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  • Question 1 - A 6 month old baby presents with uncontrollable movements of her hands and...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 month old baby presents with uncontrollable movements of her hands and feet, shortly after being unconscious for a while. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Partial seizure simple

      Correct Answer: Infantile spasm

      Explanation:

      Infantile spasm belongs to the spectrum of seizure disorders. Infantile spasm manifests itself with loss of consciousness and jerky movements. The peak age of onset is between 4 and 6 months. Approximately 90% of infantile spasms begin before 12 months of age. It is rare for infantile spasms to begin during the first 2 weeks of life or after 18 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What proportion of salivary secretions is contributed by the submandibular glands? ...

    Incorrect

    • What proportion of salivary secretions is contributed by the submandibular glands?

      Your Answer: 20%

      Correct Answer: 70%

      Explanation:

      The submandibular glands provide the bulk of salivary secretions contributing close to 70%. The sublingual glands provide 5% and the remainder from the parotid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - In Psoriasis, the following is true with regards to topical treatment: ...

    Incorrect

    • In Psoriasis, the following is true with regards to topical treatment:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical corticosteroid associated side effects include striae, atrophy of the skin, telangiectasia, acneiform rash, and easy bruising

      Explanation:

      Topical treatments are useful in the treatment of mild Psoriasis, or as adjuvant therapy in ultraviolet and systematic treatments. These treatments include moisturisers, dithranol, coal tar, salicylic acid, topical immunomodulators such as calcineurin, topical retinoids, Vitamin D analogues and topical steroids. Topical steroids are known to have a number of side effects such as striae, atrophy of the skin, telangiectasia, acneiform rash, and easy bruising. Localised pustular psoriasis is also associated with topical steroids in higher doses. Use of more than 500 g of hydrocortisone or 50 g clobetasol propionate have been shown to suppress adrenal function. Calcitriol, a vitamin D analogue, is only available as an ointment and does not stain clothes and skin the way dithranol and coal tar are known to.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Anorexia nervosa is associated with which of the following skin and nail related...

    Incorrect

    • Anorexia nervosa is associated with which of the following skin and nail related changes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acrocyanosis

      Explanation:

      Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder which is characterized by distorted self-image leading to abnormally decreased calorie intake. This disorder affects multiple bodily systems, including the skin, GI, and endocrine system. Due to extreme weight loss, patients with anorexia nervosa develop cold intolerance along with bluish discoloration of their fingers, nose, and ears, which is known as acrocyanosis. This phenomenon may be due to the shunting of the blood from the peripheries to the central body systems as a reaction to hypothermia. Other notable changes in the integumentary system include extreme dryness (xerosis), lanugo hairs, decubitus ulcers, and easy bruisibility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 15-year-old boy presents to the physician complaining of malaise and inability to...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy presents to the physician complaining of malaise and inability to participate in physical activities due to exhaustion. His vitals, including the blood pressure are within the normal range and the labs are as follows: sodium 145 mmol/lpotassium 2.8 mmol/lbicarbonate 30 mmol/lchloride 83 mmol/l (95-107)magnesium 0.5 mmol/l (0.75-1.05)glucose 5.0 mmol/lrenin 5.1 mmol/ml per h (3-4.3)aldosterone 975 mmol/l (330-830)urea 5.2 mmol/l. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gitelman's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Gitelman syndrome is a kidney disorder that causes an imbalance of charged atoms (ions) in the body, including ions of potassium, magnesium, and calcium.The signs and symptoms of Gitelman syndrome usually appear in late childhood or adolescence. Common features of this condition include painful muscle spasms (tetany), muscle weakness or cramping, dizziness, and salt craving. Also common is a tingling or prickly sensation in the skin (paraesthesia), most often affecting the face. Some individuals with Gitelman syndrome experience excessive tiredness (fatigue), low blood pressure, and a painful joint condition called chondrocalcinosis. Studies suggest that Gitelman syndrome may also increase the risk of a potentially dangerous abnormal heart rhythm called ventricular arrhythmia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 5-day-old infant is admitted to the ward. She was born at full...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-day-old infant is admitted to the ward. She was born at full term by normal vaginal delivery weighing 3.48kg and has been breastfed since birth. She has now lost 11% of her birth weight and bilirubin is above the phototherapy line. On examination, her fontanelle is soft, CRT<2 seconds, she is active and alert. U&Es have been sent, and the sodium on a blood gas is 144. You have started phototherapy, but still, need to make a plan about fluids and feeding. Mother wants to continue breastfeeding but is also happy to introduce some formula milk. What is the MOST appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer NG or cup feeds alongside breastfeeding

      Explanation:

      Excessive weight loss is generally indicative of suboptimal feeding, and infants with excessive weight loss are potentially dehydrated or at risk of dehydration.Jaundice associated with suboptimal breastfeeding-this is classically associated with weight loss >10% and a vicious cycle of sleepiness that in turn leads to further poor feeding. In the absence of clinical signs of dehydration, no evidence suggests that overhydration is helpful. If the infant is dehydrated, hydration should be given as clinically indicated. However, if the infant can tolerate oral feeding, oral hydration with a breast milk substitute is likely to be superior to intravenous hydration because it reduces enterohepatic circulation of bilirubin and helps wash bilirubin out of the bowel.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 37 week foetus is found to be in transverse position on ultrasound....

    Incorrect

    • A 37 week foetus is found to be in transverse position on ultrasound. The position has not changed despite attempting External Cephalic Version at 36 weeks and the due date is in a week. What is the preferred option of delivery for a foetus in a transverse lie?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Caesarean section

      Explanation:

      A transverse lie is a common malpresentation. It occurs when the fetal longitudinal axis is perpendicular to the long axis of the uterus. The location of the spine determines if the foetus is back up (the curvature of the spine is in the upper part of the uterus) or back down (the curvature of the spine is in the lower part of the uterus).Good antenatal care, ECV, and elective caesarean section are the mainstay of the management.Spontaneous delivery of a term foetus is impossible with a persistent transverse lie and, in general, the onset of labour is an indication for the lower segment caesarean section (LSCS) in a case of a transverse lie.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 3 year old boy is brought to the emergency by his parents...

    Incorrect

    • A 3 year old boy is brought to the emergency by his parents with worsening ataxia. They also mention that the boy's urine has a distinct sweet odour. Further investigations reveal the presence of leucine, isoleucine and valine in the urine. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maple Syrup Urine Disease

      Explanation:

      Maple syrup urine disease (MSUD) is an autosomal recessive metabolic disorder affecting branched-chain amino acids. It is one type of organic academia. The condition gets its name from the distinctive sweet odour of affected infants’ urine, particularly prior to diagnosis, and during times of acute illness. MSUD, also known as branched-chain ketoaciduria, is an aminoacidopathy due to an enzyme defect in the catabolic pathway of the branched-chain amino acids leucine, isoleucine, and valine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - At term, what is the normal amount of amniotic fluid? ...

    Incorrect

    • At term, what is the normal amount of amniotic fluid?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 600ml

      Explanation:

      In the first trimester of pregnancy, amniotic fluid is produced from maternal plasma where there is a rapid bi-directional diffusion across the foetal skin. At 10 weeks the volume is about 25ml. By 16th weeks of gestation the foetal kidneys make urine that contributes to the increasing volume of amniotic fluid, along with nasal secretions. At 20 weeks, the level is 400ml and increases to 800ml at 28weeks, after which it reduces to 600ml at term.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 13 year old girl presented with signs of shortness of breath, chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 13 year old girl presented with signs of shortness of breath, chest pain, non-productive cough, oedema of the lower extremities and cyanosis of the fingertips. She has a history of a ventricular septal defect not surgically corrected. The most probable cause of these symptoms is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Shunt reversal

      Explanation:

      A ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a common form of congenital heart defects and is characterised by the presence of a hole in the wall that separates the right from the left ventricle. Medium or large defects can cause many complications. One of these complication is Eisenmenger syndrome, characterised by reversal of the shunt (from left-to-right shunt into a right-to-left) ,cyanosis and pulmonary hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following conditions is not associated with an atrial septal defect?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is not associated with an atrial septal defect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fragile X syndrome

      Explanation:

      Atrial septal defects may also occur in association with a variety of other congenital heart defects, or in new-borns that are relatively small or premature. The following conditions are associated with an atrial septal defect:Ebstein’s anomalyFoetal alcohol syndromeHolt-Oram syndromeDown syndromeEllis van Creveld syndromeLutembacher’s syndrome Ostium primum defects occur frequently in individuals with Down syndrome or Ellis van-Creveld syndrome.Holt-Oram syndrome characterized by an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance and deformities of the upper limbs (most often, absent or hypoplastic radii) has been attributed to a single gene defect in TBX5Fragile X syndrome is characterized by moderate intellectual disability in affected males and mild intellectual disability in affected females. The physical features in affected males are variable and may not be obvious until puberty. These symptoms can include a large head, long face, prominent forehead and chin, protruding ears, loose joints and large testes. Other symptoms can include flat feet, frequent ear infections, low muscle tone, a long narrow face, high arched palate, dental problems, crossed eyes (strabismus) and heart problems including mitral valve prolapse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - An infant born at 34 weeks was kept in the incubator for almost...

    Incorrect

    • An infant born at 34 weeks was kept in the incubator for almost a month. Physical examination revealed a heart murmur, which however was not present at discharge. What is the most probable cause of this murmur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: PDA

      Explanation:

      PDA is particularly common in premature babies and it is managed by indomethacin administration. However, if PDA is not the only defect, prostaglandin E1 can be administered in order to keep the ductus open until the surgery takes place.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 4 year old child was brought in by his mother with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 4 year old child was brought in by his mother with complaints of vesicular eruption over his palms, soles and oral mucosa for the last 5 days. He was slightly febrile. There were no other signs. The most likely causative organism in this case would be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coxsackie

      Explanation:

      This patient is most likely suffering from hand, foot mouth disease which is caused by coxsackie virus A16. Its incubation period ranges from 5-7 days and only symptomatic treatment is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 21-day old infant is brought to the paediatric clinic by his mother...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-day old infant is brought to the paediatric clinic by his mother with complaints of fever, lethargy and a reduction in feeds. On examination, the infant is hypotonic, tachypnoeic and has a CRT of 4 seconds, with the femoral pulse being barely palpable. Venous access is obtained with difficulty by inserting an interosseous needle and blood sugar level is 13. His saturation is found to be 98%. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sepsis

      Explanation:

      Sepsis is a medical emergency that describes the body’s systemic immunological response to an infectious process that can lead to end-stage organ dysfunction and death. The fever, alongside the clinical presentation, make sepsis the likely diagnosis. A temperature >38 degrees in an infant <3months of age warrants investigation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - An 11-year-old boy with a suspected brain tumour displays features of disinhibition. Damage...

    Incorrect

    • An 11-year-old boy with a suspected brain tumour displays features of disinhibition. Damage to which of the following areas would most likely result in these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right frontal lobe

      Explanation:

      The clinical presentation of the boy suggests the involvement of the right frontal lobe.Psychiatric or behavioural disturbances secondary to frontal lobe lesions exhibit lateralisation. The lesions of the left hemisphere are associated with depression, especially if the lesion involves the dorsolateral portion of the prefrontal cortex. Whereas, lesions of the right hemisphere are associated with impulsivity, disinhibition, and aggression, as it is the case with the child in question.Presenting symptoms of lobar dysfunctions:- Frontal lobe: Contralateral hemiplegia, impaired problem solving, disinhibition, and lack of initiative. Broca’s aphasia and agraphia suggest the involvement of the dominant hemisphere.- Temporal lobe: Wernicke’s aphasia (dominant hemisphere involvement), homonymous upper quadrantanopia and auditory agnosia (non-dominant hemisphere involvement).- Parietal lobe: Anosognosia, dressing apraxia, spatial neglect and constructional apraxia are observed when the non-dominant hemisphere is involved. Gerstmann’s syndrome is observed when the dominant hemisphere is involved.- Occipital lobe: Visual agnosia, visual illusions and contralateral homonymous hemianopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following does not suggest a diagnosis of neurofibromatosis type 1...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following does not suggest a diagnosis of neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF-1)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osseous bone lesions

      Explanation:

      Clinical diagnosis of neurofibromatosis type 1 requires the presence of at least 2 of 7 criteria to confirm the presence of neurofibromatosis, type 1. Many of these signs do not appear until later childhood or adolescence, and thus confirming the diagnosis often is delayed despite a suspicion of NF1. The 7 clinical criteria used to diagnose NF1 are as follows:- Six or more cafe-au-lait spots or hyperpigmented macules greater than 5 mm in diameter in prepubertal children and greater than 15 mm postpubertal- Axillary or inguinal freckles (>2) – Two or more typical neurofibromas or one plexiform neurofibroma- Optic nerve glioma- Two or more iris hamartomas (Lisch nodules), often identified only through slit-lamp examination by an ophthalmologist- Sphenoid dysplasia or typical long-bone abnormalities such as pseudarthrosis- A first-degree relative (e.g., mother, father, sister, brother) with NF1

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 12-year-old boy has a history of fever for one week (39C), with...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy has a history of fever for one week (39C), with no other symptoms leading up to the fever. He recently had a surgical extraction of one of his incisors two weeks before consultation. On examination of CVS, a mid-systolic click followed by a late systolic murmur is heard. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infection

      Explanation:

      Tooth extraction or any surgical procedure may introduce bacteria into the blood stream. The most commonly involved organisms include Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus viridans. Once in the blood, these organisms have a very high tendency of attaching to the walls of the heart and causing inflammation known as endocarditis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A horse kicks a 14-year-old girl in the abdomen while she was at...

    Incorrect

    • A horse kicks a 14-year-old girl in the abdomen while she was at riding camp. A CT scan demonstrates a grade IV splenic injury. The child has a pulse of 110 bpm and blood pressure of 110/70. What is the best management of this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit to the ward for a week of bed-rest

      Explanation:

      The trend in the management of splenic injury continues to favour nonoperative or conservative management. In Paediatrics, Blunt splenic injuries with hemodynamic stability and absence of other internal injuries requiring surgery should undergo an initial attempt of Non-operative Management (NOM) irrespective of injury grade.In hemodynamically stable children with isolated splenic injury, splenectomy should be avoided.NOM is contraindicated in the presence of peritonitis, bowel evisceration, impalement or other indications to laparotomy.The vast majority of paediatric patients do not require angiography/angioembolization (AG/AE) for CT blush or moderate to severe injuries.AG/AE may be considered in patients undergone to NOM, hemodynamically stable with sings of persistent haemorrhage not amenable of NOM, regardless with the presence of CT blush once excluded extra-splenic source of bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following is true in logistic regression analysis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true in logistic regression analysis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Yields adjusted odds ratios

      Explanation:

      Logistic regression analysis is an easy to use regression that can serve to estimate how a binary or dichotomous dependent variable, for example whether or not a student passes or fails a medical exam, is related to the number of hours the student studies for the exam. This regression is able to yield an odds ratio, i.e. the probability of passing the exam based on each additional hour of study. As stated, the outcome does not need to be normally distributed but is usually binary. This type of analysis is not complex and does not need to be avoided as it is available most statistical packages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      0
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  • Question 20 - A 15-month-old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-month-old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother with complaints of recurrent urinary tract infections. As part of the diagnostic work-up, he was noted to have abnormal renal function. An ultrasound scan is performed and shows bilateral hydronephrosis.What is the most probable underlying condition giving rise to the child's symptoms and bilateral hydronephrosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urethral valves

      Explanation:

      The most probable cause for the child’s presenting symptoms and the findings in ultrasound would be the presence of an abnormal posterior urethral valve. A posterior urethral valve is a developmental anomaly that usually affects male infants (incidence 1 in 8000) leading to obstructive uropathy. Diagnostic features include bladder wall hypertrophy, hydronephrosis and bladder diverticula.Note:Posterior urethral valves are the most common cause of infra-vesical outflow obstruction in males. They can be diagnosed on antenatal ultrasonography. Due to the necessity of the fetal bladder to develop high emptying pressures in utero secondary to this anomaly, the child may develop renal parenchymal damage. This leads to renal impairment noted in 70% of boys at the time of presentation. Management:The immediate treatment would be to place a bladder catheter to relieve the acutely retained urine. The definitive treatment of choice would be an endoscopic valvotomy with a cystoscopic and renal follow up.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
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      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following developmental milestones would you expect to see in a...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following developmental milestones would you expect to see in a normal 6-month-old baby?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Have lost the Moro reflex

      Explanation:

      The Moro reflex is a normal primitive, infantile reflex. It can be seen as early as 25 weeks postconceptional age and usually is present by 30 weeks postconceptional age.6 month old milestones:Social and Emotional:Knows familiar faces and begins to know if someone is a stranger Likes to play with others, especially parents Responds to other people’s emotions and often seems happy Likes to look at self in a mirror Language/Communication:Responds to sounds by making sounds Strings vowels together when babbling (ah,Å¥ eh,Å¥ ohÅ¥) and likes taking turns with parent while making sounds Responds to own name Makes sounds to show joy and displeasure Begins to say consonant sounds (jabbering with m,Å¥ bÅ¥) Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving):Looks around at things nearby Brings things to mouth Shows curiosity about things and tries to get things that are out of reach Begins to pass things from one hand to the other Movement/Physical Development:Rolls over in both directions (front to back, back to front) Begins to sit without support When standing, supports weight on legs and might bounce Rocks back and forth, sometimes crawling backwards before moving forward

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
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  • Question 22 - A 19-year-old girl has presented with symptoms suggestive of anorexia nervosa. Following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old girl has presented with symptoms suggestive of anorexia nervosa. Following a consult with a dietician, a decision was made to supplement her nutrition through total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central line. Which of the following is a common complication associated with TPN?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Deranged liver function tests

      Explanation:

      Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) frequently causes derangement of liver function in children. Other options:- While line sepsis and thromboembolism are recognised complications of TPN, they do not occur frequently. – A child who is on TPN will require regular blood tests because of the potential for the development of electrolyte abnormalities. Need to observe their liver function, in order to provide TPN more accurately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 23 - A 5 week old boy is vomiting excessively, suggesting a pyloric stenosis. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 week old boy is vomiting excessively, suggesting a pyloric stenosis. Which of the following risk factors might be present?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maternal smoking

      Explanation:

      Maternal smoking is one of the most significant risk factors for pyloric stenosis.Remember the three Ps for Pyloric Stenosis:P -palpable massP -peristalsisP -projectile vomiting

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 24 - Which of the following is true regarding eczema herpeticum? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding eczema herpeticum?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Herpes virus 1 and 2, Ebstein-Barr virus, Cytomegalovirus, and Varicella Zoster virus are all species of Herpesviridae

      Explanation:

      Kaposi varicelliform eruption (KVE) is the name given to a distinct cutaneous eruption caused by herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 1, HSV-2, coxsackievirus A16, or vaccinia virus that infects a pre-existing dermatosis. Most commonly, it is caused by a disseminated HSV infection in patients with atopic dermatitis (AD) and, for this reason, is often referred to as eczema herpeticum (EH).Kaposi varicelliform eruption (KVE) is now known to occur in children of any age and in adults, however, most patients (56%) are aged 15-24 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 25 - A 40-week-old baby presented with a weak cry and failure to thrive. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-week-old baby presented with a weak cry and failure to thrive. The mother gives a history of prolonged neonatal jaundice and says it is common in her family. On examination, a large tongue was noticed. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Congenital hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Congenital hypothyroidism is associated with failure to thrive, macroglossia, prolonged jaundice of a new-born and constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 26 - A 13-year-old boy presents to the hospital with a history of multiple episodes...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old boy presents to the hospital with a history of multiple episodes of generalized tonic-clonic seizures for the past week. Prior to this, he has had multiple admissions for the same reason and has been on anti-epileptic drugs since the age of 11 months with poor control. He was born of non-consanguineous parents with an uneventful birth history. There is no history of seizures in other family members. On examination, he has multiple hyperpigmented papules over the nasolabial region suggestive of adenoma sebaceum. A full body examination revealed a total of 5 hypopigmented ash leaf macules over the lower limbs along with a shagreen patch over the lateral aspect of the left buttock. The mode of inheritance of the boy's condition has a pattern similar to that of:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neurofibromatosis Type 1

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario provided, the most probable diagnosis for this patient would be tuberous sclerosis which is an autosomal dominant condition.Among the options provided, only Neurofibromatosis Type 1 is inherited by an autosomal dominant pattern. Other options:- Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome is an example of an imprinting disorder and results from abnormalities of inheritance or methylation of chromosome 11p15.- Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive condition.- Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy is an example of an X-linked recessive condition.- Hypophosphataemic (Vitamin D resistant) rickets is an X-linked dominant condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
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  • Question 27 - A 5 year old girl presents with reduced consciousness and metabolic acidosis. Additionally,...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year old girl presents with reduced consciousness and metabolic acidosis. Additionally, her mother says that she had abdominal pain, vomiting, thirst, and weight loss, and is now worried that the girl's twin brother will present with the same illness. Which of the following represents the highest chance of the brother presenting with the same illness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HLA DR3/DR4 genotype

      Explanation:

      HLA-DR (3 and 4) have been associated with an increased risk for idiopathic diabetes mellitus.Type 1 diabetes has a high heritability compared to type 2Identical twins have a 30-50% risk if their twin has type 1 diabetes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 28 - A patient complaining of loss of taste in the anterior 2/3 of the...

    Incorrect

    • A patient complaining of loss of taste in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue has most likely suffered damage to which nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Facial nerve

      Explanation:

      The hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) provides motor innervation to all of the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue except for the palatoglossus muscle, which is innervated by the vagus nerve (CN X). It runs superficial to the hyoglossus muscle. Lesions of the hypoglossal nerve cause deviation of the tongue to the ipsilateral (i.e., damaged) side.Taste to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is achieved through innervation from the chorda tympani nerve, a branch of the facial nerve (CN VII). General sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is by innervation from the lingual nerve, a branch of the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V3). The lingual nerve is located deep and medial to the hyoglossus muscle and is associated with the submandibular ganglion.On the other hand, taste to the posterior one-third of the tongue is accomplished through innervation from the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX), which also provides general sensation to the posterior one-third of the tongue.Taste perception also is performed by both the epiglottis and the epiglottic region of the tongue, which receives taste and general sensation from innervation by the internal laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve (CN X). Damage to the vagus nerve (CN X) causes contralateral deviation (i.e., away from the injured side) of the uvula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 29 - Which of the following is NOT true of the femoral nerve? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT true of the femoral nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It supplies adductor longus

      Explanation:

      The femoral nerve is the main nerve supply for the thigh muscles including the pectineus, iliacus, sartorius, which flex the hip; and the quadriceps femoris made up of the rectus femoris, vests laterals, vastus medialis and vastus intermedius, which extend the knee. The nerve is derived from the L2, L3 and L4 nerve roots, and supplies cutaneous branches to the anteromedial thigh and the medial side of the leg via the saphenous nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 30 - A term baby with a birth weight of 4.2 kg with meconium aspiration...

    Incorrect

    • A term baby with a birth weight of 4.2 kg with meconium aspiration syndrome is intubated and ventilated. Conventional ventilation was unsuccessful and so a trial of high-frequency oscillatory ventilation has commenced. Chest X-ray shows good lung inflation. There is minimal chest wobbleÅ¥ on the baby. Settings are mean airway pressure 16, delta P 25, rate 10 Hz, FiO2 0.5. Baby's oxygen saturations are 94%. Blood gas shows pH 7.19, CO2 9.3 kPa, BE -5. What is the first change that should be made to the ventilation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase delta P

      Explanation:

      The baby is not clearing CO2 normally despite normal oxygenation so we should increase the delta P. Higher delta P will increase tidal volume and hence CO2 removal.After initial resuscitation and stabilization, the following should be the ventilator settings used:Rate: 30-40/minutePeak inspiratory pressure (PIP) – determined by adequate chest wall movement.An infant weighing less than 1500 grams: 16-28 cm H2O.An infant weighing greater than 1500 grams: 20-30 cm H2O. Positive end expiratory pressure (PEEP): 4 cm of H2O OR 5-6 cm if FiO2 > 0.90.FiO2: 0.4 to 1.0, depending on the clinical situation.Inspiratory time: 0.3-0.5 sec.After 15 to 30 minutes, check arterial blood gases and pH.If the PaO2 or the O2 saturation is below accepted standards, the FiO2 can be raised to a maximum of 1.0. If the PaO2 or O2 saturation is still inadequate, the mean airway pressure can be raised by increasing either the PIP, PEEP, inspiratory time or the rate, leaving inspiratory time constant.If the PaCO2 is elevated, the rate or peak inspiratory pressure can be raised.

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      • Neonatology
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