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  • Question 1 - A 56 year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease and Crohn's...

    Correct

    • A 56 year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease and Crohn's disease presents with colonic enterocutaneous fistulae. He undergoes surgery and a temporary ileostomy is created for bowel dysfunction and healing promotion. However, two days after the operation, he experiences palpitations and the surgical team seeks your assistance.

      Upon examination, his pulse rate is 220 bpm and blood pressure is 135/90 mmHg. Oxygen saturation is 96% on 2L nasal oxygen. A clear chest is observed during auscultation. A 12-lead ECG shows a wide-complex tachycardia with a polymorphic waveform.

      The morning blood tests reveal the following results: Hb 129 g/l, platelets 643 * 109/l, WBC 13.8 * 109/l, Na+ 129 mmol/l, K+ 3.3 mmol/l, phosphate 0.63 mmol/l, Mg++ 0.59 mmol/l, urea 8.1 mmol/l, creatinine 97 µmol/l, bilirubin 15 µmol/l, ALP 143 u/l, ALT 53 u/l, and albumin 31 g/l.

      What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Magnesium sulphate 2g

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing polymorphic ventricular tachycardia, which is likely caused by an electrolyte imbalance. As a first step, all medications that may prolong the QT interval should be discontinued. The priority is to correct any electrolyte abnormalities, particularly hypokalemia. Administer 2 g of magnesium sulfate intravenously over 10 minutes (equivalent to 8 mmol).

      If the patient exhibits adverse symptoms such as shock, syncope, myocardial ischemia, or heart failure, immediate synchronized cardioversion should be arranged.

      Managing Ventricular Tachycardia

      Ventricular tachycardia is a type of rapid heartbeat that originates in the ventricles of the heart. In a peri-arrest situation, it is assumed to be ventricular in origin. If the patient shows adverse signs such as low blood pressure, chest pain, heart failure, or syncope, immediate cardioversion is necessary. However, in the absence of such signs, antiarrhythmic drugs may be used. Amiodarone is the preferred drug and should be administered through a central line. Lidocaine should be used with caution in severe left ventricular impairment, and verapamil should not be used in VT. If drug therapy fails, an electrophysiological study (EPS) or implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) may be needed, especially in patients with significantly impaired LV function. It is important to note that a broad complex tachycardia may result from a supraventricular rhythm with aberrant conduction, so proper diagnosis is crucial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      41
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 45 year old man has been referred to the endocrinology clinic for...

    Correct

    • A 45 year old man has been referred to the endocrinology clinic for investigation and management of his persistently raised blood pressure. Despite being on ramipril 5mg once daily for four weeks, his blood pressure remains elevated between 170/100 mmHg and 180/110 mmHg. During the consultation, the patient mentions experiencing headaches for the past year, along with increased stool frequency and looser stools. He also reports flushing episodes and feeling that his clothes are looser than they were a year ago. The patient's family history includes his mother having a breast lump removed and his father having a pancreatic mass removed. On examination, the patient is tall with a wide arm span, and has a minor tachycardia of 95 bpm and a quiet systolic flow murmur. A 24h urinary catecholamine test arranged by the GP showed raised levels of total urine catecholamines at 210 mcg/24hr. A CT of the abdomen and pelvis was reported as normal, except for a few incidental simple renal cysts. Urinalysis in clinic today showed no leucocytes or blood, but did show glucose. Which test is most likely to determine the cause of the patient's hypertension?

      Your Answer: MIBG (metaiodobenzylguanidine) scan

      Explanation:

      Secondary Causes of Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, can be caused by various factors. While primary hypertension has no identifiable cause, secondary hypertension is caused by an underlying medical condition. The most common cause of secondary hypertension is primary hyperaldosteronism, which accounts for 5-10% of cases. Other causes include renal diseases such as glomerulonephritis, pyelonephritis, adult polycystic kidney disease, and renal artery stenosis. Endocrine disorders like phaeochromocytoma, Cushing’s syndrome, Liddle’s syndrome, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, and acromegaly can also result in increased blood pressure. Certain medications like steroids, monoamine oxidase inhibitors, the combined oral contraceptive pill, NSAIDs, and leflunomide can also cause hypertension. Pregnancy and coarctation of the aorta are other possible causes. Identifying and treating the underlying condition is crucial in managing secondary hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      149.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 16-year-old female presented to her general practitioner with complaints of slight breathlessness...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female presented to her general practitioner with complaints of slight breathlessness on exertion for the past six months. During examination, a soft systolic murmur was heard at the left sternal edge. An echocardiogram was ordered and she was referred to a cardiologist for further evaluation. The results of her cardiac catheterization are as follows:

      Anatomical site Oxygen saturation (%) Pressure (mmHg) End systolic/End diastolic
      Superior vena cava 74 -
      Inferior vena cava 70 -
      Right atrium (high) 72 7 (mean)
      Right atrium (mid) 71 7 (mean)
      Right atrium (low) 82 7 (mean)
      Right ventricle 79 44/12
      Pulmonary artery 81 42/15
      Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure - 9
      Left ventricle 96 125/9
      Aorta 97 120/70

      What are the expected abnormalities on her electrocardiogram?

      Your Answer: Left ventricular strain

      Correct Answer: Right bundle branch block

      Explanation:

      Abnormal Connection between Right and Left Sides of the Heart

      The oxygen saturation in the right atrium (RA) and superior vena cava (SVC) should be equal, but there is a rise in oxygen saturation at the low RA level. This can only occur due to the addition of oxygenated blood to the deoxygenated blood in the right heart circulation, indicating an abnormal connection between the right and left sides of the heart. The location of the rise suggests a primum atrial septal defect (ASD), which affects the function of the anterior leaflet of the mitral valve, leading to mitral regurgitation. Primum ASDs are more likely to cause high right ventricular pressures.

      In ostium primum ASDs, the atrioventricular (AV) node is displaced posteriorly and inferiorly, and atrial and/or AV nodal conduction is often delayed. This can cause prolongation of the PR interval, leading to first-degree heart block. The QRS pattern is typically an rSr’ or rsR’, resulting from dilation and hypertrophy of the right ventricular outflow tract due to volume overload of the right heart. Left axis deviation with Q waves in leads I and aVL is also observed. On the other hand, secundum ASDs cause right axis deviation and RBBB.

      Overall, an abnormal connection between the right and left sides of the heart can lead to various complications, including mitral regurgitation, high right ventricular pressures, and delayed conduction through the AV node. The location and type of ASD can also affect the QRS pattern and axis deviation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      108.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 75-year-old man was found to have left ventricular dysfunction and hypertrophy on...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man was found to have left ventricular dysfunction and hypertrophy on an echocardiogram following an acute myocardial infarction. He was prescribed ramipril 2.5mg, bisoprolol 2.5mg, atorvastatin 10mg, and aspirin 75mg before discharge. The patient had a medical history of osteoporosis and was taking Calcichew D3 forte and alendronic acid. He did not smoke or drink alcohol. Upon admission, his kidney function was as follows:

      - Sodium: 136 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 3.7 mmol/L
      - Urea: 7.0 mmol/L
      - Creatinine: 120 micromol/L
      - eGFR: 64 ml/min/1.73m²

      Ten days after starting the new medication, the patient's GP checked his bloods to adjust the dose of ramipril as per the discharge letter from the cardiology team. The results were:

      - Sodium: 134 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 4.2 mmol/L
      - Urea: 8.0 mmol/L
      - Creatinine: 156 micromol/L
      - eGFR: 50 ml/min/1.73m²

      What is the appropriate management for this patient's declining renal function?

      Your Answer: Continue the ramipril and repeat the bloods in one week

      Explanation:

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      74.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 57 year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease and type...

    Incorrect

    • A 57 year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease and type 2 diabetes mellitus is six hours post right curative hemicolectomy for bowel malignancy. While in the surgical high-dependency unit, he is found to be tachycardic on the monitor.

      Upon examination, the patient appears comfortable. His pulse rate is 200 bpm and his blood pressure is 148/79 mmHg. Oxygen saturations are 98% on 2L/min nasal oxygen, and capillary refill is 2 seconds. The chest is clear to auscultation.

      A 12-lead ECG reveals a regular broad complex tachycardia with a monomorphic waveform at a rate of 200bpm.

      postoperative blood tests reveal:

      Hb 131 g/l
      Platelets 563 * 109/l
      WBC 13.4 * 109/l
      Na+ 141 mmol/l
      K+ 4.1 mmol/l
      Mg++ 0.87 mmol/l
      Urea 4.2 mmol/l
      Creatinine 121 µmol/l
      Bilirubin 23 µmol/l
      ALP 109 u/l
      ALT 34 u/l
      Albumin 33 g/l

      What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Magnesium sulphate 2g IV

      Correct Answer: Amiodarone 300mg IV

      Explanation:

      When dealing with ventricular tachycardia, it is recommended to follow the resuscitation council guidelines. If there are no signs of shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, or heart failure, the best course of action is to administer 300mg of amiodarone intravenously as the initial treatment.

      Managing Ventricular Tachycardia

      Ventricular tachycardia is a type of rapid heartbeat that originates in the ventricles of the heart. In a peri-arrest situation, it is assumed to be ventricular in origin. If the patient shows adverse signs such as low blood pressure, chest pain, heart failure, or syncope, immediate cardioversion is necessary. However, in the absence of such signs, antiarrhythmic drugs may be used. Amiodarone is the preferred drug and should be administered through a central line. Lidocaine should be used with caution in severe left ventricular impairment, and verapamil should not be used in VT. If drug therapy fails, an electrophysiological study (EPS) or implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) may be needed, especially in patients with significantly impaired LV function. It is important to note that a broad complex tachycardia may result from a supraventricular rhythm with aberrant conduction, so proper diagnosis is crucial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      67
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 40-year-old man presents to his GP with worries about undergoing invasive procedures....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man presents to his GP with worries about undergoing invasive procedures. He underwent a tissue aortic valve replacement five years ago due to infective endocarditis that did not improve with medical treatment.

      Would he need prophylactic antibiotics for any of the following?

      Your Answer: Dental procedures

      Correct Answer: Gastrointestinal investigation at a site where there is suspected infection

      Explanation:

      Antibiotic Prophylaxis for Infective Endocarditis

      Antibiotic prophylaxis is not recommended for people undergoing dental or non-dental procedures in the upper and lower gastrointestinal tract, genitourinary tract, and upper and lower respiratory tract. This includes procedures such as urological, gynaecological, obstetric, childbirth, ear, nose, throat, and bronchoscopy. Chlorhexidine mouthwash should also not be used as prophylaxis against infective endocarditis for those at risk undergoing dental procedures.

      In summary, antibiotic prophylaxis is not necessary for most procedures, and chlorhexidine mouthwash should not be used as a substitute. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine if antibiotic prophylaxis is necessary for specific procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old man presents to the Cardiology Clinic with worsening shortness of breath...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the Cardiology Clinic with worsening shortness of breath on exertion over the past year. He denies any history of wheezing and has not responded to a trial of albuterol inhalers. Upon further questioning, he reports intermittent chest pain during exertion and has experienced near-fainting episodes in the last month. On examination, his blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg and his pulse is 80 bpm. His BMI is 25kg/m2. He has a raised JVP with giant v-waves and a left parasternal heave. An ECG shows sinus rhythm with right axis deviation.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Loeffler syndrome

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary artery hypertension (IPAH)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Young Patient with Pulmonary Hypertension

      Idiopathic pulmonary artery hypertension (IPAH), previously known as primarily pulmonary hypertension (PPH), is a rare condition characterized by elevated pulmonary artery pressure without a clear cause. A typical presentation for IPAH includes syncope and ECG findings of right ventricular hypertrophy. Treatment typically involves calcium channel blockers, anticoagulation, and nebulized prostacyclin.

      Ischemic heart disease is unlikely in a young patient with no significant risk factors for coronary artery disease, despite intermittent chest pain on exertion. Chronic pulmonary emboli can lead to chronic pulmonary hypertension, but there are no risk factors for venous thromboembolism or DVT symptoms described. Loeffler syndrome, characterized by acute onset pulmonary eosinophilia, typically occurs secondary to an external trigger, which is not evident in this case. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) can cause significant breathlessness, but the ECG shows no features to suggest significant left ventricular hypertrophy, which would be expected if HCM was the underlying diagnosis.

      In summary, the differential diagnosis for a young patient with pulmonary hypertension includes IPAH, but other conditions such as ischemic heart disease, chronic pulmonary emboli, Loeffler syndrome, and HCM should also be considered and ruled out.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      168.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You are working in the general medical clinic where a 45 year old...

    Correct

    • You are working in the general medical clinic where a 45 year old man comes for review following a recent, short admission to hospital where he was treated for a paracetamol overdose. He has no past medical history of hypertension or any other problems.

      During the review, he is found to have a manual blood pressure reading of 155/90 mmHg. Clinical examination of cardiovascular and respiratory systems are normal, as is urine dip and fundoscopy. Given this information what should be your next course of management in relation to his blood pressure?

      Start lisinopril
      10%
      Offer ambulatory blood pressure monitoring
      80%
      Arrange to check blood pressure again following a two week interval
      5%
      Start nifedipine
      2%
      Screen for causes of secondary hypertension
      3%

      In 2011 the National Institute for Clinical Excellence updated its 2006 guideline for the management of hypertension (see the link below for the quick reference guide). Within this guideline, the first line use of ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) to confirm hypertension in those found to have an elevated clinic reading (> 140/90 mmHg) is emphasised. When using ABPM to confirm a diagnosis of hypertension, two measurements per hour are taken during the persons waking hours. The average value of at least 14 measurements are then used to confirm a diagnosis of hypertension.

      Generally speaking, secondary causes of hypertension should be sought in; patients under 40 who lack traditional risk factors for essential hypertension, patients with other signs and/or symptoms of secondary causes, and patients with resistant hypertension. Although in reality the most common cause of secondary hypertension is hyperaldosteronism, and as such a trial of an aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone is often employed as both a therapeutic and diagnostic measure.

      Drug treatment of essential hypertension can be summarised as follows, but for a more detailed explanation see the link below;
      Step 1; Age <55 - ACE inhibitor. Age >55 or of black African or Caribbean origin - calcium channel blocker
      Step 2; ACE inhibitor + calcium channel blocker
      Step 3; ACE inhibitor + calcium channel blocker + thiazide-like diuretic
      Step 4; consider further diuretic or beta-blockade or alpha blocker and seeking expert advice?

      Your Answer: Offer ambulatory blood pressure monitoring

      Explanation:

      In 2011, the National Institute for Clinical Excellence updated its guideline for managing hypertension, emphasizing the use of ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) as the first line of diagnosis for those with elevated clinic readings. ABPM involves taking two measurements per hour during waking hours and using the average of at least 14 measurements to confirm hypertension.

      Secondary causes of hypertension should be investigated in patients under 40 without traditional risk factors, those with other symptoms, and those with resistant hypertension. Hyperaldosteronism is the most common cause, and a trial of spironolactone may be used for both diagnosis and treatment.

      Drug treatment for essential hypertension follows a stepwise approach, with ACE inhibitors recommended for those under 55 and calcium channel blockers for those over 55 or of black African or Caribbean origin. Combination therapy with ACE inhibitors and calcium channel blockers is recommended in step 2, followed by the addition of a thiazide-like diuretic in step 3. Further diuretics, beta-blockers, or alpha blockers may be considered in step 4, with expert advice sought. For more detailed information, see the provided link.

      NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.

      To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.

      If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.

      ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.

      Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      63.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 24-year-old man presents to the emergency department with chest pain that has...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old man presents to the emergency department with chest pain that has been ongoing for 2 days. The pain is moderate and worsens with inhalation. He has been generally healthy, but had to take a few days off work last week due to the flu.

      During the examination, the patient is sitting forward and groaning in pain when asked to lie flat. His heart sounds are normal and his chest is clear. He experiences tenderness in his trapezius and scapular muscles, but is able to flex his neck.

      The following are the patient's laboratory results:
      - Na+ 135 mmol/l
      - K+ 4.9 mmol/l
      - Urea 4.2 mmol/l
      - Creatinine 86 µmol/l
      - Hb 130 g/l
      - Platelets 354 * 109/l
      - WBC 4.5 * 109/l
      - Lymphocytes 0.1* 109/l

      A chest X-ray reveals clear lung fields and a normal heart contour. What ECG finding would be the most specific in the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: PR depression

      Explanation:

      Acute Pericarditis: Causes, Features, Investigations, and Management

      Acute pericarditis is a possible diagnosis for patients presenting with chest pain. The condition is characterized by chest pain, which may be pleuritic and relieved by sitting forwards. Other symptoms include non-productive cough, dyspnoea, and flu-like symptoms. Tachypnoea and tachycardia may also be present, along with a pericardial rub.

      The causes of acute pericarditis include viral infections, tuberculosis, uraemia, trauma, post-myocardial infarction, Dressler’s syndrome, connective tissue disease, hypothyroidism, and malignancy.

      Investigations for acute pericarditis include ECG changes, which are often global/widespread, as opposed to the ‘territories’ seen in ischaemic events. The ECG may show ‘saddle-shaped’ ST elevation and PR depression, which is the most specific ECG marker for pericarditis. All patients with suspected acute pericarditis should have transthoracic echocardiography.

      Management of acute pericarditis involves treating the underlying cause. A combination of NSAIDs and colchicine is now generally used as first-line treatment for patients with acute idiopathic or viral pericarditis.

      In summary, acute pericarditis is a possible diagnosis for patients presenting with chest pain. The condition is characterized by chest pain, which may be pleuritic and relieved by sitting forwards, along with other symptoms. The causes of acute pericarditis are varied, and investigations include ECG changes and transthoracic echocardiography. Management involves treating the underlying cause and using a combination of NSAIDs and colchicine as first-line treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      71.2
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  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old man presents to the cardiology unit with a history of transient...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the cardiology unit with a history of transient ischaemic attack and exertional syncope murmur. He reports deteriorating exercise tolerance. On examination, he has atrial fibrillation, a mid diastolic murmur, finger clubbing, and low grade pyrexia. His BP is 144/72 mmHg and pulse is 82. Investigations show a haemoglobin level of 130 g/L, white cell count of 6.4 ×109/L, platelets of 293 ×109/L, sodium of 137 mmol/L, potassium of 4.2 mmol/L, creatinine of 111 µmol/L, and ESR of 78 mm/hr. The autoimmune profile is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Subacute bacterial endocarditis

      Correct Answer: Atrial myxoma

      Explanation:

      Cardiac Tumors and Mitral Stenosis

      The combination of a murmur, atrial fibrillation, syncope, and raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) may indicate the presence of a cardiac tumor leading to symptoms of mitral stenosis. Myxomas are more commonly seen than rhabdomyomas in this context, and surgical excision is the preferred treatment. However, rhabdomyomas are associated with tuberous sclerosis, which is not evident in this case. Additionally, the presence of raised ESR, clubbing, and pyrexia makes mitral stenosis alone unlikely. Rheumatic heart disease is also an unlikely explanation, as there is no history of rheumatic fever or a related illness. Finally, the absence of normochromic normocytic anemia and mitral regurgitation makes endocarditis less likely. Overall, the presence of a cardiac tumor should be considered in cases of mitral stenosis with these accompanying symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      201.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiology (5/10) 50%
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