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Question 1
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Question 2
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Question 3
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A 30 year old patient attends for non-invasive pre-natal screening for Down's syndrome. You advise her that the result will take the form of a risk score and higher risk results will be offered CVS or amniocentesis. What is the cut-off figure between low and high risk?
Your Answer: 1 in 150
Explanation:1 in 150 is the cut off. Where pre-natal screening shows a risk of 1 in 150 or greater invasive testing is typically offered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 4
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What kind of biochemical changes occur during the luteal phase of menstrual cycle?
Your Answer: High progesterone levels
Explanation:Menstrual cycle can be divided into the follicular phase and luteal phase. In the luteal phase, there is an increase in progesterone secretion and LH levels are low. If the ova is fertilized, it is implanted in the endometrium. In case of failure in fertilization, there is gradual decrease in progesterone and LH levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 36-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with a complaint of headache, irritability, abdominal bloating, anxiety, and breast tenderness around 4 to 5 days before menstruation for the last 8 months. There's also a limitation on daily activities and she has to take a week off from work. The patient's symptoms are relieved completely with the onset of menstruation. Which of the following suggests an appropriate diagnosis?
Your Answer: Premenstrual syndrome
Explanation:This patient meets the diagnostic criteria for premenstrual syndrome.
Affective and somatic symptoms over the five days before menses in each of the three previous menstrual cycles are diagnostic criteria for premenstrual syndrome.
Affective symptoms include:
– Depression.
– Anger outbursts.
– Irritability.
– Anxiety.
– Confusion.
– social withdrawal.
Somatic symptoms include:
– breast tenderness
– abdominal bloating
– headache and swelling of extremities.
Symptoms normally disappear within four days of menstruation and are present even when no medical therapy, drugs, or alcohol are used.Premenstrual dysphoric disorder is a severe form of premenstrual syndrome marked by intense melancholy, emotional lability with frequent crying, loss of interest in daily activities, reduced focus, exhaustion, sleeplessness, and a sense of being overwhelmed or out of control.
Symptoms must have been present for the majority of the previous 12 months, interfering with daily activities.The diagnoses of generalised anxiety disorder and depression alone are doubtful.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 6
Correct
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The number of chromosomes in the human somatic cell is:
Your Answer: 46
Explanation:In eukaryotes, the genome comprises several double-stranded, linear DNA molecules bound with proteins to form complexes called chromosomes. Each species of eukaryote has a characteristic number of chromosomes in the nuclei of its cells. Human body cells (somatic cells) have 46 chromosomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
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Question 7
Correct
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Regarding the foetus, which one of the following statements is true?
Your Answer: Fetal lie describes the long axis of the foetus to the long axis of the mother
Explanation:Fetal lie describes the relationship of the long axis of the foetus with respect to the long axis of the mother.
Coronal suture is the transverse suture separating the parietal bone from the frontal bone.
Umbilical cord is composed of two arteries and one vein. the vein carries the oxygenated blood, whereas the arteries contain the deoxygenated blood.
At the time of birth, the anterior fontanelle is open and appears as a soft jelly like structure. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 8
Correct
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old woman complains of a greenish foul smelling discharge from her left nipple. She has experienced the same case before. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Breast abscess
Correct Answer: Duct ectasia
Explanation:Mammary duct ectasia occurs when the lactiferous duct becomes blocked or clogged. This is the most common cause of greenish discharge. Mammary duct ectasia can mimic breast cancer. It is a disorder of peri- or post-menopausal age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female is being investigated for subfertility. At what day of her menstrual cycle should blood be collected for progesterone, if she has a regular 28-day menstrual cycle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Day 21
Explanation:Maximum levels of progesterone are detected at day 21 of 28 days in the menstrual cycle, assuming that ovulation has occurred at day 14. A value of >30nmol/l indicates an ovulatory cycle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old college student comes to your clinic for contraception guidance. For the past three months, she has had migraine-like headaches once or twice a month. For the past two years, she has been taking combined oral contraceptive pills. Which of the following suggestions is the most appropriate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stopping the combined oral contraceptive pills and starting progesterone only pills (POP)
Explanation:Combined oral contraceptives are a safe and highly effective method of birth control, but they can also raise problems of clinical tolerability and/or safety in migraine patients. It is now commonly accepted that, in migraine with aura, the use of combined oral contraceptives is always contraindicated, and that their intake must also be suspended by patients suffering from migraine without aura if aura symptoms appear.
Discontinuation of contraception could risk in pregnancy. Barrier methods can be used but aren’t as effective as pills.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old pregnant woman in her third trimester, was admitted with headache, abdominal pain and visual disturbances. Shortly after, she had a fit. What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4g MgSO4 in 100ml 0.9% Normal saline in 5 min.
Explanation:The woman is most probably suffering from eclampsia.
Magnesium sulphate (MgSO4) is the agent most commonly used for treatment of eclampsia and prophylaxis of eclampsia in patients with severe pre-eclampsia. It is usually given by either intramuscular or intravenous routes. The intramuscular regimen is most commonly a 4 g intravenous loading dose, immediately followed by 10 g intramuscularly and then by 5 g intramuscularly every 4 hours. The intravenous regimen is given as a 4 g dose, followed by a maintenance infusion of 1 to 2 g/h by controlled infusion pump. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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You are asked to speak to a 27 year old patient who is pregnant for the first time. She is concerned as her friend recently gave birth and the baby was found to have profound hearing loss. Her friend was told this was due to an infection whilst she was pregnant. What is the most common infective cause of congenital hearing loss?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus
Explanation:CMV is the most common congenital infection causing sensorineural deafness.
10-15% of infected infants will be symptomatic at birth. A further 10-15% who are asymptomatic at birth will develop symptoms later in life. Transmission can also be via breastmilk and the incubation period for CMV is 3-12 weeks. Diagnosis of fetal CMV infection is via amniocentesis however this should not be performed for at least 6 weeks after maternal infection and not until the 21st week of gestation -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents to you for oral contraceptive pills. Her past medical history reveals that she has migraine headaches on occasions, associated with paraesthesia's in her right arm. Examination reveals that she weighs 120kg and has a BMI of 36. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate contraceptive methods for her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Condoms
Explanation:This woman suffers from a classic migraine with focused neurological symptoms. The use of any OCP preparation containing oestrogen in such patients is strictly prohibited. Androgenic consequences of progesterone include hirsutism, acne, and weight gain. Progesterone of any sort (norgestrel, drospirenone, cyproterone, etc.) should be avoided by a lady of her size; consequently, a barrier approach such as male condoms is the best option.
It is recommended that formulations containing 20-30 mcg ethinylestradiol be evaluated first when choosing a combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). The progesterone component can be norgestrel, drospirenone, cyproterone, and so on; however, norgestrel-containing formulations are less expensive and more accessible to patients.
For specific cases, the type of progesterone should be considered:
– Patients who have unpleasant fluid retention and weight gain as a side effect of COCPs may be administered drospirenone (Yaz®. Yasmin®)-containing preparations.
– Drospirenone inhibits the production of mineralocorticoids and does not cause fluid retention. It may even be linked to a small amount of weight reduction.
– A preparation containing cyproterone acetate is preferable if the patient has suspected polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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All of the following factors increase the risk of endometrial cancer except which one?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: High Coffee Consumption
Explanation:The risk factors for uterine carcinoma include obesity, diabetes, Nulliparity, late menopause, unopposed oestrogen therapy, tamoxifen therapy, HRT and a family history of ovarian or uterine carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following drugs is associated with reduced milk production whilst breastfeeding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cabergoline
Explanation:Domperidone and metoclopramide are D2 dopamine receptor antagonists. They are primarily used to promote gastric motility. They are also known as galactagogues and they promote the production of milk. Cabergoline and bromocriptine are prolactin inhibitors and they reduce milk production.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 41 year old woman is referred to EPAU with spotting in early pregnancy. What is the risk of miscarriage in women in this age group?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Miscarriage rates:
20-24 – 9%
25-29 – 11%
30-34 – 15%
35-39 – 25%
40-44 – 51%
>45 – 75% -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman presents for difficulty and pain in attempting sexual intercourse. She states that she never had such symptoms prior. The pain is not felt at the time of penetration, but appears to hurt deeper in the vagina. She was recently pregnant with her first child and delivery was three months ago. She did not have an episiotomy or sustain any vaginal lacerations during delivery. She denies any vaginal bleeding since her lochia had stopped two months ago. She is still breastfeeding her child. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her dyspareunia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atrophic vaginal epithelium.
Explanation:This is a patient that recently gave birth and is still breastfeeding presenting with dyspareunia. The most likely cause would be a thin atrophic vaginal epithelium. This is very common presentation and is due to the low oestrogen levels due to the prolactin elevation from breastfeeding.
An unrecognised and unsutured vaginal tear should have healed by this time and should not be causing issues.
Endometriosis tends to resolve during a pregnancy, but if this was the issue, it would have caused dyspareunia prior to pregnancy.
Vaginal infective causes of dyspareunia, such as monilial or trichomonal infections, are rare in amenorrhoeic women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 30 year old women who is 24 weeks pregnant attends clinic due to suprapubic pain. Ultrasound shows a viable foetus and also a fibroid with a cystic fluid filled centre. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cystic degeneration of fibroid
Explanation:A fibroid is a benign tumour of the smooth muscles of the uterus also known as a leiomyoma. It has a typical whorled appearance and this may be altered following degeneration which occurs in four main types:
1. Red degeneration, also known as carneous degeneration, of degeneration that can involve a uterine leiomyoma. While it is an uncommon type of degeneration, it is thought to be the most common form of degeneration of a leiomyoma during pregnancy. Red degeneration follows an acute disruption of the blood supply to the fibroid during growth typically in a mid-second trimester presenting as sudden onset of pain with tenderness localizing to the area of the uterus along with pyrexia and leucocytosis. On ultrasound it can have peripheral (rim).2. Hyaline degeneration is the most common form of degeneration that can occur in a uterine leiomyoma. It is thought to occur in up to 60% of uterine leiomyomasoccurs when the fibroid outgrows its blood supply. this may progresses to central necrosis leaving a cystic space in the centre knowns as cystic degeneration.
3. Cystic degeneration is an uncommon type of degeneration that a uterine leiomyoma (fibroid) can undergo. This type of degeneration is thought to represent ,4% of all types of uterine leiomyoma degeneration. When the leiomyoma increases in size, the vascular supply to it becomes inadequate and leads to different types of degeneration: hyaline, cystic, myxoid, or red degeneration. Dystrophic calcification may also occur. Hyalinization is the commonest type of degeneration. Cystic degeneration is an extreme sequel of edema. Ultrasound may show a hypoechoic or heterogeneous uterine mass with cystic areas.
4. Myxoid degeneration of leiomyoma is one of the rarer types of degeneration that can occur in a uterine leiomyoma. While this type of degeneration is generally considered rare, the highest prevalence for this type of degeneration has been reported as up to 50% of all degenerations of leiomyomas. Fibroids (i.e. uterine leiomyomas) that have undergone myxoid degeneration are filled with a gelatinous material and can be difficult to differentiate from cystic degeneration; however, they typically appear as more complex cystic masses. They appear hypocellular with a myxoid matrix.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 20
Incorrect
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If a sample of cervical mucus is taken on the 12th day of the menstrual cycle and examined under the microscope, what kind of findings would be observed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A fern pattern characteristic of oestrogen
Explanation:Fern test looks for a specific fern like pattern of cervical mucus when observed under light microscope after the sample is dried. It occurs due to the presence of sodium chloride under oestrogen influence whereas progesterone opposes it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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All are true about monozygotic pregnancy, EXCEPT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The 1st commonly presents as breech
Explanation:The 1st commonly presents as cephalic. Monozygotic (MZ) twins originate when a single egg is fertilized to form one zygote, which then divides into two embryos. Although they share the same genotype they are not phenotypically identical.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 30 year old woman with a history of two previous C section deliveries, is rushed to the hospital for an emergency c-section at 36 weeks gestation due to antenatal haemorrhage. Upon examination of the uterus, the placenta has invaded the myometrium but the serosa is spared. Which of the following identifies this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Placenta Increta
Explanation:Abnormal placental adherence to the uterus, generally termed Placenta Accreta, is divided into 3 conditions.
– Placenta accreta: refers to the invasion of the chorionic villi beyond the decidual surface of the myometrium.
– Placenta increta: the villi invade deep into the myometrium but spare the serosa;
– Placenta percreta: the chorionic villi invade through the myometrium, penetrate the uterine serosa, and may invade surrounding pelvic structures.These conditions can predispose patients to obstetric bleeding in the third trimester, often requiring emergency intervention.
Risk factors in the development of an abnormal placental adherence include previous c-sections. Placenta Previa, is also a cause of antepartum haemorrhage and serves as a risk factor in the development of abnormal placental adherence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 29 year old patient presents due to the sensation of reduced fetal movements (RFM). From what gestation is CTG assessment of RFM advised?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 28+0 weeks
Explanation:The cardiotocograph (CTG) is a continuous tracing of the fetal heart rate used to assess fetal wellbeing. The Doppler effect detects fetal heart motion and allows the interval between successive beats to be measured, thereby allowing a continuous assessment of fetal heart rate. The mother perceives the fetal movement by the 18-20 week of gestation and these increase until the 32 week. A mother should under go CTG if the fetal movements are reduced by the 28 week of gestation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old pregnant woman visits to you at 17 weeks of gestation with complaint of eruption or rash, followed by a 2-day history of malaise, low grade fever and rhinorrhea. You suspect measles and order serology tests for her. Serology report shows that lgM against measles is positive with a negative lgG. Among the following which is the most appropriate next step in management of this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Contact tracing
Explanation:The given case scenario describes a typical case of measles in a pregnant woman, which is confirmed by serologic studies. Positive lgM in serology is suggestive of acute infection, while a negative lgG confirms that the infection is in early phase without any seroconversion.
Conservative management of the symptoms and its potential complications is the only management plan therapeutically available after contracting measles. ‘Notification’ and contact tracing are the other very important issues to be considered.
Measles is a notifiable disease and healthcare professionals are mandated on reporting all the identified cases of measles to the authorized public health units. The main objective of this notification is to conduct a contact tracing.MMR vaccine is not useful once measles is contracted, as the vaccine is used for prevention of measles and as prophylaxis in post-exposure cases. For those with contact to a case of measles, MMR vaccine within 72 hours of contact may have a protective effect, but all measles-containing vaccines like MMR and MM RV are contraindicated throughout pregnancy even as prophylaxis.
As the circulating maternal antibodies will cross placenta and enters into the fetal circulation, a positive test does not confirm infection in the fetus. So serologic testing of the fetus is not useful.
NHIG is not useful in treating an established case of measles, as it is used as a post-measles exposure prophylactic for patients such as pregnant women, premature babies, etc who are contraindicated to MMR vaccine.
As both symptoms and lgM levels indicate measles infection, repeating measles-specific serologic test is not useful in this case. In general no test is indicated, unless its result has an impact on the further management of the case or any prognostic value.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman presents to the clinic. She explains she has had 2 episodes of postcoital bleeding. Her previous medical history reveals she is currently taking the oral contraceptive pill (OCP) and has never had an abnormal pap smear, including one that was performed a year ago. What is the most probable cause of her postcoital bleeding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A cervical ectropion
Explanation:The most likely cause of her postcoital bleeding is cervical ectropion as suggested by her postcoital bleeding, normal pap smears and use of oral contraceptive pills.
Cervical ectropion is a benign condition that occurs as a result of overexposure to oestrogen. Here, glandular cells (the columnar epithelium) lining the endocervix, begin to grow on the ectocervix, leading to exposure of the columnar cells to the vaginal environment.
These columnar cells are prone to trauma and bleeding during coitus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 40 year old women has a transvaginal ultrasound reported as showing a 6cm x 5cm cystic mass of the right ovary with multiple septa noted and varying degrees of echogenicity within locules. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mucinous cystadenoma
Explanation:The characteristics of the mucinous cystic adenoma of the ovaries is the presence of a large tumour which is multicystic and the penetration of the peritoneum into the cavities forming septas. The serous tumours can only be differentiated on the bases of the contents.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Data Interpretation
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Regarding the biophysical profile:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Includes fetal movement, fetal tone, fetal breathing, fetal heart rate & amniotic fluid
Explanation:The biophysical profile is a composite test that collects 5 indicators of fetal well-being, including fetal heart rate reactivity, breathing movements, gross body movements, muscular tone, and quantitative estimation of amniotic fluid volume. The assessment of fetal heart rate is accomplished by performing a non-stress test, whereas the latter 4 variables are observed using real-time ultra-sonography.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Lidiya is a 30-year-old hospital nurse in her nine weeks of pregnancy. She has no history of chickenpox, but by regularly attending the facial sores of an elderly patient with herpes zoster ophthalmicus she has been significantly exposed to shingles. What would you advise her as preventive management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: If she had chicken pox immunization in the past, she needs to have her Varicella-Zoster IgG antibodies checked to assure immunity
Explanation:Patient in the given case is nine weeks pregnant, and she has been exposed to a herpes zoster rash because she is working as a hospital nurse and has no prior history of chickenpox.
The most appropriate next step in this case would be checking for Varicella-Zoster IgG antibodies which assures immunity to varicella infections. If VZV IgG is present no further action is needed, but if VZV IgG antibodies are absent, then she will need Varicella Zoster Immunoglobulins within ten days from the exposure to shingles. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which of the following arteries branches directly from the aorta?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ovarian
Explanation:The uterine and vaginal arteries branch from the internal iliac artery. The ovarian artery branches direct from the aorta.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old woman's blood results after having secondary amenorrhoea that lasted for 6 months are: Testosterone = 3.4 nmol/L (<1.6), Oestradiol = 144 pmol/L (100-500), LH = 12 U/L and FSH = 4 U/L. What sign or symptom is she likely to have?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Biochemical features suggest that this patient has polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). It is associated with signs and symptoms of hyperandrogenism (oligomenorrhea, irregular menstruation, hirsutism, hair loss, and acne) and elevated testosterone. PCOS patients are often overweight or obese, have insulin resistance (treated with Metformin) and an adverse risk profile for cardiovascular disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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