion may lead to retention in the first trimester but usually self-corrects.

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  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old woman who is breastfeeding her first child complains of discomfort in...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman who is breastfeeding her first child complains of discomfort in her right breast. Upon examination, there is erythema and a fluctuant area. Which organism is most likely to be found upon aspiration and culture of the fluid?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      The most frequent cause of infection is Staphylococcus aureus, which typically enters through damage to the nipple areolar complex caused by the infant’s mouth.

      Breast Abscess: Causes and Management

      Breast abscess is a condition that commonly affects lactating women, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most common cause. The condition is characterized by the presence of a tender, fluctuant mass in the breast.

      To manage breast abscess, healthcare providers may opt for either incision and drainage or needle aspiration, with the latter typically done using ultrasound. Antibiotics are also prescribed to help treat the infection.

      Breast abscess can be a painful and uncomfortable condition for lactating women. However, with prompt and appropriate management, the condition can be effectively treated, allowing women to continue breastfeeding their babies without any complications.

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  • Question 6 - A 75-year-old man comes to the smoking cessation clinic seeking help to quit...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man comes to the smoking cessation clinic seeking help to quit smoking. He is motivated to quit after witnessing his brother's death from lung cancer.

      What health condition is the patient more susceptible to if he successfully quits smoking?

      Your Answer: Endometrial cancer

      Explanation:

      Smoking is a protective factor against only one type of cancer, which is endometrial cancer (3), as found by a meta-analysis. However, smoking is a risk factor for all the other types of cancer mentioned.

      For bladder cancer (1), it is suggested that the aromatic amines found in cigarettes are a known carcinogen of the bladder, thus contributing to the increased risk of bladder cancer with smoking.

      Although smoking is a well-established co-factor for the development of cervical cancer (2), the mechanism by which smoking increases the risk is not known, although there are two theories.

      Smoking has been found to cause numerous DNA changes in laryngeal cancer (4), including TP53 gene mutations.

      Smoking is also theorized to cause renal cell cancer (5) as cigarette smoke induces oxidative stress and injury in the kidney, and free radicals in cigarettes can cause DNA damage that may lead to the development of cancer.

      Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Symptoms of endometrial cancer include postmenopausal bleeding, which is usually slight and intermittent at first before becoming heavier, and changes in intermenstrual bleeding for premenopausal women. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.

      When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness of less than 4 mm. Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for diagnosis. Treatment for localized disease typically involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may require postoperative radiotherapy. Progestogen therapy may be used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.

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  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old woman comes to the pharmacy seeking advice on supplements or foods...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to the pharmacy seeking advice on supplements or foods to take while trying to conceive with her partner. She has no history of pregnancy complications or birth defects and is looking for ways to support a healthy pregnancy. The practitioner informs her that while there is limited evidence to support most pregnancy supplements, there is one in particular that they recommend.

      What supplement could the practitioner be suggesting?

      Your Answer: 400 micrograms folic acid

      Explanation:

      To promote a healthy pregnancy, it is recommended that women take 400mcg of folic acid daily for three months before conception and up to 12 weeks into gestation. However, pregnant women should avoid vitamin A supplements and liver-based products as they can be harmful to the developing fetus. While iron supplements may be recommended for those with iron deficiency anemia, they are not necessary for this patient. It is important for pregnant women to avoid all types of pâté, including vegetable pâtés, as they may contain listeria bacterium.

      Antenatal Care: Lifestyle Advice for Pregnant Women

      During antenatal care, healthcare providers should provide pregnant women with lifestyle advice to ensure a healthy pregnancy. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has made several recommendations regarding the advice that pregnant women should receive. These recommendations include nutritional supplements, alcohol consumption, smoking, food-acquired infections, work, air travel, prescribed medicines, over-the-counter medicines, complimentary therapies, exercise, and sexual intercourse.

      Nutritional supplements such as folic acid and vitamin D are recommended to reduce the risk of neural tube defects and ensure adequate bone health, respectively. However, iron supplementation should not be offered routinely, and vitamin A supplementation should be avoided due to its teratogenic effects. Pregnant women should also avoid alcohol consumption as it can lead to long-term harm to the baby. Smoking should also be avoided, and NRT may be used only after discussing the risks and benefits.

      Food-acquired infections such as listeriosis and salmonella should be avoided by avoiding certain foods. Pregnant women should also be informed of their maternity rights and benefits and consult with the Health and Safety Executive if there are any concerns about possible occupational hazards during pregnancy. Air travel during pregnancy should also be avoided after a certain gestational age, and prescribed medicines should be avoided unless the benefits outweigh the risks.

      Over-the-counter medicines should be used as little as possible during pregnancy, and few complementary therapies have been established as being safe and effective during pregnancy. Pregnant women should also be informed that moderate exercise is not associated with adverse outcomes, but certain activities should be avoided. Sexual intercourse is not known to be associated with any adverse outcomes. By following these recommendations, pregnant women can ensure a healthy pregnancy and reduce the risk of complications.

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  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of consistent abdominal bloating over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of consistent abdominal bloating over the past 3 months. She reports no other symptoms and her physical examination appears normal. However, she is anxious as her acquaintance experienced comparable symptoms before being diagnosed with an advanced gynecological cancer. What diagnostic test should be conducted to assess her likelihood of having ovarian cancer?

      Your Answer: CEA

      Correct Answer: CA125

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptom is non-specific and could have various causes. However, given her age and the fact that she has lost a friend to ovarian cancer, it is reasonable to perform a simple test to rule out this possibility and alleviate her concerns. It is important to note that the patient does not exhibit any other common symptoms associated with ovarian cancer, such as weight loss.

      CA-125 is a tumour marker for ovarian cancer, while CA19-9 is associated with pancreatic cancer. CEA is a marker for bowel cancer, and colonoscopy may be considered if the patient presents with additional symptoms that suggest gastrointestinal disease.

      Understanding Ovarian Cancer: Risk Factors, Symptoms, and Management

      Ovarian cancer is a type of cancer that affects women, with the peak age of incidence being 60 years. It is the fifth most common malignancy in females and carries a poor prognosis due to late diagnosis. Around 90% of ovarian cancers are epithelial in origin, with 70-80% of cases being due to serous carcinomas. Interestingly, recent studies suggest that the distal end of the fallopian tube is often the site of origin of many ‘ovarian’ cancers.

      There are several risk factors associated with ovarian cancer, including a family history of mutations of the BRCA1 or the BRCA2 gene, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity. Clinical features of ovarian cancer are notoriously vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms, early satiety, and diarrhea.

      To diagnose ovarian cancer, a CA125 test is usually done initially. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 should not be used for screening for ovarian cancer in asymptomatic women. Diagnosis is difficult and usually involves diagnostic laparotomy.

      Management of ovarian cancer usually involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. The prognosis for ovarian cancer is poor, with 80% of women having advanced disease at presentation and the all stage 5-year survival being 46%. It is traditionally taught that infertility treatment increases the risk of ovarian cancer, as it increases the number of ovulations. However, recent evidence suggests that there is not a significant link. The combined oral contraceptive pill reduces the risk (fewer ovulations) as does having many pregnancies.

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  • Question 9 - A 45-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, has been referred to the medical...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, has been referred to the medical assessment unit by her family physician due to persistent pelvic pain and discomfort with radiation to her lower back, hips and groin. This has significantly impacted her day-to-day activities, family and social life. She has a past medical history of atrial fibrillation and type II diabetes. She is currently 34 weeks into her second pregnancy, and ultrasound scans have reported a fairly large baby. Despite her symptoms, her bladder and bowel function remain normal. Upon assessment, her pulse is 78 beats per minute, blood pressure is 123/78 mmHg, temperature is 37.5ºC, respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute, and CRP is less than 5 mg/L. What is the most likely cause of her pain?

      Your Answer: Miscarriage

      Correct Answer: Pubic symphysis dysfunction

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, it is common to experience pubic symphysis dysfunction due to increased ligament laxity caused by hormonal changes. This can result in pain over the pubic symphysis that may radiate to the groins and inner thighs. It is important to differentiate this from more serious conditions such as cauda equina syndrome, which is a surgical emergency and presents with low back pain, leg pain, numbness around the anus, and loss of bowel or bladder control. While slipped lumbar vertebrae can also cause similar symptoms, it is less common than pubic symphysis dysfunction during pregnancy. Ultrasound scans can confirm a normal fetus, ruling out ectopic pregnancy and miscarriage as potential causes of the symptoms.

      Understanding Symphysis Pubis Dysfunction in Pregnancy

      Symphysis pubis dysfunction (SPD), also known as pelvic girdle pain, is a common condition experienced by pregnant women. It is caused by the hormone relaxin, which affects the laxity of ligaments in the pelvic girdle and other parts of the body. This increased laxity can result in pain and instability in the symphysis pubis joint and/or sacroiliac joint. Around 20% of women suffer from SPD by 33 weeks of gestation, and it can occur at any time during pregnancy or in the postnatal period.

      Multiple risk factors have been identified, including a previous history of low back pain, multiparity, previous trauma to the back or pelvis, heavy workload, higher levels of stress, and job dissatisfaction. Patients typically present with discomfort and pain in the suprapubic or low back area, which may radiate to the upper thighs and perineum. Pain can range from mild to severe and is often exacerbated by walking, climbing stairs, turning in bed, standing on one leg, or weight-bearing activities.

      Physical examination may reveal tenderness of the symphysis pubis and/or sacroiliac joint, pain on hip abduction, pain at the symphysis when standing on one leg, and a waddling gait. Positive Faber and active straight leg raise tests, as well as palpation of the anterior surface of the symphysis pubis, can also indicate SPD. Imaging, such as ultrasound or MRI, is necessary to confirm separation of the symphysis pubis.

      Conservative management with physiotherapy is the primary treatment for SPD. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms of SPD can help healthcare providers provide appropriate care and support for pregnant women experiencing this condition.

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  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old female patient reports per vaginal bleeding following delivery with an estimated...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female patient reports per vaginal bleeding following delivery with an estimated blood loss of 700ml. What is the leading cause of primary postpartum hemorrhage?

      Your Answer: Atony of the uterus

      Explanation:

      PPH is the loss of >500ml blood within 24 hours of delivery. Uterine atony is the most common cause, followed by retained placenta.

      Postpartum Haemorrhage: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management

      Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition characterized by excessive blood loss of more than 500 ml after a vaginal delivery. It can be primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia. Management of PPH is a life-threatening emergency that requires immediate involvement of senior staff. The ABC approach is used, and bloods are taken, including group and save. Medical management includes IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options are considered if medical management fails to control the bleeding. Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis.

      Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage

      Postpartum haemorrhage is a serious condition that can occur after vaginal delivery. It is important to understand the causes, risk factors, and management of this condition to ensure prompt and effective treatment. Primary PPH is caused by the 4 Ts, with uterine atony being the most common cause. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, and emergency Caesarean section. Management of PPH is a life-threatening emergency that requires immediate involvement of senior staff. Medical management includes IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options are considered if medical management fails to control the bleeding. Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to be aware of the signs and symptoms of PPH and seek medical attention immediately if they occur.

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  • Question 11 - A 16-year-old girl arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of dizziness and pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of dizziness and pain in her right iliac fossa. She had taken a home pregnancy test the day before, which came back positive. After a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy, the patient's condition worsens, and she undergoes an emergency salpingectomy. What is the most common site of fertilization in the excised structure?

      Your Answer: Isthmus

      Correct Answer: Ampulla

      Explanation:

      Fertilisation typically takes place in the ampulla of the fallopian tube. Salpingectomy involves removing the fallopian tube and is often performed in cases of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. It is rare for fertilisation to occur in the uterus, which is not removed during salpingectomy. The infundibulum, located closest to the ovary, is the third most common site of fertilisation, while the isthmus, the narrowest part of the fallopian tube, is the second most common site. The myometrium refers to the muscular wall of the uterus.

      Anatomy of the Uterus

      The uterus is a female reproductive organ that is located within the pelvis and is covered by the peritoneum. It is supplied with blood by the uterine artery, which runs alongside the uterus and anastomoses with the ovarian artery. The uterus is supported by various ligaments, including the central perineal tendon, lateral cervical, round, and uterosacral ligaments. The ureter is located close to the uterus, and injuries to the ureter can occur when there is pathology in the area.

      The uterus is typically anteverted and anteflexed in most women. Its topography can be visualized through imaging techniques such as ultrasound or MRI. Understanding the anatomy of the uterus is important for diagnosing and treating various gynecological conditions.

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  • Question 12 - A 30-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of left-sided...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of left-sided lower abdominal pain, shoulder tip pain, and small amounts of dark brown vaginal discharge. She reports missing her period for the past 8 weeks despite having a regular 30-day cycle. She is sexually active with multiple partners and does not always use contraception. Additionally, she has been experiencing diarrhea and dizziness for the past 2 days. A transvaginal ultrasound scan reveals a gestational sac in the left Fallopian tube, and her β-hCG level is >1500 IU (<5 IU). What is the most likely underlying factor that increases her risk for this condition?

      Your Answer: Natural conception

      Correct Answer: Pelvic inflammatory disease

      Explanation:

      An ectopic pregnancy is likely in this case, as the symptoms suggest a diagnosis of pelvic inflammatory disease. This condition can cause scarring and damage to the Fallopian tubes, which can impede the fertilized egg’s passage to the uterus, resulting in an ectopic pregnancy.

      The combined oral contraceptive pill is not a well-documented risk factor for ectopic pregnancy, but the progesterone-only pill and intrauterine contraceptive device are. Both IVF and subfertility are also risk factors for ectopic pregnancies, while smoking or exposure to cigarette smoke increases the risk.

      Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy: Incidence and Risk Factors

      Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tubes. This condition is a serious medical emergency that requires immediate attention. According to epidemiological studies, ectopic pregnancy occurs in approximately 0.5% of all pregnancies.

      Several risk factors can increase the likelihood of ectopic pregnancy. These include damage to the fallopian tubes due to pelvic inflammatory disease or surgery, a history of previous ectopic pregnancy, endometriosis, the use of intrauterine contraceptive devices (IUCDs), and the progesterone-only pill. In vitro fertilization (IVF) also increases the risk of ectopic pregnancy, with approximately 3% of IVF pregnancies resulting in ectopic implantation.

      It is important for women to be aware of the risk factors associated with ectopic pregnancy and to seek medical attention immediately if they experience symptoms such as abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, or shoulder pain. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent serious complications and improve outcomes for both the mother and the fetus.

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  • Question 13 - A 29-year-old primigravida with a pre-pregnancy BMI of 33 kg/m² is diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old primigravida with a pre-pregnancy BMI of 33 kg/m² is diagnosed with gestational diabetes and fetal macrosomia is estimated on ultrasound scans. Her blood pressure measures 128/70 mmHg. What is the most significant obstetric emergency she is susceptible to?

      Your Answer: Disseminated intravascular coagulation

      Correct Answer: Shoulder dystocia

      Explanation:

      Shoulder dystocia, a complication of obstructed labor, is more likely to occur in cases of gestational diabetes and macrosomia. This is because a larger fetal shoulder can obstruct the maternal pubic symphysis. Low birth weight babies are at a higher risk of umbilical cord prolapse, while uterine rupture is typically associated with previous Caesarean section or myomectomy. Although disseminated intravascular coagulation and amniotic fluid embolism are serious obstetric emergencies, there is no indication in the patient’s history of an increased risk for these conditions.

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication that can occur during vaginal delivery when the body of the fetus cannot be delivered after the head has already been delivered. This is usually due to the anterior shoulder of the fetus becoming stuck on the mother’s pubic bone. Shoulder dystocia can cause harm to both the mother and the baby.

      There are several risk factors that increase the likelihood of shoulder dystocia, including fetal macrosomia (large baby), high maternal body mass index, diabetes mellitus, and prolonged labor.

      If shoulder dystocia is identified, it is important to call for senior medical assistance immediately. The McRoberts’ maneuver is often used to help deliver the baby. This involves flexing and abducting the mother’s hips to increase the angle of the pelvis and facilitate delivery. An episiotomy may be performed to provide better access for internal maneuvers, but it will not relieve the bony obstruction. Symphysiotomy and the Zavanelli maneuver are not recommended as they can cause significant harm to the mother. Oxytocin administration is not effective in treating shoulder dystocia.

      Complications of shoulder dystocia can include postpartum hemorrhage and perineal tears for the mother, and brachial plexus injury or neonatal death for the baby. It is important to manage shoulder dystocia promptly and effectively to minimize these risks.

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  • Question 14 - As the medical resident on the delivery ward, you are conducting routine baby...

    Incorrect

    • As the medical resident on the delivery ward, you are conducting routine baby checks on a 10-day old boy who was delivered via emergency Caesarian section at term due to prolonged labour. During the examination, you notice that the baby appears slightly yellow, but is otherwise healthy with no signs of cardiorespiratory distress. The mother expresses concern that there may be something serious going on. What could be a potential cause of prolonged neonatal jaundice in this infant?

      Your Answer: Haemolytic disease of the newborn

      Correct Answer: Breastfeeding

      Explanation:

      Breastfeeding has been linked to prolonged neonatal jaundice, which is characterized by high levels of bilirubin in an otherwise healthy breastfed newborn after the first week of life. This type of jaundice lasts longer than normal and has no other identifiable cause. It is important to consider the age at which jaundice appears in order to determine potential underlying causes, such as haemolytic disease, infections, G6PD deficiency, sepsis, polycythaemia, extrahepatic biliary atresia, congenital hypothyroidism, or breastfeeding.

      Advantages and Disadvantages of Breastfeeding

      Breastfeeding has numerous advantages for both the mother and the baby. For the mother, it promotes bonding with the baby and helps with the involution of the uterus. It also provides protection against breast and ovarian cancer and is a cheap alternative to formula feeding as there is no need to sterilize bottles. However, it should not be relied upon as a contraceptive method as it is unreliable.

      Breast milk contains immunological components such as IgA, lysozyme, and lactoferrin that protect mucosal surfaces, have bacteriolytic properties, and ensure rapid absorption of iron so it is not available to bacteria. This reduces the incidence of ear, chest, and gastrointestinal infections, as well as eczema, asthma, and type 1 diabetes mellitus. Breastfeeding also reduces the incidence of sudden infant death syndrome.

      One of the advantages of breastfeeding is that the baby is in control of how much milk it takes. However, there are also disadvantages such as the transmission of drugs and infections such as HIV. Prolonged breastfeeding may also lead to nutrient inadequacies such as vitamin D and vitamin K deficiencies, as well as breast milk jaundice.

      In conclusion, while breastfeeding has numerous advantages, it is important to be aware of the potential disadvantages and to consult with a healthcare professional to ensure that both the mother and the baby are receiving adequate nutrition and care.

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  • Question 15 - A 32-year-old woman is 24 weeks pregnant and comes in for a routine...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman is 24 weeks pregnant and comes in for a routine check-up. She expresses her worries about how her pregnancy might impact her renal function, given her history of autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease. Her baseline eGFR is 100 ml/min/1.73m2. What is the expected eGFR measurement at present?

      Your Answer: 200ml/min/1.73m2

      Correct Answer: 150ml/min/1.73m2

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, a woman’s body undergoes various physiological changes. The cardiovascular system experiences an increase in stroke volume, heart rate, and cardiac output, while systolic blood pressure remains unchanged and diastolic blood pressure decreases in the first and second trimesters before returning to normal levels by term. The enlarged uterus may cause issues with venous return, leading to ankle swelling, supine hypotension, and varicose veins.

      The respiratory system sees an increase in pulmonary ventilation and tidal volume, with oxygen requirements only increasing by 20%. This can lead to a sense of dyspnea due to over-breathing and a fall in pCO2. The basal metabolic rate also increases, potentially due to increased thyroxine and adrenocortical hormones.

      Maternal blood volume increases by 30%, with red blood cells increasing by 20% and plasma increasing by 50%, leading to a decrease in hemoglobin levels. Coagulant activity increases slightly, while fibrinolytic activity decreases. Platelet count falls, and white blood cell count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate rise.

      The urinary system experiences an increase in blood flow and glomerular filtration rate, with elevated sex steroid levels leading to increased salt and water reabsorption and urinary protein losses. Trace glycosuria may also occur.

      Calcium requirements increase during pregnancy, with gut absorption increasing substantially due to increased 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D. Serum levels of calcium and phosphate may fall, but ionized calcium levels remain stable. The liver experiences an increase in alkaline phosphatase and a decrease in albumin levels.

      The uterus undergoes significant changes, increasing in weight from 100g to 1100g and transitioning from hyperplasia to hypertrophy. Cervical ectropion and discharge may increase, and Braxton-Hicks contractions may occur in late pregnancy. Retroversion may lead to retention in the first trimester but usually self-corrects.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 16 - A 29-year-old man has suffered an irreparable injury to his left testicle. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man has suffered an irreparable injury to his left testicle. The surgeon opts for an orchidectomy and severs the artery supplying the left testicle. What is the origin of this vessel?

      Your Answer: Inferior vesical artery

      Correct Answer: Abdominal aorta

      Explanation:

      The abdominal aorta gives rise to the testicular artery.

      Anatomy of the Scrotum and Testes

      The scrotum is composed of skin and dartos fascia, with an arterial supply from the anterior and posterior scrotal arteries. It is also the site of lymphatic drainage to the inguinal lymph nodes. The testes are surrounded by the tunica vaginalis, a closed peritoneal sac, with the parietal layer adjacent to the internal spermatic fascia. The testicular arteries arise from the aorta, just below the renal arteries, and the pampiniform plexus drains into the testicular veins. The left testicular vein drains into the left renal vein, while the right testicular vein drains into the inferior vena cava. Lymphatic drainage occurs to the para-aortic nodes.

      The spermatic cord is formed by the vas deferens and is covered by the internal spermatic fascia, cremasteric fascia, and external spermatic fascia. The cord contains the vas deferens, testicular artery, artery of vas deferens, cremasteric artery, pampiniform plexus, sympathetic nerve fibers, genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve, and lymphatic vessels. The vas deferens transmits sperm and accessory gland secretions, while the testicular artery supplies the testis and epididymis. The cremasteric artery arises from the inferior epigastric artery, and the pampiniform plexus is a venous plexus that drains into the right or left testicular vein. The sympathetic nerve fibers lie on the arteries, while the parasympathetic fibers lie on the vas. The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve supplies the cremaster. Lymphatic vessels drain to lumbar and para-aortic nodes.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of oligomenorrhoea that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of oligomenorrhoea that has persisted for the past year. The GP orders blood tests to evaluate her baseline hormone profile. The results are as follows:

      FSH 5 U/L (2-8)
      LH 15 mmol/L (3-16)
      Oestradiol 210 mmol/L (70-600)

      Based on these findings, what is the probable underlying cause of her anovulation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polycystic ovary syndrome

      Explanation:

      Polycystic ovary syndrome leads to anovulation with normal levels of FSH and estrogen, known as normogonadotropic normoestrogenic anovulation. LH levels may be elevated or normal in this condition.

      Hypogonadotropic hypogonadal anovulation is caused by hypopituitarism or hyperprolactinemia, resulting in low levels of gonadotropins and estrogen. However, hyperprolactinemia can be ruled out based on gonadotropin and estrogen levels alone.

      Hypothalamic amenorrhea is a functional cause of hypogonadotropic hypogonadal anovulation, often due to factors such as low BMI, stress, or excessive exercise.

      Understanding Ovulation Induction and Its Categories

      Ovulation induction is a common treatment for couples who have difficulty conceiving naturally due to ovulation disorders. The process of ovulation requires a balance of hormones and feedback loops between the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and ovaries. Anovulation can occur due to alterations in this balance, which can be classified into three categories: hypogonadotropic hypogonadal anovulation, normogonadotropic normoestrogenic anovulation, and hypergonadotropic hypoestrogenic anovulation. The goal of ovulation induction is to induce mono-follicular development and subsequent ovulation, leading to a singleton pregnancy.

      There are various forms of ovulation induction, starting with the least invasive and simplest management option first. Exercise and weight loss are typically the first-line treatment for patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome, as ovulation can spontaneously return with even a modest 5% weight loss. Letrozole is now considered the first-line medical therapy for patients with PCOS due to its reduced risk of adverse effects on endometrial and cervical mucous compared to clomiphene citrate. Clomiphene citrate is a selective estrogen receptor modulator that acts primarily at the hypothalamus, blocking the negative feedback effect of estrogens. Gonadotropin therapy tends to be the treatment used mostly for women with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism.

      One potential side effect of ovulation induction is ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS), which can be life-threatening if not identified and managed promptly. OHSS occurs when ovarian enlargement with multiple cystic spaces form, and an increase in the permeability of capillaries leads to a fluid shift from the intravascular to the extra-vascular space. The severity of OHSS varies, with the risk of severe OHSS occurring in less than 1% of all women undergoing ovarian induction. Management includes fluid and electrolyte replacement, anticoagulation therapy, abdominal ascitic paracentesis, and pregnancy termination to prevent further hormonal imbalances.

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  • Question 18 - Which of the following breast tumors is most commonly linked to the risk...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following breast tumors is most commonly linked to the risk of spreading to the opposite breast?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Invasive lobular carcinoma

      Explanation:

      A classic characteristic of invasive lobular carcinoma is the possibility of metastasis to the opposite breast.

      Understanding Lobular Carcinoma of the Breast

      Lobular carcinoma of the breast is a less common type of breast cancer that presents differently from ductal carcinoma. The mass is usually more diffuse and less obvious on imaging tests like ultrasound and mammography, which can result in inadequate treatment if the disease is understaged. For women with invasive lobular carcinoma, an MRI scan of the breast is usually recommended before breast conserving surgery is performed to ensure the safest approach.

      Lobular carcinomas are also more likely to be multifocal and metastasize to the opposite breast. In some cases, lobular carcinoma in situ may be diagnosed incidentally on core biopsies. Unlike ductal carcinoma in situ, lobular carcinoma in situ is less strongly associated with foci of invasion and is usually managed through close monitoring. Understanding the differences between lobular and ductal carcinoma can help healthcare professionals provide the best possible care for patients with breast cancer.

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  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old woman contacts her community midwife due to persistent vomiting for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman contacts her community midwife due to persistent vomiting for the past two weeks. The vomiting is more severe in the morning and has been gradually worsening since the beginning of her pregnancy. She is currently 14 weeks pregnant, and this is her second pregnancy. She recalls experiencing similar symptoms during her first pregnancy, which was achieved through IVF therapy. The woman reports weight loss, and a urine dipstick test shows ketonuria. An ultrasonographer reports a placental lambda sign.

      What is the probable diagnosis for the cause of this woman's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multiple gestation

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of the patient’s intractable vomiting during pregnancy is multiple gestation. This condition, known as hyperemesis gravidarum, is characterized by vomiting, dehydration, weight loss, and ketonuria. Multiple gestations can lead to hormone imbalances due to increased levels of βhCG, which can increase vomiting. Risk factors for multiple gestations include the use of fertility-enhancing treatments like IVF and older maternal age. The presence of the placental lambda sign is characteristic of a dichorionic pregnancy.

      Complete molar pregnancy is an unlikely diagnosis as it typically presents with abnormal uterine bleeding, pelvic pain, and a snowstorm appearance on ultrasound. Partial molar pregnancy is also unlikely as it is associated with lower levels of βhCG and often has fetal parts present on ultrasound. Physiological vomiting, while common in pregnancy, is not the most likely cause in this case as the patient is experiencing weight loss and ketonuria.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that affects around 1% of pregnancies. It is usually experienced between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy but can persist up to 20 weeks. The condition is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels and is more common in women who are obese, nulliparous, or have multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, or hyperthyroidism. Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.

      The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommend that a woman must have a 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance before a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum can be made. Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.

      Management of hyperemesis gravidarum involves using antihistamines as a first-line treatment, with oral cyclizine or oral promethazine being recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Oral prochlorperazine is an alternative, while ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used as second-line treatments. Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure can be tried, but there is little evidence of benefit. Admission may be needed for IV hydration.

      Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth restriction, pre-term birth, and cleft lip/palate (if ondansetron is used during the first trimester). The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend considering admission if a woman is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics, has ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), or has a confirmed or suspected comorbidity that may be adversely affected by nausea and vomiting.

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  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old woman, who is 10 weeks pregnant with twins, presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman, who is 10 weeks pregnant with twins, presents to the emergency department with worsening nausea and vomiting over the last 3 weeks. This is her second pregnancy. Her first pregnancy had several complications, including hypertension of pregnancy and delivering a large for gestational age baby. What is a significant risk factor for developing HG based on this history?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multiple pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Hyperemesis gravidarum (HG) is a condition characterized by persistent vomiting, dehydration, weight loss, and electrolyte imbalance, often accompanied by ketosis. Women with multiple pregnancies are at an increased risk of developing HG due to the higher concentrations of pregnancy-related hormones.

      Other risk factors for HG include trophoblastic disease, molar pregnancy, and a history of previous hyperemesis. Hypertension of pregnancy typically occurs after 16 weeks and is not associated with an increased risk of HG.

      Large for gestational age is not a risk factor for HG as it is usually diagnosed later in pregnancy during growth scans. Multiparity alone is not a risk factor, but a history of previous hyperemesis or nausea and vomiting during pregnancy increases the risk.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that affects around 1% of pregnancies. It is usually experienced between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy but can persist up to 20 weeks. The condition is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels and is more common in women who are obese, nulliparous, or have multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, or hyperthyroidism. Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.

      The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommend that a woman must have a 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance before a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum can be made. Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.

      Management of hyperemesis gravidarum involves using antihistamines as a first-line treatment, with oral cyclizine or oral promethazine being recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Oral prochlorperazine is an alternative, while ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used as second-line treatments. Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure can be tried, but there is little evidence of benefit. Admission may be needed for IV hydration.

      Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth restriction, pre-term birth, and cleft lip/palate (if ondansetron is used during the first trimester). The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend considering admission if a woman is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics, has ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), or has a confirmed or suspected comorbidity that may be adversely affected by nausea and vomiting.

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  • Question 21 - A 65-year-old female presents to you with a complaint of urinary incontinence whenever...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female presents to you with a complaint of urinary incontinence whenever she coughs or sneezes. She has a history of obesity and has given birth to five children, four of which were vaginal deliveries and one by caesarean section. A negative urinary dipstick is noted, but a vaginal examination reveals some muscle weakness without prolapse. The most probable diagnosis is stress incontinence. What is the most appropriate initial management option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pelvic muscle floor training

      Explanation:

      First-line treatment for urinary incontinence is bladder retraining for urge incontinence and pelvic floor muscle training for stress incontinence. Surgery is a later option. Toileting aids and decreasing fluid intake should not be advised. Patients should drink 6-8 glasses of water per day.

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.

      In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.

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  • Question 22 - A 25-year-old female presents with sudden onset of pain in her lower right...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presents with sudden onset of pain in her lower right abdomen. She has no significant medical history. Her last menstrual period was six weeks ago and her cycles have been regular in the past.

      During the physical examination, her temperature is 37.5°C, pulse rate is 98 bpm regular, and blood pressure is 110/72 mmHg. There is tenderness and guarding in the right iliac fossa.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ectopic pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Causes of Right Iliac Fossa Pain in Women

      Right iliac fossa pain in women can be caused by various conditions such as mittelschmerz, appendicitis, and ectopic pregnancy. However, in the case of a young woman who is seven weeks past her last period, ectopic pregnancy is highly suspected. This condition occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube.

      To confirm or rule out ectopic pregnancy, the most appropriate initial test would be a pregnancy test. This test detects the presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), a hormone produced by the placenta after implantation. If the test is positive, further evaluation such as ultrasound and blood tests may be necessary to determine the location of the pregnancy and the appropriate management. It is important to seek medical attention promptly if experiencing RIF pain, as delay in diagnosis and treatment of ectopic pregnancy can lead to serious complications.

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  • Question 23 - A 40-year-old woman who has given birth twice visits her doctor due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman who has given birth twice visits her doctor due to a two-week history of white vaginal discharge. She reports no other symptoms and feels generally healthy. She recently switched to a different soap and wonders if this could be the cause. She is taking birth control pills and is in a stable relationship with her spouse.

      During the examination, a strong fishy odor is present, and a gray discharge is visible that does not stick to the vaginal lining. The rest of the exam is normal.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bacterial vaginosis

      Explanation:

      Bacterial Vaginosis and Other Causes of Vaginal Discharge

      Vaginal discharge is a common concern among women, and bacterial vaginosis (BV) is the most common non-STI-related cause. BV occurs when there is an imbalance in the normal flora of the vaginal mucosa, which is mostly made up of Lactobacilli. These bacteria produce hydrogen peroxide, which helps to maintain a healthy pH level in the vagina by killing off anaerobes. However, disruptions to the normal flora, such as the use of new products or hormonal imbalances, can lead to the death of Lactobacilli and an increase in pH. This creates an environment where anaerobes like Gardnerella vaginalis can thrive and cause BV.

      Candidiasis, caused by the fungus Candida albicans, is the second most common cause of non-STI-related vaginal discharge. It is characterized by thick white curds attached to the vaginal mucosa and is often associated with vulval itching. However, this patient does not describe these symptoms.

      It is important to note that sexually transmitted infections like chlamydia, gonorrhoeae, and trichomoniasis can also cause vaginal discharge. However, there is no indication in this patient’s clinical history that she may be affected by any of these infections. the causes of vaginal discharge can help women identify when they need to seek medical attention and receive appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 24 - A 26-year-old female is undergoing examination for an atypical cyst on her left...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female is undergoing examination for an atypical cyst on her left ovary. Her AFP levels are elevated. Upon biopsy, the following report is obtained:

      Biopsy report: Schiller-Duval bodies are present

      What type of ovarian tumor has developed in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Yolk sac tumour

      Explanation:

      Schiller-Duval bodies seen on histology are a characteristic feature of yolk sac tumor, making it a pathognomonic finding.

      1. Incorrect. Yolk sac tumor would not present with diffuse sheets, nests, and cords of large uniform tumor cells like testicular seminoma.

      2. Incorrect. Call-Exner bodies are not present in yolk sac tumor.

      3. Incorrect. Yolk sac tumor is not a metastasis from a diffuse-type gastric adenocarcinoma, which would have a signet cell histology appearance.

      4. Incorrect. Yolk sac tumor contains tissues from all three germ layers, including ectodermal, mesodermal, and endodermal tissues.

      5. Correct. Schiller-Duval bodies are a unique feature of yolk sac tumor, and it also secretes AFP.

      Types of Ovarian Tumours

      There are four main types of ovarian tumours, including surface derived tumours, germ cell tumours, sex cord-stromal tumours, and metastasis. Surface derived tumours are the most common, accounting for around 65% of ovarian tumours, and include the greatest number of malignant tumours. These tumours can be either benign or malignant and include serous cystadenoma, serous cystadenocarcinoma, mucinous cystadenoma, mucinous cystadenocarcinoma, and Brenner tumour. Germ cell tumours are more common in adolescent girls and account for 15-20% of tumours. These tumours are similar to cancer types seen in the testicle and can be either benign or malignant. Examples include teratoma, dysgerminoma, yolk sac tumour, and choriocarcinoma. Sex cord-stromal tumours represent around 3-5% of ovarian tumours and often produce hormones. Examples include granulosa cell tumour, Sertoli-Leydig cell tumour, and fibroma. Metastatic tumours account for around 5% of tumours and include Krukenberg tumour, which is a mucin-secreting signet-ring cell adenocarcinoma resulting from metastases from a gastrointestinal tumour.

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  • Question 25 - A 47-year-old woman visits her doctor and reports experiencing night sweats, hot flashes,...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman visits her doctor and reports experiencing night sweats, hot flashes, and painful sexual intercourse due to vaginal dryness. The doctor suspects that she may be going through menopause and orders a set of blood tests to check her hormonal levels.

      What hormonal changes are probable in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cessation of oestradiol and progesterone production

      Explanation:

      The cessation of oestradiol and progesterone production in the ovaries, which can be caused naturally or by medical intervention, leads to menopause. This decrease in hormone production often results in elevated levels of FSH and LH.

      Understanding Menopause and Contraception

      Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It typically occurs when a woman reaches the age of 51 in the UK. However, prior to menopause, women may experience a period known as the climacteric. During this time, ovarian function starts to decline, and women may experience symptoms such as hot flashes, mood swings, and vaginal dryness.

      It is important for women to understand that they can still become pregnant during the climacteric period. Therefore, it is recommended to use effective contraception until a certain period of time has passed. Women over the age of 50 should use contraception for 12 months after their last period, while women under the age of 50 should use contraception for 24 months after their last period. By understanding menopause and the importance of contraception during the climacteric period, women can make informed decisions about their reproductive health.

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  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old, first-time pregnant woman is currently in the second stage of labor,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old, first-time pregnant woman is currently in the second stage of labor, actively pushing to deliver her baby. The estimated weight of the baby is slightly above average, which has caused a prolonged second stage of labor. Eventually, the baby is delivered, but the patient experiences a second-degree perineal tear. The tear is immediately sutured to prevent bleeding. What is a risk factor for perineal tears?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primigravida

      Explanation:

      The only correct risk factor for perineal tears is being a primigravida. Other factors such as IUGR, spontaneous vaginal delivery, and caesarian section do not increase the risk of perineal tears. However, macrosomia and instrumental delivery are known risk factors for perineal tears.

      Understanding Perineal Tears: Classification and Risk Factors

      Perineal tears are a common occurrence during childbirth, and the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has provided guidelines for their classification. First-degree tears are superficial and do not require any repair, while second-degree tears involve the perineal muscle and require suturing by a midwife or clinician. Third-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and require repair in theatre by a trained clinician, with varying degrees of severity depending on the extent of the tear. Fourth-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex, rectal mucosa, and require repair in theatre by a trained clinician.

      There are several risk factors for perineal tears, including being a first-time mother, delivering a large baby, experiencing a precipitant labour, and having a shoulder dystocia or forceps delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to provide appropriate care and support during childbirth to minimize the risk of perineal tears. By understanding the classification and risk factors associated with perineal tears, healthcare providers can better prepare for and manage this common complication of childbirth.

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  • Question 27 - A 29-year-old female is 24 weeks pregnant and visits the midwife for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old female is 24 weeks pregnant and visits the midwife for a check-up. The foetal heart rate is detected on the Doppler scan and growth rates are appropriate for the gestational age. The mother reports to the midwife that she has been experiencing increased breathing rate lately. The midwife explains that this is a common occurrence during pregnancy.

      What other physiological alterations are typical during pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Red blood cell volume increases

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, women are checked for anaemia twice – once at the initial booking visit (usually at 8-10 weeks) and again at 28 weeks. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has set specific cut-off levels to determine if a woman requires oral iron therapy. For the first trimester, the cut-off is less than 110 g/L, for the second and third trimesters, it is less than 105 g/L, and for the postpartum period, it is less than 100 g/L. If a woman falls below these levels, she should receive oral ferrous sulfate or ferrous fumarate. Treatment should continue for three months after iron deficiency is corrected to allow for the replenishment of iron stores.

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  • Question 28 - A concerned parent brings their 14-year-old daughter to the general practice, worried that...

    Incorrect

    • A concerned parent brings their 14-year-old daughter to the general practice, worried that she has not yet started her periods.

      The 14-year-old has breast bud development, but no signs of menstruation. A pregnancy test comes back negative.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary amenorrhoea

      Explanation:

      Primary amenorrhoea occurs when a girl has not started menstruating by the age of 15, despite having normal secondary sexual characteristics like breast development. In girls with no secondary sexual characteristics, primary amenorrhoea is defined as the absence of menstruation by the age of 13. Possible causes of primary amenorrhoea include hypothyroidism and imperforate hymen, but not endometriosis, which typically causes heavy and/or painful periods. While delayed menarche can occur spontaneously before the age of 18, this girl’s symptoms are not within the normal range of variation. Malnutrition or extreme exercise are more likely to cause primary amenorrhoea than obesity-induced amenorrhoea, which typically results in secondary amenorrhoea where periods stop for 6 months or more after menarche has occurred.

      Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management

      Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls with no secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.

      The causes of amenorrhoea vary depending on the type. Primary amenorrhoea may be caused by gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, and thyrotoxicosis. Meanwhile, secondary amenorrhoea may be caused by stress, excessive exercise, PCOS, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and other underlying medical conditions.

      To diagnose amenorrhoea, initial investigations may include pregnancy tests, full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels. Management of amenorrhoea involves treating the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause and treat the underlying cause accordingly. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis and other complications.

      In conclusion, amenorrhoea is a condition that requires proper diagnosis and management. Understanding the causes and appropriate investigations can help in providing the necessary treatment and care for women experiencing this condition.

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  • Question 29 - A pair arrives concerned about their inability to conceive after 20 months of...

    Incorrect

    • A pair arrives concerned about their inability to conceive after 20 months of consistent unprotected intercourse. What could be a factor contributing to hypergonadotropic hypogonadism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Turner’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Hypergonadotropic hypogonadism occurs when the gonads fail to respond to gonadotropins produced by the anterior pituitary gland. This is commonly seen in Turner’s syndrome, where gonadal dysgenesis leads to low sex steroid levels despite elevated levels of LH and FSH. On the other hand, hypogonadotropic hypogonadism can be caused by Kallmann syndrome, Sheehan’s syndrome, and anorexia nervosa. In Asherman’s syndrome, intrauterine adhesions develop, often due to surgery.

      Understanding Infertility: Initial Investigations and Key Counselling Points

      Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. However, it is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sex will conceive within 1 year, and 92% within 2 years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.

      To determine the cause of infertility, basic investigations are typically conducted. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test, which is done 7 days prior to the expected next period. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if the level is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it consistently remains low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.

      In addition to these investigations, there are key counselling points that should be addressed. These include advising the patient to take folic acid, aiming for a BMI between 20-25, and having regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Patients should also be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption.

      By understanding the initial investigations and key counselling points for infertility, healthcare professionals can provide their patients with the necessary information and support to help them conceive.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 30 - A 25-year-old woman with a history of multiple sexual partners complains of chronic...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with a history of multiple sexual partners complains of chronic pelvic pain, dysuria, deep dyspareunia, and green vaginal discharge with a foul odor. The physician suspects pelvic inflammatory disease as she had a previous Chlamydia infection but is currently negative. Which sexually transmitted infection is most likely responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: gonorrhoeae

      Explanation:

      Pelvic inflammatory disease is most commonly caused by chlamydia and gonorrhoeae, with gonorrhoeae being the likely cause in this patient since they do not have chlamydia. While HIV does not directly cause pelvic inflammatory disease, it can increase the risk of contracting sexually transmitted infections. Syphilis follows its own distinct clinical course and does not cause pelvic inflammatory disease, while herpes typically presents with painful genital blisters but does not cause pelvic inflammatory disease.

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a condition where the female pelvic organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and surrounding peritoneum, become infected and inflamed. It is typically caused by an infection that spreads from the endocervix. The most common causative organism is Chlamydia trachomatis, followed by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycoplasma genitalium, and Mycoplasma hominis. Symptoms of PID include lower abdominal pain, fever, dyspareunia, dysuria, menstrual irregularities, vaginal or cervical discharge, and cervical excitation.

      To diagnose PID, a pregnancy test should be done to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, and a high vaginal swab should be taken to screen for Chlamydia and gonorrhoeae. However, these tests may often be negative, so consensus guidelines recommend having a low threshold for treatment due to the potential complications of untreated PID. Management typically involves oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole. In mild cases of PID, intrauterine contraceptive devices may be left in, but the evidence is limited, and removal of the IUD may be associated with better short-term clinical outcomes according to recent guidelines.

      Complications of PID include perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh Curtis Syndrome), which occurs in around 10% of cases and is characterized by right upper quadrant pain that may be confused with cholecystitis, infertility (with a risk as high as 10-20% after a single episode), chronic pelvic pain, and ectopic pregnancy.

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      • Reproductive System
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