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  • Question 1 - A 68-year-old man complains of a burning sensation around his left eye. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man complains of a burning sensation around his left eye. Upon examination, a rash with erythematous blisters is visible in the left trigeminal distribution. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Herpes zoster ophthalmicus

      Explanation:

      Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications

      Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is a condition that occurs when the varicella-zoster virus reactivates in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It is responsible for approximately 10% of shingles cases. The main symptom of HZO is a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the eye itself. Hutchinson’s sign, a rash on the tip or side of the nose, is a strong indicator of nasociliary involvement and increases the risk of ocular involvement.

      Treatment for HZO involves oral antiviral medication for 7-10 days, ideally started within 72 hours of symptom onset. Intravenous antivirals may be necessary for severe infections or immunocompromised patients. Topical antiviral treatment is not recommended for HZO, but topical corticosteroids may be used to treat any secondary inflammation of the eye. Ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review to prevent complications such as conjunctivitis, keratitis, episcleritis, anterior uveitis, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.

      In summary, HZO is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It presents with a vesicular rash around the eye and may involve the eye itself. Treatment involves oral antiviral medication and urgent ophthalmology review is necessary for ocular involvement. Complications of HZO include various eye conditions, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      166.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 70-year-old man presents to the GP for a blood pressure review after...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man presents to the GP for a blood pressure review after a clinic reading of 154/100 mmHg. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and COPD, which are managed with inhalers. His home blood pressure readings over the past week have averaged at 140/96 mmHg. What is the initial intervention that should be considered?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Regardless of age, ACE inhibitors/A2RBs are the first-line treatment for hypertension in diabetics.

      Blood Pressure Management in Diabetes Mellitus

      Patients with diabetes mellitus have traditionally been managed with lower blood pressure targets to reduce their overall cardiovascular risk. However, a 2013 Cochrane review found that there was little difference in outcomes between patients who had tight blood pressure control (targets < 130/85 mmHg) and those with more relaxed control (< 140-160/90-100 mmHg), except for a slightly reduced rate of stroke in the former group. As a result, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of < 140/90 mmHg for type 2 diabetics, the same as for patients without diabetes. For patients with type 1 diabetes, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of 135/85 mmHg unless they have albuminuria or two or more features of metabolic syndrome, in which case the target should be 130/80 mmHg. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin-II receptor antagonists (A2RBs) are the first-line antihypertensive regardless of age, as they have a renoprotective effect in diabetes. A2RBs are preferred for black African or African-Caribbean diabetic patients. Further management then follows that of non-diabetic patients. It is important to note that autonomic neuropathy may result in more postural symptoms in patients taking antihypertensive therapy. Therefore, the routine use of beta-blockers in uncomplicated hypertension should be avoided, particularly when given in combination with thiazides, as they may cause insulin resistance, impair insulin secretion, and alter the autonomic response to hypoglycemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      109.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 67-year-old male with a history of ischaemic heart disease is experiencing depression...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old male with a history of ischaemic heart disease is experiencing depression after a recent heart attack. Which antidepressant would be the most suitable to initiate?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      4781.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Warfarin can be described as which of the following statements? ...

    Incorrect

    • Warfarin can be described as which of the following statements?

      Your Answer: It may induce autoimmune thrombocytopenia

      Correct Answer: It reduces protein C levels in the blood

      Explanation:

      Facts about Warfarin: Uses, Effects, and Precautions

      Warfarin is a medication used to reduce blood clotting and prevent thrombosis. It works by blocking an enzyme that reactivates vitamin K1, which is necessary for the production of clotting factors. However, there are several important facts to consider when using warfarin.

      Firstly, warfarin reduces protein C levels in the blood, which can affect its anticoagulant properties. Additionally, warfarin is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its ability to pass through the placenta and cause bleeding in the fetus. It is also a teratogen, which means it can cause congenital abnormalities if exposure occurs during pregnancy.

      Furthermore, heparin is more associated with a prothrombotic reaction, heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, and an antibody-mediated decrease in platelet levels. Warfarin, on the other hand, has a short half-life of 3 hours and requires an initial loading dose to reach therapeutic effect.

      Lastly, warfarin can be safely used in breastfeeding mothers as the amount of warfarin in breast milk is not significant enough to affect the baby. However, caution should be exercised in lactating women.

      In conclusion, warfarin is a useful medication for preventing thrombosis, but it should be used with caution and under medical supervision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      431.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old man presents to the ophthalmology clinic with a complaint of gradual...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the ophthalmology clinic with a complaint of gradual vision loss. During tonometry, his intraocular pressure is found to be 26mmHg and optic disc cupping is observed on fundoscopy. Visual field examination reveals peripheral visual loss. The physician prescribes timolol eye drops to be used twice daily. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: Increase uveoscleral outflow

      Correct Answer: Decrease production of aqueous fluid

      Explanation:

      Timolol, a beta blocker, is effective in treating primary open-angle glaucoma by reducing the production of aqueous fluid. This condition is characterized by increased intraocular pressure due to inefficient drainage of fluid in the eye’s trabecular meshwork. Symptoms include gradual loss of vision, particularly in the peripheral fields. Brimonidine, an alpha-adrenergic agonist, also reduces aqueous fluid production and increases uveoscleral outflow. However, drugs that decrease uveoscleral outflow or increase aqueous fluid production would worsen the patient’s condition. Glucocorticoids can cause reduced drainage of aqueous humour and are implicated in causing open-angle glaucoma. Latanoprost, a prostaglandin analogue, increases uveoscleral outflow.

      Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma is a type where the iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is responsible for draining aqueous humour from the eye. This results in increased resistance to outflow and raised intraocular pressure. The condition affects 0.5% of people over 40 years old and increases with age. Genetics also play a role, with first-degree relatives having a 16% chance of developing the disease. Symptoms are usually absent, and diagnosis is made through routine eye examinations. Investigations include visual field tests, tonometry, and slit lamp examinations. Treatment involves eye drops to lower intraocular pressure, with prostaglandin analogues being the first line of treatment. Surgery may be considered in refractory cases. Regular reassessment is necessary to monitor progression and prevent visual field loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      361.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 40-year-old female patient comes to you at the cardiology department complaining of...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old female patient comes to you at the cardiology department complaining of a sharp, stabbing chest pain behind her breastbone. The pain is not spreading to any other part of her body, and she denies feeling sweaty or experiencing nausea and vomiting. She reports that the pain worsens at night when she lies flat in bed and improves slightly when she sits up. She reveals that she has been diagnosed with systemic lupus and is taking regular medication for it. During auscultation, you hear scratchy, rubbing sounds that are most audible during systole. You decide to order an ECG to confirm the diagnosis. What ECG findings are you most likely to observe?

      Your Answer: Saddle-shaped ST elevation

      Explanation:

      The vignette describes classic symptoms of pericarditis, including a sharp central chest pain that is relieved by sitting up and leaning forward, but worsened by lying flat or taking deep breaths. The patient’s past medical history of systemic lupus also increases the likelihood of pericarditis. On auscultation, scratchy, rubbing S1 and S2 sounds can be heard. The most likely ECG finding in this case is saddle shaped ST elevation, which is a hallmark of pericarditis. Other potential causes of ST elevation include STEMI and left bundle branch block, but these can be ruled out based on the symptoms and examination findings. Narrow peaking T waves are often seen in hyperkalaemia, but this is not the most likely ECG finding in this case.

      Understanding Acute Pericarditis

      Acute pericarditis is a medical condition characterized by inflammation of the pericardial sac that lasts for less than 4-6 weeks. The condition can be caused by various factors such as viral infections, tuberculosis, uraemia, post-myocardial infarction, autoimmune pericarditis, radiotherapy, connective tissue disease, hypothyroidism, malignancy, and trauma. Symptoms of acute pericarditis include chest pain, non-productive cough, dyspnoea, and flu-like symptoms. Patients may also experience pericardial rub.

      To diagnose acute pericarditis, doctors may perform an electrocardiogram (ECG) to check for changes in the heart’s electrical activity. Blood tests may also be conducted to check for inflammatory markers and troponin levels. Patients suspected of having acute pericarditis should undergo transthoracic echocardiography.

      Treatment for acute pericarditis depends on the underlying cause. Patients with high-risk features such as fever or elevated troponin levels may need to be hospitalized. However, most patients with pericarditis secondary to viral infection can be managed as outpatients. Strenuous physical activity should be avoided until symptoms resolve and inflammatory markers normalize. A combination of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and colchicine is typically used as first-line treatment for patients with acute idiopathic or viral pericarditis. The medication is usually tapered off over 1-2 weeks.

      Overall, understanding acute pericarditis is important for prompt diagnosis and appropriate management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      1294.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of myalgia in the shoulder...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of myalgia in the shoulder girdle and low-grade fevers that have persisted for three weeks. He also mentions experiencing a brief loss of vision in his left eye. Based on the probable diagnosis, what laboratory test would be the most effective for diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica primarily relies on the detection of elevated inflammatory markers.

      Among the laboratory tests, the most valuable in diagnosing PMR is the measurement of ESR levels.
      Although CK and electromyography are commonly used in diagnosing muscle disorders, they may not be helpful in detecting PMR.
      While CPR and white cell count may show increased levels in PMR, they are not specific enough to confirm the diagnosis.

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arteritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      128.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the skin clinic with flaccid blisters on the...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the skin clinic with flaccid blisters on the inside of her mouth and the front of her chest, accompanied by red and weeping areas. The dermatologist performs a skin biopsy, which reveals a superficial intra-epidermal split just above the basal layer with acantholysis. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pemphigus vulgaris

      Explanation:

      Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune disease that causes blistering and erosions on the skin and mucous membranes, particularly in the mouth. It is caused by autoantibodies to desmoglein 3, a component of the desmosome. The blisters are thin-walled and easily ruptured, leaving painful erosions. Diagnosis is made with a skin biopsy, and treatment involves high-dose corticosteroids or other immunosuppressive drugs.

      Bullous pemphigoid is another blistering disorder, but it involves sub-epidermal splitting and tense blisters that are less easily ruptured than in pemphigus vulgaris. Mucous membranes are typically not affected.

      Dermatitis herpetiformis is characterised by intensely pruritic clusters of small blisters on the elbows, knees, back, and buttocks. It is associated with HLA-DQ2 and DQ8 and is often seen in patients with coeliac disease.

      Epidermolysis bullosa is a rare inherited disorder that causes the skin to become very fragile, leading to blistering and erosions. Symptoms appear at birth or shortly afterwards.

      Tuberous sclerosis is not associated with blistering and is a genetic disorder that causes benign tumours to grow in various organs, including the skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 49 year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of urinary incontinence that has...

    Correct

    • A 49 year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of urinary incontinence that has been going on for nine months. Upon examination, her abdomen appears normal and urinalysis results are normal. The doctor diagnoses her with detrusor muscle over-activity and prescribes oxybutynin. What is the mechanism of action of oxybutynin?

      Your Answer: Anti-muscarinic

      Explanation:

      The detrusor muscle’s contraction is regulated by muscarinic cholinergic receptors, and oxybutynin acts as a direct antimuscarinic agent. Sympathetic control, which decreases detrusor muscle activity, is influenced by serotonin and noradrenaline. The bladder does not contain GABAergic or estrogen receptors.

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.

      In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old man presents with a swollen, erythematous finger and right axillary tenderness,...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents with a swollen, erythematous finger and right axillary tenderness, 24 hours after being bitten by his pet dog.
      Which of the following is the best treatment?

      Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics for Dog Bite Infections: Recommended and Not Recommended Options

      Dog bites can lead to infections caused by various micro-organisms, including anaerobic mouth flora and bacteria. Co-amoxiclav, a combination of amoxicillin and clavulanic acid, is the recommended antibiotic for dog bite-related infections, as it is effective against the most likely organisms. Fluconazole, an antifungal agent, is not indicated for such infections, as fungal micro-organisms in dogs usually cause only superficial skin rashes. Metronidazole, although effective against anaerobic bacteria, is not recommended for dog bite-related infections, except for patients allergic to penicillin. Aciclovir is not used for dog bite-related infections, as it is restricted to treating varicella-zoster and herpes zoster. Flucloxacillin, although recommended for skin infections, is not active against anaerobic bacteria and is not recommended for dog bite-related infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      1170.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old woman is 8 weeks pregnant. 3 years prior to the pregnancy,...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman is 8 weeks pregnant. 3 years prior to the pregnancy, her GP diagnosed her with stage 2 hypertension after an ambulatory reading of 150/95 mmHg. She has been taking 10mg ramipril daily to manage her blood pressure since then. Currently, her sitting blood pressure is 135/85 mmHg. What should be done in this situation?

      Your Answer: Switch to labetalol

      Explanation:

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      19.2
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  • Question 12 - A 16-year-old girl comes to your clinic complaining of lower abdominal pain during...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to your clinic complaining of lower abdominal pain during her menstrual cycle for the past 6 months. The pain usually begins 1-2 hours after the start of her period and subsides after 1-2 days. She reports that her period is not abnormally heavy, and she is not sexually active at the moment. What is the best course of action for managing her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Start mefenamic acid

      Explanation:

      The initial treatment for primary dysmenorrhoea, which this girl is experiencing, is NSAIDs like mefenamic acid. There is no need for gynaecological investigation at this point. If mefenamic acid does not work, she could consider taking the combined oral contraceptive pill, but since she is not sexually active, it may not be necessary. Tranexamic acid is helpful for menorrhagia, but it will not alleviate pain. A transvaginal ultrasound scan is not necessary for primary dysmenorrhoea.

      Dysmenorrhoea is a condition where women experience excessive pain during their menstrual period. There are two types of dysmenorrhoea: primary and secondary. Primary dysmenorrhoea affects up to 50% of menstruating women and is not caused by any underlying pelvic pathology. It usually appears within 1-2 years of the menarche and is thought to be partially caused by excessive endometrial prostaglandin production. Symptoms include suprapubic cramping pains that may radiate to the back or down the thigh, and pain typically starts just before or within a few hours of the period starting. NSAIDs such as mefenamic acid and ibuprofen are effective in up to 80% of women, and combined oral contraceptive pills are used second line for management.

      Secondary dysmenorrhoea, on the other hand, typically develops many years after the menarche and is caused by an underlying pathology. The pain usually starts 3-4 days before the onset of the period. Causes of secondary dysmenorrhoea include endometriosis, adenomyosis, pelvic inflammatory disease, intrauterine devices, and fibroids. Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend referring all patients with secondary dysmenorrhoea to gynaecology for investigation. It is important to note that the intrauterine system (Mirena) may help dysmenorrhoea, but this only applies to normal copper coils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      32.3
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  • Question 13 - You are asked to review an 80-year-old woman in the clinic who has...

    Correct

    • You are asked to review an 80-year-old woman in the clinic who has been referred by her GP due to weight loss, early satiety and increasing anorexia. On examination, the GP notes a palpable left supraclavicular node and an epigastric mass, but no jaundice. There is microcytic anaemia, with normal liver enzymes. Her past history includes excess consumption of alcohol and a 30-pack-year smoking history.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gastric carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Gastric carcinoma is the most common type of gastric malignancy, with adenocarcinoma accounting for 90-95% of cases. Risk factors include smoking and excessive alcohol consumption. Early gastric cancer may not present with any symptoms, while advanced disease may cause indigestion, anorexia, weight loss, early postprandial fullness, and a palpable enlarged stomach with succussion splash. Troisier’s sign, the presence of a hard and enlarged left-sided supraclavicular lymph node, suggests metastatic abdominal malignancy.

      Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) presents with a pulsatile epigastric mass, but not an enlarged supraclavicular node. Patients are usually asymptomatic unless there is an aneurysm leak, which causes abdominal and/or back pain and rapid deterioration.

      Cholangiocarcinoma, a malignant tumor of the bile duct, typically presents with jaundice, weight loss, and abdominal pain. Normal liver function tests make this diagnosis unlikely.

      Benign gastric ulcers cause epigastric pain, usually a burning sensation postprandially. This patient’s symptoms, including weight loss, anorexia, and lymphadenopathy, suggest malignant pathology.

      Crohn’s disease, a chronic inflammatory bowel disease, can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract. Gastroduodenal Crohn’s disease presents with vague symptoms such as weight loss, anorexia, dyspepsia, nausea, and vomiting. However, the examination findings in this patient make a malignant diagnosis more likely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      718.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 55-year-old woman presents with urgency and frequency. Three weeks ago she consulted...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents with urgency and frequency. Three weeks ago she consulted with a colleague as she felt 'dry' during intercourse. She has been treated for urinary tract infections on multiple occasions in the past but urine culture is always negative. Her only medication is continuous hormone replacement therapy. A vaginal examination is performed which shows no evidence of vaginal atrophy and no masses are felt. An ultrasound is requested:

      Both kidneys, spleen and liver are normal size. Outline of the bladder normal. 6 cm complex ovarian cyst noted on left ovary. Right ovary and uterus normal

      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Trial topical oestrogen

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral to gynaecology

      Explanation:

      Investigation is necessary for any ovarian mass found in a woman who has undergone menopause.

      Ovarian enlargement is typically diagnosed through ultrasound imaging, which can determine whether the cyst is simple or complex. Simple cysts are unilocular and more likely to be benign, while complex cysts are multilocular and more likely to be malignant. Management of ovarian enlargement depends on the patient’s age and symptoms. Younger women may be treated conservatively if the cyst is small and simple, with a repeat ultrasound scheduled in 8-12 weeks. Postmenopausal women, however, should always be referred to a gynecologist for assessment, as physiological cysts are unlikely in this population. It’s important to note that ovarian cancer can present with vague symptoms, leading to delayed diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      31.8
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  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old woman presents to you with a 3-week history of shoulder pain...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to you with a 3-week history of shoulder pain in both shoulders. A shoulder X-ray taken 2 weeks ago did not reveal any signs of osteoarthritis. Her blood tests show an elevated ESR of 50mm/hour. What is the most appropriate course of action for this probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Prescribe a trial of oral prednisolone 15mg daily and arrange follow up after 1 week to assess clinical response

      Explanation:

      The symptoms exhibited by this patient strongly indicate the presence of polymyalgia rheumatica, and thus, a one-week course of steroids should be administered to produce a significant improvement. Prescribing paracetamol for a month is unlikely to yield any noticeable relief. An MRI scan is not likely to aid in the diagnosis. Administering a prolonged course of steroids without periodic review is not recommended.

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arteritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      57.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following statements about the correlation between the menstrual cycle and...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about the correlation between the menstrual cycle and body temperature is accurate?

      Your Answer: Body temperature rises just before ovulation

      Correct Answer: Body temperature rises following ovulation

      Explanation:

      The increase in body temperature after ovulation is utilized in certain cases of natural family planning.

      Phases of the Menstrual Cycle

      The menstrual cycle is a complex process that can be divided into four phases: menstruation, follicular phase, ovulation, and luteal phase. During the follicular phase, a number of follicles develop in the ovaries, with one follicle becoming dominant around the mid-follicular phase. At the same time, the endometrium begins to proliferate. This phase is characterized by a rise in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), which results in the development of follicles that secrete oestradiol.

      During ovulation, the mature egg is released from the dominant follicle and triggers the acute release of luteinizing hormone (LH). This phase occurs on day 14 of the menstrual cycle. Following ovulation, the luteal phase begins, during which the corpus luteum secretes progesterone. This hormone causes the endometrium to change into a secretory lining. If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum will degenerate, and progesterone levels will fall.

      The cervical mucus also changes throughout the menstrual cycle. Following menstruation, the mucus is thick and forms a plug across the external os. Just prior to ovulation, the mucus becomes clear, acellular, and low viscosity. It also becomes ‘stretchy’ – a quality termed spinnbarkeit. Under the influence of progesterone, it becomes thick, scant, and tacky.

      Basal body temperature is another indicator of the menstrual cycle. It falls prior to ovulation due to the influence of oestradiol and rises following ovulation in response to higher progesterone levels. Understanding the different phases of the menstrual cycle can help individuals track their fertility and plan for pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      195.6
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  • Question 17 - A 40-year-old man comes to the emergency department after experiencing syncope. Upon conducting...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man comes to the emergency department after experiencing syncope. Upon conducting an ECG, it is found that he has sinus rhythm with a rate of 85 bpm. The QRS duration is 110 ms, PR interval is 180 ms, and corrected QT interval is 500ms. What is the reason for the abnormality observed on the ECG?

      Your Answer: Hypercalcaemia

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Long QT syndrome can be caused by hypokalaemia, which is an electrolyte imbalance that leads to a prolonged corrected QT interval on an ECG. This condition is often seen in young people and can present as cardiac syncope, tachyarrhythmias, palpitations, or cardiac arrest. Long QT syndrome can be inherited or acquired, with hypokalaemia being one of the acquired causes. Other causes include medications, CNS lesions, malnutrition, and hypothermia. It’s important to note that hypercalcaemia is associated with a shortened QT interval, not a prolonged one.

      Understanding Long QT Syndrome

      Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a genetic condition that causes delayed repolarization of the ventricles, which can lead to ventricular tachycardia and sudden death. The most common types of LQTS are caused by defects in the alpha subunit of the slow delayed rectifier potassium channel. A normal corrected QT interval is less than 430 ms in males and 450 ms in females.

      There are various causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital factors, drugs, and other medical conditions. Some drugs that can prolong the QT interval include amiodarone, tricyclic antidepressants, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Electrolyte imbalances, acute myocardial infarction, and subarachnoid hemorrhage can also cause a prolonged QT interval.

      LQTS may be picked up on routine ECG or following family screening. The symptoms and events associated with LQTS can vary depending on the type of LQTS. Long QT1 is usually associated with exertional syncope, while Long QT2 is often associated with syncope following emotional stress or exercise. Long QT3 events often occur at night or at rest.

      Management of LQTS involves avoiding drugs that prolong the QT interval and other precipitants if appropriate. Beta-blockers may be used, and in high-risk cases, implantable cardioverter defibrillators may be necessary. It is important to recognize and manage LQTS to prevent sudden cardiac death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      77.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old woman with a history of severe disabling arthritis presents to the...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman with a history of severe disabling arthritis presents to the Emergency Department with a 3-week history of dyspnoea. She reports a dry cough of similar duration. She has never smoked and has never been employed. On cardiovascular examination, no abnormalities are detected. Respiratory examination reveals reduced air entry at the left base, which is stony dull to percussion. A chest X-ray shows blunting of the left costophrenic angle.
      What is the most likely diagnosis associated with her current respiratory problem?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)

      Explanation:

      Respiratory Manifestations of Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is an inflammatory arthritis that can affect various parts of the body, including the respiratory tract. One common manifestation of RA in the respiratory system is pleural involvement, which can present as pleural effusion, pleural nodules, or pleurisy. Other respiratory complications associated with RA include pulmonary fibrosis and bronchiolitis obliterans.

      It is important to note that other types of arthritis, such as ankylosing spondylitis, Behçet’s disease, gout, and psoriatic arthritis, do not typically present with respiratory complications like pleural effusion. Ankylosing spondylitis is associated with apical fibrosis, while Behçet’s disease is known for neurological complications. Gout is caused by purine metabolism abnormality and affects the joints and renal tract, while psoriatic arthritis is strongly associated with psoriasis and can lead to ocular and cardiovascular complications.

      Overall, if a patient with RA presents with respiratory symptoms, it is important to consider the possibility of pleural involvement and other respiratory complications associated with the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      297.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 48-year-old man suffers an Achilles tendon rupture while playing basketball. He has...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old man suffers an Achilles tendon rupture while playing basketball. He has never had any medical issues related to his muscles or bones. He recently began taking antibiotics for an infection and has been on them for the past week. What type of antibiotic is he likely taking?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      New-onset Achilles tendon disorders, including tendinitis and tendon rupture, are likely caused by ciprofloxacin, a medication with important side effects to consider.

      Achilles tendon disorders are a common cause of pain in the back of the heel. These disorders can include tendinopathy, partial tears, and complete ruptures of the Achilles tendon. Certain factors, such as the use of quinolone antibiotics and high cholesterol levels, can increase the risk of developing these disorders. Symptoms of Achilles tendinopathy typically include gradual onset of pain that worsens with activity, as well as morning stiffness. Treatment for this condition usually involves pain relief, reducing activities that exacerbate the pain, and performing calf muscle eccentric exercises.

      In contrast, an Achilles tendon rupture is a more serious condition that requires immediate medical attention. This type of injury is often caused by sudden, forceful movements during sports or running. Symptoms of an Achilles tendon rupture include an audible popping sound, sudden and severe pain in the calf or ankle, and an inability to walk or continue the activity. To help diagnose an Achilles tendon rupture, doctors may use Simmond’s triad, which involves examining the foot for abnormal angles and feeling for a gap in the tendon. Ultrasound is typically the first imaging test used to confirm a diagnosis of Achilles tendon rupture. If a rupture is suspected, it is important to seek medical attention from an orthopaedic specialist as soon as possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      33
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - An 80-year-old man with terminal lung cancer is evaluated by the palliative care...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man with terminal lung cancer is evaluated by the palliative care team to determine his analgesic requirements. He is currently on a regimen of 30 mg slow-release morphine twice daily, which effectively manages his pain. However, he is experiencing difficulty swallowing both tablet and liquid forms of the medication. The palliative team suggests transitioning him to subcutaneous morphine. What is the appropriate daily dosage for him?

      Your Answer: 30mg

      Explanation:

      Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

      Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      2205.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old female patient complains of a malodorous vaginal discharge that appears white....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female patient complains of a malodorous vaginal discharge that appears white. She denies any associated dyspareunia or itch. The clinician suspects bacterial vaginosis. Which organism is most likely responsible for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Lactobacilli

      Correct Answer: Gardnerella

      Explanation:

      Bacterial vaginosis is a condition characterized by the excessive growth of mainly bacteria.

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.

      Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimes. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      1196.4
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  • Question 22 - You assess a 27-year-old woman who presents with vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 27-year-old woman who presents with vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal pain. She had an IUD inserted as emergency contraception two weeks ago after having unprotected intercourse 6 days prior. The pain is described as severe dysmenorrhoea and is more pronounced in the right iliac fossa. She has been experiencing continuous bleeding for the past 6 days, whereas her normal menstrual cycle lasts 28 days with 4 days of bleeding. She has no issues with eating or drinking. On examination, her temperature is 36.5ºC, and her blood pressure is 104/68 mmHg. There is mild tenderness in the right iliac fossa with no guarding. Urine dip shows no abnormalities, and urine hCG is negative. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Side-effects of IUD

      Explanation:

      The woman’s symptoms are most likely caused by the intrauterine device (IUD), which is known to increase the intensity and discomfort of periods. Ectopic pregnancy and miscarriage are unlikely as the pregnancy test was negative. A urinary tract infection is also unlikely as the urine dip was normal. Although appendicitis should be considered, it does not explain the vaginal bleeding, and the woman’s normal appetite, lack of fever, and mild examination results do not support this diagnosis.

      Intrauterine contraceptive devices include copper IUDs and levonorgestrel-releasing IUS. Both are over 99% effective. The IUD prevents fertilization by decreasing sperm motility, while the IUS prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucus. Potential problems include heavier periods with IUDs and initial bleeding with the IUS. There is a small risk of uterine perforation, ectopic pregnancy, and infection. New IUS systems, such as Jaydess® and Kyleena®, have smaller frames and less levonorgestrel, resulting in lower serum levels and different rates of amenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - What is an accurate statement about alcoholic liver disease (ALD)? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is an accurate statement about alcoholic liver disease (ALD)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In alcoholic hepatitis the AST : ALT ratio is at least 2 : 1

      Explanation:

      Alcoholic Liver Disease: Facts and Myths

      Alcoholic liver disease (ALD) is a common liver disease caused by overconsumption of alcohol. Here are some facts and myths about ALD:

      Myth: In alcoholic hepatitis, the AST:ALT ratio is less than 2:1.
      Fact: Unlike most other liver diseases, including viral hepatitis, alcoholic hepatitis exhibits at least a 2:1 AST:ALT ratio.

      Myth: Hepatic iron overload is not indicative of concomitant heterozygote haemochromatosis.
      Fact: Evidence of iron overload, such as elevated levels of transferrin saturation and serum ferritin, is common in ALD and may indicate concomitant heterozygote haemochromatosis.

      Myth: Women are less susceptible to ALD than men.
      Fact: Women are actually twice as susceptible to ALD than men, even when consumption is corrected for body weight, and may develop ALD with shorter durations and doses of chronic consumption.

      Myth: Alcoholic fatty infiltration is irreversible once established.
      Fact: Although steatosis (fatty infiltration) will develop in any individual who consumes a large quantity of alcohol over a long period of time, this process is usually transient and reversible. Alcoholic hepatitis and alcoholic fatty infiltration are reversible with abstinence and adequate nutrition.

      Myth: Alcoholic cirrhosis does not progress to hepatocellular carcinoma.
      Fact: Like other causes of liver cirrhosis, alcoholic cirrhosis can also progress to hepatocellular carcinoma.

      In conclusion, ALD is a serious liver disease that can have irreversible consequences if not addressed in a timely manner. It is important to understand the facts and myths surrounding this disease to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      0
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  • Question 24 - A 50-year-old obese man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old obese man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents at the clinic for a review. He is currently asymptomatic but his recent annual blood tests have shown slightly abnormal liver function tests. The results are as follows:
      - Bilirubin: 20 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      - ALP: 104 u/L (30 - 100)
      - ALT: 53 u/L (3 - 40)
      - γGT: 58 u/L (8 - 60)
      - Albumin: 38 g/L (35 - 50)

      A liver ultrasound was conducted and reported fatty changes. All other standard liver screen bloods, including viral serology, are normal. The patient's alcoholic intake is within recommended limits. What is the most appropriate next test to perform?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Enhanced liver fibrosis blood test

      Explanation:

      For patients with non-alcoholic fatty liver disease who exhibit characteristics such as obesity and type 2 diabetes mellitus, it is recommended to conduct an enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) test to aid in the diagnosis of liver fibrosis. According to NICE guidelines, if NAFLD is discovered incidentally, an ELF blood test should be conducted to evaluate for the presence of more advanced liver disease.

      Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management

      Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It encompasses a range of conditions, from simple steatosis (fat accumulation in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. Insulin resistance is believed to be the primary mechanism leading to steatosis, making NAFLD a hepatic manifestation of metabolic syndrome. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a type of liver damage similar to alcoholic hepatitis but occurs in the absence of alcohol abuse. It affects around 3-4% of the general population and may be responsible for some cases of cryptogenic cirrhosis.

      NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels are common features. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score, in combination with a FibroScan, may be used to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.

      The mainstay of NAFLD treatment is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. Research is ongoing into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, NICE guidelines recommend the management of incidental NAFLD findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      0
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  • Question 25 - A 42-year-old woman arrived at the Emergency Department complaining of a painful and...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman arrived at the Emergency Department complaining of a painful and red eye with watering and mild sensitivity to light. The diagnosis was uncertain, but it was suspected to be either episcleritis or scleritis. The on-call ophthalmologist was contacted, and they requested that a specific eye drop be administered to differentiate between the two conditions.

      Which of the following eye drops is capable of distinguishing between episcleritis and scleritis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phenylephrine eye drops

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing between episcleritis and scleritis can be achieved using eye drops. By administering the drops, it is possible to observe whether the redness in the eye blanches or not. If it does, then the condition is episcleritis, but if it doesn’t, then it is scleritis. This skill is particularly valuable for those working in an Emergency Medicine rotation. None of the other options are useful for distinguishing between these two conditions.

      Understanding Episcleritis

      Episcleritis is a condition that involves the sudden onset of inflammation in the episclera of one or both eyes. While the majority of cases are idiopathic, there are some associated conditions such as inflammatory bowel disease and rheumatoid arthritis. Symptoms of episcleritis include a red eye, mild pain or irritation, watering, and mild photophobia. However, unlike scleritis, episcleritis is typically not painful.

      One way to differentiate between the two conditions is by applying gentle pressure on the sclera. If the injected vessels are mobile, it is likely episcleritis. In contrast, scleritis involves deeper vessels that do not move. Phenylephrine drops may also be used to distinguish between the two conditions. If the eye redness improves after phenylephrine, a diagnosis of episcleritis can be made.

      Approximately 50% of cases of episcleritis are bilateral. Treatment for episcleritis is typically conservative, with artificial tears sometimes being used. Understanding the symptoms and differences between episcleritis and scleritis can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management for their eye condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
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  • Question 26 - A 50-year-old man visits his GP complaining of lower back pain that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man visits his GP complaining of lower back pain that has been gradually worsening over the past 4 years. During a comprehensive back examination, the GP performs a straight leg raise test, which elicits increased pain in the patient's leg. What pathology is suggested by a positive straight leg raise?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sciatic nerve pain

      Explanation:

      The positive straight leg raise test involves lifting the leg straight up and if this causes pain in the sciatic nerve area, the test is considered positive. Ankylosing spondylitis is a chronic inflammatory disease that causes lower back pain, particularly in the morning, and is often relieved by exercise. This condition typically starts in early adulthood and is linked to the human leukocyte antigen B27 (HLA-B27). Spinal stenosis is characterized by back and/or leg pain, numbness, and weakness that worsens with walking but improves with rest. Facet joint pain is felt in the back over the facets of the cervical and lumbar vertebrae and is aggravated by stress on the facet joints, such as extending the back. Vertebral compression fractures, which can be detected by x-ray, usually result from osteoporosis, trauma, or cancer and cause acute or chronic back pain.

      Lower back pain is a common issue that is often caused by muscular strain. However, it is important to be aware of potential underlying causes that may require specific treatment. Certain red flags should be considered, such as age under 20 or over 50, a history of cancer, night pain, trauma, or systemic illness. There are also specific causes of lower back pain that should be kept in mind. Facet joint pain may be acute or chronic, worse in the morning and on standing, and typically worsens with back extension. Spinal stenosis may cause leg pain, numbness, and weakness that is worse on walking and relieved by sitting or leaning forward. Ankylosing spondylitis is more common in young men and causes stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves with activity. Peripheral arterial disease may cause pain on walking and weak foot pulses. It is important to consider these potential causes and seek appropriate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
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  • Question 27 - A 55-year-old man presents to the diabetes clinic for a follow-up appointment. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the diabetes clinic for a follow-up appointment. He was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) approximately 8 years ago and is currently taking gliclazide and atorvastatin. He has a history of bladder cancer, which was successfully treated 2 years ago. The patient recently tried metformin, but discontinued it due to gastrointestinal side-effects. He works as an accountant, does not smoke, and has a BMI of 31 kg/m². His annual blood work reveals the following results:
      - Sodium (Na+): 138 mmol/l
      - Potassium (K+): 4.1 mmol/l
      - Urea: 4.3 mmol/l
      - Creatinine: 104 µmol/l
      - HbA1c: 62 mmol/mol (7.8%)

      What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's diabetes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add sitagliptin

      Explanation:

      Due to his history of bladder cancer and obesity, pioglitazone is not recommended and contraindicated. Instead, sitagliptin, a DPP-4 inhibitor, is the most suitable option. Exenatide, which typically leads to weight loss, is beneficial for obese individuals with diabetes, but it does not meet the NICE criteria for body mass index of 35 kg/m².

      NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      0
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  • Question 28 - A 38-year-old man with a history of Wilson’s disease and mild osteoarthritis presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man with a history of Wilson’s disease and mild osteoarthritis presents with features of nephrotic syndrome.
      Which medication is the most likely cause for his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: d-Penicillamine

      Explanation:

      Pharmacologic Treatments and Complications: A Review

      Secondary membranous nephropathy can be caused by autoimmune diseases, infectious diseases, malignancy, and exposure to certain drugs such as captopril, gold, lithium, or penicillamine. Treatment with chelating agents like D-penicillamine is the mainstay of treatment for Wilson’s disease, but it can cause proteinuria in up to 30% of patients. Hydroxychloroquine is used for active rheumatoid arthritis but can cause ocular toxicity. Methotrexate is used for severe Crohn’s disease and rheumatoid arthritis but can cause bone marrow suppression. Topical NSAIDs are unlikely to cause systemic side-effects, while sulfasalazine can cause rare but serious side-effects in patients with G6PD deficiency. It is important to monitor patients closely for complications when using these pharmacologic treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 29 - As a physician at a sexual health clinic, what would be the most...

    Incorrect

    • As a physician at a sexual health clinic, what would be the most suitable contraceptive to suggest to a young adult with a latex allergy who does not have a consistent partner?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polyurethane condom

      Explanation:

      Barrier Methods of Contraception

      Barrier methods of contraception are still commonly used as a means of preventing unintended pregnancies. In addition to preventing pregnancy, condoms also offer some protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs). The two most popular types of barrier methods used in the UK are condoms and diaphragms/cervical caps.

      When used perfectly, male condoms have an efficacy rate of 98%, while female condoms have an efficacy rate of 95%. However, in typical use, the efficacy rates drop to 80% for both male and female condoms. Diaphragms and cervical caps, when used with spermicide, have an efficacy rate of 92-96%.

      It is important to note that oil-based lubricants should not be used with latex condoms, as they can weaken the material and increase the risk of breakage. For individuals who are allergic to latex, polyurethane condoms should be used instead. Overall, barrier methods of contraception remain a popular choice for individuals looking to prevent pregnancy and protect against STIs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 30 - A 48-year-old man is attending the hypertension clinic. He was diagnosed approximately three...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man is attending the hypertension clinic. He was diagnosed approximately three months ago and commenced on ramipril. Despite titrating up to 10mg od, his blood pressure remains at 156/92 mmHg. What is the next best course of action in managing his hypertension?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add amlodipine OR indapamide

      Explanation:

      To improve control of hypertension in patients who are already taking an ACE inhibitor or an angiotensin receptor blocker, the 2019 NICE guidelines recommend adding either a calcium channel blocker (such as amlodipine) or a thiazide-like diuretic (such as indapamide). This is a change from previous guidelines, which only recommended adding a calcium channel blocker in this situation.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 31 - A 50-year-old woman presents to her GP on the same day with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to her GP on the same day with a sudden onset of hearing loss in her right ear while having breakfast. She reports feeling well otherwise and denies any ear pain, discharge, or previous ENT issues. The patient has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications. Otoscopy reveals no abnormalities, and tuning fork tests confirm a sensorineural loss. What is the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to ENT

      Explanation:

      If someone experiences sudden onset sensorineural hearing loss, it is important to refer them to an ENT specialist within 24 hours for investigation and potential treatment with steroids.

      Understanding Hearing Loss with Weber and Rinnes Tests

      Hearing loss can be classified as either conductive or sensorineural, and a formal assessment with pure tone audiometry is often necessary to determine which type is present. However, in a clinical setting, Weber and Rinnes tests can also be helpful in categorizing different types of hearing loss.

      The Weber test involves using a tuning fork to determine if a patient has symmetrical or asymmetrical hearing loss. In a normal patient, the sound is heard equally loud in both ears. However, in a patient with asymmetrical hearing loss, the sound is heard louder in one ear than the other. This finding should be confirmed by repeating the procedure and having the patient occlude one ear with a finger.

      The Rinne test involves comparing air conduction to bone conduction in both ears. In a patient with normal hearing, air conduction is greater than bone conduction in both ears. However, in a patient with sensorineural hearing loss, air conduction is greater than bone conduction in the unaffected ear. In a patient with conductive hearing loss, bone conduction is greater than air conduction in the affected ear.

      Understanding the results of these tests can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat hearing loss. By identifying the type and severity of hearing loss, appropriate interventions such as hearing aids or cochlear implants can be recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 32 - A 28-year-old woman comes to the Endocrine Clinic with a history of hyperthyroidism....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to the Endocrine Clinic with a history of hyperthyroidism. Her blood tests confirm that she is currently experiencing thyrotoxicosis. She is hoping to conceive and wants to discuss her treatment options.
      What is the most suitable treatment for her condition in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroidectomy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Hyperthyroidism in Women Planning a Pregnancy

      When it comes to treating hyperthyroidism in women who are planning a pregnancy, there are several options to consider. Definitive treatment, such as thyroidectomy, is the preferred option as it eliminates the risk of thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy and the need for medication that could harm the fetus. However, following thyroidectomy, the patient will need thyroxine replacement and should wait until she is euthyroid before trying to conceive.

      Propylthiouracil and thyroxine are not recommended for use during pregnancy due to the risk of fetal goitre or hypothyroidism. Carbimazole is teratogenic and should not be started in women planning a pregnancy. Propylthiouracil can be used in low doses if there is no other suitable alternative.

      Radioactive iodine is highly effective but is contraindicated in women planning a pregnancy within six months. This option can be considered if the patient is willing to continue contraception until six months after treatment. Ultimately, the best course of action will depend on the individual patient’s needs and preferences, and should be discussed with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 33 - Among the following groups of malignant tumours, which one is known for frequently...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following groups of malignant tumours, which one is known for frequently metastasizing to bone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breast, prostate, kidney, lung, thyroid

      Explanation:

      Metastasis Patterns of Common Tumours

      Metastasis, the spread of cancer cells from the primary tumour to other parts of the body, is a major factor in cancer progression and treatment. Different types of cancer have different patterns of metastasis. Here are some common tumours and their predilection for dissemination to specific organs:

      – Breast, prostate, kidney, lung, thyroid: These tumours have a predilection for dissemination to bone.
      – Kidney, sarcoma, lung, thyroid: Sarcoma most commonly metastasises to the lungs.
      – Breast, prostate, kidney, lymphoma: Tumours that commonly metastasise to the brain include those of the breast, lung, prostate, kidney and thyroid.
      – Lung, breast, prostate, thyroid, brain: Primary brain tumours rarely metastasise to other parts of the body.
      – Thyroid, brain, lung, liver, breast: Primary liver tumours most commonly metastasise to the lung, portal vein and portal nodes.

      Understanding the metastasis patterns of different tumours can help in early detection and targeted treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 34 - Which cytotoxic agent is commonly linked to pulmonary fibrosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which cytotoxic agent is commonly linked to pulmonary fibrosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bleomycin

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary fibrosis is a potential side effect of bleomycin, a cytotoxic antibiotic commonly prescribed for metastatic germ cell cancer, squamous cell carcinoma, and non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. The severity of this adverse effect is directly proportional to the dosage administered.

      Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin, degrade preformed DNA and can lead to lung fibrosis. Anthracyclines, such as doxorubicin, stabilize the DNA-topoisomerase II complex and inhibit DNA and RNA synthesis, but can also cause cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, like methotrexate, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, leading to myelosuppression, mucositis, liver fibrosis, and lung fibrosis. Fluorouracil (5-FU) is a pyrimidine analogue that induces cell cycle arrest and apoptosis by blocking thymidylate synthase, but can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and dermatitis. Cytarabine is a pyrimidine antagonist that interferes with DNA synthesis specifically at the S-phase of the cell cycle and inhibits DNA polymerase, but can also cause myelosuppression and ataxia. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and vinblastine, inhibit the formation of microtubules and can cause peripheral neuropathy, paralytic ileus, and myelosuppression. Docetaxel prevents microtubule depolymerisation and disassembly, decreasing free tubulin, but can also cause neutropaenia. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA, but can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin, cause cross-linking in DNA and can lead to ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, and hypomagnesaemia. Hydroxyurea (hydroxycarbamide) inhibits ribonucleotide reductase, decreasing DNA synthesis, but can also cause myelosuppression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 35 - Which one of the following is not a characteristic of essential tremor? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not a characteristic of essential tremor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive inheritance

      Explanation:

      When arms are extended, essential tremor worsens, but it improves with the use of alcohol and propranolol. This is an autosomal dominant condition.

      Understanding Essential Tremor

      Essential tremor, also known as benign essential tremor, is a genetic condition that typically affects both upper limbs. The most common symptom is a postural tremor, which worsens when the arms are outstretched. However, the tremor can be improved by rest and alcohol consumption. Essential tremor is also the leading cause of head tremors, known as titubation.

      When it comes to managing essential tremor, the first-line treatment is propranolol. This medication can help reduce the severity of the tremors. In some cases, primidone may also be used to manage the condition. It’s important to note that essential tremor is a lifelong condition, but with proper management, individuals can lead a normal life. By understanding the symptoms and treatment options, those with essential tremor can take control of their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 36 - Which one of the following statements regarding the vaccine used to routinely immunise...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the vaccine used to routinely immunise adults against influenza is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is a live vaccine

      Explanation:

      Influenza Vaccination: Who Should Get It and What to Expect

      Seasonal influenza remains a significant health concern in the UK, with the flu season typically starting in November. To prevent the spread of the virus, it is recommended that individuals receive the influenza vaccine between September and early November. There are three types of influenza virus, with types A and B causing the majority of clinical disease.

      Prior to 2013, flu vaccination was only offered to the elderly and at-risk groups. However, a new NHS influenza vaccination programme for children was announced in 2013. The children’s vaccine is given intranasally, with the first dose administered at 2-3 years and subsequent doses given annually. It is a live vaccine and is more effective than the injectable vaccine.

      Adults and at-risk groups are also recommended to receive the influenza vaccine annually. This includes individuals over 65 years old, those with chronic respiratory or heart disease, chronic kidney or liver disease, chronic neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, pregnant women, and those with a body mass index of 40 kg/m² or higher. Health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled person may also be eligible for the vaccine.

      The influenza vaccine is an inactivated vaccine and cannot cause influenza. It is around 75% effective in adults, although this figure decreases in the elderly. It takes around 10-14 days after immunisation before antibody levels are at protective levels. The vaccine should be stored between +2 and +8ºC and shielded from light. Contraindications include hypersensitivity to egg protein. While a minority of patients may experience fever and malaise after receiving the vaccine, it is generally well-tolerated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 37 - A mother brings her 2-year-old daughter to your clinic with a similar concern...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 2-year-old daughter to your clinic with a similar concern about a mass around her belly button that seems to increase in size when she coughs or strains. Upon examination, you diagnose an unobstructed umbilical hernia that is soft, nontender, and reducible.

      What is the recommended course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure mum that umbilical hernias usually resolve but if persisting at 2-3 years of age surgery may be considered

      Explanation:

      It is important to reassure the mother that umbilical hernias in newborns usually resolve on their own by the age of 3. However, if the hernia persists beyond this age, surgery may be considered. As there are no alarming symptoms currently present, urgent or routine referrals are not necessary. The use of laxatives would only be recommended if there is a history of constipation or faecal loading.

      Umbilical Hernia in Children: Causes and Treatment

      Umbilical hernias are a common occurrence in children and are often detected during the newborn examination. This condition is characterized by a bulge or protrusion near the belly button, caused by a weakness in the abdominal muscles. While umbilical hernias can occur in any child, they are more common in Afro-Caribbean infants and those with Down’s syndrome or mucopolysaccharide storage diseases.

      Fortunately, in most cases, umbilical hernias in children do not require treatment and will resolve on their own by the age of three. However, if the hernia persists beyond this age or becomes painful, surgery may be necessary to repair the abdominal wall. It is important to monitor the hernia and seek medical attention if there are any changes in size or symptoms.

      In summary, umbilical hernias are a common condition in children that typically resolve on their own without treatment. However, certain factors such as ethnicity and underlying medical conditions may increase the likelihood of developing an umbilical hernia. Parents should be aware of the signs and symptoms of umbilical hernias and seek medical attention if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 38 - A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner after discovering a firm lump...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner after discovering a firm lump just under her tongue on the right side. She has been experiencing discomfort and mild swelling in the same area while eating for the past few days. She is stable and not running a fever.
      What is the most suitable management option for this probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Short course of NSAIDs and referral to an ENT surgeon

      Explanation:

      Management of Salivary Gland Stones: Recommended Approaches and Guidelines

      Salivary gland stones, or sialolithiasis, can cause pain and swelling of the affected gland, triggered by salivary flow stimulation during eating or chewing. If left untreated, these stones can lead to secondary infections, cellulitis, and airway compromise. Here are some recommended approaches and guidelines for managing salivary gland stones:

      Referral to an ENT Surgeon and NSAIDs
      If a salivary stone is suspected, a referral to an ENT surgeon should be made, with the urgency guided by clinical judgement. Patients should also be advised to remain well hydrated, and NSAIDs can be used to relieve any pain.

      Antibiotics and Referral to an ENT Surgeon
      Antibiotics should only be used if there is a suspicion of a secondary infection, typically suggested by persistent pain and swelling, sometimes with fever and systemic upset. In this case, a referral to an ENT surgeon is also recommended.

      Oral Antibiotics and NSAIDs
      NSAIDs can be used to relieve any pain, but antibiotics should only be used if there is a suspicion of a secondary infection. This is typically suggested by persistent pain and swelling, sometimes with fever and systemic upset.

      Oral Steroids
      Oral steroids have no role in the management of salivary gland stones.

      Watchful Waiting
      Left untreated, salivary gland stones can cause significant stress and psychological distress to patients. Therefore, it is not recommended to adopt a watchful waiting approach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 39 - An 83-year-old man who resides in a nursing home arrives at the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • An 83-year-old man who resides in a nursing home arrives at the Emergency Department with symptoms of diarrhoea and vomiting. He has been experiencing 8 watery bowel movements per day for the past 3 days and seems disoriented and dehydrated. The patient has a medical history of atrial fibrillation, type II diabetes, and dementia. His heart rate is elevated at 110/min, and his electrocardiogram displays noticeable U waves. What is the probable reason for his ECG alterations?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      The ECG changes observed in this scenario are most likely due to hypokalaemia. The patient’s electrolyte balance has been disrupted by vomiting and loose stools, resulting in a depletion of potassium that should be rectified through intravenous replacement. While hypocalcaemia and hypothermia can also cause U waves, they are less probable in this case. Non-ischaemic ST elevation changes may be caused by hyponatraemia. QT prolongation is a common effect of tricyclic antidepressant toxicity.

      ECG Features of Hypokalaemia

      Hypokalaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood. This condition can be detected through an electrocardiogram (ECG) which shows specific features. The ECG features of hypokalaemia include U waves, small or absent T waves, prolonged PR interval, ST depression, and long QT. The U waves are particularly noticeable and are accompanied by a borderline PR interval.

      To remember these features, one registered user suggests the following rhyme: In Hypokalaemia, U have no Pot and no T, but a long PR and a long QT. It is important to detect hypokalaemia early as it can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and even cardiac arrest. Therefore, regular monitoring of potassium levels and ECGs is crucial for individuals at risk of hypokalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 40 - A 63-year-old woman with peripheral arterial disease is prescribed simvastatin. What blood test...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman with peripheral arterial disease is prescribed simvastatin. What blood test monitoring is most suitable?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: LFTs at baseline, 3 months and 12 months

      Explanation:

      To evaluate the effectiveness of treatment, a fasting lipid profile may be examined as part of the monitoring process.

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of an enzyme called HMG-CoA reductase, which is responsible for producing cholesterol in the liver. However, they can cause some adverse effects such as myopathy, which includes muscle pain, weakness, and damage, and liver impairment. Myopathy is more common in lipophilic statins than in hydrophilic ones. Statins may also increase the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients who have had a stroke before. Therefore, they should be avoided in these patients. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy and should be stopped if the patient is taking macrolides.

      Statins are recommended for people with established cardiovascular disease, those with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or more, and patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who were diagnosed more than 10 years ago, are over 40 years old, or have established nephropathy should also take statins. It is recommended to take statins at night as this is when cholesterol synthesis takes place. Atorvastatin 20mg is recommended for primary prevention, and the dose should be increased if non-HDL has not reduced for 40% or more. Atorvastatin 80 mg is recommended for secondary prevention. The graphic shows the different types of statins available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 41 - A 32-year-old woman presents with worries about hair loss. She reports experiencing hair...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with worries about hair loss. She reports experiencing hair loss in small patches on her scalp. During examination, you observe distinct patches of hair loss with some ‘broken exclamation mark’ hairs at the edges.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alopecia areata

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hair Loss: Causes and Symptoms

      Hair loss is a common concern for many individuals, causing anxiety and worry. There are various causes of hair loss, each with their own unique symptoms. Alopecia areata is a chronic inflammatory disease that affects the hair follicles, resulting in patchy, non-scarring hair loss on the scalp. Androgenic alopecia, on the other hand, is more common in men and causes a receding hairline and loss of hair from the top and front of the head. Fungal infections, such as tinea capitis, can also cause hair loss accompanied by scaling, itching, and pain. Scalp psoriasis can range from mild scaling to severe crusted plaques covering the entire scalp, while erosive pustular dermatosis of the scalp affects elderly individuals with scarring and yellow-brown crusts. It is important to understand the various causes and symptoms of hair loss in order to properly diagnose and treat the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 42 - A 49-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of daily abdominal bloating and...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of daily abdominal bloating and cramps for the last 3 weeks. During the examination, the doctor palpates a small pelvic mass. What is the most suitable next test to perform?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CA125 level

      Explanation:

      If females over 50 experience bloating and abdominal cramps, it is important to consider the possibility of ovarian cancer. The recommended course of action is to conduct a serum CA125 test. If the results show elevated levels, an abdominal and pelvic ultrasound should be scheduled. This information is based on NICE CG122 guidelines.

      Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.

      Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.

      Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 43 - An 80-year-old woman is under palliative care for glioblastoma and is currently managing...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman is under palliative care for glioblastoma and is currently managing her pain with regular paracetamol. However, she has been experiencing nausea. What would be the most suitable initial anti-emetic medication to prescribe for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cyclizine

      Explanation:

      Cyclizine is a recommended first choice anti-emetic for nausea and vomiting caused by intracranial or intra-vestibular issues. It is also useful in palliative care for managing gastrointestinal obstruction and vagally-mediated nausea or vomiting caused by mechanical bowel obstruction, movement disorders, or raised intracranial pressure. Domperidone is effective for gastro-intestinal pain in palliative care, while metoclopramide is used for acute migraine, chemotherapy or radiotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. Ondansetron is indicated for chemotherapy-related nausea and vomiting. Dexamethasone is a steroid that may be used in palliative care for treating nausea, anorexia, spinal cord compression, and liver capsule pain. If the cause of nausea is suspected to be raised intracranial pressure, cyclizine should be the first-line option, and dexamethasone may be considered as an additional treatment.

      Managing Nausea and Vomiting in Palliative Care: A Mechanistic Approach

      Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms in palliative care, often caused by multiple factors. Identifying the primary cause is crucial in selecting the appropriate anti-emetic therapy. Six broad syndromes have been identified, with gastric stasis and chemical disturbance being the most common. In palliative care, pharmacological therapy is the first-line method for treating nausea and vomiting. Two approaches can be used in selecting drug therapy: empirical or mechanistic. The mechanistic approach matches the choice of anti-emetic drug to the likely cause of the patient’s symptoms.

      The mechanistic approach involves selecting medication based on the underlying cause of the nausea and vomiting. For example, pro-kinetic agents are useful in scenarios where reduced gastric motility is the primary cause. First-line medications for this syndrome include metoclopramide and domperidone. However, metoclopramide should not be used in certain situations, such as complete bowel obstruction or gastrointestinal perforation. If the cause is chemically mediated, correcting the chemical disturbance should be the first step. Key treatment options include ondansetron, haloperidol, and levomepromazine. Cyclizine and levomepromazine are first-line for visceral/serosal causes, while cyclizine is recommended for nausea and vomiting due to intracranial disease. If the oral route is not possible, the parenteral route of administration is preferred, with the intravenous route used if access is already established.

      In summary, a mechanistic approach to managing nausea and vomiting in palliative care involves selecting medication based on the underlying cause of the symptoms. This approach can improve the effectiveness of anti-emetic therapy and reduce the risk of adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 44 - A 6-day-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner by his mother, who...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-day-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner by his mother, who has noticed a yellow tinge to his sclera and skin. He is being breastfed. He is otherwise well and had a normal newborn blood-spot test.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breastmilk jaundice

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Jaundice in a Breastfed Baby: Excluding Cystic Fibrosis, Galactosaemia, ABO Incompatibility, and Hypothyroidism

      Breastmilk jaundice is a common cause of jaundice in healthy, breastfed babies beyond two weeks of age. However, other potential causes should still be screened for. The exact mechanism of breastmilk jaundice is unknown, but breastfeeding should continue and bilirubin levels should be monitored. If levels are above the treatment line, phototherapy may be necessary. Jaundice can persist for up to 12 weeks in some cases. Cystic fibrosis is excluded as a diagnosis if the newborn blood-spot test is normal. Galactosaemia is unlikely if the baby has not shown symptoms such as difficulty feeding, vomiting, and faltering growth. ABO incompatibility typically presents within the first 24 hours of life, so it is unlikely if symptoms appear eight days after birth. Hypothyroidism is screened for in the newborn blood-spot test, and normal results exclude it as a diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 45 - A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 12-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 12-day history of muscle cramping and fatigue. His blood tests and ECG are as follows:
      - Na+ 140 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+ 3.7 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Bicarbonate 28 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      - Urea 6.2 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine 95 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      - Calcium 1.7 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      - Phosphate 1.3 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      - Magnesium 0.62 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)

      The patient's ECG shows a regular sinus rhythm with a rate of 72 BPM and a QTc of 480 ms. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous calcium gluconate

      Explanation:

      A 68-year-old man presents with hypocalcaemia and a prolonged QT interval, which can increase the risk of cardiac arrhythmias such as Torsades de pointes. Urgent intravenous calcium gluconate is the recommended treatment for severe hypocalcaemia, which can cause symptoms such as hand and foot spasming, tetany, and seizures. Checking the vitamin D level is important for identifying the cause of hypocalcaemia, but it is not the next best step in managing this patient’s acute condition. Oral calcium carbonate supplementation may be useful in some cases, but intravenous calcium is the preferred treatment for severe hypocalcaemia. Levothyroxine is not indicated for this patient, as hypothyroidism has not been diagnosed and urgent IV calcium gluconate should be given.

      Understanding Hypocalcaemia: Its Causes and Management

      Hypocalcaemia is a medical condition characterized by low levels of calcium in the blood. It can be caused by various factors such as vitamin D deficiency, chronic kidney disease, hypoparathyroidism, pseudohypoparathyroidism, rhabdomyolysis, magnesium deficiency, massive blood transfusion, and acute pancreatitis. In some cases, contamination of blood samples with EDTA may also lead to falsely low calcium levels.

      To manage severe hypocalcaemia, which may manifest as carpopedal spasm, tetany, seizures, or prolonged QT interval, intravenous calcium replacement is necessary. The preferred method is through the administration of intravenous calcium gluconate, with a recommended dose of 10ml of 10% solution over 10 minutes. However, it is important to note that intravenous calcium chloride may cause local irritation. ECG monitoring is also recommended during the treatment process. Further management of hypocalcaemia depends on the underlying cause.

      In summary, hypocalcaemia is a condition that can be caused by various factors, and its management depends on the severity of the symptoms and the underlying cause. Intravenous calcium replacement is the preferred method for severe cases, and ECG monitoring is recommended during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 46 - A 25-year-old male patient visits the GP clinic complaining of left ear pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient visits the GP clinic complaining of left ear pain that has been present for 3 days. The patient is new to the clinic and there is no medical history available on the system. Upon examination, you observe the patient's facial features, which include upslanting palpebral fissures, prominent epicanthic folds, low-set ears, and a protruding tongue. Otoscopy examination of the left ear reveals a bulging tympanic membrane. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute otitis media

      Explanation:

      Acute otitis media can be indicated by a bulging tympanic membrane, which is a common occurrence in individuals with Down’s syndrome. Lesions in the attic area of the tympanic membrane are typically associated with cholesteatoma. Otitis externa does not typically result in a bulging otitis media, while otitis media with effusion is characterized by a retracted tympanic membrane and a feeling of fullness in the ear.

      Vision and Hearing Issues in Down’s Syndrome

      Individuals with Down’s syndrome are prone to experiencing vision and hearing problems. In terms of vision, they are more likely to have refractive errors, which can cause blurred vision. Strabismus, a condition where the eyes do not align properly, is also common in 20-40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Cataracts, both congenital and acquired, are more prevalent in this population, as well as recurrent blepharitis, an inflammation of the eyelids. Glaucoma, a condition that damages the optic nerve, is also a potential issue.

      Regarding hearing, otitis media and glue ear are very common in individuals with Down’s syndrome, which can lead to hearing problems. Otitis media is an infection of the middle ear, while glue ear is a buildup of fluid in the middle ear that can cause temporary hearing loss. It is important for individuals with Down’s syndrome to receive regular vision and hearing screenings to detect and address any potential issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 47 - A 39-year-old female patient arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of intense, stabbing...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old female patient arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of intense, stabbing pain in her right flank that spreads to her groin. The pain comes and goes but is excruciating, reaching a severity of 10/10 at its peak. A pregnancy test yields negative results, while a urine dip shows positive for nitrites, leukocytes, and blood.
      What test should be conducted to properly diagnose the condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Non-contrast CTKUB

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with symptoms of renal colic, such as severe pain that radiates from the loin to the groin, a non-contrast CT-KUB is the preferred imaging test to detect any renal calculi and ensure there is no obstruction caused by them. In cases where an infected, obstructing stone is suspected, urgent nephrostomy may be necessary. Abdominal x-rays are not reliable for detecting calculi and should not be used as an indication for this type of investigation. A CT abdomen and pelvis is unnecessary and may expose the patient to unnecessary radiation. A CTKUB with contrast is also not recommended as it may mask the appearance of calculi. While ultrasound can be used to detect renal calculi, CT is more accurate and is now recommended as the first-line investigation. In cases where infection is suspected, CT is superior in assessing the anatomy and identifying any potential obstruction or collection that may require invasive intervention, such as nephrostomy insertion.

      The management of renal stones involves initial medication and investigations, including an NSAID for analgesia and a non-contrast CT KUB for imaging. Stones less than 5mm may pass spontaneously, but more intensive treatment is needed for ureteric obstruction or renal abnormalities. Treatment options include shockwave lithotripsy, ureteroscopy, and percutaneous nephrolithotomy. Prevention strategies include high fluid intake, low animal protein and salt diet, and medication such as thiazides diuretics for hypercalciuria and allopurinol for uric acid stones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 48 - For a young adult who experiences occasional mild bronchoconstriction symptoms without any identified...

    Incorrect

    • For a young adult who experiences occasional mild bronchoconstriction symptoms without any identified trigger or night-time symptoms and is not currently taking any medication, which drug therapy combination is appropriate? Please choose ONE option from the list provided.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Salbutamol and beclomethasone inhaler

      Explanation:

      Understanding Asthma Treatment: BTS/SIGN Guidelines

      Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition that affects millions of people worldwide. The British Thoracic Society/Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (BTS/SIGN) has developed a stepwise approach to managing asthma symptoms. The goal is to achieve complete control of symptoms while minimizing side effects from medication.

      Step 1 involves using a short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA) on an as-needed basis and a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) regularly. If symptoms persist, step 2 involves adding a long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) to the ICS. Step 3 involves increasing the ICS dose or adding a leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) if the LABA is ineffective. Step 4 involves increasing the ICS dose or adding a fourth medication, such as a slow-release theophylline or a long-acting muscarinic receptor antagonist (LAMA). Step 5 involves using a daily steroid tablet in the lowest effective dose while maintaining high-dose ICS and considering other treatments to minimize the use of steroid tablets.

      It is important to note that the management of asthma in children under 5 years of age is different. Patients at step 4 or 5 should be referred for specialist care. Complete control of asthma symptoms is defined as no daytime or nighttime symptoms, no need for rescue medication, no asthma attacks, no limitations on activity, and normal lung function with minimal side effects from medication.

      In summary, the BTS/SIGN guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to managing asthma symptoms. By following these guidelines, patients can achieve complete control of their symptoms while minimizing the risk of side effects from medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 49 - In people aged 45-64, what is the most frequent cause of blindness? Choose...

    Incorrect

    • In people aged 45-64, what is the most frequent cause of blindness? Choose ONE option from the list provided.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diabetic retinopathy

      Explanation:

      Common Eye Conditions: Causes and Prevalence

      Diabetes can lead to various ophthalmic complications, including glaucoma, cataracts, and neuropathies, but the most common and potentially blinding is diabetic retinopathy. This condition accounts for 12% of all new cases of blindness in developed countries and is the leading cause of new blindness in people aged 25-64 years. Glaucoma, a group of eye diseases that damage the optic nerve, is more prevalent in the aging population, with up to 15% affected by the seventh decade of life. Age-related macular degeneration (AMD) is the most common cause of irreversible vision loss in the developed world, with non-exudative (dry) AMD comprising more than 90% of patients diagnosed with AMD. Optic atrophy, a sign of many disease processes, can cause changes in the color and structure of the optic disc associated with variable degrees of visual dysfunction. Finally, corneal abrasion, caused by a disruption in the integrity of the corneal epithelium or physical external forces, is the most common eye injury. While most people recover fully from minor corneal abrasions, deeper scratches can cause long-term vision problems if not treated properly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 50 - A 72-year-old man presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath. Upon examination, reduced breath sounds and dullness to percussion are noted in the right axilla. His heart rate is 98 bpm, blood pressure is 100/75 mmHg, respiratory rate is 30 per minute, and his oxygen saturation is 93% on room air. Blood tests, including an arterial blood gas with the patient on 2L/minute oxygen via a nasal cannula, reveal the following results:

      Hb 142 g/l Na+ 140 mmol/l
      Platelets 502 * 109/l K+ 4.2 mmol/l
      WBC 15.8 * 109/l Urea 6.9 mmol/l
      Neuts 14.2 * 109/l Creatinine 90 µmol/l
      Lymphs 1.6 * 109/l CRP 205.4 mg/l
      pH 7.29
      pO2 12.5 kPa
      pCO2 2.2 kPa
      HCO3- 13 mmol/l
      Base excess -7.2
      Lactate 3.1 mmol/l

      A chest x-ray shows consolidation of the right middle zone with blunting of the right costophrenic angle. The left lung field is clear. Based on these findings, what is the most likely acid-base disorder present in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A partially compensated metabolic acidosis

      Explanation:

      The patient in this scenario has an acute sepsis with a right middle lobe pneumonia as the likely cause. The blood gas results show an acidosis with low bicarbonate and high lactate, indicating a metabolic cause. However, the pCO2 is low due to tachypnea, which suggests respiratory compensation for the metabolic acidosis. If the pH were normal, it would be considered a fully compensated acidosis, but since the patient is still acidotic, it is classified as a partial compensation. Normal blood gas ranges for pH, pO2, pCO2, and HCO3- are 7.35-7.45, 10.0-14.0 kPa, 4.5-6.0 kPa, and 22-26 mmol/l, respectively. A mixed acidosis would show both low bicarbonate and high pCO2, while an uncompensated metabolic acidosis would have low bicarbonate and normal pCO2, and an uncompensated respiratory acidosis would have high pCO2 and normal bicarbonate.

      Arterial Blood Gas Interpretation Made Easy

      Arterial blood gas interpretation can be a daunting task for healthcare professionals. However, the Resuscitation Council (UK) has provided a simple 5-step approach to make it easier. The first step is to assess the patient’s overall condition. The second step is to determine if the patient is hypoxaemic, which is indicated by a PaO2 level of less than 10 kPa on air. The third step is to check if the patient is acidaemic or alkalaemic, which is determined by the pH level. A pH level of less than 7.35 indicates acidaemia, while a pH level of more than 7.45 indicates alkalaemia.

      The fourth step is to assess the respiratory component by checking the PaCO2 level. A PaCO2 level of more than 6.0 kPa suggests respiratory acidosis, while a PaCO2 level of less than 4.7 kPa suggests respiratory alkalosis. The fifth and final step is to evaluate the metabolic component by checking the bicarbonate level or base excess. A bicarbonate level of less than 22 mmol/l or a base excess of less than -2mmol/l indicates metabolic acidosis, while a bicarbonate level of more than 26 mmol/l or a base excess of more than +2mmol/l indicates metabolic alkalosis.

      To make it easier to remember, healthcare professionals can use the ROME acronym. Respiratory is opposite, which means that low pH and high PaCO2 indicate acidosis, while high pH and low PaCO2 indicate alkalosis. Metabolic is equal, which means that low pH and low bicarbonate indicate acidosis, while high pH and high bicarbonate indicate alkalosis. By following this simple approach, healthcare professionals can easily interpret arterial blood gas results and provide appropriate treatment for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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